28-05-2025

4504CMD303021250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) A point charge q is placed at a distance r from center of a conducting neutral sphere of radius R (r
> R). The potential at any point P inside the sphere at a distance r1 from point charge due to

induced charge of the sphere is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Figure below shows two equipotential lines in xy-plane for an electric field. The scales are
marked. Electric field in the space between these equipotential lines is -

(1) + 100 – 200 V/m

(2) – 100 + 200 V/m

(3) + 200 + 100 V/m

(4) – 200 – 100 V/m

3) If the distance between the plates of a capacitor is made half and the area of plates is doubled
then what will be the capacitance.

(1) 4C
(2) C
(3) C/2
(4) 2 C

4) Figure shows the field lines of a positive point charge. The work done by the field in moving a

small positive charge from Q to P is:

(1) Zero
(2) Positive
(3) Negative
(4) Data insufficient

5) A solid conducting sphere of radius R1 is surrounded by another concentric hollow conducting

sphere of radius R2. The capacitance of this assembly is proportional to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Four equal charges of magnitude q are placed as shown in figure. Now the charge at center C is

taken to infinite slowly, then work done by external force will be -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Capacitance of cylindrical capacitor of length ' ' and having inner and outer radii 'a' and '2a'
respectively is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) An alpha particle of energy bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the
distance of closest approach for the alpha particle will be proportional to

(1) v2
(2) 1/m
(3) 1/v4
(4) 1/Ze

9) The effective capacity between A and B in the figure given is :- (in µF)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) An α particle is moving from a point at potential 70 volt to a point at 50 volt from rest then its
kinetic energy will be -

(1) 40 eV
(2) 20 eV
(3) 20 MeV
(4) 40 MeV
11) Find net capacitance between X and Y :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1μF

12) An electron is moved towards other electron then potential energy

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains constant
(4) zero

13) In given diagram area of each plates is A and plate separation between adjacent plates is d. Find

net capacitance between point A and B.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Potential difference between centre and the surface of sphere of radius R and uniform volume
charge density ρ will be :

(1)

(2)

(3) 0

(4)
15) A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the
distance between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate is 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor
& energy required to charge the capacitor is respectively: ( = permittivity of free space)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) For the uniformly charge solid non conducting sphere the variation of electric potential (V) with

distance (r) from center of sphere.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

An isolated parallel plate capacitor has electric energy E stored in it. If separation between the
plates is decreased by 2%, then energy stored in the capacitor is
(1) Decreases by 2%
(2) Decreases by 4%
(3) Increases by 2%
(4) Increases by 4%

18) Uniform electric field of magnitude 100 V/m in space is directed parallel to the line y = 3 + x.
Find the potential difference between points A (3, 1) and B (1, 3).

(1) 100 V
(2)
(3) 200 V
(4) Zero

19)

A 6μF capacitor charged from 10 volts to 20 volts. Increase in energy will be -

(1) 18 × 10–4 joule

(2) 9 × 10–4 joule
(3) 4.5 × 10–4 joule
(4) 9 × 10–9 joule

20) Two conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 are at the same potential. The ratio of their charges is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) In the figure shown P1 and P2 are two conducting plates having charges of equal magnitude and
opposite sign. Two dielectrics of dielectric constant K1 and K2 fill the space between the plates as
shown in the figure. The ratio of electrical energy in 1st dielectric to that in the 2nd dielectric is :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) K1 : K2
(3) K2 : K1
2 2
(4) K2 : K1

22) The potential at a distance R/2 from the centre of a conducting sphere of radius R will be-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance C. When it is half filled with a dielectric of

dielectric constant 5, the percentage increase in the capacitance will be :-

(1) 400%
(2) 66.6%
(3) 33.3%
(4) 200%

24) Three concentric spherical metallic shells A, B and C of radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have charge
densities σ, –σ and σ respectively. If the shells A and C are at the same potential then the relation
between a, b and c is.

(1) a + b + c = 0
(2) a + c = b
(3) a + b = c
(4) a = b + c

25) Eight uniformly charged spherical drops coalesce to form a larger drop. If capacity of each
smaller drop is C then find the capacity of larger drop :-

(1) 2C
(2) 3C
(3) 4C
(4) C

26) A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a long rod AB of length L as shown in the figure. The
electric potential at the point O lying at a distance L from the end A is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Ratio of charges stored in 5µF and 4µF capacitors in given figure is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Two thin wire rings each having a radius R are placed at a distance d apart with their axes
coinciding. The charges on the two rings are +q and –q. The potential difference between the
centres of the two rings is :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) In the circuit shown, each capacitor has capacitance C. The emf of the cell is E. If the switch S is
closed then :-

(1)
Amount of charge flowing through cell will be .
(2) Amount of chrge flowing through cell will be 2CE.

(3)
Amount of charge flowing through cell will be .
(4) None of these

30) A ring has total charge Q. Find work done by external agent to
move –Q charge from point A to centre of ring :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. After charging the capacitor, battery is
disconnected and a dielectric plate is inserted between the plates. Then which of the following
statements is not correct?

(1) increase in the stored energy

(2) decrease in the potential difference
(3) decrease in the electric field
(4) increase in the capacitance

32) Point charges q1 = 2μC and q2 = –1μC are kept at point x = 0 and x = 6 respectively. Electrical
potential will be zero at points

(1) x = 2 and x = 9
(2) x = 1 and x = 5
(3) x = 4 and x = 12
(4) x = –2 and x = 2

33) From a supply of identical capacitors rated 8 mF, 250V, the minimum number of capacitors
required to form a composite 16 mF, 1000V is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 16
(4) 32

34) The force acting between two point charges + q and + q separated by distance r is F. If one
charge is fixed and another charge completes two rounds in circular path around it, then work done
will be:-

(1) F × 4 π r
(2) F × 2r
(3) Zero
(4) F × πr2

35) Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series.
The capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3C, 3V

36) In given figure charge given to outer sphere is Q. Inner sphere is grounded. What will be charge

on outer surface of outer sphere.

(1)

(2) Q

(3)

(4)

37) Three conducting concentric spherical shells of radius R, 2R and 3R have charges Q, and – 2Q
respectively. The intermediate shell 'B' is now grounded. Find the charge flow into the earth.
(1)

(2)

(3) Q
(4) 0

38) Three capacitors are connected as shown in fig. Then the charge on capacitor C1 is :-

(1) 6µC
(2) 12µC
(3) 18µC
(4) 24µC

39) Charge distribution on a ring in x-y plane is shown in the figure. Then electric potential at origin

is :

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4)
40) The potential of the point A is greater than that of B by 19 volt. What is the potential difference

in volts across the 3μF capacitor ?

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 23
(4) 4

41) In which of the following states is the potential energy of an electric dipole maximum?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) If the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor (without a source) are moved apart from each
other, then
A. the voltage across it, increases.
B. the energy stored in it, decreases.
C. its capacitance decreases.
D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
E. the product of charge and voltage increases.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) B, C and E only

(2) A, C and E only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only

43) The electric field and the potential of a short electric dipole vary with distance r as :-

and
(1)
(2)
and

(3)
and

(4)
and

44) Two charges are present as shown in figure then at point P :-

(1) at P is zero & V ≠ 0

(2) E ≠ 0; V = 0
(3) E = 0; V = 0
(4) E ≠ 0; V ≠ 0

45) The electric field is V/m. The potential at the point (0, 5 m, 5 m) is ___ if the potential
at coordinate origin is taken as zero.

(1) – 25 V
(2) – 15 V
(3) 0
(4) 15 V

CHEMISTRY

1) The standard reduction potential and half reactions for four different elements A, B, C and D are
given :
(i) A2 + 2e– → 2A– ; E° = +2.85 V
(ii) B2 + 2e– → 2B– ; E° = +1.36 V
(iii) C2 + 2e– → 2C– ; E° = +1.06 V
(iv) D2 + 2e– → 2D¯ ; E° = +0.53 V
The strongest oxidising and strongest reducing agents among these :

–
(1) Would be A2 and D respectively
–
(2) Would be D2 and A respectively
–
(3) Would be B2 and C respectively
–
(4) Would be C2 and B respectively

2) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) In metallic conductor, resistance decreases with the increase in temperature

(2) In electrolytic conductor, resistance decreases with the increase in temperature
(3) In metallic conductor charge carrier are free ions
(4) All of the above
3) A conductance cell was filled with a 0.02 M KCl solution which has a specific conductance of
2.768 × 10–3 ohm–1 cm–1. If its resistance is 82.4 ohm at 25°C, the cell constant is :

(1) 0.1182 cm–1

(2) 0.2281 cm–1
(3) 0.4821 cm–1
(4) 0.3381 cm–1

4) Which of the following is not a conductor of electricity ?

(1) Fused NaCl

(2) Solid KCl
(3) Aqueous NaCl
(4) Solid copper

5) The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solutions is :

(1) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+

(2) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
(3) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+
(4) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

6) E° for Cr3+ + 3e– → Cr and Cr3+ + e– → Cr2+ are –0.74V and –0.40V respectively. E° for the reaction
Cr2+ + 2e– → Cr is :-

(1) –0.91V
(2) +0.91V
(3) –1.14V
(4) +0.34V

7) Molar conductivity of a solution is

1.26 × 102 Ω–1cm2mol–1. Its molarity is 0.01. Its specific conductivity will be :

(1) 1.26 × 10–2

(2) 1.26 × 10–3
(3) 1.26 × 10–4
(4) 0.0063

8) For the cell

Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g)
E° = 0.76 V
Which change will increase the voltage of the cell?

(1) Increasing the size of the Zn electrode

(2) Increasing the [Zn2+]
(3) Increasing the [H+]
(4) Increasing the pressure of the H2(g)

9) The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at 298 K are
126.0, 426.0 and 91.0 Ohm–1cm2eq-1, equivalent conductance of acetic acid at infinite dilution at
the same temperature is :-

(1) 644.0
(2) 300.0
(3) 517.0
(4) 391.0

10) Which of the following solutions of NaCl will have the highest specific condutance?

(1) 0.001 N
(2) 0.1 N
(3) 0.01 N
(4) 1.0 N

11) A and B respectively are :-

(1) HCN, NaCl

(2) KCl, NaCl
(3) KCl, CH3COOH
(4) CH3COOH, HCN

12) Kohlraush's law is applicable on which electrolyte :-

(1) NaCl
(2) Na2SO4
(3) CH3COOH
(4) All

13) If 0.1 M acetic acid is 30% ionized and is 200 Scm2 mole–1 then conductivity of solution in
Scm–1 will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) Equivalent conductance of saturated BaSO4 is 400 ohm–1cm2equiv–1 and specific conductance is 8
× 10–5 ohm–1cm–1. Hence, Ksp of BaSO4 is :-

(1) 4 × 10–8 M2
(2) 1 × 10–8 M2
(3) 2 × 10–4 M2
(4) 1 × 10–4 M2

15) A cell formed by using Cd and Cu electrode shown by reaction

Cd + Cu2+ → Cd2+ + Cu
of this cell will be if = 0.40 V & = 0.34 V

(1) >0
(2) <0
(3) =0
(4) All of the above

16) If = –0.441V and = 0.771V the standard EMF of the reaction,

Fe + 2Fe+3 → 3Fe+2 will be :

(1) 0.330 V
(2) 1.653 V
(3) 1.212 V
(4) 0.111 V

17) The standard electrode potential value of the elements A, B and C are 0.68, –2.50 and 0.50 V
respectively. The order of their reducing power is:

(1) A > B > C

(2) A > C > B
(3) C > B > A
(4) B > C > A

18) E° of Mg2+/Mg, Zn2+/Zn and Fe2+/Fe are

–2.37V, –0.76V and –0.44 V respectively which of the following is correct :-

(1) Mg oxidizes Zn+2

(2) Zn oxidises Fe
(3) Zn reduces Mg2+
(4) Zn reduces Fe2+

19) Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt bridge because :

+ –
(1) velocity of K is greater than that of NO3
– +
(2) velocity of NO3 is greater than that of K
 + –
(3) velocity of K and NO3 are nearly the same
(4) KNO3 is highly soluble in water

20) Which of the following statements about galvanic cell is incorrect

(1) Anode is positive

(2) Oxidation occurs at the electrode with lower reduction potential
(3) Cathode is positive
(4) Reduction occurs at cathode

21) In a galvanic cell, the electrons flow from :-

(1) anode to cathode through the solution

(2) cathode to anode through the solution
(3) anode to cathode through the external circuit
(4) cathode to anode through the external circuit

22) Calculate Ecell of the given reaction -

Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu+2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(0.01M) (0.0001M)
if E°cell = 0.46 V

(1) 0.401 V
(2) 0.519 V
(3) 0.46 V
(4) 0.430 V

23) The values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are –0.41, +1.57, +0.77 and +1.97 V respectively.
For which one of these metals the change in oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest ?

(1) Co
(2) Mn
(3) Fe
(4) Cr

24) At 25°C the potential of hydrogen electrode

( = 1 atm and [H⊕] = 0.04 M) will be :-

(1) +0.084 V
(2) –0.042 V
(3) –0.063 V
(4) –0.084 V

25) The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be negative if

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Number of Faraday required to liberate 8 g. of H2 is

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 4
(4) 2

27) When an electric current is passed through acidulated, water, 112 mL of hydrogen gas at N.T.P.
collects at the cathode in 965 seconds. The current passed, in amperes, is-

(1) 1.0
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.1
(4) 2.0

0
28) If the E cell for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the correct
relationship for the values of ΔG° and Keq ?

(1) ΔG° > 0 ; Keq > 1

(2) ΔG° < 0 ; Keq > 1
(3) ΔG° < 0 ; Keq < 1
(4) ΔG° > 0 ; Keq < 1

29) Co | Co2+ (C2) || Co2+ (C1) | Co ; for this cell ΔG is negative if-

(1) C2 > C1
(2) C1 > C2
(3) C1 = C2
(4) unpredictable

30) Eo for F2 + 2e– → 2F– is 2.8 V,

Eo for ½F2 + e– → F– is ?

(1) 2.8 V
(2) 1.4 V
(3) –2.8 V
(4) –1.4 V

31)
cell reaction will be :-
(1) Spontaneous
(2) Nonspontaneous
(3) Equilibrium
(4) None of these

32) Three Faradays of electricity are passed through molten Al2O3, aqueous solution of CuSO4 and
molten NaCl taken in different electrolytic cells. The amount of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the
cathodes will be in the ratio of

(1) 1 mole : 2 mole : 3 mole

(2) 3 mole : 2 mole : 1 mole
(3) 1 mole : 1.5 mole : 3 mole
(4) 1.5 mole : 2 mole : 3 mole

33) On electrolysis of dil. NaCl using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at cathode will be

(1) O2 gas
(2) Na
(3) Cl2 gas
(4) H2 gas

34) When aqueous solution of KCl is electrolysed, resultant solution has

(1) pH > 7
(2) pH = 7
(3) pH < 7
(4) Initially less than 7 then increases

35) The number of atoms of aluminum deposited by 10A current in 96.5 s is nearly

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) When 0.1 mol is oxidised the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidise
is :-

(1) 96500 C
(2) 2 × 96500 C
(3) 9650 C
(4) 96.50 C

37) The amount of substance produced by electrolysis is proportional to :-

(1) Amount of charge
(2) Equivalent weight of the substance
(3) Size of electrodes
(4) Both (1) & (2)

38) Ratio of masses of Cl2 and H2 produced by electrolysis of NaCl(aq) solution is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) During electrolysis of water, the volume of O2 liberated is 2.24 dm3. The volume of hydrogen
liberated under same conditions will be :

(1) 2.24 dm3

(2) 1.12 dm3
(3) 4.48 dm3
(4) 0.56 dm3

40) Statement–I:– Dry cell is a seconary cell.

Statement–II:– Negative electrode in Daniel cell is zinc electrode.

(1) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I and II are correct
(4) Statement I and II are incorrect

41)

Which battery/cell is rechargeable -

(1) Dry cell

(2) Mercury cell
(3) Lead-storage battery
(4) Leclanche cell

42) Which of the following statement is incorrect about fuel cell ?

(1) It does not cause any pollution

(2) It has low efficiency
(3) Water is formed in hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell.
(4) It was used in Apollo space program.
43) A dilute aqueous solution of CuSO4 is electrolyzed using platinum electrodes. The products at the
anode and cathode are :-

(1) O2, H2
(2) H2, O2
(3) O2, Cu

(4) , H2

44) The number of Faradays (F) required to produce 20g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca = 40g mol–1) is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

45) On passing one faraday of electricity through a dilute solution of an acid, the volume of hydrogen
obtained at NTP is : -

(1) 22400 mL
(2) 1120 mL
(3) 2240 mL
(4) 11200 mL

BIOLOGY

1) In most of the water-pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from wetting by :-

(1) Exine
(2) Intine
(3) Pollen-kitt
(4) Mucilagenous covering

2)

Dioecious plants among the following are

Castor, Papaya, Maize, Pea

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Six

3) Statement-I: Geitonogamy is functionally cross pollination and genetically self-pollination.

Statement-II: Geitonogamy involves pollinating agent but pollen grains come from same plant.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

4) If the female parent bears bisexual flowers then in case of artificial hybridisations the step
involved are:-
(I) Bagging (II) Emasculation
(III) Rebagging (IV) Dusting
Their correct sequence is :-

(1) I-II-IV-III
(2) II-I-IV-III
(3) III-IV-II-I
(4) II-I-III-IV

5) ______ produce assured seed set even in the abscence of pollinators.

(1) Chasmogamous flower

(2) Open flower
(3) Cleistogamous flower
(4) Both 1 and 2

6) Which of the following brings genetically different types of pollen grain to the stigma?

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Xenogamy
(4) Both (2) and (3)

7) Pollination by water in flowering plants is limited to :

(1) 20 genera, mostly monocots.

(2) 30 genera, mostly dicots.
(3) 50 genera, mostly monocots.
(4) 30 genera, mostly monocots.

8) Polyembryony is seen in :

(1) Citrus
(2) Mango
(3) Papaya
(4) Both (1) and (2)
9) Identify A, B, C, D and D in the following structures -

(1) A–Scutellum, B–Coleoptile, C–Epiblast, D–Coleorhiza

(2) A–Coleoptile, B–Epiblast, C–Scutellum, D–Coleorhiza
(3) A–Coleorhiza, B–Scutellum, C–Epiblast, D–Coleoptile
(4) A–Epiblast, B–Coleorhiza, C–Scutellum, D–Coleoptile,

10) In the grass family, the cotyledon is called :-

(1) Coleorrhiza
(2) Epiblast
(3) Scutellum
(4) Coleoptile

11) Triple fusion occurs when male gamete fuses with the :-

(1) Synergids
(2) Egg nucleus
(3) Two polar nuclei
(4) All of these

12) How many nuclei are involved in double fertilization ?

(1) 2
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 5

13) In angiosperms, syngamy is required for the formation of

(1) Endosperm
(2) Zygote
(3) Egg
(4) None of these
14) The central cell of embryo sac, as a result of triple fusion becomes :

(1) Primary endosperm nucleus (PEN)

(2) Endosperm
(3) Embryo
(4) Primary endosperm cell (PEC)

15) Pericarp develops from

(1) Septum
(2) Ovary wall
(3) Funiculus
(4) Integument

16) Pollination by __________ is more common amongst abiotic pollination.

(1) Insect
(2) Birds
(3) Wind
(4) Water

17) Endosperm development precedes embryo development, the endosperm of angiospermic plant
is: -

(1) Triploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Haploid
(4) Tetraploid

18) PEN undergoes successive nuclear division to give rise to free nuclei. This occurs in

(1) Pollen formation

(2) Endosperm formation
(3) Embryo formation
(4) Flower formation

19) The mature seed contain how many percent water :-

(1) 5 - 10 %
(2) 20 - 25%
(3) 10 - 15%
(4) 25 - 30%

20) Which of the following have endospermic seeds?

(1) Bean
(2) Pea
(3) Castor
(4) Ground nut

21) Occasionally, in some seeds such as ..............(A)........... , remnants of nucellus are also
persistent. This residual, persistent nucellus is the ..............(B)........... .

(1) (A) Castor and beet (B) Endosperm

(2) (A) Castor and beet (B) Caruncle
(3) (A) Maize and rice (B) Aleurone layer
(4) (A) Black pepper and beet (B) Perisperm

22) Polyembryony means ?

(1) Presence of many seeds in a fruit.

(2) Production of many embryos by a plant.
(3) Presence of more than one embryo in a seed
(4) All of these

23) What of the following is not correctly matched regarding post fertilisation transformations :-

(1) Ovule → Seed

(2) Ovary → Fruit
(3) Outer integument → Tegmen
(4) Inner integument → Tegmen

24)

Which of the following conditions promote cross pollination?

(1) Male and female reproductive organs mature at the same time
(2) Closed flower
(3) Self-incompatibility
(4) Presence of bisexual flowers

25) Which of the following is a monoecious flowering plant?

(1) Maize
(2) Castor
(3) Vallisnaria
(4) Both 1 & 2

26)

A particular species of plant produces light, nonsticky pollen in large numbers and its stigmas are
long and feathery. These modifications facilitate pollination by
(1) Insects
(2) Water
(3) Wind
(4) Animals.

27) Which of the following is the tallest flower?

(1) Vallisneria
(2) Zostera
(3) Amorphophallus
(4) None of these

28) Which of the following produces two types of flower i.e. chasmogamons and cleistogamous
flower?

(1) Viola
(2) Commelina
(3) Common Pansy
(4) All of these

29) Statement I: Pollen pistil interaction is a dynamic process.

Statement II: Monoecious plants prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy.

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

30) Which of the following are considered as floral rewards provided by flowers to the floral visitors?

(1) Nectar
(2) Pollen grains
(3) Safe place to lay eggs
(4) All of the above
31) Following diagrams (A) & (B) represent ?

(A) Female flower of Hydrilla

(1)
(B) Male flower of Hydrilla
(A) Male flower of Hydrilla
(2)
(B) Female flower of Hydrilla
(A) Female flower of Vallisneria
(3)
(B) Male flower of Vallisneria
(A) Male flower of Vallisneria
(4)
(B) Female flower of Vallisneria

32) What will be the ploidy of endosperm and zygote respectively if the cross is made between 6n

plant and 4n plant?

(1) 5n, 8n
(2) 8n, 5n
(3) 10n, 7n
(4) 6n, 4n

33) Given structure marks the which stage of dicot embryo development.

(1) Globular embryo

(2) Heart shape embryo
(3) Mature embryo
(4) Proembryo
34)
Identify the A :-

(1) Synergid
(2) Egg nucleus
(3) Vegetative nucleus
(4) Zygote

35) In which of the following plant the female flower reach the surface of water by long stalk and
male flowers or pollen grains are released on the surface of water?

(1) Hydrilla
(2) Zostera
(3) Vallisneria
(4) All of the above

36) Statement I : Apple is a false fruit

Statement II : Fruit that develops only from the ovary is called true fruit.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

37) Epicotyl has a shoot apex and few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure known as :-

(1) Coleoptile
(2) Coleorrhiza
(3) Scutellum
(4) Tigellum

38) The portion of embryonal axis below the level of cotyledon is known as: -

(1) Coleoptile
(2) Hypocotyl
(3) Epicotyl
(4) Coleorrhiza

39) ________ of mature seeds are crucial for storage of seeds which can be used as food through out
the year and also to raise crops in next season.
(1) Dehydration
(2) Dormancy
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Abscission

40) Select the fleshy fruits ?

(1) Groundnut and Mango

(2) Mustard and Orange
(3) Guava and Mustard
(4) Mango and Guava

41) Dicot embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac in which of the following
sequences?

(1) Zygote → Pro-embryo → Mature embryo → Globular embryo

(2) Zygote → Pro-embryo → Globular embryo → Heart shaped embryo→ Mature embryo
(3) Zygote → Globular embryo→ Pro-embryo → Heart shaped embryo → Mature embryo
(4) Zygote → Pro-embryo → Heart shaped embryo → Globular embryo → Mature embryo

42) Statement I : Lupinus arcticus show 10000 years of seed viability

Statement II : Phoenix dactylifera show 2000 years of seed viability

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

43)

Fruit production without fertilisation is called ?

(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Polyembryony
(4) Amphimixis

44)

Apomixis is –

(1) Special mechanism to produce seed without fertilization

(2) Special mechanism to produce seed with fertilization
(3) Mimics of sexual reproduction
(4) Both (1) and (3)

45) Statement-I : If the seeds collected from hybrids are sown. The plants in the progeny will
segregate and do not maintain hybrid characters.
Statement-II : If hybrids are made into apomicts. There is no segregation of characters in the
hybrid progeny.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

46) Size of morulla is :-

(1) More than zygote

(2) Less than zygote
(3) Equal to zygote
(4) None of these

47) The figure below show four stage (a, b, c, d) of human development. Select from the given option
giving correct identification together with site of occurrence?

Development stage Site of occurrence

(1) a Fertilised egg Isthmus part of fallopian tube

(2) b Zygote End part of fallopian tube

(3) c Gastrula Starting point of Fallopian tube

(4) d Blastocyst Uterine cavity

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the
events in a proper sequence.
A - Sudden increase in the levels of LH
B - Growth of the follicle
C - Growth of corpus luteum
D - Ovulation
E - Secretion of FSH

(1) E B A D C
(2) E A B D C
(3) E B A C D
(4) E B D A C

49) Once a sperm fuses with an ovum, the remaining sperms cannot fertilize ovum. What changes
are responsible for such phenomenon?

(1) Selective permeation through ovum.

(2) Specific spatial arrangement of corona radiata cells.
(3) Change in the membrane zona pellucida.
(4) Ovum releases toxic substances thereby killing other sperms.

50) The extra embryonic membrane in humans prevents dessication of embryo inside the uterus is

(1) Yolk sac

(2) Amnion
(3) Chorion
(4) Allantois

51) Which hormone is secreted from human placenta

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Human chorionic gonadotrophin
(4) All of these

52) Gestation period is the time interval

(1) From fertilization to lactation

(2) From implantation to parturition
(3) From zygote to death
(4) All

53) Statement 1: The wall of uterus have a middle thick layer of smooth muscle called myometrium.
Statement 2: Myometrium exhibits strong contraction during Parturition.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Only Statement 1 is true
(3) Only Statement 2 is true
(4) Both statements are false

54) Statement-I: The changes in the ovary and uterus during menstrual cycle are induced by the
changes in the levels of ovarian hormones only.
Statement-II: In the absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum degenerates which causes
disintegration of endometrium leading to menstruation, marking a new cycle.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement-I and II are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

55) Statement I - During implantation blastocyst gets embedded in the endometrium of uterus
Statement II - Uterine cells divide after implantation rapidly and cover the blastocyst once it gets
attached to uterine wall

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Only Statement II is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct & Statement II is incorrect

56) Consider the following statements :

I : The follicles present at birth carry primary oocytes arrested at meiosis I.
II : The secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II is released at ovulation.
III : The second meiotic division is completed by the secondary oocyte just prior to the entry of the
sperm into it.
Which of the above statements are true?

(1) I and II only

(2) I and III only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II, and III

57) Regarding early embryonic development in humans :

I : The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during
the third month.
II : By the end of about 24 weeks, the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate, and eyelashes
are formed.

(1) Only I is correct

(2) Only II is correct
(3) Both I and II are correct
(4) Both I and II are incorrect

58) Which of the following events in menstrual cycle of human female involves sloughing of
endometrium due to fall in level of progesterone?

(1) Menstruation
(2) Follicular Phase
(3) Ovulatory Phase
(4) Luteal Phase

59) Which part of the sperm is filled with enzymes that help in fertilisation of ovum?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Tail
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Acrosome

60) Match the following -

Column I Column II

A Menopause i Leydig Cells

B Fertilization ii Parturition

C Androgens iii 50 years of age

Ampullary region of
D Oxytocin iv
fallopian tube
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

61) Correct sequence of embryo development -

(1) Gamete Zygote Morula Blastula Gastrula

(2) Gamete Zygote Blastula Morula Gastrula
(3) Gamete Neurula Gastrula
(4) Gastrula Neurula Morula

62) The signals for parturition originate from

(1) Placenta as well as fully developed foetus

(2) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(3) Fully developed foetus only
(4) Placenta only

63) In the fertile human female who has menstrual cycle of 36 days, approximately on which day of
the menstrual cycle does ovulation take place?

(1) Day 30
(2) Day 22
(3) Day 1
(4) Day 8

64) During pregnancy the level of. How many of the following hormone increase several folds-
Estrogen, Progesterone, Cortisol, Prolactin, Thyroxine

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Two
(4) Three
65) Limbs and external genital organs are well developed by the end of

(1) 10 weeks
(2) 12 weeks
(3) 24 weeks
(4) 28 weeks

66) On which day of menstrual cycle is the thickness of endometrium maximum

(1) On 23rd day

(2) On 28th day
(3) On 14th day
(4) None of these

67) Temporary endocrine glands in humans is/are

(1) Mammary glands

(2) Placenta
(3) Bartholin gland
(4) Prostate gland

68) Capacitation occurs in :-

(1) Epididymis
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Vagina
(4) Rete testis

69) The correct sequence of duct from inside to outside the mammary gland is :

(1) Alveoli → mammary duct → mammary tubules → mammary ampulla → lactiferous ducts
Alveoli → mammary tubules → mammary ampulla
(2)
→ mammary duct → lactiferous ducts
Alveoli → mammary tubules → mammary duct →
(3)
mammary ampulla → lactiferous ducts
Alveoli → mammary duct → mammary ampulla →
(4)
mammary tubules lactiferous ducts

70) Normally placenta is formed by the interdigitation of :

(1) Chorionic villi with trophoblast

(2) Chorionic villi with fallopian tube wall
(3) Chorionic villi with uterine tissue
(4) Chorionic villi with inner cell mass

71) Colostrum :
(1) Is a hormone essential for milk secretion
can be synthesized by the newborn infant but not
(2)
by a foetus
Stimulates further secretion of oxytocin for uterine
(3)
contraction
Is a source of antibodies essential to develop
(4)
resistance against diseases in new born babies

72) Statement I : 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cell, called blastomeres.

Statement II : The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

73) Statement I : hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
Statement II : The placenta facilitate the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

74)

Plasma levels of two hormones in menstrual cycle are shown in the graph. Correctly identify their
source.

(1) P – Pituitary; Q – Adrenal

(2) P – Hypothalamus; Q – Ovary
(3) P – Ovary; Q – Pituitary
(4) P – Ovary; Q – Ovary

75) Following are given reproductive events in human :

A. Fertilization B. Parturition
C. Gestation D. Gametogenesis
E. Implantation F. Insemination
If we arrange the above events in sequence of occurrence, then the 3rd and 5th events will be

(1) F and C
(2) D and E
(3) A and C
(4) F and D

76) Which of the following human developmental stage becomes embedded in the uterine
endometrium by a process called implantation and leads to pregnancy?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

77) Statement I : The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called
trophoblast and an inner group of cells attached to trophoblast called the inner cell mass.
Statement II : The trophoblast layer then gets attached to the endometrium and the inner cell mass
gets differentiated as the embryo.

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

78) In which stage of development the embryonic cells form the germinal layers by the movement?

(1) Morula
(2) Blastula
(3) Gastrula
(4) Zygote

79) Secretion of milk from the mammary gland towards the end of the pregnancy is called ________.

(1) Lactation
(2) Parturition
(3) Fertilization
(4) Implantation
80) In human, fertilisation is possible only when,

(1) Secondary oocyte and sperm are transported simultaneously to the ampullary region.
(2) Haploid ovum (ootid) enter into the fallopian tube and sperm enter into uterus at the same time.
(3) Ovum and sperm enter into uterus at the same time.
The haploid ovum (ootid) re lease from ovary and in semination to vaginal orifice at the same
(4)
time.

81) The time for optimum chances of conception in a woman is ________ starting from the day of
menstruation.

(1) 1st day

(2) 4th day
(3) 14th day
(4) 26th day

82) Repair of endometrium is undertaken by

(1) LH
(2) FSH
(3) estrogen
(4) prolactin

83) Which part of the sperm plays an important role in penetrating the egg membrane?

(1) Allosome
(2) Tail
(3) Autosome
(4) Acrosome

84) Yellow corpus luteum occurs in a human in :-

(1) heart to initiate heart beat

(2) skin to function as pain receptor
(3) brain and connects cerebral hemispheres
(4) ovary for the secretion of progesterone

85) Statement I: Maintenance of hygiene and sanitation during menstruation is very important.
Statement II: Change sanitary napkins or homemade pads after every 4–5 hrs as per the
requirement.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
86) What does 'd' represent in the figure?

(1) Embryo
(2) Umbilical cord
(3) Yolk sac
(4) Cavity of uterus

87) For normal fertility, what percentage of the sperms of the ejaculate must have normal shape and
size?

(1) 60
(2) 40
(3) 50
(4) 24

88) Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female

(1) LH surge
(2) Decrease in estrogen
(3) Full development of Graafian follicle
(4) Release of secondary oocyte

89) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding menstrual cycle?

The changes in the ovaries as well as uterine endometrium are induced by changes in the level
(1)
of ovarian and pituitary hormones, respectively
(2) Menstrual cycle is stopped during pregnancy
(3) Menstrual cycle is the reproductive cycle exhibited by continuous breeders
(4) The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche

90) Labour contractions would be increased by the use of a synthetic drug that mimics the action of

(1) luteinizing hormone

(2) oxytocin
(3) prolactin
(4) vasopressin