PHÒNG GD & ĐT GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC MÔN VĂN HÓA LỚP 9

-----***----- NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024

Môn thi : Tiếng Anh- Bài 1
Thời gian : 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi : /09/2023
(Đề chính thức) (Đề thi có 06 trang)
SECTION A – LISTENING (15 pts)
Part 1. You will hear someone talking on the radio about a Language Study Fair.
For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. In each
space, use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. You will listen to the CD twice. (5
points)
The Language Study Fair
th th
Dates: 17 to 19 (0) of March
Place: National Education Centre
Fair includes: - stands with textbooks
- (1) ………………….. by educational speakers
- exhibition of furniture
- demonstrations of latest (2)……………………
Opening hours: 9.30 a.m. – 5.00 p.m. Thursday and Friday
9.30 a.m. – 4.00 p.m. (3)………………………
Tickets: £5
or £3 for (4)…………………………..
Tickets can be booked by ringing (5) …………………. on 984 7711.
Part 2. You are going to listen to an introductory talk about a new agricultural
park. listen and decide whether the following statements are T( true) or F ( fasle)
6.The experimental areas are opened to the public once a year
7. According to the talk, bicycles are not allowed in the park.
8.Cows and horses are not kept in the park because they do not have
facilities for big animals.

9. The main purpose of having the Rare Breeds Section is to attact the
visitors
10. Fruit trees are in their full blossom in May.
Part 3. Listen to a talk about the Women's Conference and choose the correct option.
11. How many meetings are going to be held from August to September in Beijing?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
12. When will the Non-governmental Organization Forum of Women be held?
A. From August 13 to September 8, 1995.
B. From August 30 to September 8, 1995.
C. From September 4 to September 15, 1995.
D. From September 4 to September 16, 1995.
13. Where was the Third World Conference on Women held?

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A. In Beijing. B. In Mexico City. C. In Copenhagen. D. In Nairobi.
14. How many people are expected to attend the Fourth World Conference on Women?
A. 30,000 B. 184 C. About 6,000 D. About 60,000
15. How many years has it taken to prepare for the Fourth World Conference in
Beijing?
A. 13 years B. 10 years C. 5 years D. 3 years
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
the rest in the same line. (3 pts)
16. A. eliminate B. expedition C. separate D. preparation
17. A. condition B. policeman C. introduction D. product
18. A. discuss B. pressure C. pessimist D. impossible
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. (2 pts)
19. A. complicated B. community C. employment D. extended
20. A. eternal B. essential C. immoral D. practical
SECTION C : VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21. The two runners crossed the line ______
A. sometimes B. simultaneously C. frequently D. occasionally
22. I went to Spain on holiday ________, but I made a lot of friends there.
A. single B. alone C. lonely D. free
23. In Britain it is _______ for children to attend school between the ages of 5 and 16.
A. enforced B. obliged C. compulsory D. made
24. I’m not _________ to your plan but it needs modifying.
A. objected B. opposed C. disputed D. conflicted
25. Competitive ______ is an essential requirement for success in the entertainment
industry.
A. mind B. thought C. spirit D. soul
26. Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn’t take
them……………
A. as a rule B. as usual C. out of habit D. for granted
27. My father gave me as a birthday present on my birthday.
A. a digital useful alarm clock B. an alarm useful digital clock
C. a useful alarm digital clock D. a useful digital alarm clock
28. He’s even worse than his sister ..................... maths.
A. at B. with C. in D. for
29. Turn off this radio, please. The harsh sound really ……………………… me crazy.
A. takes B. worries C. bothers D. drives
30. She ………………………… fainted when she heard that her mother died.
A. utmost B. most all C. all most D. almost
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form.(8 pts)

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31. Without their valuable assistance we (never, gather) …………………..enough
money for our son’s operation.
32. There was no sign indicating that the cottage ( break) ……………….into.
33. Her eyes were red because she (cry) …………………..
34. I don’t appreciate (interrupt) …………………..when I’m speaking.
35-36. I realized that someone (steal) ……………..my wallet when I (feel)
…………………. their hand in my jacket pocket.
37. I waited under the clock! – So did I, but I didn’t see you! We ( wait) ……....under
different clocks.
38. The woman (accuse) …………..of the killing said that she was at the cinema at the
time.
Question III. Supply the correct form of the words given. (7 pts):
39. We could barely hear ourselves speak above the …………….roar of the sea.
(DEAF)
40. The roots of these plants are……………….., so we use them for food. (EAT)
41. Are all those ............................ they put in food really necessary? (ADD)
42. Scholarship and awards are usually given on the ………………….. . (DAILY)
43. He was fined $50 and ……………from driving for three years. (QUALIFY)
44. It was ……………..of him to leave the children on their own in the pool.
(RESPONSE)
45. The bride was ………………………..dressed in white. (STYLE)

Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text ( from 46 to 50 ). Identify each
mistake, write it down and give your correction. (5pts)
Example: Line 1: don’t – doesn’t
Environmental sustainability mean that it don’t do harmful to the environment. That
means that we need a positive energy balance to start with. If producing a renewable
energy device costs more energy as it produces during its lifetime, it’s not sustainable
because we’re a net consumer of energy. But there’s a material side to it as well. Mining
coal is bad for the environment, but mining neodymium and other rarely earth metals for
wind turbines is equally polluted. Let’s not close our eyes for what’s happening:
anything that’s mined destroys complete ecosystems. And we can only guess if
submerging to complete ecosystems by building hydropower dams is less destructive.

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only ONE word in each space (10pts)
We do not know how art began any more than we know how language started. If we
take art to mean (51) __________ activities as building temples and houses, making
pictures and sculptures, or weaving patterns, there are (52) ___________people in all
the world without art. If, on the other hand, we mean by art some kind of beautiful
luxury, we must realize that (53) __________ use of the word is a very recent
development and that many of the outstanding artists of the past never thought of it. We

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can best understand this difference if we think of architecture. We all (54) __________
that there are beautiful buildings and that some of them are true (55) ___________ of
art. But there is (56) ____________ any building in the world which was not erected for
a particular purpose. Those who use these buildings as places of worship or
entertainment, or as dwellings, judge them first and foremost by the standards of utility.
But apart from this, they may like or (57) ______________ the deign or the proportion
of the structure. In the (58) __________ the attitude to paintings and statues was often
similar. We are not (59) ___________ to understand the art of the past if we are quite
ignorant of the (60) ________ it had to serve.
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. (10 pts)
We are what our ancestors ate
Food is more than a biological necessity, and the rituals surrounding it play a central
role in every society in the world. Almost all of life’s milestones (61) _______food-
from a child’s birthday party to a first date. Animals may get together to (62)_______
the rewards of the hunt and eat (63)_______ by side, but only humans spend so much
time on food preparation and derive so much (64) _______from it. It is this observation
that has led some scientists to investigate the theory that it was the development of the
(65) _______arts that triggered the (66) ______ of humans from their ape-like cousins.
The (67) _______ difference between us and apes could have developed once people
started eating cooked food. Smaller teeth were now able to (68)_______ the softer food
and a larger brain and body resulted from a higher (69) _______ intake. Central to this
theory is the supposition that the history of cooking goes back almost two million years,
although we may never know that kind of recipes prehistoric chefs put together.
Ironically, a new kind of cuisine called living foods is based on the concept that the less
food is cooked the better and that no food should be(70) ______ above 118℉.
Apparently this is conductive to a long and healthy life. If this is true, scientists have a
great deal of research to do before they can answer the question of why humans are
unike other species in preferring cooked to raw food.
61. A. involve B. touch C. swallow D. reminisce
62. A. devour B. nibble C. chop D. crave
63. A. meal B. round C. side D. safe
64. A. likeness B. greed C. pride D. pleasure
65. A. cooking B. culinary C. feeding D. kitchen
66. A. evolution B. exposure C. process D. omission
67. A. natural B. ample C. organic D. physical
68. A. wean B. chew C. stir D. pour
69. A. calorie B. savoury C. metabolic D. consumer
70. A. seasoned B.feasted C.heated D. greased
Question III.Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions below.(10
Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve it,
and that the easiest way to do this was to expose the food to sun and wind. In the way
the North American Indians produced pemmican (dried meat ground into powder and

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made into cakes), the Scandinavians made stockfish and the Arabs dried dates and
apricots.
All foods contain water-cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as
93% water, potatoes and other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything
from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of
the bacteria which cause food to go bad is checked.
Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterranean
countries, and also in California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary,
but in general the fruit is spread out on trays in drying yards in the hot sun. In order to
prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are exposed to the fumes of burning
sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for
making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to crack the skins
of the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, so increasing the rate of drying.
Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such
dehydration is to put food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures
of about 1100C at entry to about 450C at exit. This is the usual method for drying such
things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.
Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them
over a heated horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through
which a current of hot air passes. In the first case, dried material is scraped off the roller
as a thin film which is then broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In
the second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where
recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are
dried separately and then mixed.
Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans
or frozen, and they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they
are invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space.
They are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.
71. What is the main idea of the passage?
A- Advantages of dried foods B- Water: the main component of food
C- Mechanization of drying foods D- Different methods of drying food
72. The phrase “do this” in the first paragraph mostly means_____________.
A- expose foods to sun and wind B- remove moisture from foods
C- produce pemmican D- moisten foods
73.The word « checked » in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A- reduced considerably B- put a tick
C- examined carefully D- motivated to develop
74. In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ___________.
A- move their wax coating B- kill off bacteria
C- maintain their color D- crack their skin
75. Nowdays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is _________.

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 A- spreading them out on trays in drying yards
B- dipping them in an alkaline solution
C- putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through
D- pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder
76. What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to ?
A- vegetables B- foods C- things D- chambers
77. The final products of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be
_____.
A- small flakes B- fine powder C- dried soup D- recognizable pieces
78. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A- Liquids are not dried in the same way as fruits and vegetables
B- Dried foods have several advantages over canned or frozen foods.
C- Fruit is usually dried by being laid out on trays in the sun.
D- People in India began to use drying methods centuries ago.
79. According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ____________.
A- explorers who are underweight B- soldiers who are not in
battle
C- people who are not on the move D- housewives who have
little storage space
80. This passage is mainly ___________.
A- argumentative B- analytical C- informative D- fictional
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
81. Although I tried hard, I couldn’t lift the suitcase.
-> Try as……………………………………………………………..
82. The film didn’t come up to my expectations.
-> The film fell ………………………………………………………..
83. Julia isn’t to blame for the negligence by any means.
-> By no means ……………………………………………………….. .
84. It rumored that we will have a new manager.
-> Rumor has ……………………………………………………………. .
85. There are no problems of communication between members of the same social class
-> It is easy………………………………………………………………………...
Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one,
using the words given. (5 pts)
86. I did not know it was Mike until he took off his hat. (WHEN)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
87. I do not mind at all if you film my wedding speech. (OBJECTION)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
88. She assumed that the tribe wouldn’t understand her. (UNDER)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
89. A great many people will congratulate her if she wins. (SHOWERED)

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 …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
90. I remained neutral during their disagreement because I liked both of them.
(SIDES)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Question III. Paragraph writing (10 pts).
Write a paragraph of about 130-160 words to express your idea on the following
statement:
Some people say that computers have made life easier and more convenient. Other
people say that computers have made life more complex and stressful. What is your
opinion? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer

-------------------THE END ------------------

Họ và tên thí sinh: ................................................... Số báo danh: .......................

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 ĐÁP ÁN
SECTION A: LISTENING (15pts)
Part 1. Part 1:
1. talk(s)
2. computer program(s)
3. Saturday
4. full-time student(s)
5. the hotline
Part 2
6. F 7. F 8. T 9. F 10. T
Part 3.
11. A 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. D

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
the rest in the same line. (3 pts)
16. A 17.D 18.B
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other
three words in each question. (2 pts)
19.A 20.D
SECTION C : VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21.B.
22. B
23.C
24.B
25.C
26. D
27.D
28. A
29.D
30.D
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form.(8 pts)
31. would never have gathered
32. had been broken
33. had been crying……..
34. being interrupted
35. was stealing
36. felt
37. must have waited
38. accused…

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Question III. Supply the correct form of the words given. (7 pts):
39. deafening
40. edible
41. addictives
42. speech day
43. disqualified
44. irresponsible
45. stylishly
Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text ( from 46 to 50 ). Identify each
mistake, write it down and give your correction. (5pts)
Line 1. harmful -> harm
Line 2: as -> than
Line 4: rarely -> rare
Line 5: polluted -> polluting
Line 66: to complete -> complete
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only ONE word in each space (10pts)
51. such;
52. no / few;
53. this ;
54. know/ realize/agree ;
55. works/examples;
56. scarcely / hardly;
57. dislike ;
58. past;
59. likely / able / ready;
60. aim / purpose
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or
phrase for each space. (10 pts)

61 A Involve: có liên quan đến

62 A Devour: ăn ngốn ngấu
63 C Side by side: close together
64 D Collocation; derive pleasure from …….(có niềm vui từ …..)
65 B Collocation : Culinary art (nghệ thuật nấu ăn)
66 A Evolution: sự tiến hóa
67 D Physical: thể xác
68 B Chew: nhai
69 A Calorie: kalo
70 C Heated: đun nóng
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions below.
(10

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71- D 72- B 73- A 74- C 75- C
76- D 77- A 78- D 79- C 80- C
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
81. Try as hard as I might, I couldn’t lift the suitcase.
82. The film fell short of my expectations.
83. By no means is Julia to blame for the negligence
84. Rumor has it that we will have a new manager.
85. It is easy for members of the same social class to communicate with one another /
……………
Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first
one, using the words given. (5 pts)
86. Only when he took off his hat did I recognize Mike.
87. I have no objection to you filming my wedding speech.
88. She was under the assumption/ impression that the tribe wouldn’t understand her.
89. She will be showered with congratulations if she wins.
90. I didn’t take sides during their disagreement because I liked both of them.
Question III. Paragraph writing (10 pts)
Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme:
1.Format (2 pts)
The paragraph must include a topic sentence, supporting ideas and a concluding
sentence.
2. Content ( 5 pts)
Ideas are presented with coherence and cohesion, style and clarity.
3. Language (3 pts)
A provision of a variety of vocabulary, good use and control of grammatical structures,
good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:

- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 100 điểm
- Thang điểm: 20

Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng

Điểm bài thi =
5

- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25

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