SIDDARTHA INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY:: PUTTUR

Siddarth Nagar, Narayanavanam Road –517583

BIT BANK(OBJECTIVE)

Course & Branch: B.Tech – Common to CSE,CSM&CAD

Year & Sem: II-B. Tech & II-Sem
Subject with Code: Database Management Systems (23CS0512) Regulation: R23

UNIT-1
Introduction, Entity Relationship Model

1 What is the full form of DBMS? [ ]

A) Data of Binary Management System B) Database Management System
C) Database Management Service D) Data Backup Management System
2 What is a database? [ ]
A) Organized collection of information that cannot be accessed, updated, and managed
B) Collection of data or information without organizing
C) Organized collection of data or information that can be accessed, updated, and
managed
D) Organized collection of data that cannot be updated
3 What is DBMS? [ ]
A) DBMS is a collection of queries B) DBMS is a high-level language
C) DBMS is a programming language D) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves
data
4 In which of the following formats data is stored in the database management system? [ ]
A) Image B) Text C) Table D) Graph
5 Which of the following is not a type of database? [ ]
A) Hierarchical B) Network C) Distributed D) Decentralized
6 ____ are the unorganized facts that can be processed to generate meaningful information [ ]
A)information B) data C)blog D)contexts
7 ___ refers to the correctness and completeness of data in a database [ ]
A)Data Integrity B)Data Security C)Data Constraints D) Data Independence
8 SQL stands for . [ ]
A) Structured Query Language B) Sequential Query Language
C) Structured Question Language D) Sequential Question Language
9 The level of data abstraction which describes how the data is actually stored is [ ]
A) conceptual level B) physical level C) file level D) logical level
10 DBA stands for [ ]
A) Data Basic B) Data Base Access C) Data Bank D) Data Base
Access Administration Administrator
11 Which one is lowest level data model? [ ]
A) Physical data B) Logical data model C) External data model D) None of these
model
12 Which one is highest level data model? [ ]
A) Physical data B) Logical data model C) External data model D) None of these
model
The DBMS acts as an interface between ________________ and ________________ of an [ ]
13
enterprise-class system.
A) Data and the B) Application and C) Database D) The user and
DBMS SQL application and the the software
database
______________ is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a [ ]
14
record.
 A) Primary Key B) Foreign key C) Super key D) Candidate key
15 The top level of the hierarchy consists of ______ each of which can contain _____. [ ]
A) Schemas, B) Schemas, C) Environment, D) Catalogs,
Catalogs Environment Schemas Schemas
16 A set of possible data values is called [ ]
A)Attribute B) Degree C) Tuple D) Domain
17 A schema describe [ ]
A)Record B) Data elements C) Record and files D) All the above
relationship
18 A data model is [ ]
A) Used to describe B) Set of basic operations C) Both D) none ofthese
structure of a database on the database
19 Which of following are the properties of entities ? [ ]
A) Groups B) Table C) Attributes D)Switchboards
20 SET concept is used in [ ]
A)Network model B) Hierarchical model C) Relational model D)None of the
above
21 An ________ is a set of entities of the same type that share the same properties, or attributes. [ ]
A) Entity set B) Attribute set C) Relation set D) Entity model
22 Entity is a _________ [ ]
A) Object of B) Present working C) Thing in real world D) Model of
relation model relation
23 The descriptive property possessed by each entity set is _________ [ ]
A) Entity B) Attribute C) Relation D) Model
24 The function that an entity plays in a relationship is called that entity‟s _____________ [ ]
A) Participation B) Position C) Role D) Instance
The attribute name could be structured as an attribute consisting of first name, middle initial, [ ]
25
and last name. This type of attribute is called
A) Simple B) Composite C) Multivalued attribute D) Derived
attribute attribute attribute
26 The attribute AGE is calculated from DATE_OF_BIRTH. The attribute AGE is [ ]
A) Single valued B) Multi valued C) Composite D) Derived
27 Not applicable condition can be represented in relation entry as [ ]
A) NA B) 0 C) NULL D) Blank Space
28 Which of the following can be a multivalued attribute? [ ]
A) Phone_number B) Name C) Date_of_birth D) All of the mentioned
29 Which of the following is a single valued attribute [ ]
A) Register_number B) Address C) SUBJECT_TAKEN D) Reference
In a relation between the entities the type and condition of the relation should be specified. [ ]
30
That is called as______attribute.
A) Desciptive B) Derived C) Recursive D) Relative
31 Which of the following gives a logical structure of the database graphically? [ ]
A) Entity- B) Entity diagram C) Database diagram D) Architectural
relationship representation
diagram
32 The entity relationship set is represented in E-R diagram as [ ]
A) Double B) Undivided C) Dashed lines D) Diamond
diamonds rectangles
33 A collection of entities of the same type is called a(n): [ ]
A) Relationship B) Entity instance C) Attribute set D) Entity set
set
34 In a one-to-many relationship between entity A and entity B, which of the following is true? [ ]
A) One instance of A can be related to at B) One instance of B can be related to many
most one instance of B. instances of A.
C) One instance of A can be related to D) Each instance of A must be related to at
 zero, one, or many instances of B. least one instance of B.
35 A superclass and its subclasses are connected by a: [ ]
A) Diamond B) Rectangle C) Ellipse D) Triangle labeled "is-a"
The process of defining subclasses for a superclass based on their distinct characteristics is [ ]
36
called:
A)Generalization B)Aggregation C)Specialization D)Composition
The process of identifying common attributes among several entity types and creating a [ ]
37
generalized entity type is called:
A)specialization B)Inheritance C)Generalization D)Aggregation
38 An attribute that uniquely identifies each instance of an entity set is a: [ ]
A) Composite B) Derived attribute C) Key attribute D) Multi-valued
attribute attribute
39 Specialization entity is also called as____. [ ]
A)Top-Down B)Bottom –Up C)Top-Up approach D) Bottom-Down
approach approach approach
40 Generalization entity is also called as____. [ ]
A) Top-Down B)Bottom-Up C)Top-Up approach D)Bottom-Down
approach approach approach
 UNIT-II
Relational Model

1 The Select command is a part of what type of statement? [ ]

A) DML B) DDL
C) View D) None of the above
2 What type of data can be modeled as dimensional and measure attributes? [ ]
A) Multidimensional
B) Single Dimensional
C) Measured
D) None of the above
3 The union operation performs the set union of 2 „_______‟ tables. [ ]
A) Similarity Structure B) Any 2 tables
C) No union operations is define as such D) None of the above
4 What is primary key used for? [ ]
A) Uniquely B) Enforce C) Prevent data duplication D) All of the
identify a record in relationships between above
a table tables
5 Which command is used to remove a table from a database in SQL? [ ]
A) DELETE B)DROP C) TRUNCATE D)REMOVE
6 Which of the following is the type of constraint in DBMS? [ ]
A)Check B) Primary Key C)Foreign Key D)All of the above
7 What does SQL stands for? [ ]
A)Stuctured B)Simple Query C)Sequential Query D) None of the
Query Language Language Language above
8 The referential integrity constraint of a relational database can be specified with the help of [ ]
A) Primary Key B) Secondary key
C) Foreign Key D) None of the above
9 The Primary key must be [ ]
A) Unique B) Not Null C) Both A and B D) Default
10 The part of the database design linked to the logical design is [ ]
A) Database B) Database Relation C) Database Entry D) None of the
Schema above
11 clause is used for row-level triggers. [ ]
A) FOR EACH B) FOR ROW C) EACH ROW D) ROW
ROW
12 SQL provides special comparison operator to test whether a column value is null. [ ]
A) ARE NULL B) NULL C) IS NULL D) NOTNULL
13 A database that has a set of associated triggers is called an [ ]
A) Active B) Passive database C) Data warehouse D) Associated
database database
14 is a non-procedural query language that tells the system [ ]
A) Relational B) Relational Algebra C) Both A&B D) None of the
Calculus above
15 .„AS‟ clause is used in SQL for [ ]
A) Selection B) Rename operation C) Join operation D) Projection
operation operation
16 COUNT function uses the that returns the count of all the rows in a specified table [ ]
A) COUNT B) COUNT(*) C) MAX D) . AVG
17 Relational Algebra is language [ ]
A) procedural B) Non procedural C) Structured Language D) None of the
query query above
18 is used to fetch rows (tuples) from table(relation) which satisfies a given condition. [ ]
A) Selection B) Projection C) both D) None of the
above
19 Correlated sub query is a [ ]
A) Query B) Evaluated once for C) Query evaluated once D) The query will
evaluated never beevaluated.
20 Which of the following is NOT component of DBMS [ ]
A)Query B)Database Engine C)Database Table D)Indexing Engine
Processor
21 Which of the following command is DML command? [ ]
A) Delete B) Create C) Alter D) Drop
Data constraint that expresses how many entities are related through a relationship set is referred [ ]
22
to as a ___.
A) Data Constraint B) Relationship C) Entity Constraint D) Mapping
Constraint Constraint
23 How many mapping cardinalities are there? [ ]
A) 1 B)2 C)3 D)4
24 Which of the following are the fundamental operations in the Relational Algebra? [ ]
A) Select and B) Project and C)Union and set D) All of the
Project Cartesian product Difference above
Which of the following symbol can be used for Assignment operation in the relational algebra [ ]
25
expression?
A) = B) =+ C) = = D) 
26 A ___ system is a non-procedural query language. [ ]
A) Rational B) Relational Calculus C) Ambiguous Calculus D) None of the
Calculus above
27 A ___ query language focuses on how to get the end results for the user. [ ]
A) Procedural B) Non-procedural C) Circular D) Flow
28 How many types of relational calculus are there? [ ]
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
29 In a relation, ___ are selected using the tuple relational calculus. [ ]
A) Attributes B) Tuples C) Relation D) Calculus
30 Which of the following command is used to change data in table? [ ]
A) Insert B) Update C) Merge D) None
31 What is rows of a relation known as? [ ]
A) Degree B) Entity C) Tuple D) None
32 Which of the following is known as minimal super key? [ ]
A) Primary Key B) Candidate Key C) Foreign Key D) None
33 In how many categories data types has been classified? [ ]
A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 3
34 Name of the data type categories are, [ ]
A) String Data types B) Numeric Data types
C) Date and time Data types D) All of the above
35 Which of the following is SQL Server Date and Time Data Type? [ ]
A) timestamp B) sql_variant C) real D) text
36 Which SQL clause is used to filter the results of a query to a specific condition? [ ]
A) ORDER BY B) GROUP BY C) WHERE D) HAVING
37 In a database, what is the purpose of the “JOIN” operation? [ ]
A) To insert new B) To update existing C) To retrieve data from D) To delete
records records multiple tables records
38 What is the role of the “SELECT” statement in SQL? [ ]
A) To add new B) To retrieve data C) To update existing D) To delete
records to a table from a table records in a table records from a
table
39 Which SQL statement is used to add new records to a table? [ ]
A)ADD B) CREATE C)INSERT D)UPDATE
40 Which of the following is not a valid data type in SQL? [ ]
A) VARCHAR B) BOOLEAN C) DATETIME D) DECIMALS
 UNIT-III
Relational Model

1 The data in RDBMS is stored in database objects called ___ [ ]

A) Tables B) Rows
C) Columns D) None of the above
2 SQL Stands for [ ]
A) Standard Query Language
B) Structured Query Language
C) Standardised Query Language
D) None of the above
3 To Look at the "Customers" table: [ ]
A) SELECT FROM * Customers; B)SELECT FROM Customers *;
C) SELECT * FROM Customers; D) None of the above
4 SQL keywords are [ ]
A) Case Sensitive B) NOT case sensitive C) Both D) None
5 The WHERE clause is used to ____ records. [ ]
A) READ B)FILTER C) TRUNCATE D)REMOVE
6 The ORDER BY keyword is used to ___ the result-set [ ]
A)select B) Merge C)sort D)None
7 SELECT * FROM Products [ ]
ORDER BY Price DESC;
From the above Statement the table name is ______.
A)Products B)Price C)Order D) None of the
above
8 The AND Operator displays a record if _____ the conditions are TRUE. [ ]
A) One B) Two
C) All D) Any
9 The OR Operator displays a record if _____ the conditions are TRUE. [ ]
A) One B) Two C) All D) Any
10 SELECT * FROM Customers [ ]
WHERE Country = 'Brazil'
AND City = 'Rio de Janeiro'
AND CustomerID > 50;
From the above Statement, how many conditions should be considered ?
A) One B) Two C) Three Four
11 Can we combine both the AND and OR operators [ ]
A) Yes B) No
12 The NOT operator is used in combination with other operators to give the ___ result [ ]
A) Down B) Up C) Opposite D) Positive
13 The INSERT INTO statement is used to______ new records in a table. [ ]
A) Insert B) Delete C) Remove D) Alter
14 A field with a NULL value is a field with ___ value. [ ]
A) None B) No C) Both A and B D) None of the
above
15 It is not possible to test for NULL values with ________ operators [ ]
A) Algebraic B) comparison C) Logical D) None
16 The IS NULL operator is used to test for ____values. [ ]
A) Null B) empty C) Both A and B D) . None
17 The UPDATE statement is used to ___the existing records in a table. [ ]
A) modify B) Remove C) Create D) Insert
18 If we omit Where Clause, all records will be ________. [ ]
A) Updated B) Created C) Removed D) Inserted
19 The DELETE statement is used to _____ existing records in a table. [ ]
 A) Alter B) delete C) Create D) Insert
20 MIN() - returns the ______-within the selected column [ ]
A)Sum Value B)Biggest Value C) smallest value D)Average Value
21 MAX() - returns the _______within the selected column [ ]
A) largest value B) Smallest Value C) Sum Value D) Average Value
22 SUM() - returns the total sum of a numerical column [ ]
A) Sum Value B) Smallest Value C) Average Value D) Average Value
23 Which of the following is an aggregate function? [ ]
A) Length() B)Count() C)Round() D)Convert()
24 Which SQL keyword is used to sort the result-set ? [ ]
A) SORT BY B) ORDER BY C)GROUP BY D) ARRANGE BY
25 Which of the following set operations returns unique values from both SELECT statements? [ ]
A) INTERSECT B) UNION ALL C) UNION D) EXCEPT
26 What is the purpose of the GROUP BY clause in SQL ? [ ]
A) To combine B) To filter records C) To group rows that D) To sort results
rows from based on conditions have the same values in alphabetically
multiple tables specified columns
27 What will the following query return? [ ]
SQL>SELECT UPPER('sql is fun');
A) sql is fun B) SQL IS FUN C) Sql Is Fun D) Error
28 Which join includes all rows from the left table and only matching rows from the right table? [ ]
A) Inner Join B) Left Join C) Right Join D) Left Outer Join
29 Which of the following is not a valid SQL data type? [ ]
A) VARCHAR B) STRING C)INTEGER D) BOOLEAN
30 What does a FOREIGN KEY do? [ ]
A) Prevents B) Links two tables C) Uniquely identifies each D) Automatically
duplicate records together record in a table deletes rows
31 What is the default sorting order of ORDER BY in SQL? [ ]
A) Based on B) Random C) Ascending D) Descending
primary key
32 Which of the following can be used to remove duplicate rows in a query result? [ ]
A) Unique B) Distinct C) Remove Duplicates D) No Duplicate
33 What does the HAVING clause do in a SQL query? [ ]
A) Filters rows B) Renames columns C) Filters groups after D) Counts rows
before grouping aggregation
34 Which of the following SQL clauses is used to sort the result set of a query? [ ]
A) SORT BY B) FILTER BY
C) GROUP BY D) ORDER BY
35 Which of the following SQL clauses is used to sort the result set of a query? [ ]
A) SUM() B) SUBSTRING() C) LENGTH() D) CONCAT()
36 Which SQL clause is used to group rows that have the same values? [ ]
A) GROUP BY B) ORDER BY C) FILTER BY D) SORT BY
37 Which of the following is NOT a valid SQL constraint? [ ]
A) PRIMARY B) FOREIGN KEY C) ALTER KEY D) CHECK
KEY
38 Which function returns the number of characters in a string? [ ]
A) B) LENGTH() C) STRLEN() D) SIZE()
CHARCOUNT()
39 What is the result of SELECT ROUND(123.456, 1); [ ]
A) 123.45 B) 123.4 C) 123.5 D) 124.0
40 Which keyword is used to create a relationship between two tables? [ ]
A) BIND B) RELATE C) FOREIGN KEY D) CONNECT
 UNIT-1V
Schema Refinement (Normalization)

1 What is the main goal of normalization in databases? [ ]

A) Improve B) Reduce redundancy C) Increase complexity D) Add constraint
performance
2 Normalization helps in: [ ]
A) Adding B) Eliminating C) Increasing D) Removing
redundancy anomalies duplication foreign keys
3 Schema refinement helps to: [ ]
A) Create new B) Improve logical C) Add more tables D) Convert
keys design relations
4 A functional dependency is a relationship between: [ ]
A) Table B) Attributes C) Keys D) Datatypes
5 In A → B, A is called [ ]
A) Dependent B) Determinant C) Key D) Function
6 FD A → B holds if: [ ]
A) Each A has B) Each A has one B C) B determines A D) A is not unique
many B
7 1NF requires: [ ]
A) No transitive B) No foreign keys C) Composite keys D) Atomic values
dependency only
8 2NF eliminates: [ ]
A) Transitive B) Redundant keys C) Partial D) Multivalued
dependencies dependencies attributes
9 Which normal form eliminates transitive dependencies? [ ]
A)1NF B)2NF C)3NF D)4NF
10 A relation is in 2NF if it is in 1NF and has no: [ ]
A) Composite B) Surrogate keys C) Multivalued D) Partial
keys dependencies dependencies
11 Lossless join ensures: [ ]
A)No data loss B) Surrogate keys C) More keys D) All.
during
decomposition
12 Dependency preservation ensures [ ]
A) All attributes B) All FDs can be C) No loss of tuples D) Elimination of
are atomic enforced without join MVDs
13 Which is preferred in decomposition? [ ]
A) Only B) Only lossless join C) Both D) None
dependency
preservation
14 A surrogate key is: [ ]
A)Derived from B) Composite key C) System-generated D)Candidate key
natural data identifier
15 Surrogate keys are used when: [ ]
A) There is a B) Keys are not required C) Data is not D)No stable
good natural key normalized natural key exists
16 BCNF is a stronger version of: [ ]
A)1NF B) 2NF C) 3NF D) 4NF
17 A relation is in BCNF if: [ ]
A) Every FD B) Only primary key C) It is in 2NF D) It has no foreign
has a superkey exists key
on the le
18 BCNF eliminates: [ ]
 A) Transitive B) Partial dependencies C) Anomalies not D) MVDs
dependencies removed by 3NF
19 If A →→ B, then: [ ]
A) A B) A multivaluedly C) B determines A D) None of these
functionally determines B
determines B
20 4NF removes: [ ]
A) Transitive B) Partial dependencies C) Multivalued D) Join
dependencies dependencies dependencies
21 5NF handles: [ ]
A) Join B) Partial dependencieS C) Transitive D) Functional
dependencies dependencies dependencies
22 Join dependency is a generalization of: [ ]
A) Functional B) Multivalued C) Candidate key D) Surrogate key
dependency dependency
23 Which normal form first considers functional dependency? [ ]
A) 1NF B) 2NF C) 3NF D) 4NF
24 In normalization, which step should be applied first? [ ]
A) 1NF B) 2NF C) 3NF D) 4NF
25 Which of the following is NOT a reason for normalization? [ ]
A) Remove B) Minimize update C) Increase data size D) Improve data
redundancy anomalies integrity
26 Which of the following is a transitive dependency? [ ]
A) A → B, B → B) A → B C) B → A D) A → A
C
27 Which of these is an example of partial dependency? [ ]
A) (A, B) → C, B) A → B, B → C C) A → B D) A → A
A→C
28 Normalization can lead to: [ ]
A) Data B) Anomaly C) Poor design D) Slower integrity
duplication prevention
29 Which key is NOT derived from the actual data [ ]
A) Natural key B) Candidate key C) Surrogate key D) Composite key
30 Which normal form handles MVDs? [ ]
A) 3NF B) BCNF C) 4NF D) 5NF
31 Normalization process ends at: [ ]
A) 3NF B) BCNF C) 5NF or as needed D) 1NF
32 When a relation has no anomalies, it is considered: [ ]
A) Denormalized B) Redundant C) Complex D) Well-
structured
33 Which is not a type of anomaly [ ]
A) Insert B) Delete C) Update D) Rename
34 What is an anomaly in databases [ ]
A) Logical error B) Inconsistency in C) Security breach D) Storage
in schema data manipulation problem
35 Which form allows join dependency? [ ]
A) 4NF B) BCNF C) 2NF D) 5NF
36 Which of these is the highest level of normalization generally used [ ]
A) 4NF B) BCNF C) 5NF D) 2NF
37 FDs help in: [ ]
A) Designing B) Writing procedures C) Database D) Indexing
queries normalization
38 Which of the following always holds for FDs? [ ]
A) Transitivity B) Normalization C) Candidate key D) Redundancy
39 Which type of FD has right side as subset of left side? [ ]
 A) Transitive B) Augmented C) Trivial D) Non-trivial
40 Which of the following is a valid FD? [ ]
A) A ← B B) A ↔ B C) A → B D) A × B

UNIT-V
Introduction, Entity Relationship Model

1 Which of the following is the initial state of a transaction? [ ]

A) Committed B) Aborted C)Active D) Partially
Committed
2 Which of the following is NOT a typical transaction state? [ ]
A) Active B) Committed C) Pending D) Aborted
3 Which state directly precedes the "Committed" state? [ ]
A) Active B) Aborted C) Partially Committed D) Failed
4 What does the "A" in ACID stand for? [ ]
A) Accuracy B) Atomicity C) Accessibility D) Authorization
5 Which ACID property ensures that once a transaction is committed, its changes are [ ]
permanent?
A) Atomicity B) Consistency C) Isolation D) Durability
6 Ensuring that "all or nothing" occurs within a transaction is a description of which ACID [ ]
property?
A) Consistency B) Isolation C) Atomicity D) Durability
7 Which of the following problems can occur during concurrent execution? [ ]
A) Deadlock B) Loss of data integrity C) Inconsistent data D) All of the
reads above
8 Which of the following is a technique used to manage concurrent execution and prevent [ ]
conflicts?
A)Normalization B) Indexing C) Locking D) Data
warehousing
9 Which of the following is a goal of concurrency control? [ ]
A) To ensure B) To maximize C) To minimize response D) All of the
data consistency throughput time above.
10 A "precedence graph" is used to determine: [ ]
A) The number B) The database size. C) Conflict D) The speed of
of transactions serializability the database.
11 When transactions are executing concurrently, and the result is the same as if they had [ ]
executed in some serial order, this is called:
A) Concurrency B)Parallel execution C) Serializability D) Isolation.
12 Which of the following scenarios necessitates database recovery? [ ]
A) Transaction B) System crash C) Data normalization D) Index creation
commit.
13 What is the primary goal of implementing isolation in concurrent transactions? [ ]
A) To increase B) ) To prevent C) To simplify database D) ) To reduce data
transaction interference between backups redundancy
speed. concurrent
transactions
14 What is the primary purpose of testing for serializability? [ ]
A) To improve B) To ensure that C) To simplify database D) To enforce data
database concurrent backups. integrity
performance transactions maintain constraints.
data consistency
15 Which of the following is a method to handle deadlocks? [ ]
A) Deadlock B) Deadlock detection C) Timeouts D) All of the
prevention. and recovery above.
16 In timestamp-based concurrency control, each transaction is assigned a: [ ]
 A) Unique lock B) Unique timestamp C) Unique data block D) Unique user ID.
identifier. address.
17 In optimistic concurrency control, transactions perform updates: [ ]
A) Immediately B) In a private C) By acquiring locks D) By using
on the database. workspace timestamps.
18 If conflicts are detected during the validation phase, the transaction is [ ]
A) Committed. B) Rolled back C) Delayed D) Ignored.
19 The "Wound-Wait" protocol is a type of: [ ]
A) Lock-based B) Timestamp-based C) Optimistic protocol D) Validation
protocol protocol protocol.
20 Which of the following is a lock-based concurrency control protocol? [ ]
A) Timestamp B) Optimistic C) Two-Phase Locking D) Validation-
Ordering. Concurrency Control. (2PL). Based Protocol.
21 Which of the following is NOT a necessary condition for a deadlock to occur? [ ]
A) Mutual B) Hold and Wait C) Preemption D) Circular Wait
Exclusion
22 Which of the following is the method of handling deadlock by reducing the scope of [ ]
resources allocated?
A) Deadlock B) Deadlock detection C) Deadlock recovery D) Deadlock
prevention avoidance
23 The 'Banker's Algorithm' is used to: [ ]
A) Detect B) Prevent deadlocks C) Resolve deadlocks D) Break the
deadlocks circular wait
condition
24 Which of the following techniques can be used to detect deadlocks? [ ]
A) Resource B) Banker's Algorithm C) Wait-for Graph D) All of the
Allocation Graph above
25 Which type of failure is most commonly associated with high-cycle loading conditions? [ ]
A) Creep failure B) Fatigue failure C) Fracture failure D) Corrosion
failure
26 Which of the following DBMS components is responsible for managing the data pages on [ ]
disk?
A) File Manager B) Query Processor C) Buffer Manager D) Storage
Manager
27 Which of the following storage models is used in DBMS to store data on disk in a contiguous [ ]
block?
A) Hashing B) Indexed Sequential C) Binary Search Trees D) Relational
Access Method (ISAM) Model
28 In the ACID properties of transactions, what does the "C" stand for? [ ]
A) Consistency B) Commit C) Concurrency D) Checkpoint
29 Which of the following is NOT a component of Transaction Recovery? [ ]
A) Log-based B) Checkpoint C) Commit protocol D) Deadlock
recovery detection
30 Which of the following techniques is used in Atomicity to ensure that a transaction is either [ ]
fully executed or fully aborted?
A) Two-phase B) Write-ahead logging C) Savepoints D) All of the
commit protocol above
31 Transaction logs are primarily used for: [ ]
A) Recording B) Monitoring the A) Storing user B) Controlling
changes to the execution of SQL credentials. access to the
database to queries. database.
facilitate
recovery.
32 Which of the following recovery techniques ensures that no transaction is lost, even if a [ ]
system crash occurs?
 A) Immediate B) Deferred update C) Shadow paging D) Write-ahead
update logging (WAL)
33 In a B+ tree, internal nodes contain: [ ]
A) Keys and data B) Only data C) Only keys D) Keys and
pointers to other
internal nodes
34 A B+ tree is most suitable for which of the following applications? [ ]
A) Memory B) File systems and C) Sorting algorithms D) Priority queues
management databases
35 In a B+ tree, which of the following operations is performed efficiently due to its linked leaf [ ]
nodes?
A) Insertion B ) Deletion C) Searching D) Range query
(range search)
36 In a B+ tree, leaf nodes are: [ ]
A) Unlinked B ) Connected in a C) Connected in a D) Randomly
doubly-linked list singly-linked list connected
37 In a B+ tree, what is the maximum number of children a node can have in a tree of order m? [ ]
A) m B ) m+1 C) m-1 D) 2m
38 Which of the following operations may cause merging in a B+ tree? [ ]
A) Insertion B ) Deletion C) Searching D) None of the
above
39 Which of the following methods is commonly used to resolve collisions in hash-based [ ]
indexing?
A) Linear B ) Pre-order traversal C) Depth-first search D) Bubble sort
probing
40 Which type of collision resolution strategy involves using a linked list to store multiple [ ]
records at the same hash address?
A) Separate B ) Open addressing C) Rehashing D) Binary search
chaining