1. The present capital value of a capital project fund is $23197.

the fund was initially started 12 years ago with a

single investment and interest has average 4.7% per 3 years. Was the original investment amount?
a. 7732.33 USD
b. 9027.49 USD
c. 13368.16 USD
d. 19326.04 USD
Given:

2. Which is defined as the force required to pull an object?

A. Spring force
B. Applied force
C. Tension Force
D. Frictional force

C. Tension Force
Tension force refers to the force that is transmitted through a string, rope, cable, or any other form of flexible
connector when it is pulled tight by forces acting from opposite ends.

3. Which does a toxicity characteristic leaching procedure measure?

A. Amount of a chemical that would leach into the soil as a result of commercial use.
B. Amount of a chemical that would leach out into ground water under specific condition
 C. Amount of a chemical that would leach into public waterways as a result of private use
D. Amount of a chemical leach out that an individual would be exposed to through prolonged skin exposure

The toxicity characteristic leaching procedure (TCLP) measures:

B. Amount of a chemical that would leach out into ground water under specific conditions
The TCLP is designed to determine the potential for hazardous waste to release contaminants into groundwater under
conditions that simulate a landfill environment.

4. Which statement would best address the issue of business continuity for company?
A. The company require the first line employees memorize all the production process
B. A safety manager documents all production process and training prolongs in a notebook.
C. The company keeps contact information for its employees in case they leave or release from the company
D. A safety manager documents all safety practice and training programs and saves on the company
clouds storage.

5. A company is shipping hazardous waste to a treatment, storage and disposal facility for the first time/ they need
to ensure proper treatment of hazardous waste, which documents must be provided?
A. Safety Data Sheet
B. Hazardous Waste profile
C. Hazardous waste manifest
D. Hazardous material management plan.

6. Which item is included in the high-level class of radiological waste?

A. Non reprocessed, irradiated nuclear fuel
B. Waste that in not spent fuel, uranium or thorium mill tailing
C. Primary waste produced from the chemical reprocessing of spent fuel
D. Waste that contains long lived alpha emitting transuranic radionuclides

7. A safety professional is assessing the level of disease infection among employees by applying the incidence
count method-Which statement describes the safety professional process?
A. Counting the total numbers of infection at the particular point in time
B. Counting the total number of fatalities at the end of production year
C. Counting the number of infection onsets that commence over a period of time
D. Counting the total number of both infection and fatality among the employees

8. To maximize the e`ectiveness of learning, face to face instruction is often combined with new training
technologies such as application, games virtual reality and mobile computer-which is name of this form by
learning?
A. Blended
B. Addictive
C. Combined
D. Computer-based
Blended learning combines traditional face-to-face instruction with new training technologies such as
applications, games, virtual reality, and mobile computing to maximize the e`ectiveness of learning.

9. Which fit testing method is used to determine the actual leakage of test gas, vapor or aerosol from inside a
respirator?
A. Qualitative using instrumentation to sample and measure that test atmosphere and the air inside the
respirator facepiece.
B. Quantitative using instrumentation to sample and measure the test atmosphere and the air inside
the respirator facepiece.
C. Qualitative using a subjective respirator with a test agent that typically can be detect by the wearer, such
as irritant smoke
D. Quantitative using a subjective respirator with a test agent that typically can be irritant smoke
The fit testing method used to determine the actual leakage of test gas, vapor, or aerosol from inside a
respirator is: Quantitative fit testing (QNFT) uses precise instruments to measure the amount of leakage into
the respirator and provides a numerical result called a fit factor. B. Quantitative using instrumentation to
sample and measure the test atmosphere and the air inside the respirator facepiece.
10. A room is 20ft (6.096m) wide,40ft (12.192m) long and 9 ft (2.742m) high with an outside air intake of 800cfm
(22.7m3/min)-what is the air change per hour?
A. 6.7
B. 8.5
C. 9.0
D. 12.5
To calculate the air changes per hour (ACH) for the room, we need to determine how many times the volume
of air in the room is replaced by the outside air intake per hour.

11. Which is a benefit of conducting a training need assessment?

A. Training consultant and suppliers can be evaluated
B. The correct solution for performance problem can be determined
C. Employees can be encouraged to apply what they learned to their work
D. A learn plan can be prepared to determine the trainings level of competence
Conducting a training needs assessment helps identify the specific gaps in skills and knowledge that need to
be addressed, ensuring that the training provided is targeted and e`ective in solving performance issues.

12. How does the general data protection regulation (GDPR) of the European parliament view the protection of
personal data?
A. Fundamental right
B. Determined by legal regulations
C. Department upon the need for privacy
D. Something subject to technological advances

13. A company is using a risk management process as part of a planned plant expansion. They being identifying by
the organization internal and external environment to determine factors that could influence project completion-
which aspect of the risk management process is the company performing?
A. Analyzing the risk
B. Establishing context
 C. Identifying the risk
D. Monitoring and reviewing
Establishing context involves understanding the internal and external environment in which the organization
operates to identify factors that could influence project completion. This step sets the foundation for
identifying and analyzing risks e`ectively.

14. How is di`usion defined for atmosphere fate and transport?

A. The dispersion of a contaminated relative to its advective movement
B. The movement of contaminated with an air mass in a predominately horizontal direction
C. An intermedia transfer mechanism that removes particular and aerosol matter from the atmosphere
D. The process by which particulates and gases are deposited onto the earth’s surface from the atmosphere
Di`usion refers to the process by which molecules spread from areas of high concentration to areas of low
concentration, and this occurs independently of the bulk movement of the air mass (advection).
However, if we were discussing the movement of contaminants with an air mass predominantly in a horizontal
direction, that would refer to advection rather than di`usion

15. A group of safety professionals reviewed the number of safety incidents from their respective departments for the
past fiscal year and found the following numbers of recorded injuries.
• 17 Serious injuries in the fleet department
• 37 minor injuries in the administration department
• 28 serious injuries in the carpentry department
• 11 serious injuries in the electrical department
• 38 minor injuries in the housekeeping department
• 18 serious injuries in the engineering department.
What is the mean number of serious injuries?
A. 18.05
B. 24.08
C. 29.06
D. 37.5

16. A safety manager at the manufacturing plant is selecting job that should be analyzed using a job safety analysis-
which job should be selected?
A. Mining iron work
B. Operating a press brake machine
C. building a structure on property to store hazardous chemical
D. Turning a switch to provide power to a computer numeric control machine
Operating a press brake machine involves significant risks and hazards that need careful analysis to ensure
safety procedures are in place and followed. This job typically has higher potential for injury due to the nature
of the machinery and the tasks involve

17. Which element are associated with underground storage tank leaks?
A. Noncorrosive fiberglass line
B. Flood walers and storm run-o`
C. Improper insulation and manufacturing materials
D. Piping failure, corrosion and spill and overfilling

18. The following are known to prevent optimal conditions for the growth of legionella pneumophila, the causative
agent of legionnaires disease
1. Cooling tower
2. Hot water system that delivers water below 50.c
3. Chlorinated water system
 Which item should be added to this list?
A. Passivation of the water within the treatment system
B. Desalinization of water throughout the treatment system
C. Moving water through appropriate filtration media in the system
D. Removal of dead legs that generate stagnation in water system

19. Which critical thinking technique is appropriate for use during a presentation?
A. Asking learners to evaluate each other quiz answer
B. Ending the presentation by having the learners complete a quiz
C. Asking learners to write down question raised by the presentation
D. Ending the presentation with tell them what you have said segment

This technique encourages active engagement and reflection, helping learners to think critically about the
content presented and identify areas that require further clarification or discussion.

20. Given this parallel circuit

Which type of component is labelled A in the circuit?

A. Diode
B. Battery
C. Resistor
D. Capacitor
21. Which post training evaluation tool is used to judge the quality of performance using clearly communicated
description?
A. Rubric
B. Checklist
C. Direct Testing
D. Anecdote record
A rubric provides detailed criteria and standards for di`erent levels of performance, allowing for a structured
and consistent assessment of the quality of performance
Anecdote record is a narrative description of an individual's performance or behavior over a period of time. It
provides qualitative data and can capture specific examples and context of performance, but it is less
structured than a rubric or checklist
22. Which set of human factor supports the theory that accidents are entirely the result of human error?
A. Engineering, society and internal
B. Situational, personal and professional
C. Environmental, internal and situational
D. Environmental, personal and professional
The set of human factors that supports the theory that accidents are entirely the result of human error should
include:
• Environmental: External conditions that influence human behavior.
• Personal: Individual characteristics and conditions.
• Professional: Work-related factors, such as training, experience, and workplace practices.

23. Which need must be satisfied first according to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
A. Safety
B. Physiological
C. Self-actualization
D. Love and belonging
24. Which item is used to describe the transformation of a contaminant to other forms through decay or other
processes during hydrology?
A. Dispersion
B. Infiltration
C. Degradation
D. Evapotranspiration
A. Dispersion: Dispersion refers to the spreading of a contaminant through a medium (such as water or air) due to the
movement of particles.
B. Infiltration: Infiltration is the process by which water on the ground surface enters the soil.
C. Degradation: Degradation is the process by which contaminants are chemically or biologically broken down into
di`erent substances. This is the correct term for describing the transformation of contaminants in hydrology.
D. Evapotranspiration: Evapotranspiration is the sum of evaporation from the land surface and transpiration from
plants. It describes the movement of water from the land to the atmosphere.

25. A group of employees have received the training on method to conduct a root cause analysis during an incident
investigation -Which should be measured immediately after the training is over?
A. Change in behavior performing root cause analysis
B. Knowledge level on the method of root cause analysis
C. Problem solving level on method of root cause analysis
D. Skill level in incident investigation involving root cause analysis
Immediately post-training, it is most e`ective to measure the participants' understanding and retention of the
information provided. This can be done through quizzes, tests, or other assessments that evaluate their knowledge of
the root cause analysis method. Changes in behavior, problem-solving levels, and skill levels are typically assessed
over a longer period as they apply what they've learned in real-world scenarios.

26. A fatality has occurred at a place of business and the supervisor asks the certified safety professional (CSP) to
report to media questions by assuring them that the deceased was fully trained and wearing appropriate personal
protective equipment (PPE)Which violation made by the CSP?
A. BCSP safety violation in regard to not providing proper PPE
B. BCSP ethics violation in regard to conducting an investigation.
C. BCSP ethics violation in regard to issuing an untrue statement
D. BCSP safety violation in regard to not providing proper training
Issuing a statement to the media without having completed a thorough investigation to verify the facts can be
considered an ethical violation. The CSP should ensure that all statements made are accurate and based on verified
information to maintain professional integrity and ethical standards

27. Which aquifer type can decontaminate ground water contaminate with bacteria from sewage within a few
hundred feet (about one hundred meter)
A. Sand
B. Limestone
C. Coarse Gravel
D. Fractured Crystalline rock
28. Which is one way to management can demonstrate leadership and commitment to occupational health and
safety management system?
A. Determining the return on investment of health and safety committed and reporting finding to the board of
directors.
B. Establishing corporate occupational health and safety object and assuring that the health and safety
committee meets weekly
C. Participating in and leading the health and safety committee and conducting audit to determine how
hazards arises from routine and non-routine tasks
D. Protecting workers from reprisals when reporting incidents, hazards risk and opportunities and
supporting the establishment and function of health and safety committee
This option demonstrates leadership and commitment to occupational health and safety management by
emphasizing the importance of creating an environment where workers feel safe to report incidents, hazards,
risks, and opportunities without fear of reprisals. Additionally, supporting the establishment and function of
health and safety committees shows a dedication to involving workers in the safety management process and
fostering a culture of safety within the organization.

29. Which is the perfect method to reduce heat stress on the body?
A. Rotate workers in and out of heat area every 15 minutes
B. Allow workers to rest in the area whenever its required
C. Utilize ventilation to remove source of heat and humidity from the environment
D. Allow workers to minimize the personal protective equipment requirement to prevent heat stress.
This method directly addresses the source of heat stress by improving the working environment, making it
safer and more comfortable for workers. E`ective ventilation can significantly reduce the overall temperature
and humidity, which helps in preventing heat stress.

30. Which is the first action should be taken after building is damaged by the earthquake?
A. Have cleaning crew go through and clean up any messes
B. Have an engineer assess the structure integrity of the building
C. Have an assessment team go through and look for any hazards
D. Have a hazmat crew go in and ensure that all chemical and storage is secure.
This step is crucial to ensure the safety of anyone entering the building. An engineer can determine if the
building is structurally sound or if there are any immediate risks of collapse or other structural failures that
need to be addressed before any other actions are taken.

31. Which engineering control can be used as a risk reduction method for workplace violence?
A. Ensuring adequate sta`ing level
B. Installing key card readers at entrances
C. Prohibiting employees from working alone
D. Reviewing new employee background checks
Engineering controls involve making physical changes to the workplace to reduce risks. Installing key card
readers at entrances is an engineering control that enhances security by controlling and monitoring access to
the building, thereby helping to prevent unauthorized entry and reducing the risk of workplace violence.

32. A safety professional recorded various unsafe acts in the carpentry shop of a manufacturing company. the count
was: 81.79.92.90.85.83 and 89
A. 1.71
B. 1.99
C. 4.53
D. 4.89
Use calculator – provided by BCSP

33. Which is the proper placement of a personal air sampling device to determine the approximate concentration
inhaled by the worker?
A. On the waistline to capture the breathing area of the worker and capturing a radius of 3-5 inches
(7.62-12.7cm)
B. On a solid surface to capture the berating area of the worker and capturing a radius of 6-9 inches
(15-24,22-86cm)
 C. On the worker as close as possible to the breathing zone of the worker and capturing a radius of 6-9
inch (15-24,22-86cm)
D. On the worker as close as possible to the breathing
Placing the device close to the worker's breathing zone ensures that the air being sampled is representative of
what the worker is actually inhaling. The breathing zone is generally considered to be within a 6-9 inch radius
around the nose and mouth.

34. Which is an example of a performance problem that can be solved by training?

A. Poor job design
B. Lack of knowledge
C. Poor communication
D. Lack of employee motivation
Training is an e`ective solution for addressing a lack of knowledge because it can provide employees with the
necessary information and skills to perform their jobs e`ectively.

35. Which is characteristic of hand-arm vibration syndrome?

A. Reduced blood flow to the fingers and hand
B. Elevated skin temperature due to inflammation
C. Increased the sensitivity of skin on the finger and hand
D. Associated with acute exposure to vibration during hand tool use

36. The inspection and test of a safety shows on average of 20 failures per 10000 pieces produced with
a standard deviation of 10. Which is the probability given unit when fail when inspected?
A. 2x104
B. 2x10-3
C. 1x103
D. 1x102

37. Which is the purpose of using a chain of custody from when shipping a sample from the point of
collection to the test laboratory?
A. It ensures that the analytical results cannot be challenged in a legal proceeding
B. It ensures that the individual collecting the sample were picked up and shipped
C. It ensures that the test laboratory knows the samples were safely packaged for transportation,
should there be any question.
D. It ensures a level of confidence that the analytical results are from the actual samples received and
no tempering occurred after the collection of the sample

38. To e`ectively filter water containing sugars, dyes or surfactants in the 0.0005-micron to 0.005-
micron size range, which is the largest pare size membrane that should be recommended?
A. Micro filtration
B. Ultrafiltration
C. Nanofiltration
D. Reverse osmosis
A. Microfiltration: pore sizes ranging from 0.1 to 10 microns.
B. Ultrafiltration: pore sizes ranging from 0.01 to 0.1 microns.
C. Nanofiltration: pore sizes ranging from 0.001 to 0.01 microns.
D. Reverse osmosis: pore sizes typically less than 0.001 microns, often around 0.0001 microns.

39. The lower explosive limit (LEL) of xylene is 1.1 . in a room where xylene solution is being sprayed, a
safety professional uses a calibrated combustible gas meter to determine that the xylene
concentration is 10% of LEL. What is the concentration of xylene in this room?
A. 100 Part per million (PPM)
 B. 10000 Part per million (PPM)
C. 9% greater than the LEL of xylene
D. 11% greater than the LEL of xylene

40. Given the table

Which type of gloves would have the greatest level of protection for an employee who is continuously
handling glacial acetic acid for 8 hrs,
A. Nitrile
B. Butyl Unsupported
C. Unsupported neoprene
D. Neoprene/natural rubber
Butyl Unsupported Gloves: They have the best degradation rating (E) and the longest permeation
breakthrough time (7480 minutes), making them the most protective.

41. Which level direct the organization to establish, implement and maintain a safety and health
management system according to the consensus standard ANSI Z10?
A. Safety Managers
B. Top Management
C. Line Management
D. Safety Consultant

42. Which is the first step to developing the training program, according to ANSI Z490. 1. 2016?
A. State any prerequisites
B. Write learning objective
C. Determine if training the correct response to given organizational need
 D. Select the training delivery method to ensure adequate feedback mechanism

43. Which activity describe the first step in the risk management process?
A. Identified and measuring exposures
B. Controlling and financing loss
C. Reviewing and improving program auto comes
D. Selecting and implementing transfer agreements
The first step in the risk management process is to identify and measure exposures. This involves recognizing
potential risks and assessing their impact and likelihood. This step is crucial as it lays the foundation for all
subsequent risk management activities.

44. A disaster recovery plan includes procedures to reinstate voice and data communication at emergency service
level within a specified timeframe. Which disaster recovery process is being described?
A. User recovery process
B. Network recovery process
C. System recovery process
D. Salvage operation process
The disaster recovery process being described involves reinstating voice and data communication at an
emergency service level within a specified timeframe. This process specifically addresses the restoration of
network functionalities, which are critical for communication during and after a disaster

45. Who is /are responsible for ensuring driver do not exceed applicable hours of service regulation?
A. The driver
B. Regulator
C. The company
D. Law enforcement

46. A certified safety professional is identifying hazards and making a risk assessment guide. Which should be
included in this guide?
A. Risk assessment tool which includes a probability and risk matrix.
B. Risk assessment tool which includes a probability and severity matrix.
C. Risk assessment matrix that identifies frequent versus improbable hazards
D. Risk assessment matrix that identifies catastrophic, critical marginal and negligible hazard

47. Which concentration of peroxide in solution would be considered an explosive hazard?

A. 20 part per billion
B. 20 part per million
C. 10 part per billion
D. 100 part per billon
Peroxide solutions can become explosive at relatively low concentrations, but typically these concentrations
are much higher than the parts per billion (ppb) or even parts per million (ppm) levels given in your options.
Generally, organic peroxides or concentrated hydrogen peroxide solutions (e.g., 30% or higher) are where
significant explosive hazards begin.

48. Based on BCSP code of ethics, certificates must adhere to which statement?
A. Be active member of the American society of safety professionals
B. Report misconduct of BCSP certification to the BCSP
C. Hold the senior health safety and environment position I their organization
D. Attend professional development conferences annually

49. Which is the main advantage of using the guided discovery approach to trainng?
A. It quickly build basic required skills and knowledge
B. It accommodates highly individualized learning
C. It motivates the learner to increase situation awareness
D. It is case based with analysis and problem solving of realistic issues
Guided discovery can indeed accommodate individualized learning as it allows learners to explore and learn
at their own pace, making it a valid advantage.
50. The safety professional is instructed by a supervisor to sample a confined space for oxygen deficiency prior to
allowing workers to enter the confined space. The safety professional has background in ergonomics and had just
transferred to the facility as a safety representative. which is the first action the safety professional should take?
A. Ask for training in atmospheric testing
B. Ask to read documentation on prior entries
C. Rely on the entrant for atmospheric testing
D. Rely on the self-proclaimed competent person on site

51. An insurer facing highly correlated risks will most likely choice to take which action?
A. Hire more insurance agent
B. Find more corelated risk business
C. Charge a higher premium
D. Charge a lower premium
Charging a higher premium helps to o`set the increased risk associated with highly correlated risks, ensuring
that the insurer can cover potential claims and maintain financial stability.

52. A project consists of painting furniture which will be take two full weeks for five employees to complete since the
ventilation system is not properly working, the bay doors to the shops are being left open by one employee who is
complaining of headache due to the paint vapors another employee however close the bay door due to the cold
weather. Which action is an administrative control?
A. Provide the employee with respirators
B. Substitute wood stain instead of the paint
C. Allow for job rotation among the employees
D. Repair the ventilation system prior to continuing work

53. A worker’s exposure to solvent was monitored as one short term exposure (15 Min) with the following result

Which can be concluded from this information

A. The worker’s exposure was above the short-term occupational exposure limit for these chemical
B. The worker’s exposure was equal to the short-term occupational exposure limit for these chemical
C. The workers exposure to these chemicals is not considered additive so the formula cannot be utilized
D. The workers exposure to the mixture is 266.667 PPM which is less then the average of occupational
exposure limit
 Since the combined exposure exceeds 1, it indicates that the worker's exposure is above the combined
occupational exposure limit for these chemicals.
Therefore, the correct conclusion is:
A. The worker’s exposure was above the short-term occupational exposure limit for these
chemicals

54. An employee was suspended for not meeting work goals the employee stormed out of the supervisor’s o`ice and
began to kick over and damaged trash cans prior to leaving the building concerned for their safety, several
employees did not report to work that week. The increase is absenteeism resulted in less of sales to the company.
Which type cost factor were caused by the disgruntled employee to the company?
A. Direct cost and indirect costs
B. Direct costs without indirect costs
C. Indirect costs without direct costs
D. Indirect costs and counseling costs

55. Which population group should be used when designing for the distance of a control button from the operation?
A. 5th percentile male
B. 95th percentile male
C. 5th percentile female
D. 95th percentile female
When designing for the distance of a control button from the operator, the goal is to ensure that the button
can be easily reached by as many people as possible. To accommodate the majority of users, designers
typically consider the anthropometric data of the population. To ensure that the button can be reached by
people with shorter reaches, the design should be based on the reach of those in the lower percentile range.
Thus, the correct population group to use is:
C. 5th percentile female
This choice ensures that the control button is positioned within reach of even those with the shortest reach,
thereby accommodating a wider range of users, including smaller individuals.

56. Which item an example of an external task?

A. Data network
B. Portable water
C. Access to the facility
D. Key operating equipment
Access to the facility: This involves external factors such as transportation infrastructure, public roads, and
possibly regulatory compliance for building access. It requires coordination with entities outside the
organization to ensure proper access.

57. Which input is the result of a common cause failure analysis?

A. Determine the variety of way each component could fail
B. Determine that software-based failure contributed to the accident
C. Determine the time-based interaction between the system and personnel
D. Determine the multiple system are aeected by a single component failure
A common cause failure analysis aims to identify failures that occur due to a single cause a`ecting multiple
components or systems simultaneously. This type of analysis seeks to determine how a single event or
condition can lead to failures in di`erent parts of a system, highlighting vulnerabilities that might not be
apparent when considering components in isolation.

58. Within the hierarchy of controls which method includes training about the hazards of asbestos?
A. Tool accountability and control
B. Risk of damage must be eliminated
C. Environmental hazard controls for cleaning solvents
D. Precedence over statutory and regulatory requirement
Given the options and focusing on the specific task of providing training about the hazards of asbestos, which
is an administrative control, the best option within the provided choices would be:
B. Risk of damage must be eliminated
 This option emphasizes the importance of eliminating risk, and training about asbestos hazards is a key part
of reducing the risk by ensuring workers are aware and informed about the dangers and proper handling
procedures.

59. Which failure mode illustrated an error of omission or commission?

A. Latent
B. Human
C. Physical
D. Environmental
The failure mode that illustrates an error of omission or commission is typically associated with human
actions. Errors of omission occur when a necessary action is not performed, while errors of commission
occur when an incorrect action is taken. These types of errors are directly linked to human performance.

60. Which procedure determine if the risk posed by a new process is acceptable when compared to established risk
criteria or whether additional control will be needed?
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk treatment
C. Risk evaluation
D. Risk assessment
Risk analysis: This involves identifying hazards, assessing the likelihood and consequences of risk events,
and estimating the level of risk. It's a detailed examination of the elements that contribute to risk.
Risk treatment: This involves selecting and implementing measures to modify risk. This can include avoiding
the risk, reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk, transferring the risk, or accepting the risk.
Risk evaluation: This involves comparing the results of the risk analysis with risk criteria to determine the
significance of the risk. It is the step where you decide if the risk is acceptable or if additional controls are
needed.
Risk assessment: This is a comprehensive process that includes both risk analysis and risk evaluation. It
encompasses identifying risks, analyzing them, and then evaluating whether the risks are acceptable or
require mitigation.
Given these definitions, the procedure that specifically determines if the risk posed by a new process is
acceptable when compared to established risk criteria or whether additional controls are needed is:
C. Risk evaluation

61. Which tool should an instructor use to best modify existing training to address a specific need?
A. Personal anecdotes or experiences
B. Learner skill assessments
C. Relevant example and information
D. Monitoring and metrics
Learner skill assessments help the instructor to understand the current skill levels and knowledge gaps of the
learners. By assessing these skills, the instructor can tailor the training content to meet the specific needs of
the learners, ensuring that the training is relevant and e`ective in addressing the identified gaps.

62. A company has selected options to modify risk and implemented the option-which strategy is the company using
A. Risk treatment
B. Risk evaluation
C. Risk assessment
D. Risk identification

63. Which level of personal protective equipment should be worn when the type and atmospheric concentration of
substance have been identified a requiring a high level of respiratory protection but less skin protection?
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
Level A:
• Provides the highest level of both respiratory and skin protection.
• Typically includes a fully encapsulating chemical-resistant suit with self-contained breathing apparatus
(SCBA).
 Level B:
• Provides the highest level of respiratory protection with a lesser degree of skin protection compared to Level
A.
Level C:
• Provides lower levels of respiratory and skin protection.
• Typically includes an air-purifying respirator (APR) and chemical-resistant clothing.
Level D:
• Provides the lowest level of protection and is primarily standard work attire.
• Typically includes coveralls, gloves, and safety glasses.
• Used in environments where there are no known respiratory or skin hazards.

64. A risk assessment has been conducted and a document to communicate the result to stockholder
is being prepared. Which tool could be used to document risks?
A. Risk Register
B. Delphi Technique
C. Job hazard analysis
D. Risk Assessment Triggers

67. A company has decided to perform one random safety audit monthly of their 10 crews. The following are
near miss points the crews occurred over the past year.

A crew is considered to be eligible for the safety audit if it occurred near miss point higher then 40 Which is
the probability of a crew being selected for safety audit?

65. An anthrax released occurred in an o`ice building and an incident management team was established to ensure
the incident was managed properly. The building was evacuated assessed cleaned and is now ready to be
occupied. Which critical role of the safety o`icer in the demobilization plan?
A. Overseeing the post incident investigation report
B. Evaluating response personnel prior to the release
C. Ensuring documents and witness statement are in order
D. Issuing an international memo to returning employees regarding incident
This responsibility ensures that all aspects of the incident are reviewed, lessons learned are documented,
and any safety issues are addressed. Overseeing the post-incident investigation report ensures that the entire
process is thoroughly evaluated and improvements are made for future responses. This aligns with ensuring
the incident was managed properly and that all safety protocols were followed.

66. A manufacturing site conduct a risk analysis of replacing 90% of its incandescent lighting with LED
lighting, which will cut the electricity cost by 50%. Which is the risk and benefit analysis of this action?
A. Low risk and low benefit
B. Low risk and High benefit
C. High risk and low benefit
D. High risk and high benefit

67. Which factor is most important in limiting the scope duration and destructiveness of fire?
A. Construction materials
B. Fire extinguisher location
C. Sta` trained to use fire extinguisher’
 D. location of the nearest fire department

68. A worker is injured on job resulting in a permanent partial disability What the worker can do after recuperating
from the injury is determined and structured from what the worker was able to do prior to the accident? Which
type of workers compensation theory is being applied?
A. Wage-loss theory
B. Whole-person theory
C. Whole -earning theory
D. Loss-of wage-earning capacity theory

The scenario describes a situation where the worker's post-injury abilities are assessed and compared to their pre-
injury abilities to determine compensation. This approach focuses on evaluating how the injury impacts the worker's
capacity to earn a wage after the injury compared to their capacity before the injury.

69. A safety professional must immediately measure the amount of carbon monoxide in 9 value pit because
employees need to enter, the proper meter is available but the safety professional has not been trained in its use.
- Which step should be safety professional take?
A. Turn on the meter and follow the prompts
B. Calibrate the meter by following the prompts
C. Find stae appropriately trained to use the meter
D. Read the supplied instructions to learn proper use

70. A company is planning on utilizing storage space above existing o`ice structure in their warehouse which
component must be considered in the calculation of the safe load for their space?
A. Flexural load
B. Tensile force
C. Live load
D. Torsional force
When calculating the safe load for a storage space above an existing o`ice structure in a warehouse, the
primary concern is the total weight that the structure can safely support. This is typically referred to as the
"live load," which includes all the temporary and movable loads that the structure will bear, such as people,
furniture, equipment, and stored items.

71. Employees create and implement written procedures to manage change to process chemical, technology,
Equipment and procedure. Which item would be exempt from this process?
A. Changes in kind
B. Changes in chemical reagents
C. Changes in software to equipment
D. Addition of a new piece of equipment
If "changes in kind" refers to changes that are equivalent in nature and function and do not alter the process,
they might be exempt. For example, replacing a component with an identical one would not typically require a
detailed management of change (MOC) process.

72. After risk avoidance in which order should the hierarchy of control for risk reduction be applied?
A. Warning, elimination, substitution, engineering control, administrative control and personal protective
Equipments
B. Substitution, elimination, engineering control, warning, administrative control and personal protective
equipment’s
C. Elimination, substitution, engineering control, administrative control, personal protective
equipment’s.
D. Elimination, substitution, warning, engineering control, personal protective equipment’s.

73. Which is a basic form of structed on the job training?

A. A formal training with adequate knowledge and skill in the risk delivers the training
B. An explain experienced employee present job- relevant information to other employees one on one
C. A supervisor or certain frontier employee who are recognized as experts deliver the training.
D. A third-party trainer with adequate knowledge and skills in the task present job-related information to a
group of employees
 The basic form of structured on-the-job training (OJT) typically involves experienced employees providing job-
relevant information and training to other employees in a practical, hands-on manner. This approach
leverages the knowledge and expertise of current employees who are familiar with the specific tasks and
processes.

74. Which analysis method notes on undesired event, determine the di`erent ways that the event could occur and
use a logic diagram
A. Fault tree analysis
B. Event tree analysis
C. Cause-and e`ect analysis
D. Failure mode and e`ect analysis
A. Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)

Description: FTA is a top-down approach that starts with a specific undesired event (called the "top event")
and then identifies all possible causes (basic events) using logical relationships.

Process: It uses Boolean logic gates (AND, OR, NOT) to map out the di`erent ways in which the undesired
event can occur.

Output: The result is a logic diagram (fault tree) that visually represents the pathways to failure.

B. Event Tree Analysis (ETA)

Description: ETA is a forward-looking analysis method that starts with an initiating event and explores its
possible outcomes.

Process: It uses a tree-like structure where branches represent di`erent possible events or outcomes that
follow the initiating event.

Output: The result is an event tree that shows various paths from the initiating event to potential
consequences.

C. Cause-and-Eeect Analysis

Description: Also known as a fishbone diagram or Ishikawa diagram, this method identifies potential causes
of a specific problem or e`ect.

Process: It organizes causes into categories (such as People, Methods, Materials, Machinery, Environment,
and Measurement) and maps them in a visual diagram resembling a fishbone.

Output: The result is a diagram that helps identify and organize potential causes of a problem.

D.Failure Mode and Eeect Analysis (FMEA)

Description: FMEA is a systematic, step-by-step method for identifying potential failure modes within a
system, process, or product and analyzing their e`ects.

Process: It involves listing potential failure modes, their causes, and e`ects, and then assessing their
severity, occurrence, and detectability.

Output: The result is a prioritized list of failure modes with recommended actions to mitigate the risks.

75. Which does approve refer to relative to low lift and high lift truck?
A. The classification or listing of a truck in regards to its overall capacity
B. The classification or listing of a truck once all required inspection has been performed
C. The classification or listing of a truck according to ANSI and the industrial truck standards
development foundation
D. The classification or listing as to fire, explosion and/or electric shock hazards by nationally
recognized testing laboratory

76. Which items are considered leading indicators of safety performance?

A. Accident and injuries ranks
B. Numbers of regulatory citation
C. Workers’ compensation
 D. Corrective action item completions

77. Which law of energy states that if a spring is not stretched or compressed, them there is no potential energy
stored in it?
A. Gauss law
B. Hook’s Law
C. Charly Law
D. Newton’s first law of motion

78. Which is the objective of data protection e`orts, such as the general data protection regulation of the European
union (GDPR)?
A. Government should have proper control of citizens data
B. Employers should securely and permanently save employees data
C. Individuals should have primary control over their personal data
D. Business should ensure that client personal data is permanently saved

79. Which is an organizational -based reason for the unwillingness of experienced employees to train others during a
structured on-the-job training?
A. Fear of ridicule from pears
B. Uncertainly about what one knows
C. Mistrust of management’s motive
D. Discomfort in taking in front of others

80. Which is a key principle when designing and delivering e`ective safety training for adults?
A. Adult prefer the lecture style of training
B. Adult demonstrate dependent learning style
C. Adult prefer to be involved in learning process
D. Adult respond better to trainers who have a training or certification

81. A company is writing a business continuity plan .it has identified its critical business functions-which must be
aligned to each of its business functions?
A. The minimum acceptable level of service
B. The maps and diagrams of each critical area
C. The essential containment actions and evaluation procedures
D. The insurance carriers and other implemented risk transfer method

82. Which scenario is illustrated an injury eligible for receiving workers compensation benefits?
A. An injury that stemmed from a wilfully, self-infected act on the worksite,
B. An injury that arose from participating in a company-sponsored golf tournament
C. An injury that stemmed from a non-routine task assigned by manager while at work
D. An injury that occurred from an accident with a fellow co-worker during the commute to work

83. Which set include risk identification method?

A. Survey method, testing and statical analysis
B. Finding, recognized and record keeping technique
C. Evidence based methods, systematic team approaches and inductive reasoning technique
D. Design feature, people process implementation and system

84. Which would be the purpose of performing a pre start safety for a refinery or similar process facility?
A. Confirm that construction and equipment’s of new or modified facilities are in accordance
with design specifications and that safety operating, maintenance and emergency procedure
are in place and adequate.
B. Ensure that hazardous equipment is maintained, inspected and repaired in a manner that ensure
its capability to operate within tolerable design limit
C. Methodically identify evaluate and develop methods to control significant hazards within its
process
D. Determine is the equipment used hazardous process is designed shipped, stored and installed in
a manner compliant with its design specification
85. Which is the most powerful motivating factor that engages employees to attend and learn from training?
A. Demonstrating the need for the training
B. Developing a personal connection to the training
C. O`ering group training for team building opportunities
D. Demonstrating how training will facilitate advancement

86. Which is used to identify critical behavior and gather data to encourage two-way feedback and stimulation
continues improvement?
A. Safety Incentive program
B. Behavior Based safety program
C. Critical factor analysis program
D. continues improvement

87. Which leading safety performance indicator is also known as an activity indicator?
A. First aid case
B. Lower insurance premium
C. Repairing of near miss event
D. Improved experience modification rate

88. Which functional area of an incident command system is responsible for developing and directing the technical
actions?
A. Command
B. Planning
C. Logistics
D. Operations

89. Which are the important steps that the registration, evaluation, authorization and restriction of chemical (REACH)
regulation of 2005 set to close the gaps in TSCA based appropriate?
A. Elimination the di`erence in data safety and technology
B. Burden of proof, transportation, precaution and safer alternative
C. Elimination, engineering control, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment
D. In brief site management, review records and management system, impact-facilities and debrief
site management

90. Which are three common principles emergency response agencies can comply to protect personal when
responding to a nuclear incident?
A. Time, distance and shielding
B. Equipment, resources and information
C. Communication, accountability and awareness
D. Personal protective equipment, procedures and position

91. Which problem can emerge years later from inhaling manganese in welding
fumes?
A. Lymphatic cancer
B. White lung disease
C. Mesothelioma like symptoms
D. Parkinson’s disease-like symptoms

92. Which subjective training course survey can be utilized by trainees to evaluate their learning or by trainer to
improve course design and delivery?
A. Rubrics
B. Reaction
C. Observation of performance
D. Evaluation of knowledge, skill and abilities

93. Which technique is used to determine whether there statistically significant di`erence among three or more
mean?
A. 1- Test
 B. 2- Test
C. Paired Test
D. One Way Analysis of Variance

94. Which procedure should be followed when utilizing a direct read gas meter to determine safe entry into a
confined space?
A. The trained equipment users must verify that the calibration is up to data and perform a
functional bump test prior to use
B. The trained equipment user must checkout the equipment from the lab and document the
destination and what it is being used for
C. The trained equipment user must start the meter in the zone of entry and record the information
given to allow entry at first test
D. The trained equipment user must perform a functional bump test prior to entering the field and
returning the instrument back to the lab

95. A company is trying to balance their budget by identifying their variable costs- which item should be included?
A. Safety professional salary
B. Lease for o`-site safety trainings
C. Option year on fall protection inspection contract
D. Annual personal protective equipment supply restocks

96. A fire has set o` the sprinklers in an alti mechanical space. The sprinklers have pressed the fire. Which should be
done before the emergency response team enters the area?
A. Check structural integrity of the building
B. Turn oe electrical power to that selection of the building
C. Have employees don appropriate personal protective equipment
D. Verify employee training records to make sure they trained for the task.

97. Which must be the same in order to compare qualitative and semi quantitative risk analysis result?
A. Risk context
B. Risk Criteria
C. Risk Threshold
D. Hazards identification method

98. Which description illustrating the demining cycle for continues improvement?
A. Plan-Do Check-Act
B. Achievement-Advancement-Recognition and responsibility
C. Motivation, improved communication and coordination and clarity of goals
D. Supervision, interpersonal relationship physical working condition and salary

99. A claim has been filed and the risk manager has taken the following steps
1. Gather Data
2. Enforce contractual obligation
3. Mitigation damages
Which step should be manager take next?
A. Forecast the loss
B. Advice and counsel
C. File documentation
D. Promote on equitable resources

100. The basic goods of a hazard communication program are to ensure which?
A. Safety Data sheet labeling appear on all chemical used in the workplace and meet labelling
requirements consistent with the hazard’s communication standards.
B. Exemptions for onsite use of chemicals is understood by employees and that portable container
are available and ready for use.
C. Employees and employer know about the work hazards due to potential chemical exposure
and how to protect themselves.
 D. Employees develop and carry out provision of a written chemical hygiene plan when hazardous
chemicals are used.
Which primary goal for safety professional should be addressed when building or charging an
organization’s safety culture to be more e`ective?
A. Influence the organization safety decision making process
B. Overcoming capital expenditure restrictions and sta`ing constraints
C. Narrowing variations of risk tolerance between cross functional discipline
D. Facilitating rapid, significant cultural changes recommended by management

101. In conducting risk assessment for any organization, the process must be begun with the analysis and
quantitively determination of which two risk factors?
A. Likelihood and severity
B. Vulnerability and reliability
C. Exposure and prevention
D. Mitigation and assigned factor

102. Which set of items should be included as introductory information for presentation unit in a classroom
course?
A. Descriptive summary and job aids
B. Course syllabus and descriptive summary
C. New unit slide, unit objectives and unit prerequisites
D. Post course summary, resources and unit prerequisites

103. Number of two employees react a like to chemical exposure and individual employees may react to the
chemical agent of varying level of exposure-which term used to describe the graded reaction to chemical
exposure describe below?
A. Dose-response relationship
B. Cumulative-aspiration e`ect
C. Aspiration-route relationship
D. Incremental-absorption e`ect

104. Which is the best element for employees to include in a training designed to help prevent workplace
violence?
A. Definition of violence o`ender profiling
B. Personal example of workplace violence
C. General warning signs of workplace violence
D. Steps to take in responding to workplace violence
Recognizing the general warning signs of workplace violence enables employees to identify potential
threats early and take preventive measures before a situation escalates. This proactive approach is
crucial in preventing workplace violence incidents.

105. Which element must be energized electrical work permit contain according to NFPA standards for electrical
safety in the workplace?
A. Result of the shock risk assessment
B. Testing troubleshooting or voltage measurement
C. Process for emergency removal of lockout device
D. Placement of temporary protective grounding equipment
The results of the shock risk assessment are essential to identify the potential hazards and
necessary safety measures to protect workers from electrical shock. This assessment helps ensure
that all risks are evaluated and mitigated before performing any work on energized electrical
equipment

106. Employees were headed out to do some sampling in a motorized boat they packet their supplies and life vests
in one of the boats storage components. About two hrs into their trip they saw a massive wave approaching, the
boat operator failed to boat in time and the full force of the wave struck the boat.one of the employee was ejected
from his seat when the wave was struck, resulting in a spinal cord injury-which is the direct cause of this incident?
A. Wave hitting the boat
B. Employees location within the boat
 C. Employee failure to wear life vest
D. Boat operator failure to turn the boat

107. Which fundamental rule should be followed to create e`ective slideshow training presentation?
A. Use as few words as possible
B. Use a limited number of slides
C. Use pie chart to display data
D. Use internal images permitted for educational use

108. Which type of non-radiation is generated by a welding arc?

A. Infrared radiation (IR-A wavelengths)
B. Ultraviolet radiation 9UV-A wavelengths)
C. Infrared radiation (IR-B and IR C wave lengths)
D. Ultraviolet radiation (UV B and UV C wave lengths)

109. Which is the most important step in preventing violence in the workplace?
A. Develop a workplace violence plan
B. Create a violence incident reporting system
C. Train employees in workplace violence protection
D. Install a security cameras system throughout the facility

110. A ladder is being used to point A building. At the base, the ladder is 5ft (1.5m) from the wall and it touch the
wall at the height of 20ft (6.1m) How long is this ladder?
A. 16.67ft (5.1m)
B. 20.62ft (6.3m)
C. 21.25ft (6.5m)
D. 25.00ft (7.0m)
111. Which statement describes the process by which venturi scrubber removal particulates form from a carrier
gas?
A. Particulates are washed out of the carrier gas they collide with an aerosol spray of water or
some other liquid
B. Particulate suspended in the carrier gas are given an electrical charge as they enter the unit and
then removed by the influence of an electrical field
C. As the carrier gas enters an enlarge section of a horizontal flow, the velocity of the carrier gas is
reduced coarse particular to settle out by gravity
D. The carrier gas is blown into the unit and forced into long narrow filled bags; particulates are
trapped in the filter bags while the gas passes through the filter fabric

112. Under the incident command system, which is a responsibility of the safety o`icer?
A. Accounting for all agency employees
B. Collecting, evaluating and disseminating incident information
C. Coordination with o`icial from concerned agencies and organizations
D. Developing and recommending measures for assuring personal safety

113. Which methods are used to analyze risk?

A. Qualitative, semi qualitative or quantitative
B. Qualitative, semi quantitative or quantitative
C. Practical value formulation, numerical rating and formulas
D. Significant levels, practical values formation and qualitative criteria

114. Which is an element of negligence?

A. Comparative fault
B. In putted assumption of risk
C. Proximate cause relationship
D. Cause risk assumption clause
Proximate cause refers to the direct link between one's action (or inaction) and the harm caused,
establishing that the harm was a foreseeable result of the behavior.
115. In addition to visual performance which other type of performance is impacted by whole body vibration?
A. Motor skills (Moton sickness)
B. Reaction time
C. Pattern recognition
D. Central neural process

116. Which workers are best to observe and identify hazards?

A. New workers performing the task
B. Workers with the highest seniority
C. Workers who have been performing the task for a few months
D. A supervisor with knowledge of the department and the workers

117. Which statement is true about predicting hearing loss in an individual?

A. An audiometer can predict hearing loss for individuals
B. There is no test that can predict hearing loss for individuals
C. Octave band analyzers can predict hearing loss for individuals
D. Sound pressure measurement can predict hearing loss for individuals

118. Which controls provide the most e`ective workers protection from the mechanical motion of a robotic arm?
A. Install perimeter fencing with interlocks and pressure sensitive mats in the robot movement
zone.
B. Require workers to wear hearing protection on the production line
C. Install an amber warning light indication the robot in energized and place warning signs at the
points of access to the movement zone.
D. Ensure su`icient clearance between perimeter fencing and the robot movement zone so that a
person cannot be trapped between the two

119. Which type of data is preferred when conducting a risk analysis related to how often component in a system
or sub system may fail?
A. Exposure
B. Reliability
C. Operational
D. Maintenance

120. A safety professional is auditing the electrical department and noticed lockout/tagout kit on the floor that are
not being utilized by the first shift, the hazard is mentioned to the first shift supervisor but not documented in the
audit report. The following month the same hazard is seen on second shift and the problem is documented. this
triggered a complaint by the second shift manager are about being treated di`erently then the first shift and has
resulted in tension between groups. How could the safety professional have avoided this conflict?
A. Maintaining consistency during audit
B. Forging all audit until departments are in compliance
C. Giving every shift one chance for a violation without documenting
D. Conducting the same department audit on the same day for all shift
121. Which information is included in the globally harmonized system chemical labels?
A. First Aid
B. Lot Number
C. Chemical Formulas
D. Product identifier

122. A company wanted to improve their safety culture and hired a consulting firm that created a program geared
toward their most important group front line supervisor and their employees Which should be recommended
several year into a new safety program?
A. Perform a safety culture survey
B. Evaluate progress in the reduction of risk
C. Review accident and incident including near miss event
D. Identify e`ective process to prioritize system deficiency
123. According to ANSI A 10 33 which are components of pre work planning for a construction activity in addition
to hazard analysis?
A. Site auditing and site inspections
B. Project survey and pre-phase planning meeting
C. Project survey and project specific emergency plan
D. Pre -phase planning meeting, site specific orientation and site auditing

124. What is the flow rate of air moving through a portable blower with a velocity of 3.048m3/min through a pipe of
diameter 25.4cm?
Q=V×A
Where: Q is the flow rate, V is the velocity of the air, A is the cross-sectional area of the pipe
Velocity (V) = 3.048 m/min
A=π(d/2)2 = .314x.254x.254 = 0.0507m2
Q= 3.048x0.0507 = .1545 m3/min

125. Which is the primary function of a wet pipe sprinkler system inspector’s test?
A. To ensure proper water spray pattern
B. To drain and vent the system of trapped air that can cause water hammer
C. To ensure that the post indicator value in open
D. To demonstrate that the water flow alarm operates
The inspector's test is designed to simulate the operation of a sprinkler head, which in turn confirms
that the water flow alarm activates correctly when water flows through the system. This test ensures
that the alarm functions properly in the event of an actual fire, providing an early warning to building
occupants and emergency responders.

126. The safety professional is inspecting a welding shop compressed gas cylinder storage rack, which is located
outside the building- which observation would be considered a finding?
A. The compressed gas cylinder was secured upright by chain
B. The compressed gas cylinders contain were labelled with tags
C. The valve protector was placed on the compressed gas cylinder not in use
D. The compressed gas cylinder of oxygen was separated 15ft from the fuel cylinders
According to OSHA standards and general safety practices, oxygen cylinders must be separated from
fuel gas cylinders by at least 20 feet or by a barrier at least 5 feet high with a fire resistance rating of
at least 30 minutes. Therefore, separating oxygen cylinders only 15 feet from fuel cylinders does not
meet the required safety standards and would be considered a finding.

127. Which action should be employee working in an o`ice environment take on a regular basis to help prevent
o`ice fires?
A. Know how to use a fire extinguisher
B. Keep all window in o`ice open
C. Make sure extension cords used are UL listed
D. Ensure that a class D extinguisher is in the o`ice area.

128. Which is a characteristic of learning objectives?

A. They are required for compliance-based trainings
B. They are broad statements that provide the overall purpose of the training
C. They are statement that desirable what the trainee needs to be able to do upon completion of
training
D. They required to obtain continuing education unit. A 10hrs participation for completing training.
Learning objectives clearly define the expected outcomes of the training, specifying what knowledge,
skills, or behaviors the trainee should be able to demonstrate after completing the training. This
helps guide the training process and provides a clear benchmark for assessing trainee performance.

129. The emergency response guidebook (20160 is a joint between the United State, Canada, Mexico, Argentina,
Brazil, Colombia and Chile intended to quickly guide responses to transportation incidents involving hazardous
materials. Who is the guidebook intended to instruct?
A. Politicians
B. General public
 C. Firefighters
D. Vehicle owners
The ERG is designed primarily for first responders, including firefighters, police o`icers, and
emergency medical personnel, to help them quickly identify the hazards of the materials involved in
a transportation incident and guide them in their initial response actions to ensure their safety and
the safety of the public.

130. A company employed 110 full time employees last year and an additional 97 employees in the current year.
18 employees were injured at work each year. What was the incident rate per 100 employees last year?

131. Which is considered a modern public health in relation to the transmission of disease through water?
A. Bottled water manufacturing
B. Chlorination of public drinking water
C. Distillation of wastewater
D. Distribution and removal of waste e`luent

132. Which type contractual agreement permits contractual risk to be transferred to another party?
A. Named perils
B. Indemnification
C. Character’s liability
D. Worker’s compensation
Indemnification agreements involve one party agreeing to compensate the other for certain damages
or losses, thereby transferring the risk associated with those damages or losses to the indemnifying
party.

133. Which agency or organization has a classification system for carcinogens?

A. The national safety council (NSC)
B. The American industrial hygiene association (AIHA) C. The American society of safety
professionals (ASSP)
D. American conference of governmental industrial hygienists (ACGIH)

134. Which is the maximum arresting force that should not be exceeded during a fall while wearing an active fall
protection system?
A. 900 Ibs (4KN)
B. 1800 Ibs (8KN)
C. 2000 Ibs (8.9KN)
D. 5000 Ibs (22.2KN)
135. Which is the primary purpose for providing secondary containment for hazardous liquids that are stored in
containers?
A. To prevent hazardous materials from leaving the property
B. To prevent hazardous materials from contaminated the soil
C. To prevent incompatible hazardous materials that spill or leak from combining
D. To collect any hazardous materials spillage in the vent of loss of integrity or container failure
136. As safety professional with expertise in air sampling has identified a trend in documented occupational
illnesses among line employees on a plastic extrusion process line and has performed comprehensive air
sampling to identify airborne agent that could cause the illness. After reviewing the sample result the safety
professional found nothing probative.
To assists with determining the cause of the respiratory illness the safety professional has decide to
seek outside expertise
Which expert is the best choice?
A. An industrial hygienist with expertise in air quality
B. A consultant with expertise in chemical process safety
C. A consultant with expertise in the cause of industrial illness
D. A consultant with expertise in air sampling
An industrial hygienist specialized in air quality would be able to provide a thorough analysis of the air
sampling results, consider various potential airborne contaminants, and o`er insights into other
factors that might not have been initially considered. They have the training and experience to
identify subtle or complex issues related to occupational illnesses caused by air quality

137. A waste is considered hazardous of it is ignitable reactive or corrosive. Which another characteristic causes
this categorization?
A. Toxic
B. Explosive
C. Radioactive
D. Carcinogenic

138. A company hired a safety specialist prior to bring the safety manager on board. The safety specialist
completed a gap analysis by auditing the written safety programs and told senior management that the programs
can be updated in a year, which will bring the company into compliance. The safety manager starts four months
later and start reading the report, informs management they have additional work to do beside updating the
written programs.
Which did the safety specialist fail to consider? A. Employee moral
B. Worksite analysis
C. Waste reduction e`orts
D. Life safety requirements
While the written safety programs are important, a comprehensive safety assessment must also
include a worksite analysis to identify and address actual hazards present in the workplace. This
includes evaluating current work practices, equipment, and the physical environment to ensure that
all potential risks are identified and managed e`ectively.

139. A safety professional provided newly developed training to a group of employees who came from another
branch of the company. the employees have returned to their worksite. How should the safety professional
determine the e`ectiveness of the training program?
A. Survey the participant in the training
B. Review the training materials and presentations
C. Use the company productivity level before and after the training
D. Review the sign-in sheets that ensure all employees attend training sessions
Surveying the participants provides direct feedback on the training's e`ectiveness from those who
received it. This feedback can help assess whether the training objectives were met, how well the
content was understood, and if the participants feel they can apply what they learned to their work
environment.

140. Which air sampling training is appropriate to measure a workers exposure to free crystalline silica?
A. A calibrated air sampling pump connected to a37mm PVC filter cassette
B. A calibrated air sampling pump connected to a 37 mm mixed cellulose ester filter cassette
C. A calibrated air sampling pump connected in a cyclone for respirable dust sampling in line
with 37mm PVC filter cassette
D. A calibrated air sampling pump connected in a line 37mm mixed cellulose ester filter cassette
Using a cyclone ensures that only respirable dust particles (those small enough to reach the deep
lung) are collected on the filter, which is critical for accurately assessing exposure to respirable
crystalline silica.
141. Which are some of the external issues that should be considered when developing an occupational health
safety management system?
A. Goal, policies, objectives, procedures and strategies
B. Governance, organisational structure and roles and accountabilities
C. Capabilities, information systems, mission statement and outsourced activities
D. Local culture, new technology, new knowledge on product ,key trends and relationship

142. Which description illustrates the standards associated with a Bio safety level -3?
A. Controlled access shower upon exiting laboratory, dedicated air ventilation vacuum and
decontamination system
B. Limited access, bio safety cabinet used for manipulation of infectious agents and that pose as
plash aerosol hazard and separate building or isolation zone
C. Controlled access, strict accommodation procedure, bio safety cabinet used for open
manipulation of agent and lab entry through airlock or anteroom.
D. Clothing change required before lab entry, bio safety cabinet used for open manipulation of all
agents on combination with full body air supplied and positive pressure suit.
Biosafety Level 1 (BSL-1)
Agents: Well-characterized agents not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adult humans. These pose
minimal potential hazard to laboratory personnel and the environment.
Practices:
• Standard microbiological practices.
• No special primary or secondary barriers required, other than a sink for handwashing.
Facilities:
• Laboratory bench and sink required.
• Work can be conducted on open benchtops using standard microbiological practices.
Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2)
Agents: Agents that pose moderate hazards to personnel and the environment. This includes various bacteria and
viruses that cause mild disease to humans, or are di`icult to contract via aerosol in a laboratory setting.
Practices:
• Limited access to the laboratory.
• Use of personal protective equipment (PPE) such as lab coats and gloves.
• Use of biosafety cabinets (Class I or II) for procedures that may generate aerosols or splashes.
Facilities:
• Autoclave available for decontaminating laboratory waste.
• Eyewash station readily available.
• Laboratory has self-closing doors.
Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3)
Agents: Indigenous or exotic agents that may cause serious or potentially lethal disease through inhalation. Examples
include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, SARS-CoV, and various arboviruses.
Practices:
• Controlled access to the laboratory.
• All procedures involving infectious materials conducted within a biosafety cabinet or other physical
containment devices.
• Use of respiratory protection as needed.
Facilities:
• Physical separation from access corridors.
• Self-closing, double-door access.
• Exhaust air is not recirculated.
• Negative airflow into the laboratory.
• Entry through an airlock or anteroom.
• Decontamination of all waste.
Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4)
Agents: Dangerous and exotic agents that pose a high risk of life-threatening disease, aerosol transmission, or
related agents with unknown risk of transmission. Examples include Ebola virus, Marburg virus, and other
hemorrhagic fever viruses.
Practices:
 • Change of clothing before entering the laboratory.
• Shower upon exiting the laboratory.
• All procedures conducted in a Class III biosafety cabinet or by personnel wearing a full-body, air-supplied,
positive pressure suit.
Facilities:
• Separate building or a completely isolated zone.
• Dedicated supply and exhaust air, as well as vacuum and decontamination systems.
• Highly specialized ventilation systems to ensure that air flows from "clean" areas to "contaminated" areas.
• Multiple airlocks and pass-through autoclaves.

143. A plastic manufacturing company’s president is told by their insurance carrier that quarterly written safety
audits with corrective actions taken on file could help reduce insurance premium costs for one of their branches.
Since the company has been experiencing a profit loss for three years the president puts a program into place
immediately. Which is the best method for conducting their audit?
A. Outsourced and safely completed by an independent company
B. In a fair and consistent manner conducted by the company’s onsite safety professional
C. In line with government and local law set apart from the company is policies and procedures
D. Performed by the company’s safety professional and other company oeicials not directly
aeiliated with the facility

144. Which aspect of the hierachy of fall protection is the primary goal of safety professional?
A. Arrest
B. Prevent
C. Eliminate
D. Restrain

145. Which information should be considered during design of workstations to decrease the likelihood of soft
tissue injuries?
A. Anthropometric data to determine the 5th and the 95th percentage
B. Body dimensions relevant to the design and the type of building construction
C. The population that will be using the workstation and the anthropometric principle to be
used
D. The type of special clothing to be worn while using the workstation and the expected temperature
of the workplace.

• Population Consideration: Understanding the specific population that will be using the workstation is
critical. This includes considering the range of body sizes, shapes, and abilities of the users to ensure that the
workstation is appropriately designed for comfort and ergonomics.
• Anthropometric Principles: Using anthropometric data (measurements of human body dimensions) is
essential for designing workstations that fit the intended users. This helps in creating workstations that
minimize awkward postures, excessive reaching, and other factors that can lead to soft tissue injuries.
• Ergonomic Design: Applying anthropometric principles ensures that the workstation design accommodates
the physical dimensions of most of the user population, typically considering the 5th percentile female to the
95th percentile male to ensure inclusivity and comfort for most users.

146. Two safety trainers have been tasked with developing a training program for their company. The same trainers
will be training employees at all the branches of the company Which must they consider first?
A. Needs assessment
B. Trainer logistics
C. Location of branches
D. Cost of training materials

147. A bank manager received a telephone call in the bank from an unknown person who threatened to bomb the
facility. Which immediate action should the bank manager take?
A. Hangup the phone and immediately call the police
B. End the call and send communication to management
C. Stay on the telephone and gather information about the threat
 D. Yell for everyone to evacuate while the caller is still speaking

148. Which tool is best for the purpose of evaluating area noise exposure?
A. Personal noise dosimeter
B. Sound intensity analozer
C. Sound measurement application
D. Calibrated ANSI type 2 sound level meter
• Area Noise Measurement: A calibrated ANSI type sound level meter is specifically designed for measuring
sound levels in an area. It provides accurate measurements of sound pressure levels at di`erent points within
a given area, which is essential for assessing overall noise exposure in that space.
• Compliance with Standards: These devices are calibrated to meet ANSI (American National Standards
Institute) standards, ensuring they provide reliable and precise measurements that comply with regulatory
requirements.
• Versatility: Sound level meters are versatile and can be used for various types of noise measurements,
including environmental noise surveys, workplace noise assessments, and community noise evaluations.

149. To provide a climate for behaviour modification resulting in a positive safety culture, which should be done?
A. Provide frequent rewarding feedback to employees
B. Motivate employees by using positive safety signs
C. Reward employees who have e`ectively applied shortcuts for e`iciency
D. Promote safety using a reactive and punitive approach

150. Which form of substance abuse is characterized by slurred speech, poor muscle coordination, increases
aggression and mood swing?
A. Opioid
B. Alcohol
C. Cocaine
D. Marijuana
• A. Opioid: While opioids can cause drowsiness and confusion, they are less likely to cause slurred speech
and increased aggression.
• C. Cocaine: Cocaine often leads to increased energy, agitation, and hyperactivity, rather than slurred speech
and poor muscle coordination.
• D. Marijuana: Marijuana may impair coordination and cause mood changes, but it is less associated with
slurred speech and increased aggression.

151. Which action is recommended by the United States centre for disease (CDC) as universal precaution to
protect against exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials (OPIM)
A. Reuse shapes (needles, razors etc.) to reduce waste
B. Showering after any potential contact with blood or OPIM
C. Wearing safety eyewear to protect the mucous membranes of eyes
D. Using gowns, aprons, coverall suits and gloves made of cotton to prevent contamination of clothing
• Universal Precautions: Universal precautions are a set of practices designed to prevent the transmission of
bloodborne pathogens and other infectious materials. They are based on the assumption that all human
blood and OPIM are potentially infectious.
• Mucous Membrane Protection: The CDC specifically recommends protecting mucous membranes, such as
the eyes, nose, and mouth, because they are potential entry points for infectious agents. Safety eyewear,
such as goggles or face shields, provides a barrier that prevents blood and OPIM from reaching the eyes.

152. An organization is required to establish process for the implementation and control of planned temporary and
permanent changes that impact occupational health and safety performance. Which is the name of this process?
A. Change of scope
B. Management of change
C. Behavioral evaluation
D. Internal organization audit

153. A work unit is writing a job hazards analysis on changing the tire on a vehicle, and has listed the following
steps.
 1. Removing the spare tire, tools and personal protective equipment (PPE) from the vehicle
2. Listing the vehicle using a jack
3. Removing the bolts
4. Removing the damaged tire
5. Replacing the tire
6. Attaching balls
7. Putting the damaged tire, tools and PPE away in the vehicle
Which actions should be taken next?
A. Controlling each hazard
B. Selecting a job to be analyzed
C. Presenting the list to management
D. Identifying the hazards associated with each step

154. A contractor has a contract with three subcontractors, subcontractor A is performing welding on stainless
steel in the same area where subcontractor B & C working. Subcontractor B’s superintendent has complained to
the contractor’s safety manager that their workers are being exposed to hexavalent chromium, subcontractor C
is also assigned by contractor to perform fire watch during the welding activities. Who is responsible for ensuring
that workers who need respiratory protection are using it?
A. Subcontractor A only
B. The contractors and Subcontractor A only
C. Subcontractor A , subcontractor B and subcontractor C
D. The contractor, sub-contractor A subcontractor B and Sub contractor C

155. For which situation is a wet-bulb glob temperature (WBGT) device used to quantity hazards?
A. A process that generates large quantities by explosive dust
B. A worker conducting work in foundry near surface during the hottest part of the year
C. A amount of energy associated with an exothermic reaching for pharmacological manufacturing
D. A worker conducing assays on live animal cells in a temperature controlled biological safety level-2
laboratory
• Heat Stress Measurement: WBGT devices are specifically designed to measure environmental conditions
that contribute to heat stress, including temperature, humidity, wind speed, and solar radiation.
• Relevance to the Scenario: A worker in a foundry, especially during the hottest part of the year, is exposed to
high temperatures and potentially other heat-related hazards. The WBGT device can help determine the heat
stress level and guide the implementation of controls to prevent heat-related illnesses.

156. Which direct reading instrument is the best tool to use around the perimeter of a leaking gasoline tanker to
determine airborne release of total hydrocarbons into the community?
A. An organic vapor badge
B. A photoionization detector
C. A combustible gas monitors
D. A colorimetric tube and hand-held pump
• Sensitivity and Range: Photoionization detectors (PIDs) are highly sensitive and can detect a wide range of
volatile organic compounds (VOCs) at very low concentrations. Gasoline vapors, which consist of various
hydrocarbons, are e`ectively detected by PIDs.
• Real-Time Readings: PIDs provide real-time measurements of VOC concentrations, allowing for immediate
assessment of the situation and quick decision-making regarding safety and evacuation if necessary.
• Broad Applicability: PIDs are commonly used for monitoring air quality in emergency response situations
involving chemical spills, making them suitable for detecting hydrocarbons from a leaking gasoline tanker.

157. An employee was using a table saw machine that has been used by the individual for several years. AL
through the machine had guard, the employee cut finger. Which is the best way to prevent a similar injury
from happening again?
A. Retrofit an additional guard to the machine
B. Put caution tape near the blade so the hazard is more visible
C. Require the employee to use cut resistance glove when operating machine
D. Have the employee and supervisor write a job hazard analysis for the process.
158. Which group has a critical role when providing support and a demonstrated communication to health and
safety
A. Employees
B. Executive management
C. Front line supervisor
D. Health and safety o`icers

159. Which is the primary reason for conducting a split specification during testing procedure for fleet drivers?
A. The laboratory maintains control of the secondary sample, the tests the secondary specimen if there is an
error during testing of the primary specimen.
B. If the result from the primary sample do not show the presence of an illegal controlled substances, the
laboratory will test secondary sample to confirm the result
C. If the primary sample results show the presence of an illegal controlled substances the driver can be
request the secondary specimen be sent to a dieerent laboratory for testing.
D. If the result from the primary sample shows the presence of an illegal controlled substance the laboratory
will retest the secondary sample to confirm the presence of the illegal controlled substances.

160. Which international guideline details the safe transportation or shipment of dangerous goods or hazardous
materials by water on vessel
SOLAS
DGR Code
NFPA 704
IMDG code
MDG Code: The International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code is a set of guidelines developed by the
International Maritime Organization (IMO) for the safe transportation of dangerous goods and hazardous
materials by sea. It covers classification, packing, marking, labelling, and documentation requirements to
ensure the safe transport of these materials on vessels.

161. If a system has 20 failures per 10,000 pieces produced, what is the failure rate
Failure Rate=Total Number of Units Produced/Number of Failures
= 20/10000 = 0.002

162. What is the LEL percentage

A. 100 parts per million
B. 200parts million
C.10parts per billion
D.20parts billion

163. Company make an investment of 135000 $ to purchase a safety equipment. Buy this equipment company
predicted to prevent incidents and call for quotes and based on them choose best option?
a. 6years with 5% interest
b. 7years with 4% interest
c. 8years with 3% interest
d. 5years with 6% interest
The formula to calculate the future value of an investment is:
Future value =Presen value (1+r)n
Where:
Let's calculate the future value for each option:
Option a: 6 years with 5% interest
FV=135,000×(1+0.05)6 ≈180,912.83
Option b: 7 years with 4% interest
FV=135,000×(1+0.04)7 ≈177,670.00
Option c: 8 years with 3% interest
FV=135,000×(1+0.03)8 ≈171,012.95
Option d: 5 years with 6% interest
FV=135,000×(1+0.06)5 ≈180,660.38
Option a (6 years with 5% interest) yields the highest future value of approximately $180,912.83.
164. Atomic weight of Carbon is 12. At.wt of O2 - 16. Total weight of the mixture approx 457gm. There are 22.4 mol
in 1 pound of Co2. There were total 5 pound of Co2 (dry ice) released, how much liter of CO2 will be there in
atmosphere
Atomic weight = 12+2*16=44g
Moles 457/44= 10.386g
Liters = 22.4*10.386*5 (pounds)==1163.28lts

165. Calculation of cylinder volume having 10ft hight 8ft diameter

V=πr2h
= 3.14*8x8x10 = 502.65 cf

166. Underground storage tank to calculate of 125% of capacity , having 10ft diameter and 16ft hight
V=πr2h
= 3.14x5x5x16x1.25 = 1570.8 cf

167. One question about klin concrete production have 7ton emission limit and 1.5 ton per hour production factor
and 7162 hours worked last year produced 115000ton per year , this year company not interested in put
addition control measures and working hours will be same , then how much max they can produced
= 144500

168. Speed of release from chemical is 10 km/hr. residence are staying 500 m away. How much rme will it take to
reach there.
10km= 10*1000==10000 m / 60 min = 1000mts in 6min ------- 500mts in 3min

169. Employee is exposed to 20 mrem/Hr. TLV is 500 mrem/annual. Employee already exposed to 300 mrem, For
how much time he can get exposed to without exceeding TLV?
Sol : 20mrem per hour 20rem = 1hour-----------200rem===10hour

170. Top management role for implementation of OHS plan in the organization
positive influence with words and actions.

171. Top management how can show their leadership in implementation of OHS policy to employees
by signing the Policy statements.

172. How top management see and identify the implementation of OHS MS in the organization-
by participation in HSE committee meeting and table talk finds communicate to the board of directors.

173. How top management see the results of OHSMS other that time and amount on implementation of OHSMS
Benefits

174. Top management want to conduct an audit about compliance of ISO 45001 on each dept next week being a
CSP, how you will approach and which analysis to show the results of each department:
Gap analysis - SWOT-FTA-MORT
ISO 45001 definition:

175. Give guidelines to achieve OHS policy ( don’t confuse ISO stds are voluntary stds)

176. Top management role in implementation of ISO 45001 according to OHS MS

Develop, Implement, and Enforce the Policies and Procedures.

177. Definition of machine guarding according to ANSI std

Ans: around the machine option (no number involved).

178. Which level of organization direct to implement, enforce the OHS MS in organization as per ANSI Z10- Safety
manager ( in options top management, line engineers , all employees there)
– but as per ANSI Z10 -safety manager is the highest organization level responsible person to implement OHS
policies
179. Leading indicator---- trainings and actions/budget expenditures taken to improve safety culture.

180. Lagging indicators---- penalties/ citations also included

181. Combinations of leading and lagging indicators- incident reporting , near miss (included in -ans option)

182. How ISO 450001 help organizations- means deals with Occupational health and safety

183. A new worker is deployed to do task in warehouse which having chemical , what is minimum information he
should get 1. SDS 2.Product data 3.load data 4 not relevant

184. How to measure organization culture after implementation of IS0 45001 std:
measuring incident rate/
185. What is the outcome of a e`ective training –
reduction of at-risk behaviors

186. While conducting training trainer how can he deviate from course content but not learner’s attentionby
applying relevant examples and experiences

187. While giving the training the trainer what he should have about content – Explicit knowledge

188. What is negligence –

options are one only one word ( for very di`icult to find answer)

189. Generic definition of TLV – “nearly all workers exposed”

190. What is workplace violence –

assault happens at work

191. Best control method for workplace violence –

policy

192. Giving the feedback and results in collective data form which Process
Behavior based safety program

193. Which of the following is dynamic assessment –

SWOT (Strength-Weakness-Opportunity Threat),
MORT (Management Oversight Risk Tree),
FMEA (Failure Mode E`ective Analysis),
ETA (Event Tree Analysis)

194. Accident investigation finding causes belongs –MEEPS (short cut)- Machines, environments, engineering,
persons, systems

195. A safety engineer used a sample at sea side and after that take an other sample at construction site which
may e`ect to get di`erent result---
atmospheric pressure

196. How to deal with a disruptive trainee -

take a break and then continue as nothing happen

197. Which of them are Active indicators –

training, actions positive cultures

198. The condition which shows no control measures were taken then which risk we will face at work – Initial risk
(there no option –inherent risk)

199. What are learning objective expect from learner –shortcut KSA (Knowledge, skill set, analysis)
200. Methodology used for risk transfer of risk ,hold harmless, insurance indemnity and----- Third party contract

201. How top management engage with employee and labor relations- participate in HSE committee meeting ,
conduct audits

202. What is first consideration for JSA preparation- hazards with highest injury rate

203. AnSi code for training –z490

204. Inhalation hazard in air craft painting industry -Hexavalent chromium

205. What type of accuracy type two sound level meter?

• Type 1 Precision measurement +-1

• Type 2 precision measurement +-2
• Octave band analyzer: measure variation frequency
206. WBGT equation for solar load-equation given in option and chose the right one
WBGT --------------- 0.7WB+0.2G+0.1 DB (with Solar Load) WBGT-----------------0.7WB+0.3G (without solar
load)

207. Sustainable building LEED

Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design