18-05-2025

3010CMD303021250008 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body has –80 micro coulomb of charge. Number of additional electrons in it will be :-

(1) 8 × 10–5
(2) 80 × 10–17
(3) 5 × 1014
(4) 1.28 × 10–17

2) Two charge particles are shown in the diagram. Where should a third charge particle q0 be placed
so q0 will be in equilibrium :-

(1) x = 10 a
(2) x = 8 a
(3) x = 11 a
(4) x = 12 a

3) Consider the following charged suspended ball system. If α < β, then the statements which can be

true at equillibrium out of followings are :- (a) Q1 > Q2 , m1 < m2 (b) Q1 > Q2 ,
m 1 > m2
(c) Q1 < Q2 , m1 = m2 (d) Q1 < Q2 , m1 > m2

(1) Only d
(2) Only c
(3) (c, d)
(4) (b, d)

4) Four charges each equal to – Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q at its
centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is :-

(1)
–
(2)

(3)
–

(4)

5) Three point charges lie at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown. All three charges have
the same magnitude, but charge A and B are positive and charge C is negative. The net electric force

that charges B and C exert on A.

(1) is in the +x–direction

(2) is in the –x–direction
(3) is in the +y–direction
(4) is in the –y–direction

6) What is the electric flux linked with closed surface?

(1) 1011 N-m2/C

(2) 1012 N-m2/C
(3) 1010 N-m2/C
(4) 8.86 × 1013 N-m2/C

7) 8 charged drops of mercury each of same radius and surface charge density σ are combined to
form a new drop. The new surface charge density becomes :-

(1) 8 σ
(2) 4 σ
(3) 2 σ
(4) σ

8) In the figure, point A is a distance L away from a point charge Q. Point B is a distance 4L away
from Q. What is the ratio of the electric field at B to that at A, EB/EA?

(1) 1/16
(2) 16
(3) zero
(4) This cannot be determined since neither the value of Q nor the length L is specified.
9) An infinite number of charges, each of charge 1 µC, are placed on the x-axis with co-ordinates x =
1, 2, 4, 8, ...∞. If a charge of 1 C is kept atthe origin, then what is the net force acting on 1 C charge
:-

(1) 9000 N
(2) 12000 N
(3) 24000 N
(4) 36000 N

10) Identify the correct statement about the charges q1 and q2 :-

(1) q1 and q2 both are positive

(2) q1 and q2 both are negative
(3) q1 is positive q2 is negative
(4) q1 is positive and q1 is negative

11) Two point charges are placed at face centre and side centre then flux of cube will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

Five point charges are fixed at their position as shown in figure. The Gauss law is given by
 on LHS of above equation will have a contribution from q1, q5, q3 while qnet on RHS will have
(1)
contribution from q1 and q4
on LHS of above equation will have a contribution from all charges while qnet on RHS will have
(2)
contribution from q2 and q4
on LHS of above equation will have a contribution from all charges while qnet on the RHS will
(3)
have a contribution from q1, q3 and q5
(4) Both on LHS and qnet on the RHS will have contribution from q2 and q4 only

13) A point charge is placed at origin. are electric field due to it, at point (2, 0)m and (0,
2)m respectively. Which of the following options is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14)

An imaginary truncted cone is placed in uniform E then total flux related to it :-

(1) Zero
(2) Non zero
(3) Positive
(4) Negative

15) A sheet of uniform charge density σ is passed through an imginary spherical surface of radius R

as shown in the figure. What will be flux through imaginary surface :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) zero

16) A charged arc of linear charge density λ has radius a. What will be electric field at centre of arc

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Six charges are placed at the vertices of a regular hexagon as shown in the figure. The electric

field on the point O :-

(1)

(2)

(3) O

(4)

18) The |E|–x graph due to the field of two equal and opposite charges is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Two uniformly charged rings of radius R and 2R placed coaxially as in figure. If net electric field
at point P, which is x (x <<< R) distance away from common centre O is zero then which is correct
for charge on rings:-

(1) Q1 = –8Q2
(2) Q2 = –8Q1
(3) Q1 = –4Q2
(4) Q2 = –4Q1

20) A prism shaped imaginary structure is given. A point charge is kept as given in figure. Calculate

electric flux passing through the prism.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
21) A disc of radius R is charged on its surface with surface charged density σ = σ0r3. Here σ0 is a
constant and r is distance from its centre. Total charge on the disc is :-

(1)

(2) 2πσ0R
5

(3)

(4)

22) Three positive charges of equal value q are placed at vertices of an equilateral triangle. The
resulting lines of force should be sketched as in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

0
23) The electric field in a region is given by where E = 2 × 103 NC–1. Find the flux
2
due to this field through a rectangular surface of area 0.2 m parallel to the Y–Z plane.

(1) 24 Nm2/C
(2) 120 Nm2/C
(3) 480 Nm2/C
(4) 240 Nm2/C

24) Five point charges, each of value +q, are placed on five vertices of a regular hexagon of side L.
The magnitude of the force on a point charge of value –q coulomb placed at the center of the
hexagon is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The electric flux through a spherical Gaussian surface is zero. If E be the electric field intensity
at any point on the surface and q be the net charge enclosed, then

(1) E and q must be zero

(2) q must be zero but E may not be zero
(3) E must be zero but q may not be zero
(4) E and q must not be zero.

26) A disk of radius having a uniformly distributed charge 6 C is placed in the X-Y plane with its
centre at (–a/2, 0, 0). A rod of length a carrying a uniformly distributed charge 8 C is placed on the x-

axis from x = to x = . Two point charges –7 C and 3 C are placed at and

, respectively. Consider a cubical surface formed by six surface x = ,y= ,z=

. The electric flux through this cubical surface is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Consider three neutral balls A, B, C. If N1 electrons are transferred from A to B then N2 electrons
from B to C and finaly N3 electrons from C to A. If N1, N2, N3 are positive integers with N1 > N2 > N3
then sign of final charges of A, B, C in sequence is :-

(1) +, –, +
(2) +, –, –
(3) –, +, –
(4) +, +, –
28) Two identical charged spheres of material density , suspended from the same point by
inextensible strings of equal length make an angle between the strings. When suspended in a
liquid of density and the angle remains the same. The dielectric constant K of the liquid is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) What is electric field at distance away from centre of charged ring (Q, R) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Two point charges placed at a certain distance r in a medium of dielectric constant k, exert a
force F on each other. Then the distance r' at which these charges will exert the same force in air is
given by :-

(1) r
(2) r/k
(3)
(4)

31)

In the given diagrams the direction of electric field at point O is given in list-II (O is circumcenter of
the given regular polygon). Charge Q is positive. Match the direction of electric field for the given
arrangement:-

List-I List-II
 (P) (1)

(Q) (2)

(R) (3)

(S) (4)

Code :-
P Q R S

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 3 1 2 4

(3) 3 2 1 4

(4) 1 4 3 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Two semicircular rings lying in same plane, of uniform linear charge density λ have radius r and
2r. They are joined using two straight uniformly charged wires of linear charge density λ and length
r as shown in figure. The magnitude of electric field at common centre of semi circular rings is-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) When a point charge is placed at h (h < r) height above the centre, the flux passed through
curved surface of hemisphere is ϕ. If same point charge is placed below the plane surface at same
distance h from the centre, then what will be flux passed through the curved surface :-

(1) ϕ

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A hollow non conducting sphere is filled by positive charge whose volume charge density is ρ =

. Where ρ0 is constant and r distance from centre of sphere. Find charge contained in sphere :-

(1) 8πρ0 (b – a )
2 2

(2) 4πρ0 (b – a )
2 2

(3) 2πρ0(b – a )
2 2

(4) 2πρ0b
2

35) A square is kept in X-Y palne. Its coordinate at vertices are (0, 0) (0, a), (a, 0), (a, a). If a point
charge q is kept at position (a, a, a) then flux from the square will be -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

36) Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges +10μC and –20μC respectively &
when placed at a distance R from each other experience force . If they are brought in contact and
separated to the same distance, they experience force . The ratio of | | to | | is :-

(1) 1 : 8
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

37) If a glass rod is rubbed with silk it acquires a positive charge because :-

(1) protons are added to it

(2) protons are removed from it
(3) electrons are added to it
(4) electrons are removed from it

38) Two similarly charged bodies :-

(1) must repel each other

(2) must attract each other
(3) must not exert any force on each other
(4) may repel each other

39) If q1 + q2 = 8q then which of the following force between q1 and q2 is not possible :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Two point charges q1 = 2µC and q2 = 1µC are placed at distances b = 1 cm and a = 2 cm from
the origin of the y and x axes as shown in figure. The electric field vector at point P(a, b) will
subtend an angle θ with the x–axis given by :-

(1) tan θ = 1
(2) tan θ = 2
(3) tan θ = 3
(4) tan θ = 4

41) A point charge q is situated at a distance d from one end of a thin non - conducting rod of length
L having a charge Q(uniformly distributed along its length) as shown in fig.Then the magnitude of

electric force between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The dimension of ε0 is :

(1) [M–1 L–3 T4 A ]

2

0
(2) [M L–3 T2 A3]
(3) [M–1 L–3 T3 A]
(4) [M–1 L–3 TA2]

43) A point charge q and mass m is in equilibrium due to the electric field produced by a
uniformely charged Ring of radius R and charge Q as shown. Identify the type of Equilibrium if

charge q is slightly displaced along y axis -

(1) Stable Equilibrium
(2) Unstable Equilibrium
(3) Neutral Equilibrium
(4) Insufficient Information

44) An electric field line emerges from a positive charge + q1 at an angle α and will enter to the

charge - q2 at an angle β with line AB as shown in figure. The ratio is - -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Linear charge density of a half ring varies with θ as . then find the total charge of

ring

(1)
(2) zero
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Van't Hoff factor of Na2SO4 in its aqueous solution will be (Na2SO4 is 80% ionised in the solution)

(1) 1.6
(2) 2.6
(3) 3.6
(4) 4.6

2) Moles of K2SO4 to be dissolved in 12 mol water to lower its vapour pressure by 10 mmHg at a
temperature at which vapour pressure of pure water is 50 mm Hg is :-

(1) 3 mol
(2) 2 mol
(3) 1 mol
(4) 0.5 mol

3) What is the normal boiling point of the solution represented by the phase diagram

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

4) What is molecular weight of a substance whose 7.0% by mass solution in water freezes at –0.93°C.
Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1 :

(1) 140 g mol–1

(2) 150.5 g mol–1
(3) 160 g mol–1
(4) 155 g mol–1

5) An example of colligative property

(1) freezing point

(2) boiling point
(3) vapour pressure
(4) osmotic pressure

6) The Vant Hoff factor (i) for a dilute solution of K3[Fe(CN)6] is :

(1) 10
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 0.25
7) If observed molar mass of acetic acid is more than calculated molar mass then :-

(1) i = 2
(2) i = 1
(3) i > 2
(4) i < 1

8) Which one of the following pairs of solution can we expect to be isotonic at the same
temperature?

(1) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl

(2) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
(3) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4

9) 0.15 g of a solute, dissolved in 15 g of solvent is boiled at a temperature higher by 0.216°C than

that of the pure solvent. The molecular mass of substance (Kb = 2.16) is :-

(1) 1.01
(2) 10
(3) 10.1
(4) 100

10) The osmotic pressure of a 5% w/v solution of cane sugar at 150°C is :-

(1) 4 atm
(2) 3.4 atm
(3) 5.078 atm
(4) 2.45 atm

11) Which of the following solution will have the minimum freezing point :-

(1) 1 molal of glucose in water

(2) 1 molal sucrose in water
(3) 1 molal NaCl in water
(4) 1 molal CaCl2 in water

12) For an ideal solution of A and B which statement is incorrect:

(1) The enthalpy change of mixing of A and B is zero

(2) The volume change of solution A and B is zero
(3) The intermolecular forces of A and B is same as that of A – A and B – B
(4) The entropy change of mixture of A and B is zero

13) Aqueous solution of 0.004 M Na2SO4 and 0.01M glucose solution are isotonic. The degree of
dissociation of Na2SO4 is :-
(1) 25%
(2) 60%
(3) 75%
(4) 85%

14) If liquid A and B form an ideal solution then

(1) Enthalpy of mixing is zero

(2) Entropy of mixing is zero
(3) Free energy of mixing is zero
(4) Free energy as well as entropy of mixing are each zero

15) Calculate mole fractions of urea and water if 2.0 gm of urea is dissolved in 31.4 gm of aqueous
solution.

(1) 0.02, 0.98

(2) 0.04, 0.68
(3) 0.02, 0.78
(4) None of these

16)

100 mL each of 0.5 N NaOH, N/5 HCl and

N/10 H2SO4 are mixed together. Resulting solution will be :-

(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral
(3) Alkaline
(4) None

17) The degree of dissociation of an electrolyte is α and its van't Hoff factor is i. The number of ions
obtained by complete dissociation of 1 molecule of the electrolyte is :-

(1)

(2) i – α – 1

(3)

(4)

18) Consider a binary mixture of volatile liquids. If at XA = 0.4 the vapour pressure of solution is 580
torr then the mixture could be (pA° = 300 torr, pB° = 800 torr) :-

(1) CHCl3–CH3COCH3
(2) C6H5Cl–C6H5Br
(3) C2H5OH–H2O
(4) nC6H14 – n C7H16

19) Henry's law constants for gases are given below at 293 K. Which one is more soluble in water at
that temp. and same pressure:-

(1) A (KH=34.86 Kbar)

(2) B (KH = 69.16 Kbar)
(3) C (KH=144.97 Kbar)
(4) D (KH=88.84 Kbar)

20) 1 mol each of the following solutes are taken in 5 moles water –
(A) NaCl (B) K2SO4
(C) Na3PO4 (D) Glucose
Assuming 100% ionisation of the electrolyte relative decrease in vapour pressure will be in order :–

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) D < C < B < A
(3) D < A < B < C
(4) Equal

21) Which of the following will have the highest freezing point at one atmosphere ?

(1) 0.1 M NaCl solution

(2) 0.1 M sugar solution
(3) 0.1 M BaCl2 solution
(4) 0.1 M FeCl3 solution

22) The vapour pressure of a solution is 3.7 atm. This solutions has been separated from the solvent
by semipermeable membrane. If 4.0 atmosphere external pressure is applied over the solution then:

(1) Osmosis will be stopped

(2) Osmosis will be held in opposite direction
(3) Solute molecules will start migrating
(4) None of the above

23) In which case van't Hoff factor is maximum :-

(1) KCl, 50% ionised

(2) K2SO4, 40% ionised
(3) FeCl3, 30% ionised
(4) SnCl4, 20% ionised

24) The molality of 2% aqueous solution of sodium chloride is :-

(1) 0.17m
(2) 0.7m
(3) 1m
(4) 0.34

25) The substance A when dissolved in solvent B shows the molecular mass corresponding to A4. The
van't hoff factor will be

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 2.5

(4)

26) The lowering of vapour pressure due to a solute in 1 m aqueous solution at 100°C is :-

(1) 13.4 torr

(2) 14.12 torr
(3) 312 torr
(4) 352 torr

27) 0.745% KCl solution at 27°C has osmotic pressure

(1) 2.46 atm

(2) 5 atm
(3) 1.2 atm
(4) 3.8 atm

28) "25 V H2O2" solution means :-

(1) 25 L O2(g) is obtained at STP from 1 mole H2O2(aq) solution

(2) 25 L H2O2(aq) solution will provide 1 L O2(g) at STP
(3) 25 L O2(g) is obtained at STP by 1 L H2O2(aq) solution
(4) 1 mole of O2(g) is obtained by 25 L of H2O2(aq) solution

29)

The molarity of SO42- ion in an aqueous solution that contain 34.2 ppm of Al2(SO4)3.

(Assume complete dissociation and density of solution is 1 g/mL) is :-

(1) 3 × 10–4
(2) 2 × 10–4
(3) 10–4
(4) None of these

30) According to Henry’s law, the solubility of a gas in a given volume of liquid increases with
increase in:

(1) Temperature
(2) Pressure
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Can not predict

31) Which of the following solutions (each 1 molal) will have the maximum freezing point (assuming
equal ionisation in each case) :-

(1) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3
(2) [Fe(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
(3) [Fe(H2O)4Cl2]Cl2.H2O
(4) [Fe(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O

32) The Van't Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 Solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is :-

(1) 91.3%
(2) 87%
(3) 100%
(4) 74%

33) The mass of solute ‘A’(mol mass=75gm mol–1) that should be added to 180 gm of pure water in
order to lower its vapour pressure to 4/5th of its original value :-

(1) 187.5 gm
(2) 90 gm
(3) 150 gm
(4) 75 gm

34) The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10g glucose (P1) 10g urea (P2) and 10g
sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 ml of water is:-

(1) P1 > P2 > P3

(2) P3 > P1 > P2
(3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) P2 > P3 > P1

35)

Osmotic pressure of a solution depends upon :-

(A) Nature of solute
(B) Nature of solvent
(C) Temperature

(D) Molar concentration of solute | Number of solute

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, C, D
(3) C, D
(4) A, C, D

36) The molarity of a 24.5% solution (by weight) of sulphuric acid (Density = 2 gm cm–3) is :-

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 20
(4) 0.5

37) An azeotropic mixture of two liquids boil at a lower temperature than boiling point either of
them when :-

(1) It is saturated
(2) It does not deviate from Raoult's law
(3) It show negative deviation from Raoult's law
(4) It show positive deviation from Raoult's law

38) X3Y2 (i = 5) when reacted with A2B3 (i = 5) in aqueous solution gives brown colour. These are
separated by a semipermeable membrane. Due to osmosis there is :-

(1) Brown colour formation in side X

(2) Brown colour formation in side Y
(3) Formation in both of the sides X and Y
(4) No brown colour formation

39) Van't Hoff factors of aqueous solutions of X,Y,Z are 1.8, 0.8 and 2.5. Hence, their correct order is
(assume equal concentrations in all three cases ):-

(1) b.p. : X < Y < Z

(2) f. p. Z < X < Y
(3) osmotic pressure : X = Y = Z
(4) v.p. : Y < X < Z

40) Which characterises the strong intermolecular forces of attraction of liquid ?

(1) Low vapour pressure

(2) Low boiling point
(3) Low heat of vapourisation
(4) High kinetic energy of molecules
41) Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, vapour pressure of benzene is 75 torr
and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 20°C for a solution
containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is :–

(1) 50
(2) 25
(3) 37.5
(4) 53.5

42) 12.5g of H2SO4 is present in 87.5 g of water. What is the % w/w of H2SO4 ?

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 12.5%

43) Which salt may show the same value of Vant Hoff factor (i) as that of K4[Fe(CN)6] in very dilute
solution state :-

(1) Al2(SO4)3
(2) NaCl
(3) Al(NO3)3
(4) Na2SO4

44) On mixing 30 mL CCl4 and 10 mL C6H6, the total volume of the solution will be :-

(1) > 40 mL
(2) < 40 mL
(3) = 40 mL
(4) Can't be predicted

45) The Cl– concentration in solution which is obtained by mixing one mole each of BaCl2, NaCl and
HCl in 500 ml water is :-

(1) 8 M
(2) 6 M
(3) 4 M
(4) 2 M

BIOLOGY

1) Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct ?

(1) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
(2) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(3) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
(4) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote

2) Which of the following characteristics does not belong to cleavage ?

(1) Decrease in size of blastomeres

(2) Rapid mitotic cell division
(3) Interphase of very short duration
(4) Rapid meiosis division

3) Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female :-

(1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

(2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo.
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.
(4) Low level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

4) Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as :

(1) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance

(2) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality.
(3) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.
(4) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus

5) Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:-

(1) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of primary oocyte fallopian tube
(2) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampulla of the fallopian tube
the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the
(3)
cervix
(4) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus

6) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :-

Column I Column II

a Mons pubis i Rapid mitosis

b Antrum ii Sperm

Female external
c cleavage iii
genitalia

d Acrosome iv Tertiary follicle

Codes :
a b c d

(1) iii i iv ii

(2) i iv iii ii
 (3) iii iv ii i

(4) iii iv i ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on:

(1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.

(2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
(3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.
(4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

8) No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because

(1) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation

(2) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
(3) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
(4) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase

9) Match the following columns and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II

(a) Penis (i) Androgens

(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Insemination

Bulbo-urethral
(c) (iii) Layer of the ovum
glands

Lubrication of
(d) Leydig cells (iv)
the Penis

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on:-

(1) Corona radiata
(2) Vitelline membrane
(3) Perivitelline space
(4) Zona pellucida

11) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of spermatozoa from spermatid
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

12) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the
ejaculatory duct.
Statement II : The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth
canal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

13) Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle ?
A. In primate female mammals cyclical changes during reproduction is called menstrual cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and C only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A and D only

14) Given below are two statements regarding oogenesis:

Statement I :- The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells, a theca and
shows fluid filled cavity antrum. Now it is called secondary follicle.
Statement II :- Graafian follicle ruptures to release the secondary oocyte from the ovary by the
process called ovulation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

15) Ovulation is :-

(1) Release of secondary oocyte from ovary

(2) Release of primary oocyte from ovary
(3) Release of spermatid
(4) Release of Graafian follicle

16) When do both LH & FSH attain a peak level in a menstrual cycle ?

(1) In last week of the cycle

(2) In mid of the cycle
(3) During Initial days of cycle
(4) On 4th day of cycle

17) The correct chronological order of the following events during embryonic development is :

(1) Blastocyst → Morula → Zygote → Gastrula

(2) Zygote → Morula → Gastrula → Blastocyst
(3) Zygote → Morula → Blastocyst → Gastrula
(4) Zygote → Blastocyst → Morula → Gastrula

18) Graafian follicle is formed with the action of

(1) FSH
(2) Androgen
(3) Progesterone
(4) oxytocin

19) Which structure prevents the embryo from ectopic pregnancy?

(1) Corona radiata

(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Zona Lucidum

20) The principal hormone responsible for contraction in uterus and expulsion of baby is:

(1) Progesterone
(2) Prolactin
(3) Oxytocin
(4) hCG
21) Insemination is the process by which

(1) Transfer of sperm into female genital tract.

(2) Sperms are released in the lumen of vasa efferentia from the sertoli cells
(3) Sperms are released in the lumen of seminiferous tubules from the sertoli cells
(4) Sperms are released from the testis in the epididymal duct

22) The sperms are temporarily stored & mature in

(1) seminiferous tubules

(2) scrotum
(3) epididymis
(4) seminal vesicles

23)

Which of the following is not a paired structure in female reproductive system?

(1) Oviduct
(2) Labia majora
(3) Labia minora
(4) Mons pubis

24) Which of the following is not a paired gland ?

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Cowper's gland
(3) Bartholin's gland
(4) Prostate gland

25) The secretion of A Increases gradually during the follicular phase.

Choose the correct replacement for ‘A’ :-

(1) FSH
(2) Thymus hormones
(3) Cortisol
(4) Oxytocin

26) The external genitalia is located in

(1) Mediastinum region

(2) Pelvic region
(3) Thoracic region
(4) All of these
27) See the diagram carefully and select correct option.

Structure Function

(1) b Acrosome Fertilization

(2) c Middle piece Cleavage

(3) d Mitochondria Produce energy

(4) a Nucleus Energy production

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstrual cycle ?

(1) Progesterone increase secretory nature of endometrium

(2) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche
(3) During normal menstruation about 40-80 ml blood is lost
(4) The menstrual fluid can easily clot

29) The number of chromosomes in secondary oocyte

(1) 46
(2) 23 + 23
(3) 45
(4) 23

30) Spot the odd one out from the following structure with reference to the male reproductive
system.

(1) Rete testis

(2) Epididymis
(3) Vasa efferentia
(4) Isthmus

31) In mammals, production of sperm take place at a temperature

(1) equal to that of body

(2) higher than that of body
(3) lower than that of body
(4) at any temperature

32) Choose the correct option for the components of various parts of sperms

(1) Head: Golgi bodies, nucleus and centrioles without plasma membrane
(2) Neck: Golgi bodies and centrioles covered with plasma membrane
(3) Middle piece: Mitochondria and Axial filament
(4) Tail: Mitochondria and flagellum covered with plasma membrane

33) Which egg membrane is secreted by human ovary :-

(1) Corona radiata

(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Zona radiata
(4) Corona pellucida

34) Which of following hormone maintains corpus luteum during pregnancy :

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) hCG
(4) LH

35) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Vasa efferentia leaves testis and opens into vas deferens located on anterior surface of each
(1)
testis
(2) In males glans penis has urethral meatus.
(3) Male accessory gland helps in reproduction
(4) Both haploid and diploid cells are present in seminiferous tubule.

36) Which of the following will secrete inhibin hormone ?

(1) Granulosa cells

(2) Sertoli cells
(3) Leydig cells
(4) Both (1) and (2)
37) Urethra originates from which structure ?

(1) Urinary bladder

(2) Ureter
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Seminal vesicle

38)
See the diagram carefully and find out correct option:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Which hormone maintains the pregnancy and makes the wall of uterus adhesive for implantation
?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone

40) Which is the correct option regarding size of blastomeres during clevage ?

(1) Increasing
(2) Decreasing
(3) Remain constant
(4) Some times increase & some time decrease
41) Which of the following is incorrect for vas deferens ?

(1) It ascends in abdomianl cavity through inguinal canal.

(2) The epididymis lead to vas deferens that ascend to abdomen and loops over the urinary bladder.
(3) Its terminal end is swollen called ampulla
(4) It arises from testicular lobule

42) The figure below shows development of follicles (A, B, C, D). Select the option giving correct

identification together with its function?

(1) B – Secondary Follicle – secrete progesterone

(2) D – Corpus luteum – Secrete cortisol
(3) A – Tertiary follicle – Secrete FSH & LH
(4) C – Corpus luteum – Secrete progesterone

43) Spermatogenesis starts at the time of

(1) Puberty
(2) Embryo stage
(3) After birth
(4) Life time

44) How many of the following structures are found in abdomen of adult male.
Vasa–efferentia, Rete testis, Epididymis, Prostate, Seminal vesicle, Ampulla of vas deferens.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

45) Corona radiata & zona pellucida are coverings of secondary oocytes :

(1) Corona radiata is primary & zona pellucida is secondary egg membrane
(2) Corona radiata is secondary & zona pellucida is primary egg membrane
(3) Both are primary egg membrane
(4) Both are secondary egg membrane
46) Which is not correct about secondary sexual characters of female ?

(1) Development of mammary gland

(2) High pitched voice
(3) Low pitched voice
(4) Presence of wide pelvic bone

47) How many of following event occurs in fallopian tube?

A. Fertilisation
B. Cleavage
C. Morulation
D. Organogenesis

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

48) During a woman's life time, she produces about

(1) 40 – 50 eggs
(2) 250 – 300 eggs
(3) 400 – 500 eggs
(4) 750 – 850 eggs

49) Match the column :

Column I Column II
I Acrosome A erectile tissue
II Endometrium B Uterus
III Polar body C Oogenesis
IV Clitoris D Spermatozoan
(1) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
(2) I – D, II – B, III – C, IV – A
(3) I – D, II – C, III – B, IV – A
(4) I – D, II – C, III – A, IV – B

50) The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called as:

(1) Hymen
(2) Clitoris
(3) Foreskin
(4) Mons pubis

51) Seminal plasma is rich in :-

(1) Fructose, Magnesium

(2) Sucrose, Calcium
(3) Fructose, Calcium
(4) Sucrose, Iron

52) Fill in the blanks in the following statements The human male ejaculates about ........ million
sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility, at least ........... percent sperms must have
normal shape and size and at least ........ percent of them must show vigorous motility.

(1) 400 - 500, 60, 40

(2) 100 - 120, 40, 60
(3) 200 - 300, 60, 40
(4) 200 - 300, 40, 60

53) Which of the following entry induce the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary
oocyte

(1) Sperm
(2) Progesterone
(3) Estrogen
(4) Oxytocin

54) Completion of meiosis-I during oogenesis occurs in

(1) At ovulation
(2) During fertilization
(3) Menopause
(4) Tertiary follicle

55) Which type of egg is present in human ?

(1) Polylecithal
(2) Mesolecithal
(3) Alecithal
(4) Centrolecithal

56) At puberty only ........... primary follicles are left in each ovary

(1) 6000-8000
(2) 8000-10000
(3) 60000-80000
(4) 400-500

57) What is the main cause of start of the endometrium proliferation.

(1) Low level of progesterone

(2) High level of prostaglandin
(3) High level of oestrogen
(4) Low level of oxytoxin & relaxin

58) The lytic enzyme present in sperm is :-

(1) ligase
(2) estrogenase
(3) androgenase
(4) hyaluronidase

59) Lower narrow end of uterus is called

(1) Urethra
(2) Cervix
(3) Clitoris
(4) Vulva

60) Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female around the :

(1) 5 – 8 day of menstrual cycle

(2) 11 – 12 day of menstrual cycle
(3) 18 - 23 day of menstrual cycle
(4) 24 - 28 day of menstrual cycle

61) Read the enclosed Diagram and answer the question. Which of
the following constitute minimum volume Secretion of the seminal plasma.

(1) e
(2) f
(3) i
(4) d

62)

In a 30 year old lady, eggs are released in form of

(1) Oogonia
(2) Primary oocyte
(3) Secondary oocyte
(4) Atretic follicle

63) In a normal menstrual cycle of 28 days, the progesterone surge is likely to be observed at:

(1) Menses
(2) Follicular phase
(3) Luteal phase
(4) Ovulation

64) Monozygotic twins are formed by fusion of

(1) One sperm and one secondary oocyte

(2) One sperm and two secondary oocyte
(3) Two sperm and two secondary oocyte
(4) Two sperm and one secondary oocyte

65)

Consider the following layers of uterus

A. Endometrium
B. Myometeium
C. Perimetrium
Choose the correct answer for the phenomena which is correctly matched with the layers

(1) Implantation: B only

(2) Parturition: B and C
(3) Menstrual flow: A and B
(4) Glandular : A only.

66) Morula is :-

(1) Embryo with 2 to 8 blastomeres

(2) Embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres
(3) Embryo with 16 to 32 blastomeres
(4) Embryo with 32 to 64 blastomeres

67) Voice is high pitched in

(1) Aged persons

(2) Adult males
(3) Boys
(4) Females

68)
After ovulation, in humans the secondary oocyte is released in

(1) Peritoneal coelom

(2) Fallopian tubes (Isthmus)
(3) Uterus
(4) Vagina

69) Which hormone helps in the movement of sperm from uterus to fallopian tube ?

(1) Prostaglandin
(2) Oestrogen
(3) Progesterone and oestrogen
(4) Cortisol and oestrogen

70) The middle piece of sperm possesses many mitochondria which produces energy for movement
of tail. This layer of mitochondria is known as:

(1) Acrosome
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Manchette
(4) Nebenkern sheath

71) If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely in luteal phase ?

(1) corpus luteum will disintegrate

(2) progesterone secretion rapidly declines
(3) estrogen secretion further decreases
(4) oogonium starts developing

72) In lactating female, milk is sucked out by baby from:-

(1) Mammary duct

(2) Mammary lobe
(3) Lactiferous duct
(4) Areola

73) Each testis is suspended in scrotum through

(1) Spermatic fascia

(2) Spermatic cord
(3) Pectoralis major
(4) Pectoralis minor
74) In the given figure, identify the part which rich in fructose ?

(1) Part-A
(2) Part-B
(3) Part-C
(4) Part-D

75) It is a diagrammatic presentation of ovum which is surrounded by few sperm. Choose the correct

option about A labelled part. Options:

(1) Corona radiata

(2) It is formed by primary oocyte
(3) It is made by uterus.
(4) It is formed by vagina secretion

76) The pregnancy test is based on detection of which hormone ?

(1) Progesterone
(2) Inhibin
(3) hCG
(4) Estrogen
77)
Find correct option related with above figure :

(1) A – Seminal vesicle, B – Ejaculatory duct

(2) A – Ejaculatory duct, B – Urinary bladder
(3) A – Prostate, B – Ejaculatory duct
(4) All are correct

78) Which of the following statement is not true about ovaries ?

(1) It is the primary female sex organs.

(2) It produced female gamete
(3) It produces a steroid hormones.
(4) It produces hormones that is responsible for childbirth.

79) The Anterior portion of sperm is covered by ............ like structure called ............ .

(1) Rounded flap, nucleus

(2) Cap, acrosome
(3) Cap, nucleus
(4) Elongated spoon, head

80) Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the
hypothalamus ?

(1) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

(2) Oxytocin
(3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(4) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

81) The acrosome is filled with enzymes that help in fertilisation of the ovum. These enzymes are-

(1) Oxidative nature

(2) Isomerisase in nature
(3) Hydrolytic in nature
(4) Transferase

82) Semen profile of four men are studied. Which of the following man will have a maximum capacity
of fertility ?

(1) Man showing 40% sperms having normal morphology.

man showing normal sperm count with 20% sperms having normal morphology and
(2)
weak motility
(3) man showing adequate~ sperm count with 60% sperms having normal morphology.
(4) Man showing azoospermia

83) How many primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes are required to form 100 zygotes ?

(1) 25 and 100

(2) 100 and 100
(3) 100 and 25
(4) 25 and 25

84) In human female meiosis II is not completed until ?

(1) Birth
(2) Puberty
(3) Fertilization
(4) Uterine implantation

85) The spermatid are transformed into spermatozoa by the some factors of.

(1) Seminal vericle

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Cowper's gland
(4) Sertoli cell

86) Capacitation refer to changes in the

(1) Sperm before fertilization

(2) Sperm after fertilization
(3) Ovum before fertilization
(4) Ovum after fertilization

87) Find out the correct match

(1) Graafian follicle - immature follicle

(2) Acrosome - Enzymes for fertilisation
(3) Primary oocyte - motile
(4) Mature sperm - Diploid

88) After ovulation the remaining parts of graafian follicle transform as the

(1) Corpus callosum

(2) Corpus luteum
(3) Morula
(4) Blastula

89) The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into .......... A.......... mammary lobes containing
clusters of cells called .......... B ............ Identify A & B

(1) A-15-20 Pairs B-Glomerulus

(2) A-10-15, B-Alveoli
(3) A-15-20 Pairs, B-Alveoli
(4) A-15-20, B-Alveoli

90) Assertion (A) : Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst

Reason (R) : Strong contraction occurs in endometrium during child birth

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 2 4 2 3 1 2 2 2 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 4 4 2 1 2 1 3 4 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 4 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 2 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 4 2 4 2 4 4 4 3 4 4 3 1 1 3 1 1 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 4 4 1 2 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 4 4 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 1 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 3 2 4 1 4 1 4 4 4 3 2 1 2 3 1 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 4 4 1 2 3 4 4 4 3 3 1 3 1 4 1 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 1 3 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 3 1 4 2 4 1 1 4 4 3 2 4 1 3 1 4 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 1 3 4 1 2 2 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Concept : Quantization of charge

Formula : q = ne

e → charge of electron (1.6 × 10–19C)

n → no. of electron

q → total charge

Calculation : |q| = 80 × 10–6 coulomb.

So , n = = 5 × 1014
Final Answer : (3) 5 × 1014

2)
For q0 to be in equilibrium

taking square root both sides

72a – 4r = 5r
8a = r
x = 10a

3)
as α < β
m 1 > m2

4)

For equilibrium of any one charge at corner,

Net repulsion by other three charge = Attraction by q

5)
The component of forces will be in -y direction only So, answer is (4).

6)

7)

8)

9)

Concept:
Coulomb's law
progression.
Formula:
The force F due to a charge at position x = 2n is calculated using Coulomb's law:

Fn =

where r = 2n and q1 = 1 C, q2 = 1μC = 1 x 10–6 C.

The total force is the sum of the forces from all charges, which is a geometric series:

F=

Sum of ∝ G.P. =

Calculation:

The sum of the infinite geometric series is:

Now, we calculate the total force:

F = 9 × 109 × 10–6 × = 12000 N

Answer: Option 2: 12000 N.

13)
so,

15)
Radius of circular sheet present inside spherical surface

So,

By Gauss law

16) Question Explain:

We are asked to find the electric field at the center of a uniformly charged circular arc that
subtends an angle of 60° and has radius a and charge density λ.

Concept Based:
Use integration to calculate the net electric field at the center due to small charge elements on
the arc. Symmetry causes vertical components to cancel, leaving only horizontal contribution.

Formula Used:
dq = λadθ

dEx = dEcosθ = cosθ dθ

Total Ex =

Calculation:

Final Answer : option (1)

17) This is basically a problem of finding the electric field due to three dipoles. The dipole
moment of each dipole is,
 p = Q (2a) Electric field due to each dipole will be,

Enet = E + 2E cos 60°

= 2E

=2×

18) Question Explanation:

Identify the graph that correctly represents the magnitude of the electric field E along the line
joining two equal and opposite charges.

Concept:
Electric field due to point charges and variation of field strength with distance.

Formulas Used :

Visual Aid:

Solution:
A decrease in the electric field as you move away from the charge.
At the origin field intensity will be minimum.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

19) =0

⇒ Q2 = –8 Q1

20) No. of prism in base = = 12

No. of prism on the base = 12

Flux through the given prism =

=
21)

22)

Exp:- to choose the correct diagram showing electric field lines.

Concept :- electric field lines
Formula:- not required
Visual aid :- Correct diagram is

Option - (1)
Cal:- electric field does not make close toop so option (2), (3), (4) are incorrect electric filed
start from positive charge and ends at infinites so option (1) in correct
Level - Easy

23)

Flux

25) The flux due to a dipole inside the closed surface is zero but field at surface is not zero.

26)
charge enclosed by cubical surface is

27)
 Because, N1 > N2 > N3
Hence, for A → Deficiency of e = (N1–N3) → (+ve) charge
B → Excess of e = (N1–N2) → (–ve charge)
C → Excess of e = (N2–N3) → (–ve charge)

28) 1. Question Explanation:

In this problem, two identical charged spheres of material density ρ are suspended from a
common point and make an angle θ between their strings when suspended in air. When these
spheres are submerged in a liquid of density σ , the angle θ remains unchanged. We are asked
to find the dielectric constant K of the liquid based on the material density of the spheres ρ
and the density of the liquid σ.
2. Concept Based:
It is based on - Forces on Charged Spheres in a Liquid 3. Formula Used:

A. Electrostatic force in air (between two charged spheres):

A. In the liquid: The electrostatic force is reduced by the factor of K (the dielectric constant of
the liquid), so:

A. Buoyant force on the spheres in t he liquid:

where σ is the density of the liquid, V is the volume of the sphere, and g is the acceleration due to
gravity.
4. Calculation (In Brief):

A. For the case in air, the forces acting on the spheres result in the following equilibrium:

A. For the case in the liquid: the equilibrium condition is modified by the buoyant force:

A. Equating the two expressions for (since 0 remains the same) leads to:

A. Simplifying the equation and solving for K, we get:

5. Answer:
Option 1: .

29)

30) 1. Explanation:
Two point charges in a medium with dielectric constant k exert a force F. We are asked to find
the distance r' at which the charges will exert the same force in air.
2. Concept:
The force between two point charges in a medium is given by Coulomb's law modified by the
dielectric constant k:

In air (where k = 1 ) the force is:

For the forces to be the same in both media, we set F = F'

3. Formula:
To maintain the same force in air:

Thus:
r'2 = k.r2 ⇒
4. Calculation:
Given that the force is the same, we find that:

Answer: 4)

31) Apply superposition of electric field using the fact that electric field is radially outwards.

32) Asking About:

Finding the magnitude of the electric field at the common center of two semicircular rings
with different radii, where the center lies on both extended straight lines.
Concept:
• Superposition Principle: The net electric field is the vector sum of individual fields.
Formula:
•Semicircular ring: E 2ne R
Straight wire: E
Calculation / Explanation
1. Straight wires: Their fields cancel out.
2. Larger semicircular ring (radius 2r):

3. Smaller semicircular ring (radius r):

4. Net field:

Final Answer

33)

In case - 1 - ϕ = ϕentre
In case - 2-ϕ1 = ϕout
= –ϕ

34)
For intermediate shell

dQ =ρdV = (4ρr2)dr

Q = r(4π) = 2πρ = (b2 – a2)

35)

Flux for ABCO due to charge q

ϕ= =
 36)

40) E ∝

tanθ =

41)

CHEMISTRY

49) ΔTf = kf. m

Nw = 150.5 g mol–1

51) K3 [Fe(CN)6] → 3K+ + [Fe(CN)6]–3

56) 1. Question Explanation:
We are asked to find which 1 molal solution has the minimum freezing point, i.e., the greatest
depression in freezing point. Freezing point depression depends on the number of solute
particles (colligative property).

2. Given:
All solutions are 1 molal in water:
1. Glucose (non-electrolyte)
2. Sucrose (non-electrolyte)
3. NaCl (dissociates into 2 ions: Na+, Cl– → i = 2 )
4. CaCl₂ (dissociates into 3 ions: C a2+ , 2Cl– → i = 3)

3. Concept:
Freezing point depression formula:
ΔTf = i . Kf . m
Same Kf and m for all, so the one with highest i will have the maximum ΔTf → hence lowest
freezing point.

4. Calculation:
Van't Hoff factors (i):
• Glucose: i = 1
• Sucrose: i = 1
• NaCl: i = 2
• CaCl₂: i = 3
So, CaCl2 causes the most freezing point depression.
5. Final Answer: 1 molal CaCl₂ in water (Option 4)

62) i = 1 + (n – 1) α so n =

75) Acc. to Henry's law on increasing pressure solubility of gas in liquid increases.

77)

Ba (NO3)2 —→ Ba+2 + 2NO3–

i = 1 + 2α
2.74 = 1 + 2α ⇒ a = 0.87 = 87%

80) π = CRT

85) Inter molecular force ∝

89) CCl4 and C6H6 form solution which slow +ve deviation.
BIOLOGY

110) NCERT XII Pg. # 54/59(H)Para:3.7

115) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 51, Para-1 (E)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 55, Para-1 (H)

123) NCERT Pg. # 211 (E), 230 (H)

129) NCERT(XII) Page#51/55(H) Para:3.4

140) NCERT(XII) Pg#46/50(H) Para: 3.2

147) NCERT Page # 51

149)

The lower, narrow end of the uterus is called the cervix

153) NCERT(XII) Pg#50/54(H) Fig:3.9

156) NCERT Pg.# 226 (E), 235 (H)

163) NCERT XII Pg # 35(E), 37(H)

173)

Here's how to calculate the number of primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes
needed to form 100 zygotes:

1. Meiosis and Gamete Production

A. Spermatogenesis (sperm production): One primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis to

produce four sperm cells.
B. Oogenesis (egg production): One primary oocyte undergoes meiosis to produce one mature
egg cell (ovum) and three polar bodies (which degenerate).

2. Calculation

A. To form 100 zygotes, we need 100 sperm cells.

A. Since each primary spermatocyte produces 4 sperm cells, we need 100 sperm cells / 4
sperm cells per spermatocyte = 25 primary spermatocytes.
B. To form 100 zygotes, we need 100 egg cells.
A. Since each primary oocyte produces 1 egg cell, we need 100 egg cells / 1 egg cell per
 oocyte = 100 primary oocytes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1: 25 and 100