CORRIGENDUM OF MOCK TEST 2

There has been mistakes found in Mock Test 2. Please find the updated key for Q.No.12 and Q.No.71.

Q.No:12) Consider the following mechanisms of accessing credit :

1. Issue of dated Government securities to the publicJ
2. Issue of Treasury Bills to the public
3. Ways and Means Advance facility from RBI
4. Issue of dated Government Securities to RBI
In the context of the Government of India, through which of the above mechanisms does the Government
finance its deficit ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Deficit financing means generating funds to finance the deficit resulting from excess expenditure over
revenue. The gap is being covered by borrowing from the public through the sale of bonds or by printing
new money.
The below mechanisms do the Government finance its deficit:
➢ The Reserve Bank of India issues dated Government securities to the public on behalf of the
Government, which are long-term debt instruments that mature in 5-40 years. These securities are
typically used to finance the long-term requirements of the Government.
➢ The Government issues Treasury Bills to the public, which are short-term debt instruments that
mature in less than one year. These bills are used to finance the short-term requirements of the
Government.
So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
RBI provides temporary loan facility to the centre and state /UT governments as a banker to government.
The WMA scheme is designed to meet temporary mismatches in the receipts and payments of the
government. This facility can be availed by the government if it needs immediate cash from the RBI. The
WMA is a loan facility from the RBI for 90 days which implies that the government has to vacate the facility
after 90 days.
Interest rate for WMA is currently charged at the repo rate. The limits for WMA are mutually decided by
the RBI and the Government of India. WMA is just a loan paper and is non-tradable (T-bills, Dated
Securities, SDL and Cash Management Bills are tradable). Whereas, WMAs are not used to fund Fiscal
deficit. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
➢ Dated Government securities are long-term securities or government bonds that carry a fixed or
floating coupon (interest rate). Securities are issued by the government (center or state) for mobilizing
funds. Financing the fiscal deficit is the most important purpose for issuing dated securities. On behalf
of the government, only the RBI issues the securities, pays interest and gives back money at the
maturity period. The government does not issue them to the RBI.
➢ RBI’s public debt office manages all these activities. The RBI sells securities through auction through
the Negotiated Dealing System (NDS). They are bought by institutions known as primary dealers
(Primarily dealers are mostly commercial banks, insurance companies etc.)
So, Statement 4 is not correct.

Q.No:71) Which of the following is not a provision or consequence of Article 29 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to Conservation is granted for linguistic, script-based and cultural minorities. (alone has been
removed to make the statement correct)
(b) Minorities can be construed for the whole of India as well as any part of India as well.
(c) Religious minorities do not enjoy this as a fundamental right.
(d) State Governments are empowered to notify the list of minorities in the State.
EXPLANATION:
Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part of India
having a distinct language, script or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. The
scope of the original feature of this article which included only minorities (both linguistic and cultural)
was extended to all the Citizens of India by the Supreme court of India in The Ahmedabad St. Xaviers
College vs State Of Gujarat case judgement. So, Option (a) is correct.

Although the word 'minorities' occurs in the marginal note to Article 29, it does not occur in the text. The
original proposal of the Advisory Committee in the Constituent. Assembly recommended the following
Minorities in every unit shall be protected in respect of their language, script and culture and no laws or
regulations may be enacted that may operate oppressively or prejudicially in this respect." But after the
clause was considered by the Drafting Committee on 1st November, 1947, it emerged with substitute of
'section of citizens'.
It was explained that the intention had always been to use 'minority in a wide sense, so as to include (for
example) Maharashtrians who settled in Bengal. (7 C.A.D. pages 922-23]. Hence it is a consequence of
Article 29. So, Option (b) is correct.

Further, no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or
receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language.

The first provision protects the right of a group while the second provision guarantees the right of a citizen
as an individual irrespective of the community to which he belongs.

Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. So, Option (c) is
not correct.

Section 2(f) of National Commission for Minority Education Institution Act, 2004 empowers the Centre to
identify and notify minority communities in India. The Ministry of Minority Affairs in its response said: It
is submitted that the State governments can also declare a religious or linguistic community as a minority
community within the said state. So, Option (d) is correct.
 PRESTORMING - 2023
ALL INDIA MOCK TEST III – EXPLANATION
INDEX

Q.1) ............................................................................................................................................ 5
Q.2) ............................................................................................................................................ 5
Q.3) ............................................................................................................................................ 6
Q.4) ............................................................................................................................................ 7
Q.5) ………. .................................................................................................................................. 7
Q.6) ............................................................................................................................................ 8
Q.7) ............................................................................................................................................ 8
Q.8) ............................................................................................................................................ 9
Q.9) ............................................................................................................................................ 9
Q.10) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 10
Q.11) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 11
Q.12) .......................................................................................................................................... 11
Q.13) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 12
Q.14) ………….. ............................................................................................................................. 13
Q.15) .......................................................................................................................................... 13
Q.16) .......................................................................................................................................... 14
Q.17) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 14
Q.18) .......................................................................................................................................... 15
Q.19) ……… ................................................................................................................................. 16
Q.20) .......................................................................................................................................... 16
Q.21) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 17
Q.22) .......................................................................................................................................... 18
Q.23) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 19
Q.24) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 20
Q.25) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 20
Q.26) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 21
Q.27) .......................................................................................................................................... 21
Q.28) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 22
Q.29) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 23
Q.30) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 24

1
Q.31) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 24
Q.32) .......................................................................................................................................... 25
Q.33) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 26
Q.34) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 27
Q.35) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 27
Q.36) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 28
Q.37) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 29
Q.38) ……………. ........................................................................................................................... 29
Q.39) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 30
Q.40) ……… ................................................................................................................................. 31
Q.41) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 32
Q.42) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 33
Q.43) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 33
Q.44) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 34
Q.45) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 35
Q.46) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 36
Q.47) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 37
Q.48) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 38
Q.49) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 38
Q.50) .......................................................................................................................................... 39
Q.51) .......................................................................................................................................... 40
Q.52) .......................................................................................................................................... 41
Q.53) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 41
Q.54) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 42
Q.55) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 42
Q.56) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 43
Q.57) ………….. ............................................................................................................................. 44
Q.58) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 45
Q.59) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 46
Q.60) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 46
Q.61) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 47
Q.62) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 48
Q.63) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 48
Q.64) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 49
Q.65) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 50
2
Q.66) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 51
Q.67) ……… ................................................................................................................................. 51
Q.68) .......................................................................................................................................... 52
Q.69) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 52
Q.70) ………….. ............................................................................................................................. 53
Q.71) ………….. ............................................................................................................................. 54
Q.72) ……………. ........................................................................................................................... 55
Q.73) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 55
Q.74) ………….. ............................................................................................................................. 56
Q.75) .......................................................................................................................................... 57
Q.76) …………… ............................................................................................................................ 58
Q.77) …………… ............................................................................................................................ 59
Q.78) …………… ............................................................................................................................ 59
Q.79) .......................................................................................................................................... 60
Q.80) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 60
Q.81) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 61
Q.82) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 61
Q.83) .......................................................................................................................................... 61
Q.84) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 62
Q.85) .......................................................................................................................................... 63
Q.86) ………….. ............................................................................................................................. 63
Q.87) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 64
Q.88) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 65
Q.89) ………….. ............................................................................................................................. 65
Q.90) …………… ............................................................................................................................ 66
Q.91) ………….. ............................................................................................................................. 67
Q.92) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 68
Q.93) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 69
Q.94) ……… ................................................................................................................................. 69
Q.95) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 71
Q.96) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 71
Q.97) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 72
Q.98) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 72
Q.99) .......................................................................................................................................... 73
Q.100) ……………….. ....................................................................................................................... 74
3
4
Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to Hydrogen :
1. Hydrogen is the lightest and most abundant element in the universe, found abundantly in nature
in its elemental form.
2. Green Hydrogen is produced using water electrolysis with electricity generated by renewable
energy.
3. Hydrogen can be utilized for long-duration storage of renewable energy, replacement of fossil
fuels in industry, clean transportation, aviation, and marine transport.
4. Hydrogen and water are envisaged to be the future fuels to replace fossil fuels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Hydrogen, the most abundant element in the universe and the third most abundant on the surface of the
globe. In atomic form, it consists of only one proton and one electron, and it is the lightest element and
exhibits the simplest atomic structure. It is rarely found in Nature in its elemental form and must always
be extracted from other hydrogen-containing compounds. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Depending on the nature of the method of its extraction, hydrogen is categorised into three categories,
namely, Grey, Blue and Green.
➢ Grey Hydrogen: It is produced via coal or lignite gasification (black or brown), or via a process
called steam methane reformation (SMR) of natural gas or methane (grey). These tend to be mostly
carbon-intensive processes.
➢ Blue Hydrogen: It is produced via natural gas or coal gasification combined with carbon capture
storage (CCS) or carbon capture use (CCU) technologies to reduce carbon emissions.
➢ Green Hydrogen: It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable
energy. The carbon intensity ultimately depends on the carbon neutrality of the source of electricity
(i.e., the more renewable energy there is in the electricity fuel mix, the "greener" the hydrogen
produced).
So, Statement 2 is correct.
Compressed hydrogen tanks are capable of storing energy for long periods of time and are also easier to
handle than lithium-ion batteries because they are lighter. Hydrogen can be utilized for long-duration
storage of renewable energy, replacement of fossil fuels in industry, clean transportation, and potentially
also for decentralized power generation, aviation, and marine transport. Hydrogen provides a means for
storage of variable renewable energy for stabilizing its output. For long duration storage, running into
several hours, converting excess available energy into hydrogen and utilizing it for grid support and other
applications is seen to be a suitable alternative So, Statement 3 is correct.
Hydrogen and Ammonia are envisaged to be the future fuels to replace fossil fuels. Water, on the other
hand, is not a fuel but a resource that can be used to produce energy. Production of these fuels by using
power from renewable energy,termed as green Hydrogen and green Ammonia, is one of the major
requirements for the environmentally sustainable energy security of the nation. So, Statement 4 is not
correct.

Q.2) Which of the following is an indicator of measuring the Gender Inequality Index ?
(a) Dietary Reference Intake
(b) Mean years of schooling
(c) Labour Force Participation Ratio
(d) Per capita Gross National Income
5
EXPLANATION:
➢ The Gender Inequality Index' is released by United Nations Development Program.
➢ The Gender Inequality Index (GII) provides insights into gender disparities in health, empowerment
and the labour market. Unlike the human development index (HDI), however, higher values in the GII
indicate worse achievements.
➢ The GII is a composite measure reflecting inequality in achievements between women and men in three
dimensions, reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market.
• The health dimension is measured by the maternal mortality ratio and the adolescent fertility rate.
• The empowerment dimension is measured by the share of parliamentary seats held by each gender
and by secondary and higher education attainment levels.
• The labour dimension is measured by women's participation in the workforce.
The GII varies between 0 (when women and men fare equally) and 1 (when men or women fare poorly
compared to the other in all dimensions). It is designed to reveal the extent to which national human
development achievements are eroded by gender inequality and to provide empirical foundations for policy
analysis and advocacy efforts.
So, Option (c) is correct.

Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding District Mineral Foundation (DMF) :
1. It is a non-profit body established under Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation)
Amendment Act 2015.
2. The Central government is empowered to establish DMF in any district affected by mining-related
operations.
3. Approval of gram sabha is required to use the DMF funds in the mining-affected villages under
Schedule V areas.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATIONS
The concept of District Mineral Foundation was introduced through amendment in Mines & Minerals
(Development & Regulation) MMDR Act, 1957. The amended Act inter –alia introduced section 9B which
provides for establishment of DMF, a trust as non- profit body, in all districts affected by mining related
operations. The objective of DMFs have been clearly spelt out in the Section 9B (2) of the MMDR Act
(amended in 2015) as ‘to work for the interest and benefit of persons, and areas affected by mining-related
operations’. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Section 9B of Mines & Minerals (Development & Regulation) MMDR Act 1957 mandates the State
Governments to establish District Mineral Foundation (DMF) in each district affected by mining related
operations. Section 15A of the Act empowers the State to collect funds for DMF in case of minor minerals.
All 21 mineral rich States of the country have framed DMF rules of its composition and functions. DMFs
have been set up in 557 districts. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The objective and functioning of DMF are also guided by constitutional provisions as it relates to Fifth
and Sixth Schedules for governing tribal areas, the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled
Areas) Act (PESA), 1996, and the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006 – the Forest Rights Act (FRA).
The law has granted power to gram sabhas in Scheduled Areas, enabling the community to voice their
opinions. Approval of gram sabha is required to identify beneficiaries in affected villages. Approval of the
gram sabha is required for all plans/programmes/projects to be taken up with DMF money. Report on
the works undertaken by the DMF Trust in respective villages should also be furnished to the gram sabha
after completion of every financial year. So, Statement 3 is correct.

6
Q.4) Recently, India implemented the T+1 settlement cycle. In this context, consider the following
statements :
1. In the T+1 format, the seller will get the money, and the buyer will get the shares within a day.
2. Even developed markets in the United States and the United Kingdom do not have a T+1
settlement cycle.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The T+1 settlement cycle means that trade-related settlements must be done within a day, or 24 hours, of
the completion of a transaction. In the T+1 format, if an investor sells a share, she will get the money
within a day, and the buyer will also get the shares in her demat account within a day. India became the
second country after China to implement the T+1 settlement cycle that will bring operational efficiency,
faster fund remittances, share delivery, and ease for stock market participants.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Until 2001, stock markets had a weekly settlement system. The markets then moved to a rolling settlement
system of T+3 and then to T+2 in 2003. T+1 is being implemented despite opposition from foreign investors.
The United States, United Kingdom and Eurozone markets are yet to move to the T+1 system.
So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Products Export Development Authority
(MPEDA) :
1. MPEDA helps in the promotion of Indian marine products in overseas markets.
2. China emerged as India's second-largest seafood export destination in terms of quantity.
3. It was launched in 1972 as a statutory body of the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and
Dairying.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
MPEDA’s focus is mainly on Market Promotion, Capture Fisheries, Culture Fisheries, Processing
Infrastructure & Value addition, Quality Control, Research and Development. MPEDA is given the
authority to prescribe for itself any matters that the future might require for protecting and augmenting
the seafood exports from the country. It is also empowered to carry out inspection of marine products,
its raw material, fixing standards, specifications, and training, as well as take all necessary steps for
marketing the seafood overseas. So, Statement 1 is correct.
India's marine product exports record an all-time high in FY 2021-22; Growing by over 30%. Frozen
shrimp remained the major export item in terms of quantity and value. As for overseas markets, the USA
continued to be the major importer of Indian seafood in value and volume. China emerged as the second
largest seafood export destination from India in terms of quantity . The European Union continued to be
the third largest destination for Indian seafood. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) was set up by an act of Parliament in 1972.
The agency is headquartered in Kochi, Kerala, and has regional offices in major seafood exporting states
in India. MPEDA is the nodal agency for the holistic development of the seafood industry in India to
realize its full export potential as a nodal agency. It is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

7
Q.6) Which of the following results in a decrease in the multiplication of money in an economy ?
(a) Increase in deposits in the banking system
(b) Decrease in Cash Reserve Ratio
(c) Increase in the use of cash in the economy
(d) Increase in borrowings in the economy
EXPLANATION:
The multiplier effect is an economic term referring to the proportional increase or decrease in final income
resulting from an injection or withdrawal of capital. Multiplier effects measure the impact a change in an
economic activity like investment or spending will have on the total economic output of something. Money
Multiplier = Change in income / Change in spending.
Suppose there is an increase in deposits in the banking system. In that case, banks will have more money
to lend, which increases the multiplication of money in an economy.
Under the cash reserve ratio (CRR), commercial banks have to hold a certain minimum amount of
deposits as reserves with the central bank. The percentage of cash required to be kept in reserves as
against the bank's total deposits, is called the Cash Reserve Ratio. The cash reserve is either stored in
the bank's vault or sent to the RBI. Banks can't lend CRR money to corporates or individual borrowers,
and banks can't use that money for investment purposes. Thus, a decrease in Cash Reserve Ratio
increases the multiplication of money in the economy.
Conversely, if there is an increase in the usage of cash in the economy, banks do not have money to lend,
which leads to a decrease in the multiplication of money in an economy. So, Option (c) is correct.

Q.7) Which of the following statements best explains the concept of 'short selling' seen recently in the
news?
(a) A trading strategy that speculates on the decline in the price of a security
(b) A trading strategy that speculates on the rise in the price of a security
(c) A trading strategy that guarantees maximum profits for the seller
(d) An illegal trading strategy that involves having access to confidential information
EXPLANATION:
Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) said short selling usually involves investors borrowing and
selling shares, expecting to buy them back later at a lower price before returning them to the lenders.
They profit from the difference between the higher sale price initially and the lower purchase price.
In short selling, a position is opened by borrowing shares of a stock or other asset that the investor
believes will decrease in value. The investor then sells these borrowed shares to buyers willing to pay
the market price. Before the borrowed shares must be returned, the trader is betting that the price will
continue to decline, and they can purchase the shares at a lower cost. The risk of loss on a short sale
is theoretically unlimited since the price of any asset can climb to infinity.
The most common reasons for engaging in short selling are speculation and hedging. A speculator is
making a pure price bet that it will decline. If they are wrong, they will have to buy the shares back
higher, at a loss. Because of the additional risks in short selling due to the use of margin, it is usually
conducted over a smaller time horizon. It is thus more likely to be an activity conducted for speculation.
So, Option (a) is correct.

8
Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding the NIPUN scheme :
1. It has been set up under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha
2. It will help construction wage workers to seek better job opportunities, increase wages and pursue
overseas placements.
3. NIPUN scheme aims to facilitate and make education more relevant and create an industry-fit
skilled workforce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Ministry of Education has launched a National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding
and Numeracy (NIPUN Bharat) to ensure that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational
literacy and numeracy (FLN) by the end of Grade 3 by 2026-27. The National Mission, which has been
launched under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha, will focus on providing
access to and retaining children in foundational years of schooling, teacher capacity building, development
of high-quality and diversified Student and Teacher Resources/Learning Materials; and tracking the
progress of each child in achieving learning outcomes.
The NIPUN (National Initiative for Promoting Upskilling of Nirman workers) scheme is different from the
NIPUN Bharat initiative. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Minister of Housing & Urban Affairs and Petroleum & Natural Gas, Government of India, launched an
innovative project for skill training of construction workers called 'NIPUN,' i.e., National Initiative for
Promoting Upskilling of Nirman workers. The project NIPUN is an initiative of the Ministry of Housing &
Urban Affairs (MoHUA) under its flagship scheme of the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban
Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM) to train over 1 lakh construction workers through fresh skilling and
upskilling programmes. It provides them with work opportunities in foreign countries also. NIPUN will
enable Nirman workers to seek better job opportunities, increase their wages, and even pursue overseas
placements. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship in consultation with Ministry of Education (MoE) has
planned to implement the ‘Skill Hub Initiative’ under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 3.0 (PMKVY
3.0). Scheme aims to facilitate and make education more relevant and create industry fit skilled workforce.
Skill Hubs are nodal skill centres identified to provide skill development and vocational training
opportunities to target population segments from class 6-8th (introduction to world-of-work through
orientation, industry visits, bag-less days), 9th to 12th (aimed at exposing students to skill development
avenues), school dropouts and out-of-education (aimed for academic credit, mainstreaming back to
education and or apprenticeship and employment linkages). So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding the Primary Agricultural Credit Society (PACS) :
1. PACS provides short-term agricultural loans, which farmers can avail credit to finance their
requirements.
2. Availing of loans under PACS is a more tedious process compared to other scheduled commercial
banks.
3. Individual farmers are members of the PACS, and office bearers of a PACS are elected from within
them.
4. Like State Cooperative Boards (SCBs) and District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs), PACS are
also connected to the Core Banking Software (CBS).
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
9
EXPLANATION:
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies are village-level cooperative credit societies that serve as the last link
in a three-tier cooperative credit structure headed by the State Cooperative Banks (SCB) at the state level.
Credit from the SCBs is transferred to the district central cooperative banks, or DCCBs, that operate at
the district level. The DCCBs work with PACS, which deal directly with farmers.
PACS are involved in short-term lending — or what is known as crop loans. At the start of the cropping
cycle, farmers avail credit to finance their requirement of seeds, fertilizers etc. Effectively, farmers avail
the crop loans at 2 percent interest only. NABARD's annual report for 2021-22 shows that 59.6 percent
of the loans were extended to small and marginal farmers. So, Statement 1 is correct.
PACS have the capacity to extend credit with minimal paperwork within a short time.
With other scheduled commercial banks, farmers have often complained of tedious paperwork and red
tape. For farmers, PACS provide strength in numbers, as most of the paperwork is taken care of by the
office-bearer of the PACS. In the case of scheduled commercial banks, farmers have to individually meet
the requirement and often have to take the help of agents to get their loans sanctioned. So, Statement 2
is not correct.
A Primary Agricultural Credit Society (PACS) is a basic unit and smallest co-operative credit institution in
India. It works on the grassroots level (gram panchayat and village level). The individual farmers are
members of the Primary Agricultural Credit Society, and office-bearers are elected from within them. A
village can have multiple Primary Agricultural Credit Societies. So, Statement 3 is correct.

State Cooperative Boards (SCBs) and District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) are connected to the
Core Banking Software (CBS), while PACS (Primary Agricultural Credit Societies) are not connected.
DCCBs have made some headway in technology adoption as they have completed the core banking
solution (CBS), which allows customers to do deposits and withdrawal transactions from any bank branch.
These banks can adopt digital banking by digitizing their processes and offering mobile banking. CBS is
a software system that centralizes banking operations such as deposits, loans, and transactions. So,
Statement 4 is not correct.

Q.10) Which one of the following statements best describes the term 'Running inflation' :
(a) A scenario in which the rate of inflation is lesser than the rate of GDP growth
(b) A scenario in which the rate of inflation is equal to the rate of GDP growth
(c) A scenario in which the rate of inflation is greater than the rate of GDP growth, but the
monetary policy can effectively bring inflation under control
(d) A scenario in which the rate of inflation is greater than the rate of GDP growth, but the monetary
policy is ineffective in bringing the inflation under control

10
EXPLANATION:
Inflation is a general rise in the price of goods in an economy. There are many inflation types, such as
Walking, Creeping, Running, Galloping and hyperinflation.
Running inflation is a condition in which the price of the commodity increases with respect to GDP growth
(i.e.) the inflation rate is greater than the rate of GDP growth. Demand-pull inflation is one such example
of running inflation. Demand-pull inflation causes upward pressure on prices due to shortages in supply.
An increase in aggregate demand can also lead to this type of inflation.
But the Central bank, by imposing the monetary policy, can control inflation effectively. If not, it leads to
hyperinflation, in which there is a rapid increase in the price in the economy. So, Option (c) is correct.

Q.11) Under which of the following conditions the Union Public Service Commission can serve the needs
of a state ?
1. When requested by the President
2. When requested by the Governor
3. With the approval of Parliament
4. With the approval of the President
5. With the approval of the concerned state legislature
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 5
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 5
EXPLANATION:
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an
independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the
Constitution. Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding
the composition, appointment and removal of members, along with the independence, powers and
functions of the UPSC.
The UPSC performs the functions:- It conducts examinations for appointments to the all-India services,
Central services and public services of the centrally administered territories. It assists the states (if
requested by two or more states to do so) in framing and operating schemes of joint recruitment for any
services for which candidates possessing special qualifications are required.
It serves all or any of the needs of a state at the request of the state governor and with the approval of the
President of India. So, Option (c) is correct.

Q.12) Consider the following statements about the salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935:
1. All India Federation
2. Provincial Autonomy
3. Dyarchy at the Centre
4. Abolition of Dyarchy in the states
5. Separate electorates for labour
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
The Government of India Act, 1935 marked a second milestone towards a completely responsible
government in India. It was a lengthy and detailed document having 321 Sections and 10 Schedules.
It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as
units. The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists–Federal List (for the
11
 Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with
36 items). Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy. However, the federation never came into being as
the princely states did not join it. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres.
Moreover, the Act introduced responsible Governments in provinces; that is, the Governor was required to
act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature. This came into effect in 1937 and
was discontinued in 1939. So, Statement 2 is correct.
It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre. Consequently, the federal subjects were divided into
reserved subjects and transferred subjects. However, this provision of the Act did not come into operation
at all. Religious affairs, defense, administration of tribal areas and external affairs were included in the
reserved subjects. The Transferred subjects were to be administered on the advice of ministers, and the
number of ministers could not exceed ten. So, Statement 3 is correct.
It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced 'provincial autonomy' in its place. The provinces were
allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. Moreover, the Act
introduced responsible governments in provinces, which meant that the Governor was required to act with
the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature. So, Statement 4 is correct.
It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for
depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women and labour (workers). Further, under the Act, Muslims got
33 percent (1/3 of the seats) in the Federal Legislature. So, Statement 5 is correct.

Q.13) With reference to the Inter-state Council, consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament can establish an Interstate Council if at any time it appears to them that the
public interest would be served by its establishment.
2. Sarkaria Commission, for the first time, recommended the formation of ISC for better center-
state relations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
EXPLANATION:
Article 263 of the Indian Constitution deals with provisions regarding establishing Interstate Council.
Thus, the President can establish such a council if, at any time, it appears to him that the public interest
would be served by its establishment. He can define the nature of duties to be performed by such a council
and its organization and procedure.
Even though the President is empowered to define the duties of an interstate council, Article 263 specifies
the duties that can be assigned to it in the following manner:
➢ enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between states;
➢ investigating and discussing subjects in which the states or the Centre and the states have a common
interest; and
➢ Making recommendations upon any such subject, particularly for better policy coordination and
action on it. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The establishment of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution was
recommended by the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1983-87). To differentiate it from
other bodies established under the same article, the commission suggested calling it the Inter-
Governmental Council. As per the recommendation, the Interstate Council was formed in 1990. However,
prior to this, the Rajmannar Committee had recommended setting up an Interstate Council in 1969.
Unfortunately, the Central government had disregarded the committee's suggestions.So, Statement 2 is
not correct.

12
Q.14) Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to National Human Rights
Commission?
(a) It is a statutory body created under The Protection of Human Rights Act 1993.
(b) Its Chairperson can be a retired Chief Justice of India (CJI) or a judge of the Supreme Court.
(c) The President appoints the Chairperson and members on the recommendations of a six-
member committee consisting of CJI as the Chairperson.
(d) It can review both international and domestic legislations and procedures regarding Human
Rights and makes recommendations for their effective implementation.
EXPLANATION:
The National Human Rights Commission, India has been set up by an Act of Parliament under the
Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 for the protection and promotion of human rights. The functions of
the Commission as stated in Section 12 of the Act and apart from enquiry into complaints of violation of
human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, the Commission also
studies treaties and international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their
effective implementation to the Government.
The chairperson and members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member
committee consisting of the Prime minister as its head, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament and the Central
home minister.
Further, a sitting judge of the Supreme Court or a sitting chief justice of a high court can be appointed
only after consultation with the chief justice of India. So, Option (c) is not correct.

Q.15) Which of the following are not considered as Constitutional Amendments under Article 368 ?
1. Administration of 5th and 6th schedule areas
2. Increase in the number of Puisne judges in the supreme court
3. Elections to parliament and state legislature
4. Acquisition & termination of citizenship
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Article 368 provides for two types of amendments: by a special majority of Parliament and through the
ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other articles provide for the amendment
of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the
members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these
amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:
(a) Amendment by a simple majority of the Parliament,
(b) Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament, and
(c) Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the state legislatures.
Amendment to the Constitution by Simple Majority of Parliament (not considered as an amendment
under Article 368
➢ Admission or establishment of new states.
➢ Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
➢ Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
➢ Second Schedule–emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the
Speakers, judges, etc.
➢ Quorum in Parliament.

13
 ➢ Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
➢ Rules of procedure in Parliament.
➢ Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
➢ Use of English language in Parliament.
➢ Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
➢ Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
➢ Use of official language.
➢ Citizenship–acquisition and termination.
➢ Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
➢ Delimitation of constituencies.
➢ Union territories.
➢ Fifth Schedule–administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes
➢ Sixth Schedule–administration of tribal areas.
So, Option (d) is correct.

Q.16) Consider the following statements, with respect to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution :
1. The Indian concept of socialism follows both 'democratic socialism' and 'state socialism.'
2. The phrase' unity and integrity of the nation' embraces both the psychological and territorial
dimensions of national integration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
EXPLANATION:
The word 'Socialist' was not there in the Preamble of the Constitution originally. It was added by the 42nd
Amendment in 1976. In our Constitution, it has been used in the context of economic planning. The use
of the word 'Socialist' implied acceptance of the State's major role in the economy. It also means a
commitment to attain the ideals such as the removal of inequalities, provision of minimum basic needs to
all, equal pay for equal work, avoidance of concentration of wealth and means of production in a few hands.
The Indian brand of socialism is a 'democratic socialism' and not a 'communistic socialism' (also known
as 'state socialism'), which involves the nationalization of all means of production and distribution and the
abolition of private property. Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a 'mixed economy'
where both public and private sectors co-exist side by side. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The phrase' unity and integrity of the nation' in preamble embraces both the psychological and territorial
dimensions of national integration. Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a 'Union of States' to
make it clear that the states have no right to secede from the Union, implying the indestructible nature of
the Indian Union. It aims at overcoming hindrances to national integration like communalism, regionalism,
casteism, linguism, secessionism and so on. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.17) With reference to the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements :
1. A resolution for the removal of the Vice president can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha
and not in the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions of the Rajya Sabha classifies bills
and allocates time for the discussion of bills and resolutions introduced by private members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

14
EXPLANATION:
The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President holds office for
a term of five years from the date on which he enters his office. However, he can resign from his office at
any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President. The Vice-President is elected by the
members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both House of Parliament. He can also be
removed from office before the completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for his
removal. He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya
Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. This means that this resolution should be passed in the Rajya
Sabha by an effective majority and in the Lok Sabha by a simple majority. It must be noted here that the
effective majority in India is only a type of special majority and not a separate one. Further, this
resolution can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha. But, no such resolution
can be moved unless at least 14 days advance notice has been given. Notably, no ground has been
mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Committee on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions classifies bills and allocates time for the
discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other than ministers). This special
committee of the Lok Sabha consists of 15 members, including the Deputy Speaker as its chairman. The
Rajya Sabha does not have any such committee. The same function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by
the Business Advisory Committee of that House. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q.18) Which of the following statement about the territorial Jurisdictions is not a limitation imposed on
the Parliament by the Constitution ?
(a) Power of the President with respect to certain Union Territories
(b) Power of the Governor with respect to 5th Schedule Areas
(c) Power of the Parliament with respect to extra territorial areas
(d) Power of the Governor with respect to Assam
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution places certain restrictions on the plenary territorial jurisdiction of the Parliament. In
other words, the laws of Parliament are not applicable in the following areas:
➢ The President can regulate the peace, progress and good government of the four Union Territories
such as the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and
Diu. A regulation so made has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament. It may also repeal
or amend any act of Parliament about these union territories.
➢ The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in
the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
➢ The Governor of Assam may likewise direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area
(autonomous district) or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. The President enjoys the
same power with respect to tribal areas (autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
The Constitution also defines the territorial limits of the legislative powers vested in the Centre and the
states in such a way that,
➢ The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The territory of India
includes the states, the union territories, and any other area for the time being included in the
territory of India.
➢ A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made by a state
legislature are not applicable outside the state except when there is a sufficient nexus between the
state and the object.
➢ The Parliament alone can make ‘extra-territorial legislation.’ Thus, the laws of the Parliament also
apply to Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. So, Option (c) is correct.

15
Q.19) With reference to the Lokpal, consider the following statements :
1. All entities receiving donations from foreign sources in the context of the Foreign Contribution
Regulation Act (FCRA) in excess of ₹10 lakhs per year are brought under the jurisdiction of
Lokpal.
2. Lokpal can take Suo - moto action against public servants.
3. Its jurisdiction covers the chairpersons, members, officers and directors of any board,
corporation, society, trust or autonomous body which is partly funded by the Union or State
Government.
4. The Lokpal is vested with the power of search and seizure.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
The Lokpal is the first institution of its kind in independent India, established under the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act 2013 to inquire and investigate allegations of corruption against public functionaries who
fall within the scope and ambit of the above Act.
Lokpal consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of which 50 percent shall be judicial
members., Fifty percent of members of Lokpal shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and women.
The selection of chairperson and members of Lokpal shall be through a selection committee consisting of
the Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India
or a sitting Supreme Court judge nominated by CJI, eminent jurist to be nominated by the President of
India on the basis of recommendations of the first four members of the selection committee.
All entities receiving donations from foreign sources in the context of the Foreign Contribution Regulation
Act (FCRA) in excess of Rs 10 lakh per year are brought under the jurisdiction of Lokpal. So, Statement
1 is correct.
Lokpal does not have the power to take suo-motu action against any public servant. The Lokpal can only
initiate an investigation or inquiry against a public servant based on a complaint received from an
individual or a group of individuals. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Lokpal has jurisdiction to inquire into allegations of corruption against anyone who is or has been
Prime Minister, a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of Parliament, as well as officials of the
Union Government under Groups A, B, C and D. Also covered are chairpersons, members, officers and
directors of any board, corporation, society, trust or autonomous body either established by an Act of
Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Union or State government. It also covers any society or trust
or body that receives foreign contributions above ₹10 lakhs (approx. US$ 14,300/- as of 2019). So,
Statement 3 is correct.
The Lokpal is vested with the power of search and seizure and also powers under the Civil Procedure Code
for the purpose of conducting preliminary inquiry & investigation and power of attachment of assets and
taking other steps for eradication of corruption. So, Statement 4 is correct.

Q.20) Which of the following statements regarding the election of representatives to the Municipal
administration is correct ?
(a) The reservation for SC/STs ceased to exist since 2020 as per the Article 334 of the Indian
Constitution.
(b) Chairpersons of all Municipal bodies are elected only through indirect election.
(c) Constitution explicitly provides only for the disqualification of elected representatives
and not qualifications.
(d) Non-elected representatives could be made a part of the Municipal administration with a right
to vote in the meetings.

16
EXPLANATION:
Article 334 of the Indian Constitution deals with the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and
the Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies of the States. Article
334 also applies to the local bodies through the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts. As per the
original constitution, this provision shall cease after forty years. Through various constitutional
amendments, the provision was extended till 2020.
The 104 Constitutional Amendment Act 2019, which amended Article 334, extended the above provision
for another 10 years till 2030, which also applies to reservations to the Local bodies.
So, Option (a) is not correct.
The manner of election of Chairpersons of municipalities has been left to be specified by the State
Legislature. (Article 243R).
For example, In Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Karnataka, Kerala, West Bengal, Maharashtra,
Gujarat and Tamilnadu, the Mayors/Chairpersons are elected from amongst the elected Councillors, i.e.,
by an “indirect election. Whereas In Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh
Mayors/Chairpersons are elected “directly” through adult franchise. So, Option (b) is not correct.
Under Article 243V of the Indian Constitution explicitly mentioned that,
A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of a Municipality —
(a) if he is so disqualified by or under any law for the time being in force for the purposes of elections to
the Legislature of the State concerned:
Provided that no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than twenty-five years of age
if he has attained the age of twenty-one years;
(b) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by the Legislature of the State.
But the Constitution does not explicitly provide any qualification for a person to be elected as a
municipality member. So, Option (c) is correct.
The elected members of the municipal council are chosen by popular vote and carry with them the
mandate of the people, whereas, nominated members of the municipal council are appointed as
councillors. The elected members and nominated members cannot be said to be belonging to the same
class, the High Court said while referring to the apex court’s interpretation of Article 243R of the
Constitution that deals with composition of municipalities. Article 243R (2) (a) which provides that
nominated members shall not have right to vote in the meeting of the Council . So. Option (d) is not
correct.

Q.21) Consider the following Pairs :

Types of Boundary
Discontinuity
1. Conrad Discontinuity - Upper and Lower crust
2. Mohorovicic - Earth's Crust & mantle
discontinuity
3. Repetti Discontinuity - Upper mantle and the lower
mantle
4. Guttenberg - Outer core and the inner core
Discontinuity
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
EXPLANATION:
The structure of the Earth is divided into four major components: the Crust, the mantle, the outer core,
and the inner core. Each layer has a unique chemical composition and physical state and can impact life

17
 on Earth's surface. All these layers are separated from each other through a transition zone. These
transition zones are called discontinuities.
There are five discontinuities/ Transition Zones inside the Earth:
1. Conrad Discontinuity: Transition zone between upper and lower Crust. So, Pair (1) is correct
2. Mohorovicic Discontinuity: Transition zone between the Crust and Mantle. So, Pair (2) is correct
3. Repiti Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer mantle and Inner mantle. So, Pair (3) is
correct
4. Gutenberg Discontinuity: Transition zone between Mantle and Core. So, Pair (4) is not correct
5. Lehman Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer core and Inner core.

Q.22) Mawmluh, Kotumsar, and Belum are geographical locations known for which of the following
feature ?
(a) Limestone caves
(b) Solar parks
(c) Waterfalls
(d) Lithium reserves
EXPLANATION:
➢ Mawmluh Cave, also known as Krem Mawmluh, in Meghalaya, has been listed as UNESCO’S one of
the ‘First 100 IUGS (International Union of Geological Sciences) Geological Sites’ in the world.
Mawsmai Cave is a fully-lit, rugged limestone cave located in the village of Mawsmai, Cherrapunjee of
Meghalaya.
➢ Kotumsar Cave is a limestone cave located near Jagdalpur in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh.
Kotumsar Cave is a major attraction for people interested in ecotourism.
➢ Belum Caves is the second largest cave in the Indian subcontinent and the longest cave in the plains
of the Indian subcontinent. Belum caves were formed due to erosion in limestone deposits in the area

18
 by the Chitravati River millions of years ago. This limestone cave was formed due to the action of
carbonic acid — or weakly acidic groundwater formed due to a reaction between limestone and water.
So, option (a) is correct.

Q.23) With reference to Nano Urea, Consider the following statements :

1. Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), New Delhi, introduced the Nano Urea Liquid for
farmers.
2. Nano Urea contains 4% total Nitrogen.
3. Nano Urea will improve the Nitrogen use efficiency of crop plants when applied through the soil.
4. Nano Urea can be applied to all crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) introduced the world's first Nano Urea Liquid for
farmers across the world. IFFCO stated that the Nano Urea Liquid had been indigenously developed after
many years of research by its scientists and engineers through a proprietary technology developed at Nano
Biotechnology Research Centre, Kalol, in line with 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' and 'Atmanirbhar Krishi.' So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
Nano Urea is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides Nitrogen to plants. When
compared to conventional urea prill, it has a desirable particle size of about 20-50 nm and more surface
area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill) and a number of particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm
urea prill).The Merits of nano urea:
➢ It increases the availability to crop by more than 80% resulting in higher Nutrient Use efficiency.
➢ Its application to crops as foliar fertilization enhances crop productivity to the tune of 8% with
commensurate benefits in terms of better soil, air and water, and farmers' profitability.
➢ Nano Urea contains 4.0 % total nitrogen. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Nano Urea (liquid) is sprayed on the leaves (not applied through the soil), which easily enters through
stomata and other openings and fulfills the nitrogen requirements of crops. Because of its unique size and
surface area-to-volume ratio, it effectively addresses crop nutrient requirements.
Unlike the coarse particles that farmers normally throw onto the soil during sowing, the nanoparticle form
of Nano Urea, when applied onto the leaves, stimulates a range of enzymes, like nitrate and nitrite
reductase, which helps plants metabolize nitrogen. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Nano urea can be applied or sprayed on all crops, which include cereals, pulses, vegetables, fruits, flowers,
medicinal plants and others. So, Statement 4 is correct.

19
Q.24) Consider the following statement regarding Ocean currents :
1. Ocean currents are driven by ocean winds and influenced by the Coriolis effect.
2. The Coriolis effect causes the currents to rotate clockwise in the northern hemisphere and
counter-clockwise in the south.
3. The Antarctic Circumpolar Current travels around the globe uninterrupted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
EXPLANATION:
The horizontal and vertical motions are common in ocean water bodies. The horizontal motion refers to
ocean currents and waves, and Vertical motion refers to tides. Ocean currents are the continuous flow of
huge amounts of water in a definite direction, like river flow in oceans. They represent a regular volume
of water in a definite path and direction. Ocean currents are influenced by two types of forces, namely :
(i) primary forces that initiate the movement of water;
(ii) secondary forces that influence the currents to flow.
The primary forces that influence the currents are (i) heating by solar energy; (ii) wind; (iii) gravity; (iv)
Coriolis force. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Gravity tends to pull the water down the pile and create gradient variation. The Coriolis force intervenes
and causes the water to move to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern
hemisphere. These large accumulations of water and the flow around them are called Gyres. These
produce large circular currents in all the ocean basins. Thus, The Coriolis effect causes the currents to
rotate clockwise in the northern hemisphere and counter-clockwise in the south. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
The Antarctic Circumpolar Current (ACC) is an ocean current that flows clockwise (as seen from the South
Pole) from west to east around Antarctica. An alternative name for the ACC is the West Wind Drift. The
Antarctic Circumpolar Current (ACC) is the most important current in the Southern Ocean, and the only
current that flows completely around the globe. So, Statement 3 is correct

Q.25) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding earthquake waves ?
1. P waves can travel through solid, liquid and gaseous materials, and S waves can travel only
through Liquids.
2. Surface waves are the most destructive among all seismic waves.
3. The velocity of P waves increases as it enters from a denser to a rarer medium.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves. Body waves are generated
due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions traveling through the body of the Earth.
The body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate a new set of waves called surface waves.
There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves.
➢ Primary waves (P-waves) move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. The P-waves are
similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
➢ S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves. An important
fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials. So, Statement 1 is not
correct.

20
 Surface waves are restricted to the lithosphere and responsible for most of the ground shaking. Most of
the kinetic energy of an earthquake is released in the form of surface waves. In fact, practically all of the
damage done by an earthquake is caused by surface waves. There are two main types of surface
waves, Love waves and Rayleigh waves.
Of the two types of surface waves, the Love waves are the most destructive. They can move the ground
beneath a building faster than the building itself can respond, effectively shearing the base off of the rest
of the building. The surface waves are the last to report on the seismograph. These waves are more
destructive. They cause the displacement of rocks, and hence, the collapse of structures occurs. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
The velocity of waves changes as they travel through materials with different densities. The denser the
material, the higher the velocity. Their direction also changes as they reflect or refract when coming across
materials with different densities.
Generally, the denser and more elastic the material, the faster the P waves travel. When P waves encounter
a boundary between two materials with different densities and elasticities, such as the boundary between
the Earth's crust and mantle, they will change direction and speed. When they enter a denser medium,
their velocity increases, while their velocity decreases when they enter a less dense medium. This
phenomenon is known as refraction, and it is responsible for bending seismic waves as they travel through
the Earth's interior. Thus, The velocity of P waves increases as they travel from a rarer (less dense) medium
to a denser (more dense) medium. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.26) The thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because of :

(a) Convergence of trade winds near the equator.
(b) Zero Coriolis force at the equator
(c) Bulging of the earth at the equator as compared to the poles
(d) Heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents
EXPLANATION:
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly
to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
➢ The thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great
heights by strong convectional currents. This layer contains dust particles and water vapor.
➢ All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer.
➢ The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1° C for every 165m of height. This is the
most important layer for all biological activity. So, Option (d) is correct.

Q.27) With reference to the 'Registration and Regulation of Foreign Lawyers and Foreign Law Firms in
India, Rules, 2022 of the Bar Council of India, consider the following statements :
1. Foreign lawyers and firms can set up offices in India and practice transactional and corporate
work on a reciprocal basis.
2. Foreign lawyers or foreign law firms are permitted to appear before any courts, tribunals or other
statutory or regulatory authorities.
3. This move will make India a hub of international commercial arbitration and help address
concerns about foreign direct investment flow into the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Bar Council of India, established by Parliament under the Advocates Act 1961, is a statutory body
responsible for regulating the legal profession. It sets standards for professional conduct, exercises

21
 disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar, and establishes standards for legal education. Additionally, it
recognizes universities whose law degrees serve as qualifications for becoming advocates. Recently, The
Bar Council of India notified the Rules for Registration and Regulation of Foreign Lawyers and Foreign
Law Firms in India, 2022. The new rules stated the following points:
➢ Although appearing in courts is prohibited, foreign law firms can set up offices in India to practice
transactional and corporate work on a reciprocal basis. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ A foreign lawyer registered under the rules shall be entitled to practice law in India in non-litigious
matters only.
➢ The Foreign lawyers or foreign law firms shall not be permitted to appear before any courts,
tribunals or other statutory or regulatory authorities. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
In 2009, the Bombay High Court in the Lawyers Collective v. Union of India said that under Section 29 of
the Advocates Act, those enrolled with the BCI could only practice litigation in India. Upholding the same,
the registration rules for foreign lawyers and firms remain the same. They must be registered with the
BCI.
Rules for Registration and Regulation of Foreign Lawyers and Foreign Law Firms in India, 2022 will also
help to address the concerns expressed about the flow of Foreign Direct Investment in the country and
making India a hub of International Commercial Arbitration. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.28) Which of the following best describes the “Green Tugs Transition Programme” ?
(a) Programme that helps India to achieve the target of becoming a global hub for green ship
building
(b) Programme to transition from conventional thermal energy to green energy in everyday usage
(c) Scheme to incentivize people to shift to hybrid and electric vehicles
(d) Scheme to phase out single-use plastics
EXPLANATION:
India aims to become a global hub for green ship building by 2030 with the launch of 'Green Tug Transition
Programme (GTTP)'. India’s first National Centre of Excellence in Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS) was
inaugurated in Gurugram, Haryana. The programme will start with ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’, which will be
powered by Green Hybrid Propulsion systems, and subsequently adopting non-fossil fuel solutions like
(Methanol, Ammonia, Hydrogen). The target has been set for the initial Green Tugs to start working in all
major ports by 2025. At least, 50% of all the Tugs are likely to be converted into Green Tugs by 2030,
which will considerably reduce emission as the country move towards achieving sustainable development.
A tugboat (tug) is a boat or ship that maneuvers vessels by pushing or towing them. Tugboats can push
or tow large vessels such as ships, barges, and oil rigs with high precision and speed. So, Option (a) is
correct.

22
Q.29) India launched the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) for the conservation of :
1. Tiger
2. Lion
3. Leopard
4. Snow Leopard
5. Cheetah
6. Jaguar
7. Puma
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
EXPLANATION:
To commemorate 50 years of Project Tiger, the Prime Minister of India launched the International Big
Cat Alliance (IBCA) for the conservation of seven big cats, namely the Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard,
Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma harboring our planet.
The alliance aims to reach out to 97 range countries covering the natural habitats of Tiger, Lion, Snow
Leopard, Puma, Jaguar, and Cheetah.
The IBCA will facilitate the mobilisation of financial and technical resources for the overall ecosystem
dealing with big cat species while implementing the conservation and protection agenda that has emerged
from the experiences of other countries. IBCA would further strengthen global cooperation and efforts to
conserve the wild denizens, especially the big cats.
The alliance will provide a platform for the member nations to share knowledge and expertise and extend
support to recovery efforts in potential habitats. The IBCA will also assist existing species-specific inter-
governmental platforms to boost conservation efforts.
So, option (d) is correct.

Species Population Range Threats IUCN Status

Tiger 3,700-5,000 Bangladesh, Bhutan, Habitat loss due to agriculture Endangered
Cambodia, China, India, and development, poaching,
Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, climate change, tiger farms
Myanmar, Nepal, Russia,
Thailand, Vietnam

Lion Fewer than Sub-Saharan Africa Habitat loss, prey depletion, Vulnerable
23,000 human-wildlife conflict,
poaching
Leopard 2,50,000 Africa, parts of the Middle Habitat loss, poaching, Near
globally, East and Asia human-wildlife conflict Threatened
13,000 in
India
Snow 4,000-6,500 Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, Habitat loss, poaching, decline Vulnerable
Leopard India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz in prey species, human-
Republic, Mongolia, Nepal, wildlife conflict, climate
Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, change
Uzbekistan

23
 Cheetah Less than Africa, India, Pakistan, Habitat loss, human-wildlife Vulnerable
7,000 Russia, Iran, Middle East conflict, loss of prey, illegal
trafficking, climate change
Jaguar Around South America, Central Habitat loss due to Near
1,73,000 America deforestation and agricultural Threatened
activities, illegal hunting and
trade, human-wildlife conflict
Puma Around Canada through the U.S. Habitat loss, prey depletion, Near
50,000 and Central and South human-wildlife conflict Threatened
America

Q.30) The terms “Nyingma, Kagyu, Sakya and Gelug” pertain to :

(a) Tribal groups in India
(b) Major schools of Tibetan Buddhism
(c) Tribal festivals of North East India
(d) Martial art forms
EXPLANATION:
Recently the Dalai Lama has named a US-born Mongolian boy as the tenth Khalkha Jetsun Dhampa, the
head of the Janang tradition of Tibetan Buddhism and the Buddhist spiritual head of Mongolia.
While the tradition of succession by reincarnation has prevailed in Tibetan Buddhism for centuries,
Buddhism became the predominant religion in Tibet by the 9th century AD. It evolved from the Mahayana
and Vajrayana traditions of Buddhism, incorporating many tantric and shamanic practices of both post-
Gupta period Buddhism in India as well as the Bon religion which was spread across Tibet before
Buddhism’s arrival.
Tibetan Buddhism has four major schools:
➢ Nyingma (8th century),
➢ Kagyu (11th century),
➢ Sakya (1073), and
➢ Gelug (1409).
The Janang school (12th century) is one of the smaller schools that grew as an offshoot of the Sakya
school. Since 1640, the Gelug school has been the predominant school of Tibetan Buddhism. The Dalai
Lama belongs to this school.
So, Option (b) is correct.

Q.31) With reference to the Multi-Party Interim Appeal Arbitration Arrangement (MPIA), consider the
following statements :
1. It is an alternative system for resolving WTO disputes that are appealed by a Member in the
absence of a functioning and staffed WTO Appellate Body.
2. Only developing and least developed countries can become members of MPIA.
3. The MPIA serves as a temporary solution to the WTO Appellate Body gridlock.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
In order to maintain the efficacy of the rules-based trading system and for members to continue to have
access to an independent appeal process for dispute settlement, 16 WTO members set up a separate

24
 appeal system for trade disputes in March 2020. Known as the Multi-Party Interim Appeal Arbitration
Arrangement (MPIA), it is an alternative system for resolving WTO disputes that are appealed by a
Member in the absence of a functioning and staffed WTO Appellate Body. So, Statement 1 is correct.
WTO members can resort to the use of the MPIA under Article 25 of the WTO Dispute Settlement
Understanding as an alternative mechanism for dispute settlement. The MPIA embodies the WTO
appellate review rules, and in a dispute between members, it will supersede the previous appeal
processes and also apply to future disputes between members. Any member can join the MPIA by
notifying the Dispute Settlement Body, and a range of members. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The MPIA is likely to remain in place for as long as the WTO Appellate Body is not functioning, and for
disputes among those members that are party to it, the MPIA serves as a temporary solution to the WTO
Appellate Body gridlock. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.32) With reference to a Site-Directed Nuclease (SDN) used in gene editing, consider the following
statements :
1. The SDN-1 and SDN-3 genome-edited plants produced will be free from exogenous or foreign
DNA.
2. The application of SDN-2 gene editing technology is subject to regulation in the same manner
as genetically engineered plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Genome editing is a group of technologies that give scientists the ability to change an organism's DNA.
Site-Directed Nuclease (SDN) genome editing involves the use of different DNA-cutting enzymes
(nucleases) that are directed to cut the DNA at a predetermined location by a range of different DNA
binding systems. Three main SDN technologies currently in use include Mega nucleases, Zinc-Finger
Nucleases (ZFNs) and Transcription Activator Like Effector Nucleases (TALENs).
Depending on the nature of the edit that is carried out, the process is divided into three categories - Site-
Directed Nuclease (SDN 1), SDN 2 and SDN 3:
➢ SDN 1: Introduces changes in the host genome's DNA through small insertions/deletions without the
introduction of foreign genetic material.
➢ SDN 2:
• SDN 2 edit involves using a small DNA template to generate specific changes.
• SDN-1 and SDN-2 do not use recombinant DNA and do not lead to the insertion of foreign
DNA.
• SDN 2 falls under the scope of GMO legislation.
➢ SDN3: This process involves larger DNA elements or full-length genes of foreign origin which makes
it similar to Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO) development.
Thus, SDN-1 and SDN-2 plants do not contain inserted foreign DNA, while SDN-3 plants may contain
foreign DNA. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

25
 In India, all activities related to Genetically Engineered organisms (GE organisms) or cells and hazardous
microorganisms and products thereof are regulated as per the "Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and
Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/ Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, Rules, 1989.
The application of SDN-3 (not SDN -2 )gene editing technology, including the final modified plants
containing novel introduced DNA, is subject to regulation under the Rules, 1989, in the same manner as
genetically engineered plants produced using other methods of genetic transformation. These products
are subject to case-by-case risk assessment and oversight by IBSCs, RCGM, and GEAC. So, Statement
2 is not correct.

Q.33) With reference to 4D printing technology, consider the following statements :

1. It is an innovative fabrication approach combining 3D printing and stimuli-responsive material.
2. They react to a stimulus, such as heat, water, light, wind or electricity, based on a set of
instructions written into their geometric coding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
4D printing is an additive manufacturing technique and is an extension of 3D printing. 4D printing is an
innovative fabrication approach combining 3D printing and smart materials, also known as stimuli-
responsive materials.

26
 4D printing is using smart, stimuli-responsive materials to fabricate implants by applying 3D printing and
bioprinting technologies. Smart materials are classified into shape-memory materials (SMMs) and shape-
changing materials (SCMs). SMMs recover their original shape in response to the stimulus. In contrast,
SCMs respond to stimuli by showing a temporary shape and return to their original shape after stimuli
removal.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
In 4D printing projects, 3D-printed renderings are basically made to be time-dependent. Once fully
fabricated, these renderings can morph in response to the environmental stimuli they interact with the
shape-shifting, smart materials that make up 4D-printed items react to a catalyst — such as heat, water,
light, wind or electricity — based on a set of instructions written into their geometric coding. Once
activated, they may elongate, bend, wrinkle, fold, twist, or even disintegrate. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.34) Consider the following statements with reference to Strengthening, Upscaling & Nurturing
Innovations for Livelihood (SUNIL) programme :
1. SUNIL program aims to support technology delivery and models of social enterprise creation for
the Economically Weaker Section (EWS) of society.
2. This program is only limited to the deployment of many field-tested models and location-specific
technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Strengthening, Upscaling & Nurturing Local Innovations for Livelihood (SUNIL) programme, earlier
named as TARA (Technological Advancement for Rural Areas) programme under Science for Equity,
Empowerment and Development (SEED) division of Department of Science & Technology (DST), Ministry
of Science and Technology.
SUNIL programme aims to support technology delivery and models of social enterprise creation for
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) of society including need-based & action research projects to
identify local and systemic solutions to implement S&T based projects at community level. The candidate
belonging to EWSs are not covered under the scheme of reservation for SCs, STs and OBC category and
have an annual gross income of less than Rs. 8 lakhs including earnings from all sources for the fiscal
year such as agriculture, salaries, businesses, etc. So, statement 1 is correct.
Focus of the SUNIL programme is not only limited to the deployment of many field-tested models and
location-specific technologies to meet the needs of economically weaker sections {such as small land
holder farmers, traditional artisans (e.g. blacksmiths, weavers, carpenters etc.), landless laborer and
population working for unorganized sector (including transgender and prisoners)}. It also encourages
improving their S&T knowledge, skill enhancement, capacity building and socioeconomic conditions in
the areas of Natural Resource Management; Drinking Water & Sanitation; Education; Health &
Nutrition; Social Security; Local transport & Development; Electricity & Clean Energy; Entertainment;
Integrated-farming & best practices; Linking people to financial services; Phone & Internet facilities;
Livelihood & skill development etc. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Q.35) Consider the following statements about Viruses and choose the incorrect statement :
(a) Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy
(b) Viruses cannot be cultured in any synthetic medium
(c) Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only
(d) Viruses can either have DNA or RNA genome

27
EXPLANATION:
➢ Viruses are generally considered as non-living and they lack many of the basic cellular machinery
that living organisms possess, such as the ability to generate energy by themselves. Instead, viruses
rely on the host cell's machinery to replicate and produce new virus particles.
➢ Unlike bacteria and other microorganisms which can be grown in artificial media, viruses cannot be
grown on artificial media. Virus are totally dependent on a host cell for replication (i.e., they are
strict intracellular parasites.). Since viruses lack metabolic machinery of their own and are totally
dependent on their host cell for replication, they cannot be grown in synthetic culture media.
➢ While some viruses are transmitted through biological vectors such as mosquitoes or ticks, many
others can be transmitted through non-biological means such as fomites (inanimate objects that can
carry viruses), contaminated food or water, or through the air.
➢ Viruses are smaller and simpler in construction than unicellular microorganisms, and they contain
only one type of nucleic acid—either DNA or RNA—never both. Compared to DNA virus genomes,
which can encode up to hundreds of viral proteins, RNA viruses have smaller genomes that usually
encode only a few proteins. Some viruses also have an outer lipid envelope. They do not have
organelles, ribosomes, or the machinery for protein synthesis, making them dependent on the host
cell for their survival and replication.
So, Option (c) is correct.

Q.36) Consider the following statements :

1. Web 1.0 is the first version of the internet, consisting of a read-only type of web content, but it
was not possible to interact.
2. Web 2.0 is all about reading, writing, creating, and interacting with the end user, which
community focussed.
3. Web 3.0 is the read-write-execute web utilization and interaction, which includes core concepts
of decentralization, openness, and greater user utility.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Internet has evolved from Web 1.0 and Web 2.0 to Web 3.0, which refers to a group of new technologies.
➢ Web 1.0 refers to the Internet through the 1990s and into the early 2000s, where information was
presented as static web pages without any form of interaction (i.e., unidirectional communication) or
content generation by the user.
➢ Web 2.0 is all about reading, writing, creating, and interacting with the end user. If Web 1.0 was called
“the read-only Web,” Web 2.0 is known as “the participative social Web.” However, Web 2.0, while
bringing billions online, has brought along massive centralization of data, control, and infrastructure in
the hands of a few giants like Google, Meta, Microsoft, Amazon, etc. Web 2.0 is community focused.
➢ Web 3.0 is the "read, write, and execute Web." Decentralization of the web lies at the core of the Web 3.0
revolution. It will essentially transform the web into a database – it will also shift from data ownership
(a contentious topic today) to data sharing. Web 3.0 is individual focused.
World Wide Web inventor Tim Berners-Lee initially called Web 3.0 the Semantic Web and envisioned an
intelligent, autonomous, and open Internet that used Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning to act
as a "global brain" and process content conceptually and contextually. Its features and characteristics
will include:
• Ubiquity – Ubiquity essentially refers to making something universally available. In this case, users
can use Web 3.0 everywhere through any internet-enabled device.

28
 • Connectivity – User experience will advance into a higher level of communication that involves
utilizing all available data.
• Semantic Web – This will process information and data based on the meaning of words rather than
search terms.
• Artificial Intelligence (AI) – AI will enable computers to process information as humans do.
• Graphics in 3D – Graphics will be designed in 3D for better visual appeal and to support content
interaction.
So, Option (d) is correct.

Q.37) Consider the following statements with reference to 5G technology :

1. 5G is the next-generation wireless cellular technology that will provide faster and high-latency
data services.
2. It uses high-frequency millimeter wave bands operating on wavelengths between 30 GHz and
300 GHz.
3. 5G Non-standalone requires a new 5G packet core network, whereas 5G standalone involves
laying the 5G Radio Access Network over an existing 4G LTE network.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
5G is the fifth generation of wireless cellular technology, the latest iteration of mobile connectivity offers
low latency not high latency, greater download speeds coupled with the ability to connect multiple
devices and exchange data in real-time. Building on the multiplexing technology of its predecessor, 5G
ushers in a new standard called 5G New Radio (NR), which uses the best capabilities of LTE. 5G NR will
enable increased energy savings for connected devices and enhance connectivity. So, Statement 1 is
not correct.
The fifth-generation of mobile communication will use high-frequency millimeter wave (mm Wave) bands
that operate on wavelengths between 30 GHz and 300 GHz. For comparison, 4G’s LTE operates on
wavelengths less than 6 GHz.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
The major difference between 5G standalone (SA) and non-standalone (NSA) is in the core network.
Specifically, 5G NSA involves laying the 5G RAN over an existing 4G LTE network, whereas 5G SA
requires a new 5G packet core network.
5G standalone (SA) is completely new mobile network architecture. It enables all of the capabilities of
5G, given that it is not dependent on any existing 4G LTE infrastructure. 5G SA involves a new 5G
packet core architecture, which means that 5G services can be deployed without pre-existing 4G LTE
equipment in the network. In 5G SA architecture, the 5G RAN and its New Radio (NR) interface,
consisting of gNodeB (gNB) macro cell base stations, is connected to the 5G packet core network and
operates as a “standalone” entity.
5G non-standalone (NSA) is the first version of 5G network architecture, considered to be a
“steppingstone” to the “true” 5G network that is 5G standalone (SA). 5G NSA is designed to be deployed
on top of existing 4G LTE network infrastructure. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.38) Zeolites are microporous tectosilicates of natural or synthetic origin which have been extensively
used in various technological applications. Which of the following statements corresponds to the
applications of zeolites ?
1. Catalysis
2. Molecular sieving

29
 3. Air and water purification
4. Harvesting waste heat and solar heat energy
5. As detergent
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
Zeolites are a type of crystalline solid made of aluminum silicate. They have small pores with a fixed size
that allow small molecules to pass through easily, but larger molecules cannot. This property makes them
useful as molecular sieves.
Zeolites are versatile materials with a porous structure that can be used for a variety of applications.
➢ They are commonly used as catalysts, promoting acid-base and metal-induced reactions, and can
control the degree of product formation.
➢ They are also used for gas separation by selectively allowing molecules of certain dimensions to enter
the pores. The structure of the zeolite can be modified to fine-tune this property.
➢ The porous structure of zeolites allows them to selectively adsorb or trap certain molecules, making
them useful for removing impurities and pollutants from air and water.
➢ Other applications include polymerization of semiconducting materials and conducting polymers,
which can produce materials with unique properties.
➢ Zeolites can also undergo ion exchange, which is useful for water softening, detergents, and soaps.
➢ They can even remove radioactive ions from contaminated water, as demonstrated at nuclear
accidents at Chernobyl and Three-Mile Island.
➢ In recent years, researchers have explored the use of zeolites for energy storage applications, where
the material can act as a thermal battery. This approach involves using zeolites to store thermal energy
generated from waste heat or solar heat, which can then be used to generate electricity or heat when
needed. So, Option (d) is correct.

Q.39) With reference to Hybrid Propulsion System, consider the following statements :
1. Unlike solid-solid or liquid-liquid combinations, a hybrid motor uses solid fuel and a liquid
oxidizer.
2. ISROSENE is an environment-friendly cryogenic propellant developed by ISRO.
3. It is used to launch the sounding rockets by ISRO in the future.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Hybrid propulsion is any vehicle propulsion system that includes two or more sources of propulsion in
one design, usually which can be used either together or alternately.
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully tested a hybrid motor that would power its
future rockets. The test was conducted at ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC) at Mahendragiri in Tamil
Nadu supported by Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC).
The motor used here is different from the motor which is generally used. The motor uses Hydroxyl-
terminated polybutadiene (HTPB) as fuel and liquid oxygen (LOX) as the oxidizer.
The merits of Hybrid Motor:
➢ Using liquids helps in throttling and control over the flow rate of LOX.

30
 ➢ Unlike conventional solid motors, hybrid technology permits restarting and throttling capabilities on
the motor.
➢ Although both HTPB and LOX are green, LOX is safer to handle.
➢ Unlike solid-solid or liquid-liquid combinations, a hybrid motor utilizes solid fuel and liquid oxidizer.
➢ The test aims to discover a new propulsion system for the upcoming launch vehicles.
So, Statements 1 is correct.
ISRO has successfully developed ISROSENE, which is a rocket grade version of kerosene as an
alternative to conventional hydrazine (not cryogenic propellant) rocket fuel. Unlike the cryogenic engine
which uses a combination of liquid hydrogen (LH2) and liquid oxygen (LOX) as propellant, the semi-
cryogenic engine replaces liquid hydrogen with refined kerosene (Isrosene). LOX will be retained as
oxidiser. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The technology demonstration paves the way for hybrid propulsion-based sounding rockets in the future
and an exciting platform for vertical landing experiments for spent-stage recovery. So, Statement 3 is
correct.

Q.40) Which of the following are the benefits of fungi ?

1. Nitrogen fixation
2. Degradation of Petroleum based products
3. Carbon Sequestration
4. Anti-fungal Vaccination
5. Inhibit Tumour development
6. Manufacture of Clothes & Shoes
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
EXPLANATION:
Fungi are an important part of soil biodiversity that is closely interlinked with vegetation and carbon
and nutrient cycling. As a result, they are major drivers of soil health and carbon sequestration, among
other ecosystem functions.
Fungi have the ability to transform nutrients in a way that makes them available for plants. Some fungi
are decomposers which mean that they break down plant and animal debris, thus cycling nutrient and
increasing their availability in the soil. They can also propel nitrogen fixation and phosphorus
mobilization, two of the main nutrients required for plant development and productivity.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Fungi have been found to help degrade various pollutants from the environment, such as plastic and
other petroleum-based products, pharmaceuticals and personal care products, and oil. Some of these
substances are persistent toxins, which means that they take a long time to break down in the
environment and accumulate in humans and other species, presenting adverse effects on organisms.
Therefore, fungi can act as a powerful tool to reduce environmental pollution. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
Fungi are heterotrophic organisms; therefore, they rely on photosynthetic carbon to produce energy, and
some species get this carbon from plant root exudates. Together, plants and fungi perform a process
called soil carbon sequestration, capturing carbon from the atmosphere and storing it in the soil for
decades, if not hundreds of years. This important process not only improves soil fertility as it can also
help reduce the excess carbon human activities have put into the atmosphere.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

31
 Fungal infections are becoming more common in the United States, but unlike illnesses caused by
bacteria or viruses, there is no approved Vaccine for a fungal infection to date. So, Statement 4 is not
correct.
Besides the benefits of fungi for the environment, they also provide health benefits for humans. In fact,
six percent of edible mushrooms possess medicinal properties, which can help prevent diseases and
boost our immune system. Shiitake mushroom, for example, present antiviral properties and can reduce
serum cholesterol. Other species are known to possess a number of other benefits, such as inhibiting
tumors and the development of AIDS, anti-oxidative properties and anti-diabetic effect.
So, Statement 5 is correct.
Mycelium, which is the root structure of mushrooms, is now being used to replace unsustainable
materials, such as plastic, synthetic and animal-based products. The products from Mycelium are
biodegradable and require less water and land resources to be produced. Some of the mycelium-based
products already in the market include packaging, clothes, shoes, sustainable leather, skincare products
and others. So, Statement 6 is correct.

Q.41) With reference to Caracal, consider the following statements :

1. Karnataka is the most significant potential habitat for caracals.
2. They are usually spotted in villages and agriculture sites during daytime.
3. It is currently included under Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and as critically
endangered category under the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
The caracal is a medium-sized cat with long legs, long canine teeth and a robust build. The quick-footed
cat has a golden or sandy coat with large black ears.
The researchers found the most significant potential habitat for caracals in Rajasthan, with an area of
25,221.38 square kilometres, followed by Gujarat (16,652.1 sq km), Madhya Pradesh (6416.01 sq km),
Haryana (191.36 sq km), Uttar Pradesh (131.11 sq km), and Maharashtra (34.17 sq km).
Besides India, the caracal is found in several dozen countries across Africa, the Middle East, Central and
South Asia. While it flourishes in parts of Africa, its numbers in Asia are declining. So, Statement 1 is
not correct.

The caracal is an elusive, primarily noctural animal, and sightings are not common, travelling up to 20
km per night in search of food. Sleeping is done in burrows, rock crevices or thick bush, sometimes in
trees.

32
 The caracal has traditionally been valued for its litheness and extraordinary ability to catch birds in flight;
it was a favourite coursing or hunting animal in medieval India. Thus, Asiatic caracals are not usually
spotted in villages and agriculture sites during the daytime. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Asiatic caracal has been widely reported to be on the brink of extinction in India. The caracal is
currently included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Least concern by the
International Union for Conservation of Nature Red list assessment in India. So, Statement 3 is not
correct.

Q.42) With reference to Carbon Capture, Utilisation, & Storage (CCUS), consider the following statements:
1. CCUS involves the capture of CO2 from large point sources and not directly from the
atmosphere.
2. The captured CO2 can be converted into Green urea & Ethanol
3. Currently, the largest operating CO2 capture capacity is at natural gas processing plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Carbon Capture, Utilisation, & Storage (CCUS) involves the capture of CO2 from large point sources, such
as power generation or industrial facilities that use either fossil fuels or biomass as fuel. The CO 2 can also
be captured directly from the atmosphere. If not being used on-site, the captured CO2 is compressed and
transported by pipeline, ship, rail or truck to be used in a range of applications, or injected into deep
geological formations (including depleted oil and gas reservoirs or saline aquifers), which can trap the
CO2 for permanent storage. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
CCUS can provide a wide variety of opportunities to convert the captured CO2 to different value-added
products like green urea, food and beverage form application, building materials (concrete and aggregates),
chemicals (methanol and ethanol), polymers (including bio-plastics) and enhanced oil recovery (EOR) with
wide market opportunities in India, thus contributing substantially to a circular economy. So, Statement
2 is correct.
Currently, around 65% of operating CO2 capture capacity is at natural gas processing plants, one of the
lowest-cost CO2 capture applications, but new CCUS developments are increasingly targeting other
applications. Bioenergy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS) and direct air capture (DAC) with
CO2 storage are key technologies for carbon removal. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.43) With reference to the difference between Cheetah and Leopard, consider the following statements:
1. Cheetahs prefer to hunt during the day whereas, leopards usually hunt at night.
2. Leopard has semi-retractable claws, wide nostrils and large lungs than Cheetah.
2. Leopard has spots which are rose-shaped called rosettes, whereas cheetah has solid round or
oval shaped spot covering the entire body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Cheetahs are immediately identifiable by their black “tear” line, which runs down their face. This line runs
from the inside of the eye down towards the mouth of the cheetah. It is commonly said that these marks
help reflect the glare of the sun while hunting during the day.

33
 While cheetahs prefer to hunt in the day, leopards usually hunt at night (but will also occasionally hunt
in the day if an opportunity presents itself). Leopards have a large number of light-sensitive cells in their
eyes that detect less color but allow them to detect movement and shape easily in the dark, giving them
an advantage. The large pupil of the leopard’s eyes allows abundant light to enter, making it possible to
see at night when they hunt for their prey. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Cheetah’s Special paw pads and semi-retractable claws provide great traction. Large nostrils and lungs
provide quick air intake that allows cheetahs to breathe more easily while running and suffocating their
prey.
Leopards, on the other hand, only reach a top speed of about 58 km/h (37 mph), but what they lack in
speed, they make up for with other abilities. They have retractable claws, which allow them to be the
superb climbers that they are. They are extremely good swimmers, too. Leopards are the shortest of the
big cats, although they are strong and bulky - strong enough to pull their prey up trees in order to protect
their meal. Cheetahs are much lighter and taller, which contributes to their ability to run as quickly as
they do. In the wild, a leopard will chase off any cheetahs that approach its territory. So, Statement 2 is
not correct.
The most common difference between these two animals is the patterns on their coat. At first glance, it
may look like they both have spots, but in actual fact, a leopard has rosettes which are rose-like markings,
and cheetahs have a solid round or oval spot shape. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.44) Which of the following statements is correct about the Commission for Air Quality Management
(CAQM) :
1. Commission supersede bodies such as the central and state pollution control boards of Delhi,
Punjab, Haryana, UP and Rajasthan.
2. It can investigate and conduct research related to environmental pollution impacting air quality

34
 3. All appeals against the Commission’s orders will be heard only by the Supreme Court.
4. The commission has the power to give imprisonment upto 5yrs for any malpractice under the
act
5. CAQM has replaced the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 5 only
(b) 1, 4, and 5 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
Recently, the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act
was passed, which provides for the constitution of a Commission for better coordination, research,
identification, and resolution of problems related to air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) and
adjoining areas.
➢ As per the Act, the adjoining areas where it shall be in force include Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and
Uttar Pradesh, adjoining areas of the NCR and Delhi where any source of pollution is located and is
causing adverse impact on air quality in the national capital region. The commission's orders shall
prevail in case there is a conflict between the central pollution control board and the state pollution
control boards. Thus, the commission can supersede bodies such as the central and state pollution
control boards. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Powers of the Commission include:
➢ Restricting activities influencing air quality.
➢ Investigating and conducting research related to environmental pollution impacting air quality.
➢ Preparing codes and guidelines to prevent and control air pollution.
➢ Issuing directions on matters including inspections or regulations which will be binding on the
concerned person or authority. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Commission will be the sole authority with jurisdiction over matters defined in the Act (such as air
quality management). In case of appeal, All appeals against the Commission’s orders will be heard by the
National Green Tribunal. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
The Commission will have the power to impose a fine of up to Rs 1 crore and imprisonment of up to 5
years in case its directions are contravened.
So, Statement 4 is correct.
The commission has replaced the Supreme Court-appointed Environment Pollution (Prevention and
Control) Authority (EPCA) which had been running for 22 years. While dissolving the body, the Centre felt
that the EPCA had become redundant and had been ineffective in addressing issues related to air
pollution. The commission will have penal provisions which EPCA did not have previously. So, Statement
5 is correct.

Q.45) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(a) Dominant species are species with substantially higher abundance that exert a powerful control
over the occurrence and distribution of other species.
(b) Keystone species are species that may be less abundant in a community yet exert strong control
on the community.
(c) Foundation Species are species that play a major role in creating or maintaining a habitat that
supports other species.
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
Ecological species concepts explain that a species is a group of organisms that thrive and exploit the same
niche. Types of species:-
➢ Dominant species :

35
 These are species with substantially higher abundance or biomass than other species in a
community. They exert powerful control over the occurrence and distribution of other species. For
example: Tidal swamps in the tropics are usually dominated by species of mangrove
(Rhizophoraceae).
➢ Keystone species :
These are species that are not necessarily abundant in a community yet exert strong control on
community structure by the nature of its ecological role or niche. A small number of keystone
species can have a huge impact on the environment.
➢ Foundation Species:
Foundation species play a major role in creating or maintaining a habitat that supports other
species. Corals are one example of a foundation species in many islands in the South Pacific Ocean.
So, Option (d) is correct.

Q.46) With reference to Forest Conservation Rules 2022, consider the following statements :
1. Forest land diverted for non-forest purpose must be approved by the National Board of Wildlife.
2. Consent of Gram Sabha is mandatory to initiate the forest clearance process by the central
government.

36
 3. The rules allow private parties to cultivate plantations to sell with regard to compensatory
afforestation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, in June 2022, notified the Forest
(Conservation) Rules, 2022, which prescribed the mechanism for the diversion of forest land for non-forest
purposes such as agricultural purposes, office or residential purposes or for rehabilitation of persons
displaced for any reason.
For forest land beyond 5 hectares, approval for diverting land must be given by the Union Government.
This is through a specially constituted committee called the Forest Advisory Committee (FAC).
Once the FAC is convinced and approves (or rejects a proposal), it is forwarded to the concerned State
Government where the land is located. The State Government then has to ensure that provisions of the
Forest Right Act, 2006, are duly complied.
Hence, the National Board of Wildlife need not approve the diversion of forest land.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
As mentioned above, according to the new rules, when the central government gives its approval through
FAC, it is not mandatory to acquire the consent of the Gram Sabha. Whereas, after the central
government’s approval, when the state government gives its final clearance for diversion of forest land, it
has to ensure that the consent of the Gram Sabha, required under Forest Rights Act, 2006 is acquired.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The rules make a provision for private parties to cultivate plantations and sell them as land to companies
who need to meet compensatory afforestation targets. Under the earlier rules, the Union government was
first required to verify the consent of forest-dwelling communities before forest land was approved to be
handed over to private projects. Now, it can first approve the handover of the forest and collect payment
for compensatory afforestation. The state government then has to settle the forest rights of the
communities and rehabilitate them. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.47) With reference to the Green Credit scheme, consider the following statements :
1. It will allow forests to be traded as a commodity.
2. It allows non-government agencies to take up reforestation activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The proposed ‘Green Credit Scheme,’ as it is called, allows agencies — they could be private companies
or village forest communities — to identify land and begin growing plantations. After three years, they
would be eligible to be considered as compensatory forest land if they met the Forest Department’s
criteria. An industry needing forest land could then approach the agency and pay it for parcels of such
forested land, and this would then be transferred to the Forest Department and be recorded as forest
land.
The Forest Advisory Committee, an apex body tasked with adjudicating requests by the industry to raze
forest land for commercial ends, has approved a scheme that could allow “forests” to be traded as a
commodity. The participating agency (private company or village forest communities) will be free to trade
its asset, that is plantation, in parcels, with project proponents who need forest land.”

37
 So, Statement 1 is correct.
This scheme allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-
government agencies. The Forest Advisory Committee believes that such a scheme will encourage
plantation by individuals outside the traditional forest area and will help in meeting international
commitments such as sustainable development goals and nationally determined contributions.
So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.48) Consider the following statements :

1. Mangrove roots obtain nutrition from the soil and absorb gases like oxygen and nitrogen directly
from the atmosphere.
2. The medicinal value is one of the major reasons for the destruction of mangroves.
3. West Bengal and Gujarat have nearly two-thirds of the mangrove cover in India
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Mangrove plants survive in very little fresh water. They have thick, waxy leaves to prevent loss of water
by evaporation. Mangroves grow in waterlogged soil with little oxygen. The pneumatophores in mangrove
plant roots help them to absorb gases such as nitrogen, oxygen and nutrients such as iron directly from
the atmosphere.
Mangrove roots not only provide support, but also help the plant to breathe, as well as withstand currents
and storms. Their aerial roots have tiny pores called lenticels that take in air. The roots also contain large
spaces called aerenchyma, which transport air from one part of the plant to another. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Mangroves help in protecting coastlines from erosion and storms, provide timber, and are a breeding
ground for fishes. But mangroves are now in danger across the world.
Reasons for destruction:
➢ Shrimp farming is a major reason for the destruction of mangroves. These forests are the natural
habitat of shrimps. Large areas of mangroves are cleared to create artificial ponds for shrimps. This
has also led to the loss of habitat for other fish.
➢ Rising temperatures, rising seas Rising sea levels due to climate change and the consequent rising
temperatures pose a grave threat to mangroves. Large areas of coastal mangroves could be lost if sea
levels continue to rise due to the expansion of the oceans and melting of polar ice caps. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.
Mangroves are found in warmer areas, along the tropical and subtropical coasts of Africa, Australia, Asia,
and North and South America. Mangrove forests are common in the deltas of large Asian rivers. The
Sundarbans, in the delta of the Ganga, spread over West Bengal in India and Bangladesh, is the world’s
largest mangrove forest. Many of the islands in the Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal, the South
China Sea, and the Pacific Ocean are mangrove habitats. In India, West Bengal has 42.45% of
India's mangrove cover, followed by Gujarat 23.66% and Andaman & Nicobar Islands 12.39%. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

Q.49) Consider the following society/organisation formation :

1. Theosophical Society in India
2. Deccan Education Society
3. National Social Conference by Justice Ranade
4. Ramakrishna Mission by Swami Vivekananda
5. Arya Samaj

38
 Which of the above was established before the formation of the Indian National Congress ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only
EXPLANATION
India's National Congress, which was founded in 1885.
A group of Westerners led by Madame H.P. Blavatsky (1831– 91) and Colonel M.S. Olcott, inspired by
Indian thought and culture, founded the Theosophical Society in New York City, United States 1875. In
1882, they shifted their headquarters to Adyar, on the outskirts of Madras (at that time) in India.
It accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and karma and drew inspiration from the philosophy of the
Upanishads and Samkhya, yoga, and Vedanta schools of thought. Thus Theosophical Society was
established before the establishment of INC. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The establishment of the New English School in Pune resulted in the foundation of the Deccan Education
Society by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1884, an influential social
reform and political organization formed in the Pune district in Maharashtra.
Other prominent leaders like Vishnushastri Chiplunkar, Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade, Mahadev
Ballal Namjoshi, V S Apte, V B Kelkar, M S Gole, and N K Dharap were also associated with the Society.
Thus Deccan Education Society was established before the establishment of INC. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
Ranade, Mahadev Govind (1842–1901), Indian jurist and reformer. One of India's most brilliant jurists,
social reformers, and early nationalist leaders founded the National Social Conference in 1887, which met
each year just after India's National Congress, which was founded in 1885. So, Statement 3 is not
correct.
In 1897, Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission, one of India’s leading charitable
institutions.
He intended to make it a unique organization where monks and lay people would cooperate in providing
educational, medical and other forms of social service, especially to the poor and the disadvantaged.
The main teachings of the Ramakrishna Mission were about social service regardless of any returns,
unconditional love for mankind and nature, and considering all humans, religions, divisions, and sects
on equal grounds. Thus the Ramakrishna Mission was established after the establishment of INC. So,
Statement 4 is not correct.
The Arya Samaj Movement, revivalist in form though not in content, was the result of a reaction to Western
influences.
The first Arya Samaj unit was formally set up by Dayananda Saraswati in Bombay in 1875, and later the
headquarters of the Samaj were established at Lahore. Thus Arya Samaj was established before the
establishment of INC. So, Statement 5 is correct.

Q.50) Which of the following statements about the Portuguese Governor Alfonso de Albuquerque is not
correct ?
(a) He is considered to be the real founder of the Portuguese power in the East.
(b) He acquired Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 and soon shifted the Portuguese
headquarters from Cochin to Goa.
(c) He bitterly persecuted Muslims to completely extinguish their commercial interests in the East.
(d) The abolition of Sati is considered to be an interesting feature of his rule.
EXPLANATION:
Alfonso de Albuquerque, who succeeded Almeida as the Portuguese governor in India, was the real
founder of Portuguese power in the East.
He secured for Portugal the strategic control of the Indian Ocean by establishing bases overlooking all the
entrances to the sea.

39
 Albuquerque acquired Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 with ease; the principal port of the Sultan
of Bijapur became “the first bit of Indian territory to be under the Europeans since the time of Alexander
the Great.” But he did not shifted the Portuguese headquarters from Cochin to Goa.
The bitter persecution of Muslims was one serious drawback of Albuquerque’s policy. An interesting
feature of his rule was the abolition of sati. So, Options (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
It was Nino da Cunha (not Alfonso de Albuquerque) who assumed the office of the governor of Portuguese
interests in India in November 1529 and almost one year later shifted the headquarters of the Portuguese
government in India from Cochin to Goa. So, Option (b) is not correct.

Q.51) With reference to committees/commissions set up during colonial rule, consider the following
statements :
1. The Muddiman Committee was set up to investigate the working of the Constitution under the
Act of 1919.
2. The Butler committee was set up to survey the growth of education in British India.
3. The Sadler Commission recommended minimum government interference in the academic
affairs of universities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Muddiman Committee, officially known as the Report of the Reforms Enquiry Committee, was set up
in 1924 mainly to look into the working of the Constitution as set up in 1921 under the Act of 1919.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Butler Committee, officially known as the Indian States Committee, was set up in 1927 by the British
Government under the chairmanship of Sir Harcourt Butler to examine the nature of the relationship
between the princely states and the government.
It gave the following recommendations.
➢ Paramountcy must remain supreme and must fulfill its obligations, adopting and defining itself
according to the shifting necessities of time and the progressive development of states.
➢ States should not be handed over to an Indian Government in British India, responsible to an Indian
legislature, without the consent of states.
Thus, paramountcy was left undefined, and this hydra-headed creature was left to feed on usage, the
Crown’s prerogative and the princes’ implied consent.
The Committee recommended that the princely states should be preserved and that the British
Government should continue to exercise paramountcy over them. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
In 1917, the Government of India appointed the Calcutta University Commission, commonly called the
Sadler Commission, after its chairman, Michael Sadler.
The commission was set up to study and report on problems of Calcutta University, but its
recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also.
It reviewed the entire field, from school education to university education.
It held the view that for the improvement of university education, improvement of secondary education
was a necessary precondition.
The Sadler Commission recommended minimum government interference in academic affairs; sound
principles of appointments to teaching posts in universities through Selection Committees with external
experts; great attention to student welfare; institution of Honours courses at the degree level as distinct
from pass courses.
The Commission also recommended that Secondary and Intermediate education should be controlled by
a Board of Secondary Education and not by the university. So, Statement 3 is correct.

40
Q.52) With respect to Modern Indian History, arrange the following conspiracy cases in the correct
chronological order :
1. Kakori conspiracy case
2. Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy case
3. Meerut conspiracy case
4. Alipore Bomb Conspiracy case
5. Nasik conspiracy case
Select the correct answers using the code given below :
(a) 5 – 4 – 1 – 3- 2
(b) 5 – 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
(c) 4 – 5 – 2 – 1- 3
(d) 4 – 5 - 1 – 2 – 3
EXPLANATION:
➢ In 1908, Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose threw a bomb at a carriage carrying a particularly
sadistic white judge, Kingsford, in Muzaffarpur. The whole Anushilan group was arrested, including
the Ghosh brothers, Aurobindo and Barindra, who were tried in the Alipore conspiracy case, variously
called the Manicktolla bomb conspiracy or Muraripukur conspiracy. The Alipore Bomb case trial,
which took place from May 1908 to May 1909, is an event of historical significance during which
many young Bengali revolutionaries were charged with “waging war against the King.”
➢ Madanlal Dhingra from this circle assassinated the India office bureaucrat Curzon-Wyllie in 1909.
Soon, London became too dangerous for the revolutionaries, particularly after Savarkar had been
deported in 1910 and transported for life in the Nasik conspiracy case
➢ The Kanpur Conspiracy Case was one of the major anti-revolutionary actions undertaken by the
colonial government in Indian history. The political activists detained and tried under this conspiracy
were arrested from Kanpur Nagar, Uttar Pradesh. From 1923 onwards, a series of prominent
activists, including Muzaffar Ahmad, S. Chettiar, S.A. Dange, and Ghulam Hussain, among others,
were arrested and charged with conspiring to separate India from Britain through armed revolution
➢ The Kakori Revolution (also called the Kakori Conspiracy or Kakori train robbery ) took place at
Kakori on August 9, 1925, during Independence Movement against the British Government. It also
refers to its subsequent court trial recommending death sentences for four freedom fighters.
➢ In 1929, the government crackdown on communists resulted in the arrest and trial of 31 leading
communists, trade unionists, and left-wing leaders; they were tried at Meerut in the famous Meerut
conspiracy case. So, Option (c) is correct.

Q.53) With reference to the Regulating Act of 1773, consider the following statements :
1. Through this act, the Status of the Governor of Bengal was raised to that of the Governor
General of India.
2. The Governor General and his council were required to submit all communications about civil,
military and revenue matters in India to the British Government.
3. The wording of the act was vague and created ambiguities in the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court established at Calcutta.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
It was the charter act of 1833 and not the Regulating act of 1773 which made the Governor-General of
Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. So, Statement 1
is not correct.

41
 The Regulating Act of 1773 formally recognized the parliamentary right to control Indian affairs.
The Court of Directors of the Company and not the Governor General and his council would be obliged to
submit all communications from Bengal about civil, military and revenue matters in India to the British
government.
Apart from that, territories in India were also subjected to some degree of centralized control.
The status of the Governor of Bengal was raised to that of the Governor General, to be assisted by a council
of four members.
They were given the power to superintend and control the presidencies of Madras and Bombay in matters
of waging war or making peace with the Indian states, except in emergencies.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The act was by no means satisfactory, as it failed to streamline Indian administration, while the
supervision of the British government remained ineffective due to problems of communication.
The administration in India was hampered by the disunity in the council and disharmony between the
council and the governor-general.
The provincial governors took advantage of the wide manoeuvring space they had been offered by the
vague wording of the act, and the ambiguities in the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the council
created serious conflicts between competing authorities. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.54) With reference to the Ryotwari settlement, consider the following statements :
1. Thomas Munro introduced it with the intention of preserving India’s village communities.
2. Munro borrowed the idea of collecting taxes directly from the peasants from the “military
fiscalism” of the Tipu Sultan.
3. Through this system, Munro intended to encourage the direct political participation of Indians.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
EXPLANATION:
When Thomas Munro became governor of the Madras Presidency in 1820, he introduced the system, which
came to be known as the Ryotwari System.
The most important reason for adopting this system, from the Company’s point of view, was that it brought
in a larger revenue than any other system could have done, as no intermediaries were involved, and
whatever was extracted from the cultivator went directly to the government.
Munro went on to introduce his Ryotwari Settlement with the intention of preserving India's village
communities.
But ultimately, his aim was to consolidate the Company's state in the south by expanding its revenue
base, where land taxes would be collected directly from the peasants by a large number of British officers,
an idea he had borrowed from the "military fiscalism" of Tipu Sultan's Mysore.
So, Statement 1 and 2 correct.
Munro believed that part of India should be indirectly governed, but he insisted that the traditional Indian
forms of government would function well if "directed by men like himself, knowledgeable and sympathetic,
with great and concentrated authority."
This authoritative paternalism rejected the idea of direct political participation by Indians. So, Statement
3 is not correct.

Q.55) Consider the following statements :

1. He became the founding member of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha in 1870.
2. His devotion to the Sabha earned him the title ‘Sarvajanik Kaka’ (Public’s Uncle).
3. He represented Indians at the Delhi Durbar of Queen Victoria in 1877 and appealed to the
Queen to give Indians the same political and social status as the British people.
4. He started an organization called Stree-Vicharavati Sabha for the welfare of women.

42
 Which of the below personalitiy is best described in the above statements ?
(a) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(b) Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi
(c) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
(d) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
EXPLANATION:
Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi was born in Satara (now Sangli District) in Maharashtra.
He was a lawyer, social reformer, and eminent political activist in the initial days of the freedom struggle.
In 1870, Ganesh Vasudeo became the founding member of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.
The organization was one of the earliest political fronts to oppose British rule in India. Joshi's devotion to
the Sabha earned him the title Sarvajanik Kaka (Public's Uncle).
In the beginning, Kaka championed the cause of peasants through this Sabha. He defended their rights
and challenged the British on increased land revenue. Gradually, with the efforts of Kaka, the Sabha
became the premier political institution in the country, providing a platform for political agitation.
Kaka represented Indians at the Delhi Durbar of Queen Victoria in 1877. He appealed to the Queen to
give Indians the same political and social status as enjoyed by the British people and also have an equal
say in administrative matters.
In 1875, Kaka awakened the spirit of Swadeshi in India. He took a vow to use indigenous goods. It is said
that even before Gandhiji, Kaka took to wearing and popularizing hand-spun cloth.
The intent was to protest the abolition of tariffs on British imports in India in 1870 and to provide jobs for
the rural poor, who would spin and weave Khadi cloth. Kaka dedicated his life to social service.
He started an organization called Stree-Vicharavati-Sabha for the welfare of women. Ganesh Vasudeo
Joshi is fondly remembered for his selfless service in the early days of the Indian Independence Movement.
So, Option (b) is correct.

Q.56) Which of the following events happened during the period of Lord Dalhousie ?
1. Wood’s Educational Despatch
2. First Anglo-Sikh war
3. Revolt of 1857
4. Implementation of the Hindu Widow Remarriages Act
5. Establishment of separate Public Work Departments in every province
6. Establishment of three universities in Presidency Towns
7. Summary settlement in Awadh
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 5 and 7 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
EXPLANATION:
Lord Dalhousie served as Governor General of India from 1848 to 1856.
In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the “Magna
Carta of English Education in India”, this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of
education in India. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The outbreak of the first Anglo-Sikh wars has been attributed to the action of the Sikh army crossing the
River Sutlej on December 11, 1845. This was seen as an aggressive maneuver that justified the English
to declare war. The war began in December 1845. Lord Hardinge was the Governor-General of India during
the First Anglo-Sikh War. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Great Revolt of 1857 (also the Indian Sepoy mutiny) is regarded as India’s First War of Independence
against British rule.

43
It was a product of the character and policies of colonial rule after 1757, after which noteworthy changes
took place in the British policy of ruling over India.
It was the most remarkable single event in the history of India after the establishment of British rule. Lord
Canning (not Lord Dalhousie) was the Governor General of India during the revolt of 1857. So, Statement
3 is not correct
The Brahmo Samaj had the issue of widow remarriage high on its agenda and did much to popularise it.
But it was mainly due to the efforts of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820–91), the principal of
Sanskrit College, Calcutta, that the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856, was passed; it legalized
marriage of widows and declared issues from such marriages as legitimate. Vidyasagar cited Vedic texts
to prove that the Hindu religion sanctioned widow remarriage. The act got implemented during the period
of Lord canning(not Lord Dalhousie). So, Statement 4 is not correct.
The establishment of separate public works department in every province was done during the period of
Lord Dalhousie. So, Statement 5 is correct.
Establishment of three universities at Calcutta, Madras and Bombay in 1857 happened during the period
of Lord Canning. So, Statement 6 is not correct.
The annexation of Awadh was followed by a summary settlement in 1856 that happened during the period
of Lord Dalhousie, led to the dispossession of a number of powerful taluqdars.
The settlement was made with the actual occupiers of the land or village coparcenaries to disregard all
other proprietary rights, in the same way as it was done a little while ago in the North-Western Provinces.
The prime motive was to gain popularity among the agricultural population and get rid of the unwanted
middlemen who stood between the peasants and the government. So, Statement 7 is correct.

Q.57) Which of the following organisations/party were founded by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
1. Bahishkrit Hitakarni Sabha
2. All India Schedule Caste Federation
3. All India Anti – Untouchability League
4. All India Depressed Classes Congress
5. All India Depressed Classes League
6. All India Depressed Classes Association
7. Independent Labour Party
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 7 only
(b) 1, 2, 5 and 7 only
(c) 3, 5 and 6 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
EXPLANATION:
On 20 July 1924, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar established Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha to remove difficulties
of Dalit communities across India and to file grievances before the government. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
All India Scheduled castes federation (SCF) was the first all-India political party exclusively for Scheduled
Castes. Dr. Ambedkar founded SCF in a national convention of the Scheduled castes held at Nagpur.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
In order to better organize the campaign for the amelioration of the untouchables’ condition, Gandhi set
up a new body in October 1932.
It was first named the All India Anti-Untouchability League and later renamed the Harijan Sevak Sangh.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Although the first meeting of the Akhil Bharatiya Bahishkrut Parishad (or All India Depressed Classes
Conference) held at Nagpur in May 1920 under the presidency of the Maharaja of Kolhapur, was the
modest beginning, the actual pan-Indian dalit movement at an organized level started at the All India
Depressed Classes Leaders’ Conference held at the same city in 1926.

44
 Here the All India Depressed Classes Association was formed, with M.C. Rajah of Madras as its first elected
president.
Dr. Ambedkar, who did not attend the conference, was elected one of its vice presidents. Ambedkar later
resigned from this association and, in 1930, at a conference in Nagpur, founded his own All India
Depressed Classes Congress.
As for its political philosophy, in his inaugural address, Ambedkar took a very clear anti-Congress and a
mildly anti-British position, thus setting the tone for the future course of history. So, Statement 4 is
correct and Statement 6 is not correct.
Jagjivan Ram, popularly known as Babuji, founded the All-India Depressed Classes League, dedicated to
attaining equality for the untouchables in 1935. Statement 5 is not correct.
Ambedkar, in 1936 founded his Independent Labour Party to mobilize the poor and the untouchables on
a broader basis than caste alone—on a program that proposed “to advance the welfare of the laboring
classes.
In the election of 1937, his party won a spectacular victory in Bombay, winning eleven of the fifteen
reserved seats. So, Statement 7 is correct.

Q.58) With reference to the Delhi Pact on minorities, consider the following statements:
1. This pact was signed on April 8, 1950, by the then Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru,
and his Pakistani counterpart General Ayub Khan.
2. The main purpose of the pact was to speed up the restoration of confidence among the minorities
in the two Punjabs.
3. Members of the Nehru cabinet, like Syama Prasad Mukherjee and K.C.Neogy, resigned in protest
against this pact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
EXPLANATION:
To resolve the problems of refugees and restore communal peace in the two countries, especially in Bengal
(East Pakistan and West Bengal), the Indian prime minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, and the Pakistani prime
minister, Liaquat Ali Khan, signed an agreement on April 8, 1950.
The agreement, known as the Delhi Pact on Minorities or Nehru Liaquat Pact, envisaged the appointment
of ministers from minority communities in Pakistan and India at both central and provincial levels. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
The main purpose of the pact was to speed up the restoration of confidence among minorities in the two
Bengals and Assam. Under the pact,
➢ Minority commissions were to be set up, together with the Commissions of Inquiry, to look into the
probable causes behind the communal riots on both sides of the border (in Bengal) and to recommend
steps to prevent the recurrence of such incidents.
➢ India and Pakistan also agreed to include representatives of the minority community in the cabinets
of East Pakistan and West Bengal and decided to depute two central ministers, one from each
government, to remain in the affected regions for such a period as might be necessary.
➢ The pact provided for the creation of an agency entrusted with the task of recovering and rehabilitating
‘abducted’ women.
➢ The idea of encouraging refugees to return to their original homes failed because the two governments
failed to restore confidence among the refugees.
➢ Further, the properties of the refugees were declared enemy property. [India brought amendments in
the Enemy Property Act, 1968 in 2016 also.]
So, Statement 2 is not correct.

45
 The provisions of the Nehru-Liaquat Pact were severely criticized by Hindu nationalists like Syama Prasad
Mukherjee and K.C. Neogy. Mukherjee resigned from the Nehru cabinet in protest, as he believed that the
refugee problem could only be solved through a transfer of population and the acquisition of certain
territories from Pakistan to rehabilitate the people who came to India. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.59) Consider the following statements about the Asian Palm Oil Alliance :
1. It is an inter-governmental alliance that aims to promote the production of palm oil.
2. Indonesia and Malaysia, which together account for almost 90% of global palm oil production,
are not part of this alliance.
3. It will also work to promote the consumption of palm oil.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The apex edible oil industry associations from five major palm oil importing countries of Asia -- India,
Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Nepal -- have come together to form the Asian Palm Oil Alliance
(APOA). APOA was launched during the Globe Oil Summit at Agra in 2022.
The term intergovernmental organization (IGO) refers to an entity created by a treaty involving two or more
nations to work in good faith on issues of common interest. In the absence of a treaty, an IGO does not
exist in the legal sense.
Thus, the Asian palm oil alliance is not an intergovernmental organization, as any treaty does not form it.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The APOA alliance is initiated by the apex solvent extractors associations of India, Pakistan, Sri
Lanka, Bangladesh and Nepal.
In the coming year, the membership will be further expanded to include other select companies or industry
organizations operating in the production and/or refining of palm oil in Asia.
Indonesia and Malaysia, which together account for almost 90% of global palm oil production, are not part
of this alliance. So, Statement 2 is correct.
APOA is expected to safeguard the economic and business interests of the palm-oil-consuming countries
and create a level-playing field for all fats and oils used in food, feed and oleo-chemicals in Asia. It will
further work towards increasing sustainable palm oil consumption in member countries.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.60) Recently, Sudan has been affected by political unrest. In this context of this, consider the following
countries :
1. Chad
2. Egypt
3. Ethiopia
4. Democratic Republic of the Congo
5. Algeria
Which of the above countries shares border with Sudan ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

46
EXPLANATION:
Sudan lies at the crossroads of Sub-Saharan Africa and the Middle East, bordering the Red Sea. It shares
its border with seven countries: Libya, Egypt, Chad, the Central African Republic, South Sudan, Ethiopia,
and Eritrea.
Intense fighting has been raging in Sudan between the Sudanese military, and a powerful paramilitary
group called the Rapid Support Forces since April 2023.
Operation Kaveri has been launched by the Government of India to bring back around 1,400 Indian
nationals from war-hit Sudan using the Indian Air Force. So, Option (b) is correct.

Q.61) Consider the following statements about Tribunals in India :

1. The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 empowers the Parliament to establish the State
Administrative Tribunals (SATs) on the specific request of the concerned state governments.
2. The Chairperson and members of the Tribunal shall hold office for a term of 4 years or till they
attain the age of 70 years under the new tribunal act of 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
EXPLANATION:
Article 323 A enables the Parliament to take out the adjudication of disputes relating to service matters
from the civil and high courts and place it before the administrative tribunals.
In pursuance of Article 323 A, the Parliament passed the Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985. The act
authorises the Central government, not Parliament, to establish one Central Administrative Tribunal and
the state administrative tribunals. This act opened a new chapter in the sphere of providing speedy and
inexpensive justice to the aggrieved public servants. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The new tribunal act of 2021 provides for The Chairperson of a Tribunal shall hold office for a term of four
years or till he attains the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier. The Member of a Tribunal shall hold
office for a term of four years or till he attains the age of sixty-seven years, whichever is earlier. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.

47
Q.62) Consider the following pairs :
Writs Meaning
1. Mandamus - We command
2. Habeas Corpus - By what warrant or authority
3. Quo warranto - To be certified
4. Certiorari - You may have the body or to have the
body of
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
EXPLANATION:
Mandamus literally means 'we command.' It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking
him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any
public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or a government for the same purpose. The writ of
mandamus cannot be issued (a) against a private individual or body; (b) to enforce departmental instruction
that does not possess statutory force; (c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory; (d) to enforce
a contractual obligation; (e) against the President of India or the state governors; and (f) against the chief
justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity. So, Pair 1 is correct.
Habeas Corpus is a Latin term which literally means 'to have the body of.' It is an order issued by the court
to a person who has detained another person to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then
examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person free if the detention is found
to be illegal. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. The writ of habeas
corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. So, Pair 2 is not
correct.
Quo-Warranto means 'by what authority or warrant.' It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of
a claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents the illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a
statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the
other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
So, Pair 3 is not correct.
Certiorari means 'to be certified' or 'to be informed.' It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal
either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of the latter in a case. It is
issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction, or error of law. Thus, unlike
prohibition, which is only preventive, certiorari is both preventive as well as curative. Previously, the writ
of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and not against
administrative authorities. However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued
even against administrative authorities affecting the rights of individuals. Like prohibition, certiorari is also
not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies. So, Pair 4 is not correct.

Q.63) Consider the following statements about the Extended Fund Facility (EFF) :
1. IMF provides this facility to countries facing serious medium-term balance of payments
problems that require time to address.
2. This fund is provided without any interest rate.
3. Unlike other similar funds, EFF is provided only to low-income and least-developed countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

48
EXPLANATION:
The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is a lending facility of the IMF, and it was established in 1974, which
provides financial assistance to countries facing serious medium-term balance of payments problems
because of structural weaknesses that require time to address.
To help countries implement medium-term structural reforms, the EFF offers longer program engagement
and a longer repayment period. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Terms and conditions laid down to avail of the EEF Fund are as follows:
➢ Duration: The fund is typically approved for periods of 3 years but may be approved for periods as long
as 4 years to implement deep and sustained structural reforms.
➢ Repayment: Over 4½–10 years in 12 equal semiannual installments.
➢ The lending rate comprises The market-determined Special Drawing Rights (SDR) interest rate—which
has a minimum floor of 5 basis points—and a margin (currently 100 basis points), together known as
the basic rate of charge.
➢ A service charge of 50 basis points is applied to each amount drawn.
Thus, this fund is provided with a market-determined SDR interest rate and not as an interest-free loan.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The EFF Eligibility policy allows all member countries facing actual or potential external financing needs
to avail of the EFF. Most often used by advanced and emerging market countries, but low-income countries
sometimes use the EFF together with the Extended Credit Facility (ECF). So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.64) Which of the following is not an outcome expected out of properly implementing the Fiscal
Responsibility and Budget Management Act ?
(a) To help achieve greater intergenerational equity
(b) To prevent reckless expenditure on the part of the government
(c) To reduce crowding out of investments
(d) To increase expenditure on welfare schemes
EXPLANATION:
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM), 2003, established financial discipline to
reduce the fiscal deficit. The FRBM Act aims to introduce transparency in India's fiscal management
systems. The Act's long-term objective is for India to achieve fiscal stability and to give the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) flexibility to deal with inflation in India. The FRBM Act introduced a more equitable
distribution of India's debt over the years.
Though the Act's primary goal is to reduce the deficit, an important goal is to achieve intergenerational
equity in fiscal management. It is because when there are large borrowings today, they must get repaid by
future generations. However, the benefit of high spending and debt today goes to the current generation.
Achieving FRBM targets ensures intergenerational equity by reducing the debt burden of future
generations. So, Option (a) is correct.
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM Act), 2003, is to reduce the fiscal deficit.
When there is reckless expenditure by the government, then the expenditure will be more than the
revenue, leading to an economy's fiscal deficit. By reducing reckless expenditure, we can reduce the fiscal
deficit. So, Option (b) is correct.
The crowding out effect is an economic theory arguing that rising public sector spending drives down or
eliminates private sector spending.
To spend more, the government needs added revenue. It obtains it by raising taxes or by borrowing through
the sale of Treasury securities.
Higher taxes can mean reduced income and spending by individuals and businesses.
Treasury sales can increase interest rates and borrowing costs. That can reduce borrowing demand and
spending. Thus if the government properly implements the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
Act, the likely outcome would be the crowding out of private-sector investment will reduce. So, Option (c)
is correct.

49
 Increasing the expenditure on welfare schemes may lead to a fiscal deficit as the expenditure of the
government couldis exceed the revenue of the government. As, the primary objective of the FRBM Act is
to limit the public debt by putting limits on the fiscal deficit, increasing expenditure on welfare schemes
is not an expected outcome upon the proper implementation of the FRBM Act. So, Option (d) is not
correct.

Q.65) The Indian Parliament has recently enacted the Indian Antarctic Act, 2022. In this context, consider
the following statements :
1. The Act was created in line with the Antarctic Treaty of 1959.
2. The Act provided for the peaceful testing of nuclear explosions in the Antarctic region.
3. The Act extends the jurisdiction of Indian courts to try any offence punishable for crimes held
in Antarctica.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The Antarctic Treaty was signed in 1959 by 12 countries — Argentina, Australia, Belgium, Chile, the
French Republic, Japan, New Zealand, Norway, the Union of South Africa, the USSR, the UK of Great
Britain and Northern Ireland and the US of America, and came into force in 1961.
The objectives of the treaty are to demilitarize Antarctica and establish it as a zone used for peaceful
research activities and to set aside any disputes regarding territorial sovereignty, thereby ensuring
international cooperation. India is a signatory to the Antarctic Treaty, having acceded to it on August 19,
1983 and received the consultative status on the 12th September 1983.
The Indian Antarctic Bill 2022 aims to lay down a set of rules to regulate a range of activities on territories
in Antarctica, where India has set up research stations. It provides for the protection of the environment,
preservation of historical sites, and promotion of scientific research in Antarctica.
Therefore, the Indian Antarctic Act 2022 is in-line with the principles and obligations of the Antarctic
Treaty of 1959. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Indian Antarctic Act 2022 aims to have India's own national measures for protecting the Antarctic
environment as the dependent and associated ecosystem.
➢ The main aim of the Act is also to ensure the de-militarization of the region along with getting it rid of
mining or illegal activities.
➢ It also aims that there should not be any nuclear tests/explosions in the region. So, Statement 2 is
not correct.
The enforcement of the Indian Antarctic Act 2022 will confer Jurisdiction on the courts of India to deal
with any dispute or crimes committed in parts of Antarctica. Legislation of such a kind will bind the
citizens to the policies of the Antarctic treaty system.
For the purposes of providing speedy trial of offenses under this Act, the Central Government, after
consulting the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court or High Courts as may constitute a Designated
Court and may specify the territorial jurisdiction of such Court.
➢ The Designated Court shall have jurisdiction to try any offense punishable under this Act.
➢ Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, for the purposes of
conferring jurisdiction, an offence under this Act committed by any person or Operator in Antarctica
shall be deemed to have been committed in India. So, Statement 3 is correct.

50
Q.66) Which of the following statements best explains the term 'invisible balance' ?
(a) It is the difference between all inflow and outflow transactions in the balance of payments
account.
(b) It is the difference between all inflow and outflow transactions in the current account.
(c) It is the difference between all inflow and outflow transactions in the balance of payments
account, which does not involve the trade of goods.
(d) It is the difference between all inflow and outflow transactions in the current account,
which does not involve the trade of goods.
EXPLANATION:
Under the current account of the Balance of Payment (BOP), transactions are classified into merchandise
(exports and imports) and Invisibles. Invisible transactions are further classified into three categories, viz.
➢ Group of Services–Travel, Transportation, Insurance, Government Not Included Elsewhere (GNIE) and
Miscellaneous Services, which encompass communication, construction, financial, software, news
agency, royalties, and management services and business services.
➢ Income, and
➢ Transfers (grants, gifts, remittances, etc.)
An invisible trade is an international transaction, i.e., all inflow and outflow transactions that do not
include an exchange of tangible goods. Invisible trade in all its varieties represents an increasing
percentage of world trade. Most business services that cross international borders are examples of invisible
trade.
The concept of invisible trade is used to define business activities that involve monetary exchange but not
an exchange of physical goods. The purchase of an insurance policy by a firm in one country from a
company in another is such a transaction.
For Example, patients needing specialized medical procedures, higher-quality healthcare, or lower-cost
services now often travel to other countries to get them. Medical tourism has become a significant factor
in invisible trade. So Option (d) is correct.

Q.67) Consider the following statements about the National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) :
1. It was established under the Central Goods and Service Tax Act 2017.
2. Currently, all anti-profiteering complaints are dealt by this Authority.
3. It can recommend punitive actions, including cancellation of Registration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA) was established under section 171 of the Central Goods
and Services Tax Act, 2017 to check the unfair profiteering activities by the registered suppliers under
GST law.
The Authority’s core function is to ensure that the commensurate benefits of the reduction in GST rates
on goods and services done by the GST Council and of the Input tax credit are passed on to the recipients
by way of commensurate reduction in the prices by the suppliers. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Initially, NAA was set up for two years till 2019, but it was later extended till November 2021, and the GST
Council made a one-year extension post-November 2021 till November 30, 2022. The GST Council, in its
45th meeting in September 2022, gave another one-year extension till November 30, 2022, to NAA and
decided to shift the work to CCI from NAA.
All Goods & Services Tax (GST) anti-profiteering complaints will be dealt with by the Competition
Commission of India (CCI) from December 1, 2022, as the extended tenure of the National Anti-profiteering
Authority (NAA) ends this December 2022.

51
 Henceforth, all investigations, based on complaints filed by consumers, will be done by the Directorate
General of Anti-profiteering (DGAP), which will then submit a report to CCI. A separate wing is to be set
up in CCI to handle complaints relating to GST profiteering.
Thus, all Goods & Services Tax (GST) anti-profiteering complaints will be dealt with by the Competition
Commission of India (CCI). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Authority’s main function is to ensure that the registered suppliers under GST law are not profiteering
by charging higher prices from recipients in the name of GST.
➢ The legal mandate of the NAA is to examine and check such profiteering activities and recommend
punitive actions, including cancellation of Registration.
➢ NAA has the Authority to deregister an entity or business if it fails to pass on the benefit of lower taxes
under GST to the customer. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.68) Consider the following statements about the Peace clause of the World Trade Organisation :
1. The peace clause allows developing countries to breach the subsidy ceiling without invoking
legal action from other members.
2. The subsidy ceiling is fixed at 5 percent of the value of food production for developing countries
like India.
3. Recently, Sri Lanka was the first country to invoke the Bali peace clause due to recession.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The “peace clause” was the approach adopted at WTO’s Bali Ministerial Conference (2013) until a
permanent solution could be found for the food security concerns of the developing countries.
The ‘peace clause’ said that no country would be legally barred from food security programs even if the
subsidy breached the limits specified in the WTO agreement on agriculture.
Thus, the peace clause allows developing countries to breach the subsidy ceiling without invoking legal
action from other members. So, Statement 1 is correct.
While the ‘peace clause’ allows developing countries to breach the 10% ceiling without invoking legal action
by members, it is subject to demanding notification requirements and numerous conditions, such as not
distorting global trade and not affecting the food security of other members.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
India’s Minimum Support Price (MSP) programs are under scrutiny at the WTO, as it is the first country
to invoke the Bali ‘peace clause’ to justify exceeding its 10% ceiling (of the total value of rice production)
for rice support in 2018-2019 and 2019-2020. Thus Sri Lanka was not the first country to invoke the Bali
peace clause. So, Statement 3 is not correct

Q.69) Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Hydrogen Mission :
1. The mission helps to achieve India’s net zero carbon emissions by 2070.
2. It helps in reducing 50 Million Metric tonnes of annual greenhouse gas emissions.
3. Oil India Limited (OIL) had commissioned India's first green hydrogen plant in Assam.
4. Green hydrogen is produced via natural gas or coal gasification combined with carbon capture
storage.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

52
EXPLANATION:
India has set its sight on becoming energy independent by 2047 and achieving Net Zero carbon emission
by 2070. To achieve this target, increasing renewable energy use across all economic spheres is central to
India's Energy Transition. Green Hydrogen is considered a promising alternative for enabling this
transition. Hydrogen can be utilized for long-duration storage of renewable energy, replacement of fossil
fuels in industry, clean transportation, and potentially also for decentralized power generation, aviation,
and marine transport. The National Green Hydrogen Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet on 4
January 2022. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The mission outcomes projected by 2030 are:
➢ Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes) per
annum with an associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW in the country
➢ Over Rs. Eight lakh crore in total investments
➢ Creation of over Six lakh jobs
➢ The cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports is over Rs. One lakh crore.
➢ Abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions
So, Statement 2 is correct.
Oil India Limited (OIL) has taken the first significant step towards Green Hydrogen Economy in India with
the commissioning of India’s First 99.999% pure Green Hydrogen pilot plant, with an installed capacity of
10 kg per day at its Jorhat Pump Station in Assam. The company has initiated a detailed study in
collaboration with IIT Guwahati on the blending of Green Hydrogen with Natural Gas and its effect on the
existing infrastructure of OIL. The commissioning of India's first green hydrogen plant by OIL is a positive
step towards achieving India's renewable energy goals and National Green Hydrogen Mission. So,
Statement 3 is correct.
Depending on the nature of the method of its extraction, hydrogen is categorized into three categories,
namely, Grey, Blue and Green.
➢ Grey Hydrogen: It is produced via coal or lignite gasification (black or brown) or via a process called
steam methane reformation (SMR) of natural gas or methane (grey). These tend to be mostly carbon-
intensive processes.
➢ Blue Hydrogen: It is produced via natural gas or coal gasification combined with carbon capture
storage (CCS) or carbon capture use (CCU) technologies to reduce carbon emissions.
➢ Green Hydrogen: It is produced using the electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable
energy. The carbon intensity ultimately depends on the carbon neutrality of the source of electricity
(i.e., the more renewable energy there is in the electricity fuel mix, the "greener" the hydrogen
produced).
Hence, it is blue hydrogen and not green hydrogen that is produced via natural gas or coal gasification
combined with carbon capture storage. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

Q.70) With reference to the taxation system in India, consider the following statements :
1. Tax buoyancy indicates the sensitivity of tax revenue realization to GDP growth.
2. Tax elasticity refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rates.
3. Tax buoyancy is the highest for indirect taxes compared to direct taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Tax buoyancy explains this relationship between the government's tax revenue growth changes and the
changes in GDP. It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP. When a tax is
buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate. Tax buoyancy shows the association

53
 between the economy's performance and the government's 'happiness' (tax revenue). It indicates the high
sensitivity of tax revenue realization to GDP growth. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Tax elasticity refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rates. For example, how tax
revenue changes if the government reduces corporate income tax from 30 percent to 25 percent.
Tax elasticity can be either positive or negative. A positive tax elasticity means that tax revenue increases
as tax rates increase, indicating that taxpayers are responsive to changes in tax rates. On the other hand,
a negative tax elasticity means that tax revenue decreases as tax rates increase. Policymakers often use
tax elasticity to predict how changes in tax rates will impact tax revenue and the overall economy. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
Direct taxes have the highest buoyancy and are more sensitive to the GDP growth rate than other types
of taxes. This is because, as the economy of a country grows, the formal sector of the economy generates
more income and this enables a higher income tax collection by the government through personal and
corporate income tax. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.71) Which of the following statements is correct about Gross Domestic Product (GDP) ?
(a) Higher GDP indicates a higher standard of living for all residents of a country.
(b) GDP is a precise calculation of all final goods and services produced and consumed in a financial
year.
(c) Real GDP is a more reliable measure of annual growth in production than nominal GDP.
(d) An increase in GDP is always accompanied by a decrease in poverty.
EXPLANATION:
Gross domestic product (GDP) is the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services
produced within a country's borders in a specific time period. As a broad measure of overall domestic
production, it is a comprehensive scorecard of a country's economic health.
GDP is not a measure of a country's overall standard of living or well-being. Although changes in the
output of goods and services per person (GDP per capita) are often used to measure whether the average
citizen in a country is better or worse off, it does not capture things that may be deemed important to
general well-being. The standard of living is derived from per capita GDP, determined by dividing GDP by
the number of people living in the country. On a broad level, GDP can be used to help determine the
standard of living.
Higher GDP may indicate a higher standard of living but not for all the residents in the country. So,
Option (a) is not correct.
Gross domestic product (GDP) is the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services
produced within a country's borders in a specific time period. All the finished goods need not be consumed
in the same financial year for which the GDP is calculated. Hence goods produced in a financial year but
stored in the inventory for future use are also included in the calculation of GDP of a financial year.
So, Option (b) is not correct.
Real gross domestic product (GDP) is a more accurate reflection of the output of an economy than nominal
GDP. By eliminating the distortion caused by inflation or deflation or by fluctuations in currency rates,
real GDP gives economists a clearer idea of how the total national output of a country is growing or
contracting from year to year.
Real GDP adjusts the number in order to discount the effects of inflation or deflation and currency
fluctuations up or down.
Therefore, Real GDP is a more reliable measure of annual growth in production than nominal GDP. So,
Option (c) is correct.
Depending on the inequality, an increase in GDP growth may lead to a slower reduction or even an increase
in poverty. We cannot always expect an increase in GDP, always accompanied by a decrease in poverty.
So, Option (d) is not correct.

54
Q.72) In a situation of high inflation caused by excess money supply in the economy, which of the
following can be the effective counter measures ?
1. Increasing the monetary policy rate
2. Increasing the marginal requirements
3. Decreasing the mandatory reserves
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Monetary policy is the macroeconomic policy laid down by the central bank. It involves the management
of money supply and interest rates. It is the demand side economic policy used by the government of a
country to achieve macroeconomic objectives like inflation, consumption, growth and liquidity. If prices
rise faster than their target, central banks tighten monetary policy by increasing interest rates. Higher
interest rates make borrowing more expensive, curtailing consumption and investment, which rely heavily
on credit.
Therefore, increasing the monetary policy rate will effectively control the high inflation in an economy. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
The margin requirement refers to the difference between the current value of the security offered for a loan
(called collateral) and the value of the loan granted.
By increasing the marginal requirements, inflation in an economy is controlled.
For Example, there is ABC company in which they buy a property costs 1 lakh. Now, the bank offers a
loan amount of 75000, and the marginal requirement is 25000. The marginal requirement should be given
by the Company. Inflation can be controlled during high inflation by increasing the marginal requirement.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
Reserve requirements are the amount of funds a bank holds in reserve to ensure it can meet liabilities in
case of sudden withdrawals. Reserve requirements are a tool the central bank uses to increase or decrease
the money supply in the economy and influence interest rates.
If the Reserve requirements are decreased, banks will lend money to the people, leading to high inflation.
It is not an effective countermeasure to control the high inflation. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.73) Consider the following statements about Reserve Bank - Integrated Ombudsman Scheme :
1. It integrated the three existing Ombudsman schemes of RBI for banks, Non-Banking Financial
Companies and digital transactions.
2. The Scheme adopts a 'One Nation One Ombudsman' approach by unifying the jurisdiction of
the RBI Ombudsman mechanism.
3. The regulated entity will not have the right to appeal in cases where an award is issued by the
Ombudsman against it for not furnishing timely documents.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Reserve Bank-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme aims to improve the grievance redress mechanism for
resolving customer complaints against entities such as banks, NBFCs and payment service operators
regulated by the RBI.
The Scheme integrates the existing three Ombudsman Schemes of RBI, the Banking Ombudsman Scheme,
2006; the Ombudsman Scheme for NonBanking Financial Companies, 2018; and the Ombudsman

55
 Scheme for Digital Transactions, 2019. A complainant will no longer need to identify under which Scheme
they should file a complaint with the Ombudsman. So, Statement 1 is correct.
To simplify the alternate dispute redress mechanism and be more responsive to the customers of regulated
entities, it has been decided to implement, among other things, integration of the three Ombudsman
schemes and adoption of the "One Nation One Ombudsman" approach for grievance redressal. The move
is intended to make the process of redress of grievances easier by enabling the customers of the banks,
NBFCs and non-bank issuers of prepaid payment instruments to register their complaints under the
integrated Scheme with one centralized reference point. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021, has been designed to respond to customer grievances. One of
the features of the Integrated Ombudsman scheme is the Regulated Entity will not have the right to appeal
in cases where the Ombudsman issues an Award against it for not furnishing satisfactory and timely
information/documents. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.74) Consider the following statements regarding the horizontal devolution criteria of the 15th Finance
Commission :
1. Income distance is the distance of a state's per capita GSDP from the State with the highest per
capita GSDP, with a greater share for states with a shorter distance.
2. The demographic performance criterion rewards the efforts made by states to control
population, with a greater share going to states with higher fertility ratios.
3. Forest and Ecology criteria measure the share of the dense forest of each State in the total dense
forest of all the states, with a greater share for states with a higher proportion of dense forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Finance Commissions in the past have recommended this horizontal devolution based on appropriate
objective parameters or formulae. After determining the States' aggregate share in the divisible pool, the
task was to recommend inter se distribution among the States. This is called horizontal devolution.
Horizontal devolution of taxes has been mainly driven by considerations of need, equity and performance.
The horizontal devolution formula is designed to focus on specific objectives to be
achieved through such devolution, such as:
➢ To help bridge the vertical fiscal gap of the States;
➢ To provide horizontal equity (by providing a higher share to poorer regions)
➢ To equalize the fiscal capacities of States (revenue equalization)
➢ To provide for cost differentials among States for providing basic public service (expenditure
equalization).

56
 The income distance criterion is intended to make the devolution formula more equalizing and progressive
to provide higher devolution to States with lower per capita income (and lower own tax capacity). Income
distance is the distance of a state's income from the State with the highest income. The income of a state
has been computed as the average per capita GSDP during the three years between 2016-17 and 2018-
19. A state with lower per capita income will have a higher share to maintain equity among states.
For Example, Bihar has an adjusted distance of nearly 1,80,000, and the share provided is 16.36 percent.
Still, Uttar Pradesh has an adjusted distance of nearly 1,60,000, and the share provided is 27.10 percent.
Therefore, the share was not provided based on the shorter distances. Therefore, the share was not
provided based on the shorter but based on longer distances. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The 15th Finance Commission's Terms of Reference required it to use the population data of 2011 while
making recommendations. Accordingly, the Commission used 2011 population data for its
recommendations. The demographic performance criterion has been used to reward efforts made by states
in controlling their population. States with a lower fertility ratio will be scored higher on this criterion.
States with a lower and not higher fertility ratio will be scored higher on this criterion. So, Statement 2
is not correct.
Forest cover was used as a criterion in the devolution formula for the first time by the 15 th Finance
Commission because while the forest cover maintained by States provides wider ecological benefits, it also
imposes opportunity costs that must be compensated. The forest and ecology criterion has factored in
both the ecological services being provided by the State's forest cover to the country and the cost of
disabilities. This is arrived at by calculating the share of the dense forest of each State in the aggregate
dense forest of all the States.
In Forest and Ecology criteria, the greater share was provided to the states so that the State has a higher
proportion of the dense forests.
For Example, Arunachal Pradesh has a dense forest of about 51652Sq.km, and nearly 13.30 percent of
the share was provided, the highest. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.75) In a liberalized economy, which of the following is the likely measure to be taken in case there is
an excess demand for foreign currency ?
(a) Allowing the value of currencies to vary to bring about an equilibrium between demand
and supply
(b) Regular intervention of the central bank to supply foreign currency from its reserves
(c) Restricting imports in order to prevent the excess demand for foreign currency
(d) Artificially reducing the value of the domestic currency in order to make imports costlier
EXPLANATION:
A higher-valued currency makes a country's imports less expensive and its exports more expensive in
foreign markets. A lower-valued currency makes a country's imports more expensive and its exports less
expensive in foreign markets. A higher exchange rate can worsen a country's balance of trade, while a
lower exchange rate can be expected to improve it.
The excess demand for foreign currency lowers the country's exchange rate until domestic goods and
services are cheap enough for foreigners and foreign assets are too expensive to generate sales for domestic
interests.
A foreign exchange intervention is a monetary policy tool that involves a central bank taking an active,
participatory role in influencing the monetary funds transfer rate of the national currency, usually with
its reserves or authority to generate the currency.
A central bank or government may assess that its currency has slowly become out of sync with the
country's economy and is adversely affecting it.
Central banks intervene and allow the value of the currency to vary between demand and supply when
there is an excess demand for the foreign currency.

57
 Economic liberalization is the removal or reduction of restrictions or barriers on the free exchange of goods
between nations. These barriers include tariffs, such as duties and surcharges, and nontariff barriers,
such as licensing rules and quotas.
Currency prices can be determined in two main ways: a floating rate or a fixed rate. A floating rate is
determined by the open market through supply and demand on global currency markets. Therefore, if the
demand for the currency is high, the value will increase. If demand is low, this will drive that currency
price lower. Of course, several technical and fundamental factors will determine what people perceive as
a fair exchange rate and alter their supply and demand accordingly. The currencies of the liberalized
economies were allowed to float freely and Allow the value of currencies to vary to bring about an
equilibrium between demand and supply. So, Option (a) is correct.

Q.76) With reference to Sugarcane cultivation in India, consider the following statements :
1. The total sugarcane production is higher in the tropical than in the sub-tropical region.
2. The total area of sugarcane cultivation is higher in the tropical than in the sub-tropical region.
3. Sugar recovery is highest when the weather is dry with low humidity.
4. Molasses from sugarcane is the major source of ethanol production in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
Sugarcane is a most important cash crop of India. Sugarcane provides raw material for the second largest
agro-based industry after textile. Sugarcane is grown in various states in subtropical and tropical regions
of the country. Broadly there are two distinct agro-climatic regions of sugarcane cultivation in India, viz.,
tropical and subtropical.

➢ Thus, the total sugarcane production is higher in the tropical than in the sub-tropical region. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
➢ The total area of sugarcane cultivation is lower than the tropical (45%) than in the sub-tropical
region (55%). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The sugarcane productivity and juice quality are profoundly influenced by weather conditions prevailing
during the various crop-growth sub-periods.
Sugar recovery is highest when the weather is dry with low humidity; bright sunshine hours, cooler nights
with wide diurnal variations and very little rainfall during ripening period. These conditions favour high
sugar accumulation. The climatic conditions like very high temperature or very low temperature
deteriorate the juice quality and thus affecting the sugar quality. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The major source of ethanol production in the country is via sugarcane-sugar-molasses route. This
provides better economy by sale of sugar and molasses becomes the by-product of the sugar. Likewise, a
tonne of molasses produces about 220-250 litres of ethanol. So, Statement 4 is correct.

58
Q.77) With reference to the Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID), consider the following statements :
1. HUID is a unique 4-digit alphanumeric code that will be given to every piece of jewellery from
April 1, 2023.
2. HUID will be stamped manually on jewellery at the Assaying and Hallmarking centers.
3. The rules are given and governed by the Ministry of Commerce.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Department of Consumer Affairs, mentioned that the Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID) number
is a six-digit alphanumeric code. Earlier, the HUID used to be of four digits. But, now only 6-digit
alphanumeric code will be allowed. It is given to every piece of jewellery at the time of hallmarking, and is
a unique identifier for each gold item. The jewellery is stamped with the unique number manually at the
Assaying & Hallmarking centre.
From April 1 2023, the sale of gold jewellery will not be allowed without a Hallmark Unique Identification
(HUID) number. So, Statement 1 is not correct and Statement 2 is correct.
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the National Standards Body of India which operates under the Union
Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, ensures that quality goods and services reach
consumers through various schemes. Hallmarking is the accurate determination and official recording of
the proportionate content of precious metal in the precious metal article. The objective of Hallmarking
Scheme is to protect the public against adulteration and to obligate manufacturers to maintain legal
standard of fineness. Hallmark is a standard mark on gold jewellery. Presently, hallmarking in gold
jewellery comprises 3 markings namely the BIS Hallmark, Purity of Gold in carats & fineness and 6-digit
Alphanumeric HUID code.
Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID) number is given and governed by The Bureau of Indian Standards
(BIS), Ministry of Consumer Affairs. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.78) Sambranikodi, a mangrove-covered island, is located in which Ramsar site ?

(a) Karikili Bird Sanctuary
(b) Ashtamudi wetland
(c) Sasthamkotta lake
(d) Point calimere wildlife and bird sanctuary
EXPLANATION:
Currently, Sambranikodi is one of the most popular tourist attractions in Kollam district, Kerala. Situated
at the southern tip of Ashtamudi Lake, Sambranikodi is a picturesque village in the Ashtamudi backwaters
situated close to the Arabian Sea.
This mangrove-covered island is basically a platform created by dredged sand and stands nearly 400
meters off the coast. So, Option (b) is correct.

59
Q.79) With reference to the Interstellar Boundary Explorer, which of the following statements is/are
correct ?
1. It was sent to map the boundary where winds from the Sun interact with winds from other
stars.
2. It works in an orbit around the Earth.
3. The explorer will fully map the Heliosphere within 2025.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Recently, the IBEX spacecraft went into contingency mode after experiencing a flight computer reset
during a planned contact.
Interstellar Boundary Explorer (IBEX) is a small NASA spacecraft designed to map the boundary where
winds from the Sun interact with winds from other stars. The spacecraft is about the size of a bus tire,
and its instruments look towards the interstellar boundary while it is on its nine-day orbit around Earth.
IBEX's instruments gather particles called energetic neutral atoms or ENAs, high-energy particles
produced at the very edge of our solar system. The ENAs provide information about the solar system's
boundary by travelling toward Earth from beyond the orbit of Pluto. The particles travel for as little as a
month to up to 11 years to complete the journey. It was launched in 2008 and has already spent nearly
15 years in space. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The boundary of our solar system is created by the interaction between the interstellar medium and the
solar wind, which streams out of the Sun and carves out a protective bubble around the solar system
called the heliosphere. The heliosphere, which encompasses all the planets, separates the domain of our
Sun from that of interstellar space. The IBEX spacecraft fully mapped the heliosphere in its first year after
launch and gets entire-sky images every six months. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.80) Consider the following features :

1. It is located in the state of Odisha, adjoining Chattisgarh.
2. Chuktia Bhunjia tribes, one of the PVTGs, lives inside this sanctuary
3. It is located on a plateau 3,000 feet above sea level.
4. Strawberry harvest is done by farmers in the sanctuary.
Which of the following wildlife sanctuary is explained above ?
(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Karlapat
(c) Chinnar
(d) Sunabeda
EXPLANATION:
➢ The Sunabeda plateau is largely a grass-covered plateau 3,000 feet above sea level along the Odisha-
Chhattisgarh border. The Sunabeda wildlife sanctuary is in Nuapada district, Odisha adjoining Udanti
and Sitanadi Sanctuaries of Chhatisgarh State.
➢ The sanctuary houses canyons and 11 waterfalls apart from diverse wildlife. The strawberry harvest
is done by farmers who live in one of the 56 villages in the tropical deciduous forest of the Sunabeda
Wildlife Sanctuary. The sanctuary forms the catchment area of the Jonk, Sunder and Indra rivers.
➢ The Fauna species found here are Tigers, swamp deer, leopards, gaurs, sloth beer, barking deer,
common langur and rhesus monkeys and Birds species are vultures, hill mynah, patridge, and
peafowls.
➢ It forms a migration link for wild buffaloes across the two states of Odisha and Chhatisgarh. The
Chuktia Bhunjia tribes, who are one of 13 PVTGs found in Odisha lives inside the sanctuary. So,
Option (d) is correct.

60
Q.81) Which of the following organizations releases the “Methane Global Tracker” Report?
(a) UNEP
(b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(c) International Energy Agency
(d) UNFCCC
EXPLANATION:
Methane is responsible for 30% of the global warming happening on the earth. It is a greenhouse gas. The
potential of methane to warm the earth’s surface is 80 times higher than carbon dioxide. The NOAA of the
US says that atmospheric levels of methane increased to 17 parts per billion in 2021.
The Methane Global Tracker report is the annual report released by the International Energy Agency. The
report found that no effort has been taken by fossil fuel companies to bring down emissions. It revealed
that cheap and readily available technologies can help bring down methane emissions from the energy
sector by 75 per cent.
Key Findings of the Report :
➢ 40% of the methane emissions are from the energy sector.
➢ 260 billion cubic metres of natural gas is wasted through methane leaks every year.
➢ Fossil fuel companies are putting in very small efforts to tackle the problem.
➢ We have to reduce natural gas wastage by 75% to lower the global temperature.
So, Option (c) is correct.

Q.82) Consider the following statements :

1. Net primary productivity is the available biomass for consumption to heterotrophs.
2. Annual Net primary productivity of the ocean is higher than land since the ocean has more than
70% of the earth’s surface area.
3. In aquatic ecosystems, dissolved oxygen is the prime limiting factor for primary productivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Net primary productivity is the available biomass for consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and
decomposers). Net primary productivity is equal to the rate of organic matter created by photosynthesis
minus the rate of respiration and other losses.
Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R) is the net primary productivity (NPP).
NPP = GPP – R. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The annual net primary productivity of the entire biosphere is around 170 billion tonnes (dry weight) of
organic matter. Despite occupying approximately 70% of the surface, the oceans' productivity is only 55
billion tonnes. Thus, the Annual net primary productivity of land is higher than the ocean. So, Statement
2 is not correct.
Light is the key limiting factor for productivity in aquatic ecosystems since plants and algae cannot grow
in the absence of light, which decreases with increasing water depth. In Aquatic ecosystems, productivity
in decreasing manner is 1. Estuaries (most productive), 2. Lakes and streams, 3. The continental shelf, 4.
Open ocean (least productive).
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.83) Which of the following sectors is/are covered under Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme ?
1. Thermal power plants
2. Cement industry
3. Pulp and paper

61
 4. Textile
5. Petroleum refineries
6. Iron & Steel
7. Commercial buildings - Hotels
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
EXPLANATION:
India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was launched in 2008 to tackle rising energy
consumption and carbon emissions. It included eight national missions, including the National Mission
for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE), which was overseen by the Ministry of Power and Bureau of
Energy Efficiency. The NMEEE introduced a competitive mechanism called 'Perform, Achieve and Trade'
(PAT) to reduce energy use in large industries.
The government selects industries and limits their energy consumption for a period of three years through
the PAT scheme. These industries are called designated consumers (DC) and can earn Energy Savings
certificates (ESCerts) if they exceed their targets. ESCerts can be traded with industries that do not meet
their targets.
PAT scheme covered about 13 energy-intensive sectors : Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Cement, Aluminium,
Iron and Steel, Pulp and Paper, Fertiliser, Chlor-Alkali, Petroleum Refineries, Petrochemicals, and
distribution companies, Railways, Textile and Commercial buildings (hotels and airports). So, Option (d)
is correct.

Q.84) With reference to Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs), consider the following statements :
1. It is a man-made organic chemical have no known taste or smell.
2. It was used in the manufacture of electrical equipment & heat exchangers.
3. Parties to the Stockholm Convention should ban Polychlorinated Biphenyl(PCBs) by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) are a group of man-made organic chemicals consisting of carbon,
hydrogen and chlorine atoms. The number of chlorine atoms and their location in a PCB molecule
determine many of its physical and chemical properties.
PCBs are manufactured as oily liquids or solids and range from colorless to light yellow in colour. They
have no known smell or taste. So, Statement 1 is correct.
PCBs are flame retardant, chemically stable, have a high boiling point and possess electrical insulating
properties; they have been used in hundreds of industrial and commercial applications. PCBs were used
as coolants and lubricants in electrical, heat transfer and hydraulic equipment; as plasticizers that
provided flexibility in paints, plastics, caulking, and rubber products; in pigments, dyes and carbonless
copy paper; and for many other applications. So, Statement 2 is correct.
PCB is harmful to humans and animals, causing reproductive impairment and immune system
dysfunctions. PCB are listed in Annex A to the Stockholm Convention. The production and new uses of
PCB are banned, and Parties to the Stockholm Convention must eliminate the use of PCB in equipment
by 2025 and to ensure the environmentally sound waste management of liquids containing PCB and
equipment contaminated with PCB by 2028. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

62
Q.85) With reference to ‘Stockholm+50’ meeting, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(a) It will commemorate the 50 years of the United Nations (UN) Conference on the Human
Environment.
(b) The theme of the meeting is ‘A healthy planet for the prosperity of all — our responsibility, our
opportunity’.
(c) Sweden hosted Stockholm+50 with the support of Egypt.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
EXPLANATION:
The United Nations Conference on the Environment 1972 is also known as the Stockholm Conference. It
was the first world conference to make the environment a major issue. The conference aimed at creating
a common governance framework for the planetary environment and natural resources.
Stockholm+50 is being held in Stockholm, Sweden. It will commemorate the 50 years since the 1972
United Nations (UN) Conference on the Human Environment. It is a major international environmental
meeting held from 2-3 June 2022 in Stockholm, Sweden, in the lead-up to World Environment Day. This
high-level meeting will accelerate a transformation that leads to sustainable and green economies, more
jobs, and a healthy planet for all—where no one is left behind. So, Option (a) is correct.
The theme of the Stockholm+50 meeting is “Stockholm+50: a healthy planet for the prosperity of all – our
responsibility, our opportunity”. Stockholm+50 will raise awareness about the importance of protecting
our planet. It will articulate a path for us to build back after the COVID-19 pandemic while overcoming
the climate change crisis, nature and biodiversity loss, and pollution and waste.
So, Option (b) is correct.
Stockholm+50 was convened by the United Nations and hosted by the Government of Sweden with support
from the Government of Kenya. So, Option (c) is not correct.

Q.86) The notion of kingship projected by the Kushana rulers is evidenced through which of the following?
1. Coins
2. Sculpture
3. Identification with deities
4. Patronage to religion
5. Construction of magnificent temples
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
The Kushanas (first century BCE to first century CE), governed a realm that stretched from the
Aral Sea through present-day Uzbekistan, Afghanistan, and Pakistan into northern India at its
peak. The notions of kingship they wished to project are perhaps best evidenced in their coins
and sculpture
The Kushana empire produced a large number of coins featuring the images of their rulers,
which provide valuable insights into their notions of kingship.
The first gold coins were issued first century CE by the Kushanas. These were virtually identical
in weight with those issued by contemporary Roman emperors and the Parthian rulers of Iran,
and have been found from several sites in north India and Central Asia. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
The period saw the flowering of visual arts including small terracotta images, larger stone
sculptures and architectural monuments like the caitya hall at Bhaja, the stupa at Bharhut and
the Great Stupa at Sanchi. Colossal statues of Kushana rulers have been found installed in a

63
 shrine at Mathura (Uttar Pradesh). Similar statues have been found in a shrine in Afghanistan
as well. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Kushanas demonstrated a method of asserting their high social status by associating
themselves with multiple gods and goddesses.
According to some historians, it indicates that these rulers thought of themselves as God. Many
rulers also assumed the title of Devaputra which means the ‘Son of God’. It is said that they were
inspired by the Chinese leaders who called himself the ‘Son of Heaven’.
So, Statement 3 is correct.
The Kushans in general were also great patrons of Buddhism, with the Kushans came the golden
age of Buddhism in Kashmir. Most important, the great Kushan ruler Kanishka held the Fourth
Buddhist Council at Harwan near Srinagar in the first century A.D. Representation of the
Buddha as Boddo is a significant addition to the repertoire of deities depicted on Kanishka’s
coins. The Buddha is depicted on the coinage in the same way as the gods such as Siva, Mithra,
Ahurmazda etc. By placing the Buddha on a coin, Kanishka has equated his position with that
of deities, and thereby implied for himself a divine role. The Buddha images used on Kanishka’s
coins show that his adherence to Buddhism was a close reflection of the cults prevailing in his
realm.
Chaityas, viharas and stupas were built all across the valley. While the Kushans made significant
contributions to the Gandhara art in the Indian subcontinent, there is insufficient evidence to
suggest that they built grand temples for the purpose of asserting their royal status.
So, Statement 4 is correct.
The beginning of the construction of temples is traced not to the Kushana period but during the
Gupta period which came after the Kushan period. So, Statement 5 is not correct.

Q.87) With reference to the Maratha navy, consider the following statements :
1. Chhatrapati Shivaji set up the Maratha navy before his coronation at Raigarh.
2. Kanhoji Angre, the famous commander of the Maratha navy, hired Portuguese deserters to
modernize his fleet.
3. The Gurab ships, which were bigger in size compared to Gallivat ships, were built to operate in
shallow water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
On 6 June, 1674, at a moment pronounced auspicious by the priests, Shivaji was enthroned at
Raigad. Shivaji set up the Maratha navy in 1659.
At the time of his coronation, Shivaji had 57 major ships of war (excluding smaller craft) with a total
fighting strength of over 5,000 men. Five years later, there were 66 major ships. Even his expedition to
Karwar and Ankola nine years earlier had been mounted with 85 assorted gallivats, each ranging from 30
to 150 tons, and three three-masted ghurabs, with a total fighting strength of 4,000 men – a formidable
force even by today’s standards. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The fortress of Colaba became the home and headquarters of successive generations of the hereditary
naval chiefs of the Maratha Kings, the Angreys. In later years, the family came to be known as the ‘Angreys
of Colaba’. Kanhoji Angria (Angre) was the commander of the Maratha Navy, and is famous for taking on
the might of the seafaring colonial powers that were trying to find their foothold in India in the early 18th
century. The shipwrights of Konkan constructed the Maratha ships. For modernizing his fleet, Kanhoji

64
 hired Portuguese deserters. John Plantain a pirate from Jamaica got tired of his trade and decided to settle
in India. He took service with Kanhoji. Another Dutch man became a Commodore in Angria’s service.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
In 1699, Kanhoji’s fleet was composed of ten gurabs/grabs (warship) and fifty gallivats (warboat). Some of
the grabs were of 400 tonnes each. The grabs had two to three masts. They were built to operate in shallow
water. The grab was very broad in proportion to length, narrowing from the middle to the end where
instead of bows, they had prows, projecting like those of a Mediterranean galley. The gallivats were smaller
ships. Each gallivat of 120 tonnes had 6 guns and 60 armed men. Some of the crews were armed with
muskets. Each gallivat had about 50 oars and they could attain a speed of four miles an hour.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.88) In the context of Medieval History, consider the following pairs :

Terms Related to
1. Balutedar - Village servants and artisans
2. Mirasdar - Proprietary peasants
3. Ijaradari - Revenue farming
4. Mulgujar - Village headman
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
EXPLANATION:
Bara Balutedar were hereditary village servants. They are of two kinds, those useful to Government, and
those useful to the community. The village servants useful to Government are the Mahars and the
Ramosh's (Ramosis). They are remunerated by watans. So, Pair 1 is correct.
Mirasdar was an important landed class in Eastern India. Proprietary peasants called mirasdars or
thalkari or thalvaik. Therefore, a mirasdar held proprietary rights on his miras lands. Usually mirasdars
and their kin groups were the original settlers of the village. Even the state could not infringe upon the
mirasi rights. So, Pair 2 is correct.
In the first half of the 18th century, novel political groups surfaced in the subcontinent. The "revenue
farmers" or ijaradars, consented to pay a predetermined amount of money to the state, which was assured
by local bankers. Consequently, these farmers enjoyed significant autonomy in evaluating and gathering
taxes, leading to the emergence of new social groups such as moneylenders and bankers who could impact
the management of the state's revenue system. So, Pair 3 is correct.
Apart from Bengal, the ownership of land was given directly to the farmers in the rest of the country upon
the payment of fixed revenue called malguzari system in which the Malguzar (Mulgujar) was merely a
revenue farmer. If they failed, their land had to be mortgaged or sold to pay the dues. Village officers such
as the headman or patil and muqaddam, accountant or Kulkarni. So, Pair 4 is not correct.

Q.89) Agriculture markets in most states are regulated by the Agriculture Produce Marketing Committees
(APMCs) established by the state governments. Which among the following feature is not related to
the functioning of APMCs in India ?
(a) Regulate the trade of farmers' produce by providing licenses to buyers, commission agents and
private markets
(b) Levy market fees or any other charges on trade
(c) Provide necessary infrastructure within their markets to facilitate trade
(d) Organization of traders and commission agents into associations

65
EXPLANATION:
An Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is a marketing board established by state governments
in India to ensure farmers are safeguarded from exploitation by large retailers and ensure the farm-to-
retail price spread does not reach excessively high levels. APMCs are regulated by states by adopting the
Agriculture Produce Marketing Regulation (APMR) Act.
APMC OBJECTIVES:
➢ Providing a sound environment for the normal functioning of demand and supply forces.
➢ Ensuring reasonable profit margins for growers or farmers.
➢ Prevent market malpractices by Regulating the trade of farmers' produce by providing licenses to
buyers, commission agents and private markets. So, option (a) is correct.
➢ Promotion of market competition
➢ Providing facilities necessary for proper infrastructure. So, option (c) is correct.
➢ Ensuring that transactions are conducted in a transparent manner
APMC RESPONSIBILITIES AND FUNCTIONS:
➢ Focus on providing complete transparency in the pricing system
➢ Ensuring payment for the agricultural produce that is sold by the farmers on the same day
➢ Promotion of public-private partnership in the management of agricultural markets
➢ Promotion of agricultural processing, apart from activities for value addition in the agricultural
products.
➢ Publicizing data regarding arrivals of agricultural produce in addition to their rates, brought for
sale in the market area.
Appointing the chief executive officer of the market committee amongst the professionals chosen from the
open market.
APMC facilitates trade settlements and any dispute regarding produce quality that emerges after the
delivery is between the trader and buyer/seller once the trade settlement gets accomplished. The
organization of traders and commission agents into associations is not a part of the function. So, option
(d) is not correct.
The governance of the APMCs, the mandis are managed by a board of director, which is under the
supervision of the state marketing board or mandi board. The elected directors are generally
representatives of the farmers but they are sometimes nominated the state governments. The operation
and market administration done on a day-to-day basis are managed by the board with a nominal fee or
cess it collects from the market participants. Thus, Levy market fees or any other charges on trade ate a
part of their function. So, option (b) is correct.

Q.90) With respect to Sun temples in India, consider the following pairs :
Sun temples in India Located in
1. Martand Sun temple - Ladakh
2. Modhera Sun temple - Gujarat
3. Arasavalli Sun temple - Telangana
4. Dakshinaarka Sun temple - Bihar
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
EXPLANATION:
The Martand Sun Temple is an ancient Hindu temple located in the Anantnag district of Jammu and
Kashmir, India. The temple was built by the Karkota Dynasty in the 8th century AD, and it is dedicated
to Surya, the Hindu sun god. The temple is known for its beautiful architecture and its unique location

66
 on top of a plateau overlooking the Kashmir Valley. The temple complex consists of a central shrine,
surrounded by a colonnaded courtyard with 84 pillars. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
The Modhera Sun Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to the Sun God, located in the village of Modhera
in Gujarat, India. It was built in the 11th century during the reign of King Bhimdev I of the Solanki
dynasty. The Sun Temple, Modhera dedicated to Surya dev (The Sun God), is one of the remarkable gems
of temple architecture in India and the pride of Gujarat. This temple impresses not only with its
architectural structure and technological achievements as in position of the temple against to Sun; but
also in particular with its sculpture decoration, representing true artistic mastery. It is an exemplary
model of Maru-gurjara architecture style. So, Pair 2 is correct.
The Arasavalli Sun Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to the Sun God located in Arasavalli, a village in
the Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh, India. Archeological experts say that the stone inscriptions
available in the temple throw some light to the effect that Devendra Varma, the Ruler of the Kalinga
Kingdom, must have build this temple and installed the image of the Sun God in it in the later half of the
7th Century. So, Pair 3 is not correct.
The Dakshinaarka Sun Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to the worship of Lord Surya (the Sun God)
at Gaya in the state of Bihar. The Sun Temple at Gaya faces east and is located close to the famous
Vishnupaada temple where a footprint of Vishnu is said to be enshrined. To the east of the temple is the
tank Surya Kunda. The temple is a simple and plain one, with a dome over it. The comparatively larger
sabha mandapa stands in front of the sanctum. Massive pillars line the mandapa where there are graceful
stone sculptures of Shiva, Bhramaa, Vishnu, Surya and Durga. There are two other notable Sun temples
at Gaya, namely the Uttaraka temple near the Uttara Maanas tank and the Gayaditya temple on the river
Falgu. So, Pair 4 is correct.

Q.91) Consider the following features :

1. It involves combining Brahmanical rituals with Buddhist philosophies.
2. They believe the mantra is an easy path to achieving Buddhahood without difficulties.
3. Their main deity is Tara, a feminine counterpart of Bodhisattva Avalokiteshvara.
4. It is followed in regions like Mongolia, Tibet, Bhutan, etc.
Which of the following major school of Buddhism is explained above ?
(a) Navayana Buddhism
(b) Mahayana Buddhism
(c) Theravada Buddhism
(d) Vajrayana Buddhism
EXPLANATION:
Navayana Buddhism is a modern Buddhist movement in India that seeks to reinterpret and reformulate
traditional Buddhist teachings and practices to address the needs and concerns of contemporary Indian
society. It was founded by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, a prominent Indian social reformer and political leader,
who saw Buddhism as a means of liberation and empowerment for the oppressed and marginalized
communities in India. So, Option (a) is not correct.
Mahayana Buddhism is one of the two major branches of Buddhism, along with Theravada Buddhism. It
emerged in India around the 1st century BCE and spread to other parts of Asia, including China, Korea,
Japan, and Vietnam. Mahayana Buddhism emphasizes the role of compassion and the possibility of
achieving enlightenment not just for oneself, but for all sentient beings. It also includes the worship of
bodhisattvas, enlightened beings who vow to remain in the cycle of rebirth to help others achieve
enlightenment. So, Option (b) is not correct.
Theravada Buddhism is the oldest surviving branch of Buddhism, and it is primarily practiced in Sri
Lanka, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, and Laos. It is also known as the "Teaching of the Elders" and
emphasizes the importance of individual liberation from suffering through the practice of the Eightfold
Path and the Four Noble Truths. Theravada Buddhism also places great emphasis on the monastic life
and the study of the Pali Canon, the oldest collection of Buddhist scriptures. The Theravada school is

67
 sometimes referred to as Hinayana (“little vehicle”) by Mahayana Buddhists, but it should be noted that
this is considered an insult by Theravada Buddhists in that it suggests their school is not as important
as Mahayana. So, Option (c) is not correct.
Vajrayana Buddhism, also known as Tantric Buddhism, is a form of Buddhism that emerged in India
around the 6th century CE and is primarily practiced in Tibet, Bhutan, and parts of Nepal and Mongolia.
It emphasizes the use of tantric practices, including visualization, meditation, and ritual, to attain
enlightenment. It involves combining Brahmanical rituals with Buddhist philosophies. Vajrayana
Buddhism also incorporates the worship of deities, including various forms of the Buddha and other divine
beings like Tara, a feminine counterpart of Bodhisattva Avalokiteshvara. So, Option (d) is correct.

Q.92) With reference to the Coriolis force, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The Coriolis force will vanish if the Earth stops rotating around its axis.
2. The pressure gradient force is a force that arises due to differences in air pressure, and it causes
air to flow from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas.
3. The Coriolis force and the pressure gradient force act in the same direction and reinforce each
other.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
EXPLANATION:
The rotation of the Earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis
force after the French physicist described it in 1844. It deflects the wind to the right direction in the
northern hemisphere and the left in the southern hemisphere. It is maximum at the poles and is absent
at the equator.
If the Earth stops rotating around its axis, the Coriolis force will disappear because it is generated due to
the Earth's rotation about its axis and affects the direction of the winds. As a result, objects would no
longer be deflected by this force and would move in straight lines according to the other forces acting upon
them, such as gravity and friction.
So, Statement 1 is correct.

The pressure gradient force is a force that arises due to differences in air pressure, and it causes air to
flow from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas. The pressure gradient force is responsible for the
development of winds and the movement of air masses.
The pressure gradient is the rate of change of pressure with respect to distance. The pressure gradient is
strong, where the isobars are close to each other and weak where the isobars are apart. The higher the
pressure gradient force, the more the wind's velocity and the larger the deflection in the direction of the
wind.
The pressure decreases with height. At any elevation, it varies from place to place, and its variation is the
primary cause of air motion, i.e., wind which moves from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force. The pressure gradient force is
perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of the wind
and the larger is the deflection in the direction of the wind.
As a result of these two forces operating perpendicular to each other in low-pressure areas, the wind blows
around it. Thus, the Coriolis force and the pressure gradient force do not act in the same direction and do
not reinforce each other. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

68
Q.93) Consider the following pairs :
1. Bale Hills - Ethiopia
2. Fergana Valley - Uzbekistan
3. Karabakh Region - Azerbaijan
4. Gaza Strip - Israel
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one Pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
EXPLANATION:
The Bale Mountains National Park (BMNP) is a protected area of approximately 2,200 km2 and is located
400 km southeast of Addis Ababa in Oromia National Regional State in south-eastern Ethiopia. The BMNP
covers Africa's largest area higher than 3000m above sea level (asl). Its high mountains, sweeping valleys,
dramatic escarpment and wide expanses of forests provide visitors with a quarter of mammals and 6% of
birds in the area being Ethiopian endemics. So, Pair (1) is correct.
The Fergana Valley in Central Asia lies mainly in eastern Uzbekistan but also extends into
southern Kyrgyzstan and northern Tajikistan. The Fergana Valley is one of the most densely populated
areas of Central Asia and is a major producer of cotton, fruit, and raw silk. Among the mineral deposits
that are exploited are coal, oil, mercury, antimony, and ozocerite. So, Pair (2) is correct.
Karabakh is a geographic region in present-day southwestern Azerbaijan and eastern Armenia, extending
from the highlands of the Lesser Caucasus down to the lowlands between the rivers Kura and Aras. The
landlocked mountainous region of Nagorno-Karabakh is the subject of an unresolved dispute between
Azerbaijan, in which it lies, and its ethnic Armenian majority, backed by neighboring Armenia. So, Pair
(3) is correct.
The Gaza Strip has been under the de facto governing authority of the Islamic Resistance Movement
(HAMAS) since 2007 and has faced years of conflict, poverty, and humanitarian crises. The Gaza Strip is
an entirely artificial creation that emerged in 1948 when roughly three-fourths of Palestine's Arab
population was displaced, in some cases expelled, during the course of Israel's creation. So, Pair (4) is
correct.

Q.94) With reference to the Active Galactic nucleus (AGN) in our universe, consider the following
statements :
1. These are the most luminous objects in the universe.
2. They emit radiation across the entire electromagnetic spectrum.
3. Of all the types of AGN, Seyfert galaxies are the most massive compared to Quasars and Blazers.
69
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
An active galactic nucleus, or AGN, is an extremely bright central region of a galaxy that is dominated by
the light emitted by dust and gas as it falls into a black hole. AGN, are now understood to be active
supermassive black holes at the center of galaxies that are emitting jets and winds. Astronomers define
the luminosity of an object as the total amount of energy emitted at all wavelengths.
➢ AGNs are the most luminous persistent sources of electromagnetic radiation in the Universe. This
means they can be used to discover distant objects.
➢ Active galaxies often have a nucleus which is much brighter than the nucleus of a normal galaxy.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
The extremely luminous central region is emitting so much radiation that it can outshine the rest of the
galaxy altogether. AGNs emit radiation across the entire electromagnetic spectrum, from radio waves to
gamma rays. This radiation is produced by the action of a central supermassive black hole that is
devouring material that gets too close to it. A galaxy hosting an AGN is called an 'active galaxy'.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
A galaxy hosting an AGN is called an 'active galaxy'. Some different types of active galaxies are: Radio
Galaxies, Seyfert Galaxies, BL Lac Objects (also known as Blazars), and Quasars.
Seyfert Galaxies
• Seyfert Galaxies are spiral galaxies with an unusually bright nucleus.
• The nucleus is much bluer than a normal nucleus.
• Emission lines are present, showing that very hot ionized gas is present.
• The gas in the central region orbits the center very rapidly.
• The luminosity of the nucleus changes rapidly over the course of days and weeks.
• A Seyfert galaxy is an example of a galaxy with an active nucleus.
Seyfert-galaxies are of two types (Seyfert I and Seyfert II) – They are AGN, as Quasars, but with a less
massive black hole at the center. Thus, Seyfert galaxies are not the most massive compared to Quasars
and Blazers. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

70
Q.95) Consider the following statements about Bats :
1. Relative to their body size, bats are a mammalian species that have longer lifespans than
humans.
2. Bat guano/ feces contain high levels of nitrogen and phosphorus that help in soil fertilization.
3. The presence of NLRP3 proteins in bats which increases their inflammation helps them
unaffected by viruses or bacteria.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Bats are the longest-living mammals relative to body size, and a species called the greater mouse-eared
bat lives especially long. Only 19 mammal species are longer-lived than humans relative to body size.
Eighteen of them are bats, some living more than four decades. The other is a weird African rodent called
a naked mole rat. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Bat guano can be safely used as a fertilizer, both indoors and outdoors, and will benefit vegetables, herbs,
flowers, all ornamentals, and fruit and nut trees. Its primary ingredients are roughly 10% nitrogen, 3%
phosphorous, and 1% potassium. The high nitrogen content is responsible for plants’ healthy green color
and their rapid growth after application. Phosphorous promotes root growth and flowering, and potassium
encourages strong stems. Besides these three major nutrients, guano contains all of the minor and trace
elements necessary for a plant’s overall health. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Bats are natural hosts for numerous viruses, including Ebola, Nipah, and coronaviruses such as severe
acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) and Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS).
Bats can harbour these viruses without getting affected because bats can avoid excessive virus-induced
inflammation, which often causes severe diseases in animals and people infected with viruses.
The researchers found that significantly reduced inflammation in bats was because activation of an
important protein — NLRP3 — that recognizes both cellular stress and viral/bacterial infections was
significantly dampened in bat immune cells. Thus NLRP3 proteins in bats reduce their inflammation and
help them unaffected by viruses or bacteria. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.96) Which of the following statement best describes the term ‘Palaeogenomics’ ?
(a) It is the genomic analysis of microorganisms by directly extracting and cloning of DNA from an
assemblage of microorganisms.
(b) It is to analysis that involves reconstructing the evolutionary histories of organisms taking into
account whole genomes or large fractions of genomes.
(c) It is the genomic analysis of reconstructing and analyzing the genomes of organisms that
are not alive in the present day.
(d) It analyses various forensic samples, such as old bones, teeth and hair, and other biological
samples with low DNA content.
EXPLANATION:
Palaeogenomics is the science of reconstructing and analyzing the genomes of organisms that are not alive
in the present day. Hominins are a group of primates that includes modern humans and their extinct
ancestors. By analyzing the DNA extracted from ancient hominin remains, scientists can learn more about
their genetic makeup, evolution, and relationships to other species.
Pääbo's lab discovered a new hominin species called Denisova by analyzing a 40,000-year-old finger bone
from a Siberian cave. This was the first time a new species was discovered through DNA analysis and it
had interbred with humans. DNA is a molecule that carries genetic information, while genome is the
complete set of genetic information encoded in an organism's DNA. The study of ancient DNA provides
an independent way to test theories of evolution and the relatedness of population groups. DNA is

71
 concentrated in two different compartments within the cell: the nucleus and mitochondria, the latter
being the powerhouse of the cell. Nuclear DNA stores most of the genetic information, while the much
smaller mitochondrial genome is present in thousands of copies and therefore more retrievable. So,
Option (c) is correct.

Q.97) Consider the following statements with reference to Dhara Mustard Hybrid (DHM-11) :
1. DMH-11 is a transgenic mustard which is a herbicide-tolerant mustard variety that has
undergone genetic modification.
2. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee has recently approved the commercial production
of genetically modified DMH-11.
3. In India, GM crops are regulated only under Environment Protection Act 1986 and the Food
Safety and Standards Act 2006.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
DMH-11 is a hybrid variant of mustard developed by researchers at The Centre for Genetic Manipulation
of Crop Plants, at the University of Delhi. DMH-11 is an indigenously developed transgenic crop because
it uses foreign genes from a different species. It is an Herbicide Tolerant (HT) mustard variety that has
undergone genetic modification.
DMH-11 is a result of a cross between two varieties: Varuna and Early Heera-2. Such a cross wouldn’t
have happened naturally and was done after introducing genes from two soil bacterium called barnase
and barstar. Barnase in Varuna induces a temporary sterility because of which it can’t naturally self-
pollinate. Barstar in Heera blocks the effect of barnase allowing seeds to be produced. The result is DMH-
11 (where 11 refers to the number of generations after which desirable traits manifest) that not only has
better yield but is also fertile. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Government has approved the environmental release of Genetically Modified (GM) Mustard hybrid
DMH-11 and its parental lines during 147th meeting of Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
on 18 October, 2022 for its seed production and testing as per existing ICAR guidelines, conditions
imposed by the GEAC while recommending the environmental release of GM mustard hybrid DMH-11 and
its parental lines; and other extant rules/regulations prior to commercial release.
GM mustard has not been released for commercial cultivation yet. The approval for environmental release
is limited for four years during which it will undergo several post-environmental-release tests (e.g.,
performance comparison with currently available non-GM variants, effect on honeybees and pollinators).
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Acts and rules that regulate GM crops in India include:
➢ Environment Protection Act, 1986 (EPA)
➢ Biological Diversity Act, 2002
➢ Plant Quarantine Order, 2003
➢ GM policy under Foreign Trade Policy
➢ Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
➢ Drugs and Cosmetics Rule (8th Amendment), 1988
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.98) Consider the following statements with reference to Flexi Fuel Vehicle (FFV) :
1. FFVs are capable of running on 100 percent ethanol or 100 percent petrol, or a combination of
both.
2. FFVs will help the government meet its commitments in reducing emissions.

72
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Flex fuel vehicles (FFV) are capable of running on 100 per cent petrol or 100 per cent bio-ethanol or a
combination of both. Bio-ethanol contains less energy per litre than petrol but the calorific value (energy
contained in the fuel) of bio-ethanol will become on par with petrol with use of advanced technology.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Last year (FY21), India’s oil import bill stood at $62.7 billion which was matched in just the first seven
months (April-October) of this year. To make matters worse, the rupee is at its weakest level in last three
financial years. The government is desperate to bring down the oil import bill by creating fuel substitutes
like ethanol, hydrogen and electricity. Even a push till the E20 level can result in savings of $4 billion per
annum, as per estimates. This is possible only if flex-fuel vehicles are made available in the market. Also,
FFVs will also help the government meet its commitments when it comes to reducing emission.
So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.99) With reference to “jumping genes” recently seen in the news, which of the statements given below
is not correct ?
(a) These are small pieces of foreign DNA that copy themselves throughout a genome and cause
disruption of genes.
(b) They are thought to be inherited only from parents to offspring.
(c) These elements are known to cause cancer and neurological disorders.
(d) These elements are mostly present in plants, animals and sporadically in fungi.
EXPLANATION:
Half of the human genome is made up of jumping genes called Transposable elements. The Transposable
elements (TEs) are also known as "jumping genes," these jumping genes are actually small pieces of DNA
that can copy themselves throughout a genome. TEs make up approximately 50% of the human genome
and up to 90% of the maize genome. They are also present in almost every type of organism, including
both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, and are usually found in significant quantities.
Scientists have found that cross-species transfers, even between plants and animals, have occurred
frequently throughout evolution. Both of the transposable elements they traced - L1 and BovB - entered
mammals as foreign DNA. L1 elements in humans have been associated with cancer and neurological
disorders. Understanding the inheritance of this element is important for understanding the evolution of
diseases. L1s are abundant in plants and animals, although only appearing sporadically in fungi. However,
the most surprising result was the lack of L1s in two key mammal species.
Jumping genes, properly called retrotransposons, copy and paste themselves around genomes, and in
genomes of other species. This process is called horizontal transfer, differing from the normal parent-
offspring transfer, and it's had an enormous impact on mammalian evolution. The widespread transfer of
genes between species has radically changed the genomes of today's mammals, and been an important
driver of evolution. So, Option (b) is not correct.

73
 (TEs). Their impact depends on where they land - if they land inside a gene, they can cause mutations and
lead to diseases such as hemophilia and colon cancer.

Q.100) Ribosomes are the organelles of a cell that help in protein synthesis. In this context, Ribosomes
are found within which of the following locations of a cell ?
1. Mitochondria
2. Plastids
3. Cytosol
4. Endoplasmic reticulum
5. Lysosomes
Select the correct answer from the code below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
Ribosomes are 'protein-synthesizing factories' scattered throughout the cytoplasm in both prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells. Each ribosome is a membrane-less cell organelle, first observed by George Palade in 1955
under an electron microscope.
➢ Within the cell, ribosomes are found in the cytoplasm and within the two organelles – chloroplasts (in
plants) and mitochondria and on rough Endoplasmic reticulum.
The mitochondrial ribosome, or mitoribosome, is a protein complex that is active in mitochondria and
functions as a riboprotein for translating mitochondrial mRNAs encoded in mtDNA.
The Mitoribosome is attached to the inner mitochondrial membrane. Several ribosomes may attach to a
single mRNA and form a chain called polyribosomes or polysome. The ribosomes of a polysome translate
the mRNA into proteins. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Plastids are found in all plant cells and in euglenoids. Based on the type of pigments, plastids can be
classified into chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts. The chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and
carotenoid pigments, which are responsible for trapping light energy essential for photosynthesis.
Plastids also contain small, double-stranded circular DNA molecules and ribosomes. The ribosomes of the
chloroplasts are smaller than the cytoplasmic ribosomes. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Cytosol is the liquid found inside cells. It is a water-based solution in which organelles, proteins, and
other cell structures float. The cytosol of any cell is a complex solution whose properties allow the functions
of life to take place. Cytosol contains proteins, amino acids, mRNA, ribosomes, sugars, ions, and
messenger molecules. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is an extensive network of membrane-enclosed tubules and cisternae
located near the nucleus and Golgi apparatus. The endoplasmic reticulum bearing ribosomes on its
surface is called the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). In the absence of ribosomes, they appear smooth
and are called smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER). So, Statement 4 is correct.
Lysosomesare membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the golgi
apparatus. The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic
enzymes (hydrolases – lipases, proteases, carbohydrases) optimally active at the acidic pH. These enzymes
are capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. Ribosomes are not found in
lysosomes. So, Statement 5 is not correct.

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