QUESTION BOOKLET

REN Paper II

QUESTIONBOOKLETNO. : 5467
Name: ............................ :................. Hall Ticket No.: .............................. .

Centre: ............................................ .

Time : Two hours Total Marks : 150

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

BEFORE ANSWERING, PLEASE READ THE INSTRUCTIONS

CAREFULLY.

1. Write your Name, Hall Ticket No., Centre Name in the space provided on this
booklet above.
!

2. Please darken the c_orrect choice on the answer sheet with the help of the
HB pencil. DO NOT USE PEN or INK to darken the appropriate box.

3. Please write the particulars, like Name and Hall Ticket No. etc., as asked on
the Answer Sheet USING INK or BALL POINT PEN.

4. Answer Sheet along with Question Booklet must be submitted to the invigilator
as soon as the time is over.

5. Each question carries one (1) mark.

6. Use of calculators, cell phones, slides and logarithmic tables is strictly

prohibited.

7. For any rough work, use the rough page given at the end of this booklet.

8. Please select only one alternative (A, B, C, D) for each question.

9. Please avoid overwriting or markings on question paper.

 •·
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists
List- I List- II
·- (a) Butler Committee Report (i) J allianwala Bagh Massacre
(b) Hurtog Committee Report (ii) Relationship between the Indian
States and Paramount power
(c) Hunter Inquiry Committee Report (iii) Working ofDyarchy as laid down in
the Montague-Chelmsford reforms
(d) Muddiman Committee Report (iv) The growth of education in British India
Potentialities of its further progress
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

2. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim rig~t to

(A) Freedom of religion (B) Freedom of trade and profession
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty (D) Equality before the law

3. With reference to the Indian Freedom Struggle, which one of the following statements
is not correct?
(A) Hakim Ajmal Khan was one of the leaders to start a nationalist and militant
Ahrar movement
(B) When the Indian National Congress was formed, Sayyid Ahmad Khan opposed it
(C) The All-India Muslim League which was formed in 1906 vehemently opposed the
partition of Bengal and separate electorates
(D) Maulana Barkataullah and Maulana Obeidullah Sindhi were among those who
formed a provisional Government of India in Kabul
Directions (Qs. 4 - 8) : Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). In the context of these two statements,
which of the following is correct? Mark either (A) or (B) or
(C) or (D).

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

4. Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August movement of 1942 as the most
serious revolt after the Sepoy mutiny.
Reason (R) Peasants joined the movement in large number in some places.

3 REN
5. Assertion (A) : The Aham and Puram poem.s of the Padinen Kilkanakku group
formed a continuation of the Sangam composition.
Reason (R) They were included under the Post-Sangam works as against the
Sangam works proper.

6. Assertion (A): The emphasis of Jainism of non-violence (ahimsa) prevented

agriculturalists from embracing J ainism.
Reason (R) Cultivation involved killing of insects and pests.

7. Assertion (A) : The origin of feudal system in ancient India can be traced to military
campaigns.
Reason (R) There was considerable expansion of the feudal system during the
Gupta period.

8. Assertion (A) : Ashoka annexed Kalinga to the Mauryan Empire.

Reason (R) Kalinga controlled the land and sea routes to South India.

9. The earliest evidence of silver in India is found in the

(A) Harappan culture (B) Chalcolithic cultures of Western India
(C) Vedic texts (D) Silver punch- marked coins

10. Which of the following statements regarding Indus valley civilization is incorrect?
(A) The supreme god was the pipal god
(B) Excavations at Lothal proved that the civilization was confined to Harappa and
Mohenjodaro only
(C) People had great artistic sense
(D) There was a great communal bath in Mohenjodaro

11. Which of the following usages was a post-vedic development?

(A) Dharma-Arth-Kama-Moksha
(B) Brahmana-Kshatriya-Vaishya-Shudra
(C) Brahmacharya-Grihastashrama-Vanaprastha-Sanyasa
(D) Indra-Surya-Rudra-Marut

12. Which of the following animals was known to ancient vedic people?
(A) Elephant (B) Bear (C) Tiger (D) Lion

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13. Who was the greatest Buddhist commenter of the Buddhist canonical literature?
(A) Buddhaghosha (B) Vasumitra (C)· Nagarjuna (D) Ashvaghosha

14. Anbapali whose name occurs in the early Buddhist literature was
(A) A nun from Vaishali (B) A courtesan of Pataliputra
(C) The author of the work Buddhacharita(D) None of these

15. The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is

(A) Priyadarsi (B) Dharmadeva (C) Chakravarti (D) Dharmakirti

16. Indicate the correct chronological order of dynasties in North-West India.

(A) Kushanas, Sakas, Parthians (B) Sakas, Kushanas, Parthians
(C) Parthians, Sakas, Kushanas (D) Sakas, Parthians, Kushanas

17. The monk whom Chandragupta Maurya accompanied to South India was
(A) Asvaghosha (B) Vasumitra (C) Upagupta (D) Bhadrabahu

18. Which of the following are correctly matched?

Persons Event
1. Sultan Mahmud - Sack of Somnath
2. Muhammad Ghori - Conquest of Sind
3. Alauddin Khilji - Revolt in Bengal
4. Muhammad bin Tughlaq - Changiz Khan's invasion
(A) 1 and3 (B) 2 only (C) 1 only (D) 2 and4

19. Sri Perumbudur, a temple town in South, is the birth place of

(A) Adi Shankaracharya (B) Vidyaranya
(C) Madhavacharya (D) Ramanuja

20. Which of the following is not true of the European renaissance?

(A) It developed interest in science and fostered a spirit of adventure
(B) It aimed at organising anti-church movements
(C) It was a intellectual movement
(D) It found expression in the revival of the study of ancient Greco-Roman classics

21. The book 'social contract' was written by

(A) Aristotle (B) Diderot (C) Voltaire (D) Rousseau

22. The discovery of sea-route from Europe to India was made by

(A) Marco Polo (B) Magellan (C) Vasco-da-Gama (D) Columbus

5 REN
23. Which of the following events occurred first?
(A) American war of independence .(B) Russian Revolution
(C) French Revolution (D) Chinese Revolution

24. The communist Manifesto was first published in

(A) German (B) French (C) English (D) Russian

25. Which year is associated with the outbreak of world war II?
(A) 1935 (B) 1937 (C) 1938 (D) 1939

26. Who wrote a 'Book on Surgery' in ancient India?

(A) Chanakya (B) Susuratha
(C) Aryabhatta (D) Kumara Gupta

27. Which ancient ruler wept because he had no more place to conquer?
(A) Alexander (B) Napoleon
(C) Caesar (D) None of the above

28. The first electric train in India ran between

(A) Chennai and Tambaram (B) Kalyan and Poona
(C) Koehl and Thirvananthapuram (D) Delhi and Simla

29. Which country has the oldest national anthem?

(A) Italy (B) Syria (C) Japan (D) Scotland

30. Name the Muslim ruler who captured Dindigul fort.

(A) Hyder Ali (B) Aurangazeb
(C) Shershah (D) None of the above

31. What was the capital of ancient Ceylon?

(A) Anuradhapuram (B) Nuvaraleia
(C) Colombo (D) None of the above

32. Who wrote 'Ram Charit Manas'?

(A) Kabir (B) Mahavir (C) Tulsidas (D) Valmiki

33. Lord Wellesley greatly extended the British Dominion through

(A) subsidiary alliance (B) doctrine of lapse
(C) annexing princely states (D) partitioning of India

REN 6
34. Who built the 'Red Fort'?
(A) Akbar (B) Aurangazeb (C) Lord Linlithgow (D) Shahjahan

35. Abraham Lincoln is known for

(A) Land reforms (B) External policies
(C) Abolition of slavery (D) Independence movement

36. Whom did Mahatma Gandhi referred to as "Patriot of Patriots"?

(A) Sardar Patel (B) Subhas Chandra Bose
(C) J awaharlal Nehru (D) Bhagat Singh

37. The first battle of Panipat in 1526 was fought between

(A) Mahmud Lodi and Babur (B) Ibrahim Lodi and Babur
(C) Rana and Babur (D) Shershah and Babur

38. Which of the following was NOT the reason for the Mauryan downfall?
(A) The successors of Ashoka were weak
(B) There was partition after Ashoka
(C) The northern frontier was not guarded effectively
(D) There was economic bankruptcy after the death of Ashoka

39. Kancl:rl was the capital of

(A) The Pallavas (B) The Chalukyas
(C) The Rashtrakutas (D) None of the above

40. Nalanda University flourished during the reign of

(A) Samudra Gupta (B) Harsha
(C) Skanda Gupta (D) None of the above

41. With reference to the Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements
1. External liabilities reported in the Union Budget are based on historical exchange
rates
2. The continued high borrowing has kept the real interest rates high in the economy
3. The upward trend in the ratio of Fiscal Deficit to GDP in recent years has an
adverse effect on private investments
4. Interest payments is the single largest component of the non-plan revenue
expenditure of the union government.
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 · (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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42. With reference to the public sector undertakings in India, consider the following
statements
1. Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation of India Limited is the largest non-oil
importer of the country
2. Project and Equipment Corporation of India Limited is under the Ministry of
Industry
3. One of the objectives of Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited is
to enforce quality control and compulsory pre-shipment inspection of various
exportable ~ommodities.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 only

43. Consider the following statements

The objectives of the National Renewal Fund set up in February 1992 were
1. to give training and counselling for workers affected by retrenchment or VRS
2. redeployment of workers
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(A) Neither 1 nor 2 (B) Both 1 and 2 (C) 1 only (D) 2 only

44. With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Planning commission is accountable to parliament
(B) President can make ordinance only when either of the two houses of parliament
is not in session
(C) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a judge of the supreme court is
40 years
(D) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the
Chief Ministers of all the states

45. With reference to the govemment's welfare schemes, consider the following
statements
1. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, the food-grains are available to the poorest of
the poor families at RS. 2 per kg for wheat and Rs. 3 per kg for rice
2. Under the National Old Age Pension Scheme, the old and destitute are provided
Rs. 75 per month as central pension, in addition to the amount provided- by most
state governments
3. Government of India has allocated 25 kg food-grains per below poverty line family
per month, at less than half the economic cost
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

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46. Consider the following
1. Currency with the public
2. Demand deposits with banks
3. Time deposits with banks
Which of these are included in broad money in India?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2and3 (D) 1,2and3

47. Which one of the following committees recommended the abolition of reservation of
items for the small scale sector in industry?
(A) Abid Hussain Committee (B) Narasimhan Committee
(C) Nayak Committee (D) Rakesh Mohan Committee

48. Five Year Plan in India is finally approved by

(A) Union Cabinet
(B) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(C) Planning Commission
(D) National Development Council

49. The consultative committee of members of parliament for railway zones is constituted
by the
(A) President of India (B) Ministry of Railways
(C) Ministry of Parliamentary affairs (D) Ministry of Transport

50. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the
grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the consolidated fund of India?
(A) Finance Commission (B) Inter-state council
(C) Union ministry of finance (D) Public accounts committee

51. Consider the following functionaries

1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
-L.
Their--correct sequence, in the order of precedence is
(A) 3, 4, 2, 1 (B) 4,3, 1,2 (C) 4, 3, 2, 1 (D) 3, 4, 1, 2

9 REN
 ..
52. Economic liberalisation in India started with
(A) substantial changes in Industrial Licensing Policy
(B) the convertibility of Indian rupee
(C) doing away with procedural formalities for foreign direct investment
(D) significant reduction in tax rates

53. The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana which came into operation from
1-12-1997 aims to provide gainful employment to the urban unemployed or
underemployed poor but does not include
(A) Nehru Rozgar Yojana
(B) Urban basic services programme
(C) Prime Minister's integrated urban poverty eradication programme
(D) Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana

54. Consider the following statements

The Indian rupee is fully convertible
1. in respect of current account of balance of payment
2. in respe~t of capital account of balance of payment
3. into gold
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 alone (B) 3 alone (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3

55. The parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing
International treaties
(A) with the consent of all the states
(B) with the consent of the majority of states
(C) with the consent of the states concerned
(D) without the consent of any state

56. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(A) A Money Bill·can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a
Money Bill or not
(C) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it
for consideration within 14 days
(D) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration

REN 10
 '
57. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists
List- I List- II
(Local bodies) (States as in 1999)
(a) Zilla Parishads at the sub-divisional level (i) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Mandai Praja Parishad (ii) Assam
(c) Tribal councils (iii) Mizoram
(d) Absence of Village Panchayats (iv) Meghalaya
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

58. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the supreme court of India with respect to any
matter included in the union list of legislative powers rests with
(A) The President of India
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Parliament
(D) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Mfairs

59. Consider the following statements

(1) While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with committees on Public
Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of committee on estimates are
drawn entirely from Lok sabha.
(2) The Ministry of Parliamentary Mfairs works under the overall direction of
cabinet committee on Parliamentary Mfairs.
(3) The Ministry of Parliamentary Mfairs nominates members of parliament on
Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of
India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (2) and (3)
(C) (1) and (3) · (D) (1), (2) and (3)

60. The controversial Paul A. Volcker's report pertains to

(A) World bank aid to India
(B) Earthquake assistance to Pakistan
(C) Oil-for-food programme in Iraq
(D) Civil war assistance to Iraq

11 REN
61. The Prices at which the government purcliases food grains for maintaining the public
distribution system and for building up buffer-stocks is known as
(A) Ceiling prices (B) Procurement prices
(C) Minimum support prices (D) Issue prices

62. Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India

(1) It is a banker to the Central Government.
(2) It formulates and administers monetary policy.
(3) It acts as an agent of the Government in respect of India's membership of IMF.
(4) It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India.
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) (3) and (4) (B) (1), (2) and (3)
(C) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (D) (1) and (3)

Directions (Qs. 63- 72): Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). In the context of these two statements, which of
the following is correct? Mark either (A) or (B) or (C) or (D).
(A) Both {A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both {A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

63. Assertion (A) : India enjoys a bicameral legislature in the states

Reason (R) : India's Parliamentary system was borrowed from Britain

64. Assertion (A) : Equality before the law is not applicable to the President of India
Reason (R) : The President of India enjoys special powers and privileges under the
constitution

65. Assertion (A): If the budget presented to the Rajya Sabha is not passed within the
stipulated period, the budget proposals are not affected
Reason (R) : In financial matters, the Lok Sabha is more powerful than the
Rajya Sabha

66. Assertion (A): The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the setting
up of Panchayati Raj in India

Reason (R) : The Indian National Congress earlier adopted a resolution to

introduce Panchayati Raj in independent India

67. Assertion (A) : The Chief Election Commissioner of India is a constitutional

authority
Reason (R) : The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the
President

REN 12
68. Assertion (A) : President of India is the Supre~e executive head of the state
Reason (R) : He holds the supreme command of India's defence forces

69. Assertion (A): In India Political parties which formed the governments represented
the majority of seats secured in the centre and the Legislative
Assemblies in the states but not the majority of votes
Reason (R) : The elections based on the majority vote system decided the result on
the basis of relative majority of votes secured

70. Assertion (A): Only those parties that are recognised as national parties can contest
in elections for parliament
Reason (R) : Recognition to a political party as a national party is accorded by the
Election Commission

71. Assertion (A) : Lot of difference exists between the office of the speaker and that of
the Vice President
Reason (R) : The Vice President is not a member of either House of Parliament

72. Assertion (A): In both Britain and India, parliament is supreme

Reason (R) : Indian constitution is written but constitution of Britain is not
written

73. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election
process in India?
(A) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification
for election is issued by election commission
(B) The recommendation for election is made by the Electio·n Commission and the
notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Center and Home
Departments in the states
(C) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the
notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the states
concerned
(D) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a
notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission

74. Which of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?

(A) According to the Indian constitution local government is not an independent tier
in the federal system
(B) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(C) Local government finances are to be provided by a commission
(D) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a commission

13 REN
75. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared elected
loses his deposit, it means that
(A) the polling was very poor
(B) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(C) the elected candidate's victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(D) a very large number of candidates contested the election

76. Goa, Daman and Diu, Portuguese enclaves in India, became a part of Indian territory
in the year
(A) 1960 (B) 1961 (C) 1962 (D) 1963

77. Several States in North-East India were carved out by separating them from Assam.
Which of following pairs is not among them?
(A) Manipur and Meghalaya (B) Mizoram and Tripura
(C) Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland (D) Manipur and Tripura

78. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha
and the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Elected members to the Lower House of Parliament
(B) Elected members of the Upper House of Parliament
(C) Elected members of the Upper House of State Legislature
(D) Elected members of the Lower House of State Legislature

79. The main sources of law are

(A) Custom, Public Opinion and Speeches of National Leaders
(B) Laws stated in religious texts and moral teachings given by religious leaders
(C) Judgements given by the court of law
(D) Custom, Legislation and Precedents

80. Which of the following is a correct statement of law?

(A) Public interest litigation can be filed by an advocate only
(B) Public interest litigation petitions can be entertained by the Supreme Court,
High Courts and District Courts
(C) Public interest litigation petitions can be entertained by the supreme court as
well as the High Courts
(D) Public interest litigation petitions can be entertained only by the Supreme Court

81. The Guardian of the Indian constitution is

(A) President of India
(B) Parliament of India
(C) Both President and Prime Minister of India
(D) Supreme Court of India

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82. Fourth Estate refers to
(A) Press (B) Prime Minister (C) Supreme Court (D) President

83. A mortgage is o f - - - - - - property while a pledge is o f - - - - - - property

(A) movable, immovable (B) immovable, movable
(C) land, services (D) none of the above

84. 'Medical jurisprudence' - another name of

(A) Medical Transcription (B) Philosophy of Medicine
(C) Forensic Medicine (D) Medical Prescription

85. In which of the following a man is liable independently of the existence of either
wrongful intent or negligence? ·
(A) Strict liability (B) Liability of initio
(C) Liability in exceptio (D) Liability

86. Offence of breaking a divine idol is

(A) Blasphemy (B) Salus populi (C) Crime (D) Sacrilege

87. Supreme Court abolished a Section of Indian Penal Code (I.P.C.), to state that
"punishing a person who has attempted suicide is cruel and inhuman". The section
affected is
(A) Section 498, IPC (B) Section 302, IPC
(C) Section 309, IPC (D) Section 303, IPC

88. The reason (or ground) of a judicial decision is known as

(A) Obiter dictum (B) Ratio decidendi
(C) Ratione sole (D) Ratione tenural

89. Match the following

List- I List- II
(a) Void (i) An act illegal from beginning
(b) Voidable (ii) An act until rescinded, legal
(c) Vis major (iii) Consent is a defence
(d) Volenti non fit injuria (iv) Irresistable force

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

15 REN
90. Who is a Recidivist?
(A) Man with radical ideas (B) Reserved person
(C) Rash person (D) Habitual criminal

91. What does this maxim express "Salus populi est suprema lex"?
(A) Welfare of people is paramount law (B) Law is supreme in society
(C) Law is equal for everyone (D) Everyone is equal before law

92. The meaning of the term 'quasi' is

(A) Null (B) Void (C) As if it were (D) Quashed

93. Consider the following statements

(i) Piracy is an act of robbery on the Sea.
(ii) Piracy is the infringement of copyright.
(A) Only (i) is correct (B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both are correct (D) Both are incorrect

94. What is plea bargaining?

(A) A conference between opposing lawyers and judge to determine the time a case
should take place
(B) A procedure by which a defendant pleads guilty is exchange for a lesser sentence
(C) A conference between opposing lawyers to settle claim
(D) None of the above

95. A rule of inheritance which favours the eldest son

(A) Primogeniture (B) Primus inter pares
(C) Uxorilocal (D) ffitimogeniture

96. Law of contract is a

(A) Private Law (B) International Law
(C) Public Law (D) Conflict of Laws

97. A previous judgement cited by court to decide on a similar set of facts

(A) Judicial dicta (B) Obiter dicta
(C) Precedent (D) Case

98. When a judge makes certain remarks in the course of his judgement, which are said
"by the way'' and do not have direct bearing on the facts at hand, such remarks are
called?
(A) Comments ordinaralis (B) Obiter dictum
(C) Observation (D) Judicial dictum

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99. Who outlined in his "Law of constitution 1881" the concept of "Rule of Law" meaning
a government of Laws rather than of arbitrary individuals?
(A) Blackstone (B) Austin (C) Dicey (D) Salmond

100. A published account of legal proceedings, used by lawyers as basis of searching

preceded is called
(A) Commentary (B) Law Journal (C) Law report (D) Digest

101. Match the following

List· I List· II
(a) Maifeasance (i) One who falsely pretends to be sick
(b) Malingerer (ii) Minor offences
(c) Misdemeanour (iii) Improper performance of legal duty
(d) Misfeasance (iv) Doing an unlawful act
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

102. Defamation by means of writing, print, etc., is legally called

(A) Lex Scripta (B) Liber (C) Libel (D) Liable

103. Consider the following principles

(i) There must be due inquiry
(ii) The accused must be told of his crime
(iii) The accused must be given full opportunity to state his defence
(iv) Decision should be arrived at honestly after accused has been heard
The principles are called
(A) Principles of legal justice (B) Principles of open justice
(C) Principles of retributive justice (D) Principles of natural justice

104. Consider the following statements:

(i) Felonies are minor crimes
(ii) Felonies are major crimes
(iii) Misdemeanors are minor crimes
(iv) Misdemeanors are major crimes
(A) (ii) and (iii) are correct (B) (i) and (iv) are correct
(C) (iii) is correct (D) (iv) is correct
17 REN
105. For a valid contract, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?
(i) Intention to contract
(ii) Consensus ad idem
(iii) Legality of object
(iv) Must be set out in writing
(A) (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) All of the above

106. The Hague conventions of 1899, 1904 and 1907 delineated

(A) Rules of human rights
(B) Rules for non use of chemical weapons
(C) Rules of public international law
(D) None of the above
107. In dowry death cases, one of the following evidence can be clinching to secure
conviction
(A} Dying declaration of the deceased
(B) Evidence of the girl's father
(C) Evidence of girl's mother
(D) Evidence of the girl's husband

108. Code of criminal procedure was enacted in the year

(A) 1973 (B) 1983 (C) 1860 (D) 1873

109. The shortest act passed by the parliament is

(A) Stamp Act (B) Powers of Attorney Act
(C) Arya Marriage Validation Act (D) Court Fees Act

110. International law creates imperfect obligations because

(A) There is a weak man heading the U.N.
(B) There is no agency to enforce it
(C) There are too many conflicts between nations
(D) None of the above

111. Supreme Court is a court of Record. It means

(A) All statements of Supreme Court are binding law
(B) It has power to punish for its contempt
(C) All decisions of Supreme Court are kept in records
(D) Both (A) and (B)

REN 18
112. The members of the Constituent Assembly wh)ch drafted the constitution of India
were
(A) Nominated by the British Parliament
(B) Nominated by the Governor General
(C) Elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces
(D) Elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League

113. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive principles of state policy in the Indian
Constitution is to establish·
(A) Political democracy (B) Social democracy
(C) Gandhian democracy (D) Social and economic democracy

114. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by Five Articles. They
are
(A) Article 16 to Article 20 (B) Article 15 to Article 19
(C) Article 14 to Article 18 (D) Article 13 to Article 17

115. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian constitution empowers the
Presidents to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
(A) 39th (B) 40th (C) 42nd (D) 44th

116. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of state policy deals
with the promotion of International Peace and Security?
(A) 51 (B) 48 A (C) 43 A (D) 41

117. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart
and soul of the constitution?
(A) Right to freedom of religion
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to equaiity
(D) Right to constitutional remedies

118. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 refers to the

(A) Generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under-employed
men and women in rural area
(B) Generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and
desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
(C) Laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the
country
(D) Guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and
equal protection without discrimination
19 REN
119. Match List-! (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List-II (Country from which it
was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List - I List - II
(Item in the Indian Constitution) (Country from which
it was derived)
(a) Directive Principles of state policy (i) Australia
(b) Fundamental Rights (ii) Canada
(c) Concurrent list in Union State Relations (iii) Ireland
(d) India as a union of states with (iv) United Kingdom
greater powers to the union
(v) United States of America
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (v) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
(C) (v) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (v) (i) (ii)

120. Which one of the following bills must be passed by each House of the Indian
Parliament separately, by special majority?
(A) Ordinary Bill (B) Money Bill
(C) Finance Bill (D) Constitution Amendment Bill

121. Which of the following constitutional amendments are related to raising the number
of members ofLok Sabha to be elected from the states?
(A) 6th and 22nd (B) 13th and 38th (C) 7th and 31st (D) 11th and 42nd

122. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists
List- I List- II
(Article of the constitution) (Content)
(a) Article 54 (i) Election of the President of India
(b) Article 75 (ii) Appointment of the Prime Minister and
Council of Ministers
(c) Article 155 (iii) Appointment of the Governor of a State
(d) Article 164 (iv) Appointment of the Chief Minister and
Council of Ministers of a State
(v) Composition of Legislative Assemblies
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)

REN 20
123. The function of pro-tem speaker is to
(A) Conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of the speaker
(B) Officiate as speaker when a speaker is unlikely to be elected
(C) Swear-in members and hold charge till a regular speaker is elected
(D) Check if the election certificates of members are in order

124. Which of the following is NOT the function of the Supreme Court?
(A) Deciding the dispute between two states
(B) Deciding the disputes between the union and the states
(C) Giving advice on any constitutional matter referred to by the President
(D) Give opinion always on the bills pending in Lok Sabha so that the passage of
bills can be stopped

125. The joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is convened when
(A) There is disagreement between the two Houses on a money bill
(B) There is disagreement between the two Houses on a non-money bill
(C) The President addresses both the Houses when a new Lok Sabha is elected or
when first session of both the Houses are held in a year
(D) None of these

126. The provisions relating to the Supreme Court can be amended by the Parliament with
(A) A simply majority
(B) Two thirds majority
(C) Two thirds majority and ratification by not less than half of the states
(D) None of the above

127. Which of the following will NOT constitute consolidated fund in India?
(A) All revenues received by the Government of India
(B) All loans raised by Government of India
(C) Other public money
(D) None of the above

21 REN
128. Match List I with List II and select the c~rrect answer by using the codes given below
the lists

List- I List- II
(Date) (Events)
(a) Jan.24, 1966 (i) Simla Agreement Signed
(b) Dec. 16, 1971 (ii) Death of Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Jan. 10,1966 (iii) Emergence of an independent Bangladesh
(d) July 2, 1972 (iv) Indira Gandhi took the oath of office of
Prime Minister for the first time
(v) Tashkent Agreement

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (v) (iii) (i) (ii)

(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(D) (iv) (iii) (v) (i)

129. Match List I with II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the
lists

List- I List- II
(a) Concept of Rule of Law (i) Legislation repugnant of constitution is void
(b) Concept of Due process (ii) Strict adherence of law prior decisions
(c) Concept of State Decisis (iii) Procedure established
(d) Concept of Judicial (iv) Equality before law-Review

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

REN 22

I
130. Match List I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List II (provisions) and select the
correct answer
List- I List- II
(a) Article 16 (2) (i) No person shall be deprived of his property
save by the authority of law
(b) Article 29 (2) (ii) No person can be discriminated against in
the matter of public appointment on the
ground of race, religion or caste
(c) Article 30 (1) (iii) All minorities whether based on religion or
language shall have the fundamental right
to establish and administer educational
institutions of their code
(d) Article 31 (1) (iv) No citizen shall be denied admission into any
educational institution maintained by the state,
or receiving state aid, on grounds of religion,
race, caste, language or any of them
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

131. Government of India's official book for special information is called

(A) Blue book (B) White book (C) Orange book (D) White paper

132. On the banks of which river is Gandhiji's Sabarmathi Ashram located?

(A) Narmada (B) Tapti (C) Sabarmati (D) Yamuna

133. Which king of England was responsible for the translation of the Bible into English? ·
(A) King James (B) King Aifred (C) King John (D) King George

134. On a fifty rupee note we find the value mentioned, besides English, in
(A) 10 languages (B) 11languages (C) 12 languages (D) 13 languages

135. To whom was the Nobel Prize for peace given first?
(A) Tagore (B) Martin Luther
(C) Jean H. Durant (D) James Adam-President of U.S.A.

136. Southern Rhodesia became Zimbabwe; what did Northern Rhodesia become?
(A) Botswana (B) Zambia (C) Switzerland (D) Burkino Faso

23 REN
 137. "World Development Report" is an annual.publication of
(A) United Nations Development Programme
(B) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development
(C) World Trade Organisation
(D) International Monetary Fund
• 138. Match List-! (Organisation) with List-II (Head Quarters) and select the correct
answer
List- I List- II
(a) International Atomic· Energy Agency (i) Brussels
(b) International Telecommunication Union (ii) Geneva
(c) Council of the European Union (iii) Paris
(d) Organisation of Economic Cooperation (iv) Vienna
and Development
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

139. The world's highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in

(A) Colombia (B) India (C) Nepal (D) Switzerland

140. Consider the following countries

1. Brazil 2. Indonesia 3. Japan 4. Russia
What is the descending order of the size of the following countries population-wise?
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3 (B) 2, 3, 1, 4 (C) 2, 1, 4, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

141. The correct sequence of the eastward flowing rivers of the Peninsular India from
north to south is
(A) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Pennar, Cauvery and Vaigai
(B) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, Pennar and Vaigai
(C) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Pennar and Vaigai
(D) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, Vaigai and Pennar

142. With reference to Indian transport systems, consider the following statements
1. Indian railway system is the largest in the world
2. National Highways cater to 45 percent of the total road transport demand
3. Among the states, Kerala has the highest density of surface road
4. National Highway No.7 is the longest in the country
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4

REN 24
 · 143. A rise in 'SENSEX' means
(A) A rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with Bombay stock exchange
(B) A rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with National Stock
Exchange
(C) An overall rise in prices of shares of group of companies registered with Bombay
• Stock Exchange
(D) A rise in prices of shares of all companies belonging to a group of companies
registered with Bombay Stock Exchange

144. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists ·
L~t-1 L~t-ll
(Minerals) (Major producer)
(a) Mineral oil (i) Zambia
(b) Copper (ii) Guyana
(c) Manganese (iii) Venezuela
(d) Bauxite (iv) Gabon
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

145. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below
the lists
L~t-1 L~t-ll
(Artist) (Medium of Music delivery)
(a) Balamurali Krishna (i) · Hindustani vocal
(b) Mitu Pandit (ii) Ghatam
(c) Kanyakumari (iii) Sitar
(d) Nikhil Bannerjee (iv) Violin
(v) Carnatic Vocal
(a) (b) (c) (d)
~ (A) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (iv) (iii) (i) (v)
• (C) (iii) (i) (v) (ii)
(D) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)

25 REN
 146. Consider the following statements about th~ 'Roaring Forties'

1. They blow uninterrupted in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres

2. They blow with great strength and constancy

3. Their direction is generally from North - West to East in the Southern

Hemisphere

4. Overcast skies, rain and raw weather are generally associated with them.

Which of these statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4

147. The growth rate of per capita income at current prices is higher than that of per
capita income at constant prices, because the latter takes into account the rate of

(A) Growth of population (B) Increase in price level

(C) Growth of money supply (D) Increase in the wage rate

148. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?

(A) Delhi (B) Kolkata (C) Jodhpur (D) Nagpur

149. As per the Human Development Index given by UNDP, which one of the following
sequences of South Asian Countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower
development?

(A) India - Sri Lanka - Pakistan, Maldives

(B) Maldives - Sri Lanka - India - Pakistan

(C) Sri Lanka- Maldives- India- Pakistan

(D) Maldives- India- Pakistan- Sri Lanka

150. Which one of the following countries is land locked?

(A) Bolivia (B) Peru (C) Suriname (D) China

REN 26