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Custom Practice Test 07 Jun

The document contains a custom practice test for physics, featuring various problems related to vectors, forces, and angles. It includes multiple-choice questions with calculations involving forces, vector components, and resultant magnitudes. The test is structured with numbered questions and options for answers, covering a range of physics concepts.

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shiva12092009
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
39 views26 pages

Custom Practice Test 07 Jun

The document contains a custom practice test for physics, featuring various problems related to vectors, forces, and angles. It includes multiple-choice questions with calculations involving forces, vector components, and resultant magnitudes. The test is structured with numbered questions and options for answers, covering a range of physics concepts.

Uploaded by

shiva12092009
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 26

Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

Physics 4. The angle between the force, F = 6^i + 2^j


and the displacement, d = 2^i + 6^j is:
1. The value of ∫ x=R GM m
dx is: 1. sin (0.3)
−1

x=∞ x2

1. GM m 2. sin (0.6)
−1

R
3. cos (0.3)
−1

2. 2GM m

R 4. cos (0.6)
−1

3.
−GM m

4.
−2GM m 5. Two forces of magnitude A and act A

2
R
perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of
2. The magnitudes of forces F→ ​ and F→ ​ are the resultant force is equal to:
A B

400 N and 300 N, respectively, as shown in the


A √5A
1. 2.
diagram. What is the magnitude of the net force 2 2

in each of the three given cases? 3A 5A


3. 4.
2 2

6. ∣

∣ ∣→∣ ∣
→ →∣ ∣
→ →

If ∣A ∣ ≠ ∣ B ∣ and ∣A × B ∣ = ∣A ⋅ B ∣ ,
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣

then:

In Case 1, the net force is 100 N; Case 2, 1. →

1. A ⊥ B

700 N; and Case 3, 500 N. → →


2. A
In Case 1, the net force is 700 N; Case 2, || B
2.
100 N; and Case 3, 500 N.

3. A is antiparallel to →
B
In Case 1, the net force is 350 N; Case 2,
3. → →
4. A is inclined to B at an angle of 45
50 N; and Case 3, 450 N.

In Case 1, the net force is 350 N; Case 2,


4.
50 N, and Case 3, 550 N.

3. A force of 20 N acts on a particle along a 7. Which of the following sets of forces cannot
direction, making an angle of 60 with the ∘

give zero resultant?


vertical. The component of the force along the (1) 3 N, 4 N, 5 N
vertical direction will be: (2) 9 N, 8 N, 7 N
1. 2 N 2. 5 N (3) 16 N, 2 N, 17 N
3. 10 N 4. 20 N (4) 30 N, 5 N, 24 N

8. The magnitude of the vector


î + î × ĵ + ( î × ĵ) × î + (( î × ĵ) × î ) × ĵ :
1. 1
2. √2
3. √3
4. 2

Page: 1
Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

9. A bird moves from point (1, -2) to (4, 2). If the 12. Three vectors A, → B→ and C→ each having
speed of the bird is 10 m/sec, then the velocity magnitude of 200 units, are inclined to the
vector of the bird is: x-axis at angles 45 , 135 and 315
∘ ∘ ∘

1. 5(ˆi − 2ˆj) respectively. They are added to get a resultant


→ . The magnitude of R
vector R → is:
2. 5(4 i + 2 j )
ˆ ˆ
1. 200√2 units 2. 200 units
3. 0. 6 i + 0. 8 j
ˆ ˆ
3. 300 units 4. zero
4. 6 i + 8 j
ˆ ˆ

10. Column I shows some vector equations that 13. A truck travelling due north with 20m/s turns
match Column II (in which the values of the towards west and travels at the same speed.
angles between A→ and B
→ are given). Then the change in velocity is -
Column I Column II (1) 40 m/s north-west
(2) 20√2 m/s north-west
(A) |A→ + B|
→ = |A→ − B|
→ (P) 45 ∘

(3) 40 m/s south-west


(B) |A→ × B|
→ = A→ ⋅ B
→ (Q) 30 ∘
(4) 20√2 m/s south-west
(C) A→ ⋅ B
→= AB
(R) 90

14. The following diagram represents three


2
vectors of equal magnitudes in a plane.
(D) |A→ × B|
→ = AB
(S) 60

Codes:
1. A → R, B → S, C → P, D → Q
2. A → P, B → Q, C → R, D → S
3. A → R, B → P, C → S, D → Q
4. A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R

What arrow best represents the direction of the


11. If the force on an object as a function of sum of three vectors?
displacement is F (x) = 3x + x, what is work
2
1. →
as a function of displacement w(x): 2. ←
(w = ∫ f ⋅ dx) Assume w(0) = 0 and force is in 3. ↑
the direction of the object's motion. 4. ↓
1.
3
3x 2
+ x
2

2. x +
2
3 x

3. 6x + 1
4. 3x + x 2

Page: 2
Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

15. 18.
If |A→ × B|
→ = → →
1 →
(A ⋅ B), then the value of If vectors A
^ ^
= cos ωt i + sin ωt j and
√3 →
→ → is: B = cos(
ωt

2
^
) i + sin(
ωt

2
^
)j are functions of
|A − B|

time. Then, at what value of t are they


1.
1/2
2 2
(A + B − AB)
orthogonal to one another?
AB
1/2
1. t = π


2. (A 2
+ B
2
− ) 2. t = π


√3
3. t = π

ω
1/2

3. (A 2
+ B
2
− AB√3)
4. t = 0

4. (A 2 2
1/2
19. Work done by a force (F ) in displacing a body
+ B + AB√3)
by dx is given by W=∫ F (x). dx. If the force is
given as a function of displacement (x) by
F (x) = (x − 2x + 1) N, then work done by
2

16. → → →
the force from x = 0 to x = 3 m is:
Given that C = A × B , then magnitude of
→ → → 1. 3 J
A ⋅ (A × B ) will be: 2. 6 J
→ C→|
1. |A|| → C→|
2. |B|| 3. 9 J
4. 21 J
3. |C→| 4. 0

20. → → → →
If a + b + c = 0 ;

17. Given below are two statements: then which of the following statements is
incorrect?
→ × →b
a →
The ratio = tan θ, where

(1) a ,

must each be a null
→ →b b and c
Assertion (A): a ⋅
vector.
θ is the angle between the vectors

→, →b.

a (2) The magnitude of a + b equals
→ × →b has the magnitude:

The a the magnitude of c .
→. →b has the (3) The magnitude of ä can never be greater
ab sin θ, and a

Reason (R): magnitude: ab cos θ, where θ is than the sum of the magnitudes of b and

c

the angle between the vectors → →


(4) ä must lie in the plane of and .
→, →b.
b c
a

21. Vectors A, → B→ and C → are such that


Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct → → → →
1. A ⋅ B = 0 and A ⋅ C = 0. Then the vector
explanation of (A).

parallel to A is:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A). 1. A→ × B → 2. B → + C→
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 3. B→ × C→ 4. B → and C→
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Page: 3
Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

22. If F→ = 2^i + ^j − k
^
and r→ = 3^i + 2^j − 2k,
^ 26. The y-component of a force acting in the xy-

then the scalar and vector products of F and r→ plane is 2√3 N. The x-component of the force
have the magnitudes, respectively, as: will be:
1. 5, √3
2. 4, √5
3. 10, √2
4. 10, 2

23. Which one of the following is not a vector


quantity?
1. Velocity
2. Weight 1. 2√3 N 2. 2 N
3. Electric charge
3. 3 N 4. 3√2 N
4. Electric field

24. → →
Six vectors a through f have the 27. If P→ × Q →=Q → × P→, the angle between P→
directions as indicated in the figure. Which of the → is θ (0 < θ < 360 ), then the value of θ
following statements may be true? and Q ∘ ∘

will be:
1. 30 ∘

2. 60 ∘

3. 90 ∘

4. 180 ∘

→ →
28. If ∣→ →∣ ∣→ →∣
v + v2 = v1 − v2 and

v1 and

v2 are
→ ∣ 1 ∣ ∣ ∣
1. b + c = −f
→ →
non-zero vectors, then:

2. d + c = f →
1. v is parallel to v
1

2
→ → →
→ →
3. d + e = f 2. v = v
1 2
→ → → →
4. b

+ e = f 3. v and v are mutually perpendicular
1 2
→ →
4. ∣∣ v ∣∣ = ∣∣ v ∣∣
1 2

25. Given that C→ = A→ + B → and C→ makes an


angle α with A→ andβwith B → . Which of the 29. Among the following, the vector quantity is
following options is correct? 1. Pressure
1. α cannot be less than β 2. Gravitation potential
2. α < β, if A < B 3. Stress
3. α < β, if A > B 4. Impulse
4. α < β, if A = B

Page: 4
Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

30. Three particles move along the three sides of 34. Consider east as positive x-axis, north as
a triangle ABC, starting from the three vertices positive y-axis and vertically upward direction as
simultaneously. Each covers one side of the z-axis. A helicopter first rises up to an altitude of
triangle and reaches the next vertex; all the 100 m than flies straight in north 500 m and then
particles reaching their destinations at the same suddenly takes a turn towards east and travels
time. Suppose that the particles move at 1000 m east. What is position vector of
constant velocities: v→ , v→ , v→ (see figure).
A B C helicopter. (Take starting point as origin)
(1) 1000 ˆ
i − 500
ˆ
j + 100
ˆ
k

(2) 1000 î + 500 ĵ − 100


ˆ
k

(3) 1000 ˆ
i + 500
ˆ
j + 100
ˆ
k

(4) −1000 ˆ
i + 500
ˆ
j + 100
ˆ
k

35. The sum and difference of two perpendicular


vectors of equal length are:
1. Perpendicular to each other and of equal
Then:
length
1. v→ + v→ = v→ 2. v→ − v→ = v→
A B C A B C 2. Perpendicular to each other and of different
→ lengths
3. v→ − v→ = 4. v→ + v→ + v→ = 0
v C
A B C
3. Of equal length and have an obtuse angle
A B
2

between them
4. Of equal length and have an acute angle
31. A = 4i + 4j − 4k and B = 3i + j + 4k, between them
then angle between vectors A and B is:
(1) 180° 36. Given the vectors
(2) 90°
(3) 45°
(4) 0°

32. A set of vectors taken in a given order gives a &


closed polygon. Then the resultant of these → → →
Find the angle between ( A − B ) & C
vectors is a
(1) scalar quantity
(A) θ = cos ( )
−1 2

(2) pseudovector √3

(3) unit vector (B) θ = cos ( )


−1
√3

(4) null vector 2

√2
(C) θ = cos ( )
−1

33. If the magnitude of the sum of two vectors is 3

equal to the magnitude of the difference (D) none of these


between the two vectors, the angle between
these vectors is?
1. 90

2. 45 ∘

3. 180 ∘

4. 0

Page: 5
Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

37. → → → 41. A particle moves from a point ( − 2^i + 5^j )


If A = B + C and the magnitudes of
→ → → to ( 4^j + 3k
^ ) when a force of ( 4^
i + 3^j ) N is
A, B, C are 5,4 and 3 units, then angle applied. How much work has been done by the
−−
−→ →
between A and C is force?
1. cos ( ) −1 3 1. 8 J 2. 11 J
3. 5 J 4. 2 J
5

2. cos ( ) −1 4

3. sin −1 3
(
4
)
42. Three forces acting at a point are
4. π
represented by the three sides of a triangle
2

−→ −
−→ −
−→
respectively. The force
ABC: AB, BC, CA
38. If the magnitude of the sum of two vectors is −
−→

equal to the magnitude of the difference of the represented by AB is reversed. The resultant is
two vectors, then the angle between these given by:
vectors is:
1. 0 ∘

2. 45 ∘

3. 90 ∘

4. 180 ∘

39. →
A is a vector with magnitude A, then the −
−→ −
−→ −
−→
→ 1. BA
2. BC + CA
unit vector A^ in the direction of A is: −
−→ −
−→ −
−→

−→ −
−→
→ 3. (BC − CA) 4. BC + CA − AB
1. AA
→ →
2. A ⋅ A

3. A

× A

43. Let α, β, γ be distinct real numbers.
→ The points with position vectors
4. A

A
ˆ ˆ ˆ
α i + β j + γk ,
ˆ ˆ ˆ
β i + γ j + αk ,
ˆ ˆ
γ i + αj + β

(1) are collinear


40. Two vectors A→ and B
→ are acting at an angle θ (2) from an equilateral triangle
on an object. If the magnitude of their vector (3) form an isosceles triangle
product is √3 times their scalar product, the (4) from a right angled triangle
angle θ between them is:
1. 30 ∘

2. 45 ∘

3. 60 ∘

4. 90 ∘

Page: 6
Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

44. → 48. 4.74 g of an inorganic compound contains


The x and y components of vector A are 4m
0.39g of K, 0.27 g of Al, 1.92 g of SO radicals
and 6m respectively. The x, y components of 4

→ →
and 2.16 g of water. If molar mass of the
vector A + B are 10m and 9m respectively. The compound is 948 g mol , the molecular −1

length of B is ______ and angle that B makes formula of the inorganic compound is:
→ →

with the x axis is given by _______. 1. KAl(SO ) ⋅ 12H O 4 2 2

(A) √0. 45m, tan (1/2) −1 2. K Al (SO ) ⋅ 12H O


2 2 4 6 2

(B) √4. 5m, tan (1/2) −1 3. K SO ⋅ Al (SO ) ⋅ 24H O


2 4 2 4 3 2

(C) √45m, tan (1/2) −1 4. K SO ⋅ Al (SO ) ⋅ 12H O


2 6 2 4 3 2

(D) 4√5m, tan (1/2) −1

45. The position of a particle is given by 49. What is the approximate number of atoms
2
2t + 1
present in 4.25 grams of NH3?
s (t) = . Then, at , its velocity is:
t = 2
1. 4 x 1023
t + 1
ds 2. 2 x 1023
(vinst = )
dt 3. 1 x 1023
16 4. 6 x 1023
1.
3
15 50. 6.02 × 10 molecules of urea are present in
20

2.
9 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of urea
3.
15 solution is:
3 (Avogadro constant, N = 6.02 × 10 mol )
A
23 −1

4. None of these 1. 0.001 M


2. 0.01 M
Chemistry 3. 0.02 M
4. 0.1 M
46. The molarity of N aN O solution (molecular
3

weight of N aN O = 85) is 1M. The density of


3 51. One mole of carbon atom weights 12 g, the
the solution is 1.25 gm/ml. The molality of the number of atoms in it is equal to:
solution, approximately, will be: (Mass of carbon – 12 is 1. 9926 × 10 g)
−23

1. 0.80 1. 1. 2 × 10 23

2. 0.86 2. 6. 022 × 10 22

3. 0.96
3. 12 × 10 22

4. 1
4. 6. 022 × 10 23

47. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in


52. A metal M forms a compound M2HPO4. The
a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
and by how much? (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16) formula of the metal sulphate is:
1. M2SO4
1. Mg, 0.16 g 2. O , 0.16 g
2. MSO4
2

3. Mg, 0.44 g 4. O , 0.28 g


3. M(SO4)
2

4. M2(SO4)3

Page: 7
Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

53. What is the ratio of the number of molecules 58. Which of the following has the maximum
of oxygen to nitrogen in a specific gaseous mass?
mixture if their mass ratio is 1:4? 1. 0.1 gram molecule of oxygen.
1. 7:32 2. 1:8 2. 10 ml H O at STP
2

3. 3:16 4. 1:4 3. 3.01 × 10 molecules of H SO


22
2 4

4. 1 gram atom of hydrogen.

54. Three hydrochloric acid solutions, X, Y, and Z, 59. In an experiment, it showed that 10 mL of
with molarities of 0.07 M, 0.12 M, and 0.15 M, 0.05 M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1
respectively, are mixed to prepare 100 mL of a 0.1 M solution of AgNO3. Which of the following will
M solution. be the formula of the chloride (X stands for the
What volumes of X, Y, and Z should be used? symbol of the element other than chlorine)?
1. 50 mL, 25 mL, 25 mL 1. X2Cl2
2. 20 mL, 60 mL, 20 mL 2. XCl2
3. 40 mL, 30 mL, 30 mL 3. XCl4
4. 55 mL, 20 mL, 25 mL 4. X2Cl
55. The mass of ammonia in grams produced
60. The total number of neutrons present in 7 mg
when 2.8 kg of dinitrogen quantitatively reacts
with 1 kg of dihydrogen is: of 14C is:
1. 3600 g 2. 3000 g 1. 24.09×1022
3. 3400 g 4. 4000 g 2. 24.09×1020
3. 2.409×1023
4. 2.409×1019
56. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to
form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. If 0.1 mole of
61. Which of the following terms are unitless?
XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9(a) Molality
(b) Molarity
g, the atomic weight of X and Y respectively, will
be: (c) Mole fraction
1. 40, 30 (d) Mass per cent
2. 60, 40 Select the correct option:
3. 20, 30 1. (a), (b)
4. 30, 20 2. (b), (c)
3. (a), (b), (c)
57. 1.00 g of hydrated potassium carbonate, 4. (c), (d)
K2CO3•nH2O, is heated to 250 ºC to give 0.836
g anhydrous K2CO3. What is the value of n?
1. 0.16
2. 1.0
3. 1.5
4. 2.0

Page: 8
Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

62. 2.5 litre mixture of CO and CO2 is passed 67. The molarity of 40% N aOH (by mass) is:
through red hot charcoal in a tube. The new (d = 1.2 g/ml)
volume becomes 3.5 litre. All measurements are 1. 10 M
made at same temperature and pressure. 2. 12 M
Percentage composition of original mixture by 3. 5 M
volume will be: 4. 6 M
1. CO = 50%, CO2 = 50%
2. CO = 60%, CO2 = 40% 68. Which of the following contains the highest
mass?
3.CO = 40%, CO2 = 60%
1. 2.24 l SO gas at NTP
4.CO = 20%, CO2 = 80%
2

2. 0.4 mole NO gas 2

3. 3.01×1022 molecules of CO gas


63. What is the required mass of KClO₃ (molar 2

4. 5 gram Fe
mass = 122.5 g/mol) to prepare 200 mL of a
0.150 M solution?
69. The maximum number of water molecules
1. 2.73 g
among the following is:
2. 3.68 g 1. 18 mL of water
3. 27.3 g 2. 0.18 g of water
4. 164 g 3. 0.00224 L water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
4. 10-3 mol of water
64. What is the mass, in grams, of a single atom
of an element with an atomic mass of 10 atomic
mass units (u)? 70. The volume occupied by ten molecules of
1. 2.06056 × 10 g−22

water (density 1g cm-3 ) is:


2. 1.66056 × 10 g−23

1. 18 cm3 2. 22400 cm3


3. 1.06056 × 10 g−24

4. 3.66056 × 10 g−25 3. 6.023 × 10-23 cm3 4. 3.0 × 10-22 cm3

65. Minimum molecular mass of a polymer that


contains 0.7 % by mass of nitrogen will be: 71. Based on the provided equation, what volume
1. 1000 u of oxygen gas (at STP) is required for the
2. 2000 u complete combustion of 39 grams of liquid
3. 4000 u benzene?
4. 3000 u C H 6 +
6(l)O
15
⟶ 6CO
2 2(g) + 3H O 2(g) 2 (l)

1. 11.2 litre
66. Upon strong heating, what is the weight of 2. 22.4 litre
the residue produced by 2.76 gram silver 3. 84 litre
carbonate? Consider the following reaction for 4. 168 litre
reference:
Ag CO → 2Ag + CO + 1/2 O
2 3 2 2 72. 3 gm H reacts with 20 gm O to form H O.
2 2 2
1. 2.16 g The maximum mass of H O formed is: 2
2. 2.48 g 1. 27 gm
3. 2.32 g 2. 22.5 gm
4. 2.64 g 3. 18 gm
4. 9.0 gm

Page: 9
Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

73. Consider the given two statements: 76. The number of significant figures in the
When 100 ml of 1 M H2SO4 is numbers 5005, 500.0, and 126,000 are,
Assertion (A): mixed with 200 ml of 1 M NaOH, respectively:
the solution becomes neutral. 1. 2, 4, and 3
Moles of H2SO4 are equal to 2. 4, 1, and 3
Reason (R): 3. 4, 4, and 6
moles of NaOH. 4. 4, 4, and 3
Select the correct option:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 77. Calculate the total molarity of all the ions
1.
correct explanation of (A). present in a solution containing 0.1 M of CuSO₄
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the and 0.1 M of Al₂(SO₄)₃.
2.
correct explanation of (A). 1. 0.2M
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. 0.7M
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 3. 0.8M
4. 1.2M

74. Match the mass of elements given in Column 78. How many grams of KCl would need to be
I with the number of moles given in Column II dissolved in 60 g of H2O to yield a solution with a
and mark the appropriate choice: concentration of 40% by weight?
Column I Column II 1. 40 g
2. 20 g
(A) 28 g of He (i) 2 moles
3. 15 g
(B) 46 g of Na (ii) 7 moles 4. 10 g
(C) 60 g of Ca (iii) 1 mole
(D) 27 g of Al (iv) 1.5 moles 79. The number of electrons present in 9.5g of
PO
3−

4
are:
1. (A)→(iv), (B)→(iii), (C)→(ii), (D)→(i) 1. 6
2. (A)→(i), (B)→(iii), (C)→(ii), (D)→(iv) 2. 5N A
3. (A)→(iii), (B)→(ii), (C)→(i), (D)→(iv) 3. 0.1N A
4. (A)→(ii), (B)→(i), (C)→(iv), (D)→(iii) 4. 4.7N A

75. When a mixture containing HCl and H2SO4 80. The mass of a 2.5 mL solution (the density of
weighing 0.1 g undergoes treatment with an the solution is 2.15 g/mL) in the correct
excess of AgNO3 solution, resulting in the significant figures is:
formation of 0.1435 g of AgCl, what is the weight 1. 5375 × 10–3 g 2. 5.4 g
percentage of H2SO4 in the mixture? 3. 5.38 g 4. 53.75 g
1. 36.5
2. 63.5
3. 50
4. None of the above

Page: 10
Custom Practice Test - 07-Jun Contact Number: 8527521718

81. Determine the percent yield of ammonia in 85. A chemist needs 800.0 mL of a 0.50 M
the following reaction, where 0.25 mol of NH3 is bromide ion, Br solution. She has 800.0 mL of

produced from the reaction of 0.5 mol of N2 with a 0.20 M KBr solution. How many moles of solid
0.5 mol of H2​.N ( g) + 3H ( g) → 2NH ( g)
2 2 3
MgBr
2
will she need to add to increase the
1. 75% 2. 50% concentration to the desired value?
1. 0.24
3. 33% 4. 25% 2. 0.50
3. 0.30
4. 0.12
82. Match List-I with List-II:
List-II 86. 1 liter of N₂ gas combines with 3 liters of H₂
List-I
(Corresponding gas to produce 2 liters of NH₃ gas under identical
(Quantities)
Values) conditions. Which gas law or principle does this
4.48 litres of O2 at reaction illustrate?
(a) (i) 0.2 mole
STP 1. Law of constant composition
22 23 2. Law of multiple proportions
(b) 12.022 × 10 (ii) 12.044 × 10 3. Law of reciprocal proportions
molecules of H2O molecules
4. Gay-Lussac's law of gaseous volumes
(c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g
(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP 87. 6.023 × 1022 molecules are present in 10 g of
(Given - Molar volume of a gas at STP - 22.4 L) substance ‘x’. The molarity of a solution
Choose the correct answer from the options containing 5 g of substance ‘x’ in 2L solution is:
given below: 1. 0.00025 2. 2.5
(a) (b) (c) (d) 3. 0.025 4. 25
1. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 88. Which of the following molecules has the
empirical formula CH O?
4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 2

1. CH CHO
3

2. HO − CH − CH − OH
2 2

83. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in COOH

100 mL of its solution. The concentration of the 3. |


solution is: COOH
1. 0.01 M 4. CH COOH3

2. 0.001 M
3. 0.1 M
4. 0.02 M 89. When 0.50 moles of BaCl2 are mixed with
0.20 moles of Na3PO4, what is the maximum
84. How much glucose is needed to prepare 250
number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2 that can be
mL of a 1/20 M (M/20) glucose solution?
(Molar mass of glucose: 180 g/mol) formed?
1. 2.25 g 1. 0.10 2. 0.20
2. 4.5 g 3. 0.30 4. 0.40
3. 0.44 g
4. 1.125 g

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90. When 2 g of magnesium reacts with an 93. Consider the given two statements:
excess of HCl, then H2 gas and MgCl2 are Glycocalyx in bacteria is always a
produced. Statement A: thick and tough layer, commonly
–2
The volume of H2 gas produced is X × 10 litres referred to as the capsule.
at STP. The bacterial cell wall does not
The value of X is: (Nearest Integer) contribute to the shape of the cell
Statement B:
1. 195 2. 186 but only prevents it from
collapsing.
3. 182 4. 179
Which of the following is correct?
Both Statement A and Statement B are
Biology 1.
correct.
Both Statement A and Statement B are
91. In bacteria, extensions of the plasma 2.
incorrect.
membrane:
called mesosomes help in cell wall formation Statement A is correct but Statement B is
I: 3.
and DNA replication. incorrect.
called chromatophores contain pigments and Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is
II: 4.
are used to perform photosynthesis. correct.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct 94. The prokaryotic cells are represented by all
4. Both I and II are incorrect the following except:
1. yeast
92. Which of the following is unlikely to be 2. bacteria
present in a plant cell? 3. blue-green algae
1. A cell wall 4. mycoplasma
2. Plastid
3. A large central vacuole 95. Which statement is true regarding the cell as
4. Centriole the fundamental structural and functional unit of
all living organisms?
They can form complex multicellular
1.
structures.
They can independently exist and perform
2.
essential functions.
3. They rely on tissues for survival.
4. They can only divide through mitosis.

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96. Which of the following will not be applicable 99. Which of the following statements are true
to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? regarding the functions of the Rough
1. presence of ribosomes Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) and Smooth
2. arising from pre-existing cells Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)?
compartmentalization through membrane I: RER is involved in protein synthesis.
3. II: SER synthesizes lipids.
bound organelles
4. presence of a cell membrane III: RER detoxifies drugs and poisons.
IV: SER assists in the storage of proteins.
1. I and II are correct
97. Match column I with column II. 2. II and III are correct
Column I Column II 3. I, II and III are correct
Golgi 4. All are correct
(a) (i) Synthesis of protein
apparatus
100. Microbodies:
Trap waste and excretory
(b) Lysosomes (ii) are membrane bound minute vesicles that
products I:
contain various enzymes
Formation of glycoproteins
(c) Vacuoles (iii) II: are present in only animal cells.
and glycolipids
(d) Ribosomes (iv) Digesting biomolecules 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
Choose the right match from the options given 4. Both I and II are incorrect
below:
101. Which component of the endomembrane
Options: (a) (b) (c) (d) system of a eukaryotic cell is frequently observed
1. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) in cells involved in protein synthesis and
2. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) secretion?
1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
3. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 2. Golgi complex
4. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
4. Chloroplasts
98. The Golgi apparatus principally performs the 102. Mesosome in bacterial cells is not involved
function of packaging materials. From which face in:
of the Golgi apparatus are materials released 1. cell wall formation
after modification? 2. DNA replication and distribution to daughter
1. Trans face cell
2. Cis face 3. respiration
3. Medial face 4. photosynthesis
4. Lateral face

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103. In Amoeba, contractile vacuoles: 106. Like mitochondria, the chloroplasts:


contains water, sap, excretory product and I: are also double membrane bound.
1.
other materials not useful for the cell. also contain small, double-stranded circular
II:
store enzymes capable of digesting DNA molecules and ribosomes.
2. carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic
acids. 1. Only I is correct
3. are formed by engulfing the food particles. 2. Only II is correct
are important for osmoregulation and 3. Both I and II are correct
4. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
excretion.
107. Maintaining the cell's shape, providing
104. Consider the given two statements: support, and facilitating cellular movement –
In bacteria, plasmids confer these are the functions carried out primarily by:
Assertion (A): additional phenotypic traits such 1. Cell membrane
as antibiotic resistance. 2. Cytoskeleton
3. Nucleus
Plasmids are the main genomic 4. Endoplasmic reticulum
Reason (R): DNA responsible for the essential
cellular functions in bacteria. 108. What role does the cell membrane play in
maintaining homeostasis within animal cells?
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct It synthesizes proteins that regulate cellular
1. 1.
explanation of (A). functions.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the It selectively allows substances to enter and
2.
correct explanation of (A). 2. exit the cell, maintaining the internal
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. environment.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. It provides structural support to maintain the
3.
shape and integrity of the cell.
It stores genetic material and coordinates cell
105. Match the following & mark the correct 4. division.
option given below:
Column I Column II
Flat membranous sacs in the 109. Which of the following organelles are part of
1. Cristae (i)
stroma the endomembrane system due to their
2. Cisternae (ii) Infoldings in mitochondria coordinated functions?
Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi Complex,
3. Thylakoids (iii) 1.
apparatus Lysosomes, and Vacuoles
Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Peroxisomes, and
2.
Golgi Complex
1. 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i Endoplasmic Reticulum, Peroxisomes,
2. 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii 3.
Lysosomes, and Chloroplast
3. 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
Golgi Complex, Vacuoles, Mitochondria, and
4. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii 4.
Lysosomes

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110. Surface structures of the bacteria that do 114. How many of the given statements regarding
not play a role in motility include: cell wall are true?
I: flagella A non-living rigid structure called the cell wall
II: pili I: forms an outer covering for the plasma
III: fimbriae membrane of fungi and plants.
1. Only I Cell wall not only gives shape to the cell and
2. Only II protects the cell from mechanical damage
3. Only II and III II: and infection, it also helps in cell-to-cell
4. I, II and III interaction and provides barrier to
undesirable macromolecules.
111. The arrangement of axonemal microtubules Algae have cell wall, made of cellulose,
in cilia and flagella of the eukaryotic cells is galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium
described as: III:
carbonate, while in other plants it consists of
1. a 9 + 9 array 2. a 9 + 0 array cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins.
3. a 9 + 2 array 4. a 0 + 9 array The cell wall of a young plant cell, the
IV:
primary wall is capable of growth.
The secondary wall is formed on the outer
112. What is a polysome? V:
(towards middle lamella) side of the cell.
A complex of DNA and proteins found in the 1. 2
1.
nucleus. 2. 3
A complex of RNA and ribosomes actively 3. 4
2.
engaged in protein synthesis. 4. 5
3. A storage form of polysaccharides in cells.
A membrane structure involved in lipid 115. Which of the following statements
4. concerning the Endoplasmic Reticulum is
synthesis.
incorrect?
1. SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
113. The content of nucleolus is continuous with 2. RER has ribosomes attached to ER
nucleoplasm 3. SER is devoid of ribosomes
4. In prokaryotes, only RER is present
1. Through microtubules
2. Through nuclear pores
3. Due to lack of membrane
4. Due to presence of channels in membrane

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116. Consider the given two statements: 119. How are chloroplasts similar to mitochondria
In eukaryotic cells, there is an in terms of their internal composition?
Assertion (A): extensive compartmentalisation of Both contain 80S ribosomes for protein
1.
cytoplasm. synthesis.
Eukaryotic cells possess an Both have inner membranes organized into
2.
Reason (R): organised nucleus with a nuclear stacks for metabolic processes.
envelope. Both have double membranes, circular DNA,
3.
and 70S ribosomes.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly 4. Both store pigments for trapping light energy.
1.
explains the (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2.
correctly explain the(A). 120. In human beings, the membrane of the
3. (A) is True; (R) is False erythrocyte has approximately:
4. Both (A) and (R) are False 1. 52 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids.
2. 40 per cent protein and 52 per cent lipids.
3. 50 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids.
117. Consider the given two statements: 4. 60 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids.
Macrophages and leucocytes in
Statement
blood exhibit amoeboid movement in
I:
human body. 121. Who was the first person to describe a live
Cytoskeletal elements like cell?
Statement microfilaments are also involved in 1. Robert Brown
II: amoeboid movement apart from 2. Matthias Schleiden
pseudopodia.
3. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
4. Theodor Schwann
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
incorrect 122. The chromosomes in which the centromere
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is is situated close to one end are:
3.
correct 1. metacentric
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 2. acrocentric
4.
incorrect 3. telocentric
4. sub-metacentric

118. The ribosomes found in mitochondria and


chloroplasts are:
1. 60S and 40S subunits forming 80S ribosomes.
Similar to the eukaryotic cytoplasmic
2.
ribosomes.
3. Larger than the ribosomes in prokaryotic cells.
4. 50S and 30S subunits forming 70S ribosomes.

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123. What makes the vacuoles in plant cells 128. The arrangement of outer and central
distinct from those in protists like Amoeba? microtubules in the axoneme of a cilia or a
Plant cell vacuoles facilitate osmoregulation, flagellum is called as:
1.
while protist vacuoles store ions. 1. 9 plus 2 pattern 2. 9 plus 0 pattern
Plant vacuoles maintain turgor pressure, while 3. 9 plus 1 pattern 4. 9 plus 9 pattern
2. protist vacuoles are involved in food storage
or osmoregulation.
Vacuoles in plant cells are surrounded by a 129. Consider the given two statements:
3. double membrane, while those in protists have The content of nucleolus is
a single membrane. continuous with the rest of the
Statement I:
Vacuoles in protists are larger than those in nucleoplasm as it is not a
4. membrane bound structure.
plant cells.
The outer nuclear membrane
usually remains continuous with
Statement II:
124. In animal cells, which of the following the endoplasmic reticulum but
emerge(s) from a centriole-like structure called does not bear ribosomes on it.
the basal bodies?
(i) Cilium 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
(ii) Flagellum 2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
1. Only (i) incorrect
2. Only (ii) 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3. Both (i) and (ii) correct
4. Neither (i) nor (ii) 4. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
incorrect
125. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic
enzyme is:
1. lysosome
2. microsome
3. ribosome
4. mesosome

126. Lysosomes are membrane-bound vesicles


that contain _________ enzymes, which function
optimally at _________ pH to degrade cellular
waste and macromolecules.
1. digestive, acidic 2. oxidative, basic
3. digestive, neutral 4. oxidative, acidic

127. In bacteria, the formation of peptide bond is


catalyzed by a ribozyme that is a part of the:
1. 50S (23S component) ribosome subunit
2. 30S (28S component) ribosome subunit
3. 60S (28S component) ribosome subunit
4. 40S (23S component) ribosome subunit

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130. How many of the given pairs are correctly 131. Consider the given two statements:
matched regarding the description of parts The primary function of the plasma
labelled in the given diagram? Statement I: membrane is to maintain cell shape
and provide structural support.
The plasma membrane is
selectively permeable and
Statement II:
regulates the movement of
substances into and out of the cell.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.


Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
correct.
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect.

132. Which one of the following is not considered


A: Protein synthesis as a part of the endomembrane system?
B: Power house of the cell 1. Lysosome 2. Golgi complex
C: Throwing excess water of the cell 3. Peroxisome 4. Vacuole
D: Lipid synthesis
1. 1
2. 2 133. A chromosome where the centromere is
3. 3 situated close to the end forming one extremely
4. 4 short and one very long arm is called as
1. Metacentric 2. Submetacentric
3. Acrocentric 4. Telocentric.

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134. Consider the given two statements: 137. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
Lysosomes contain hydrolytic Golgi Formation of glycoproteins and
1.
Statement I: enzymes that function optimally at apparatus glycolipids
alkaline pH. Synthesis of steroidal hormones
2. Rough ER
Lysosomes are involved in the in animal cells
Statement II:
synthesis of proteins and lipids. 3. Lysosomes Carry acid hydrolases
4. Nucelolus Site for active rRNA synthesis
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
incorrect 138. The number of correct statements regarding
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is the structure of a typical animal cell membrane
3. is:
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is I: It is mainly composed of lipids and proteins.
4.
incorrect The major lipids are phospholipids, that are
II:
arranged in a bilayer.
The lipids are arranged within the membrane
135. Consider the given statements about with the hydrophobic head towards the outer
III:
ribosomes: sides and the polar tails towards the inner
Ribosomes are non-membranous structures part.
I:
composed of rRNA and proteins. In addition to phospholipids, membrane also
IV:
Eukaryotic ribosomes are smaller in size (70S) contains cholesterol.
II:
compared to prokaryotic ribosomes (80S). Peripheral proteins lie on the surface of
Ribosomes are involved in the process of V: membrane while the integral proteins are
III:
protein synthesis. partially or totally buried in the membrane
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct 1. 2
3. Only II and III are correct 2. 3
4. I, II and III are correct 3. 4
4. 5
136. Identify the incorrect statement:
Plastids are found in all plant cells and in 139. All prokaryotic cells:
1. 1. have a cell wall.
euglenoids.
Plastids are easily observed under the 2. can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
2. 3. lack a nuclear membrane.
microscope as they are large.
4. can survive in the absence of oxygen.
Majority of the chloroplasts of all green plants
3. are found in the bundle sheath cells of the
leaves.
4. Plastids are double membrane bound.

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140. Consider the two statements: 143. Which of the following functions is
In a plant cell, the concentration specifically attributed to the smooth endoplasmic
of a number of ions is reticulum (SER) in animal cells?
Assertion (A):
significantly higher in the vacuole 1. Protein synthesis and folding
than in the cytoplasm. 2. Detoxification of drugs and poisons
The tonoplast facilitates the 3. Formation of ribosomal subunits
transport of a number of ions and 4. Packaging and modification of lipids
Reason (R): other materials against
concentration gradients into the
vacuole. 144. What functional role does the middle lamella
play in plant cells?
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct It synthesizes cellulose for the primary cell
1. 1.
explanation of (A). wall.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the It connects neighbouring cells by providing a
2. 2.
correct explanation of (A). pathway for plasmodesmata.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. It glues neighbouring cells together using
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 3.
calcium pectate.
4. It stores water and ions for neighbouring cells.
141. The nuclear envelope is derivative of:
1. smooth endoplasmic reticulum 145. A characteristic 9 + 2 arrangement of
2. membrane of Golgi complex axonemal microtubules is seen in:
3. microtubules 1. Cilia and flagella
4. rough endoplasmic reticulum 2. Centriole
3. Filaments in axons of neurons
4. Actin myofilaments
142. In plants, the cell wall provides structural
support and protection. What materials mainly
compose the cell walls of algae?
Cellulose, galactans, mannans, and minerals
1.
like calcium carbonate
2. Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins, and proteins
3. Cellulose, lignin, and chitin
4. Hemicellulose, starch, and glycogen

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146. Consider the given two statements: 149. Which of the following correctly describes
Prokaryotic cells have a simpler the arrangement of phospholipids in the plasma
structure than eukaryotic cells but membrane as per the fluid mosaic model?
Assertion (A):
can carry out essential life Polar heads face the cytoplasm and
processes. 1. extracellular fluid, while nonpolar tails are
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane- sandwiched in between.
bound organelles, but they have Nonpolar heads face the aqueous
2.
Reason (R): ribosomes and a plasma environment, while polar tails are inside.
membrane for metabolic Phospholipids are arranged randomly without
functions. 3.
orientation.
4. The lipid bilayer consists only of polar lipids.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 150. Match the following columns and select the
2.
correct explanation of (A). correct option:
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Column-I Column-II
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Smooth endoplasmic
(a) (i) Protein synthesis
reticulum
Rough endoplasmic
(b) (ii) Lipid synthesis
147. Which of the following would not be correct reticulum
for both mitochondria and chloroplasts? (c) Golgi complex (iii) Glycosylation
1. Presence of circular double-stranded DNA (d) Centriole (iv) Spindle formation
2. Presence of 70S ribosomes
3. Presence of a double membrane
4. Part of the endomembrane system in a Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
eukaryotic cell 1. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
2. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
148. The Golgi complex participates in? 3. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
1. Fatty acid breakdown 4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2. Formation of secretory vesicles
3. Respiration in bacteria
4. Activation of amino acid 151. Golgi apparatus:
is an important site of formation of
I:
glycoproteins and glycolipids.
is not a part of the endomembrane system of
II:
a eukaryotic cell.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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152. The structures that help some bacteria to 155. Consider the given two statements:
attach to rocks and/or host tissues are? The vacuole in plant cells is bound
1. Rhizoids Statement I: by a single membrane called the
2. Fimbriae tonoplast.
3. Mesosomes The tonoplast helps maintain ion
4. Holdfast Statement II: gradients by facilitating active
transport into the vacuole.
153. Plant and animal cells are different. Identify
the correct difference:
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Plant cells possess cell walls, plastids and a
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
I: large central vacuole which are absent in 2.
incorrect
animal cells.
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
Animal cells have centrioles which are absent 3.
II: correct
in almost all plant cells.
1. Only I is correct Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
2. Only II is correct incorrect
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
156. Of the following living cells, identify the
154. Match the following cell structures with their smallest one, which is known to be able to
descriptions: survive even without oxygen and lacking a rigid
Column I cell wall?
Column II (Description) 1. Mycoplasma
(Structure)
2. Typical bacterial cells
Double membrane- 3. A yeast
A. Golgi apparatus 1. bound organelle with 4. Single-celled amoeba
cristae
Stacked cisternae near 157. Match the following and select the correct
B. Ribosomes 2.
the nucleus answer:
Non-membrane-bound Column I Column II
C. Mitochondria 3. particles involved in (a) Centriole (i) Infoldings in mitochondria
protein synthesis
(b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
Smooth Network of tubular
(c) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids
D. Endoplasmic 4. structures without
Reticulum ribosomes (d) Ribozymes (iv) Basal body of cilia or flagella

Options: 1. A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii


1. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 2. A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
2. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 3. A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
3. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 4. A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
4. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

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158. Centrosomes are involved in: 162. Unless specifically stained, which of the
1. ATP synthesis following is not easily visible under the light
2. Formation of spindle fibres during cell division microscope in a typical eukaryotic cell?
3. Photosynthesis 1. Chloroplast
4. Protein modification 2. Mitochondria
3. Nucleus
159. Identify the type of chromosome: 4. Endoplasmic reticulum

163. The nucleolus, a spherical structure present


in the nucleoplasm, is known for its role in which
cellular process?
1. DNA replication
2. Protein synthesis
3. Lipid synthesis
4. Ribosomal RNA synthesis

164. Consider the given two statements:


The outer nuclear membrane usually
Statement remains continuous with the
1. Metacentric 2. Sub-metacentric I: endoplasmic reticulum and also
bears ribosomes on it.
3. Acrocentric 4. Telocentric
Nuclear pores are the passages
through which movement of
Statement
RNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm
160. The cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells is II:
and protein molecules from the
composed of which of the following structures?
cytoplasm to the nucleus takes place.
Microtubules, microfilaments, and
1.
intermediate filaments
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Centrioles, ribosomes, and microtubules
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3. Nucleus, mitochondria, and lysosomes 2.
incorrect
4. Golgi apparatus, ER, and cytoplasm
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
161. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single 4.
incorrect
strand of RNA is known as?
1. polymer
2. polypeptide
3. okazaki fragment
4. polysome

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165. Vacuole in a plant cell 169. Given below are two statements:
is membrane-bound and contains storage
1.
proteins and lipids Mycoplasma can pass through less
Statement I:
is membrane-bound and contains water and than 1 micron filter size.
2.
excretory substances Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell
Statement II:
3. lacks membrane and contains air walls.
lacks membrane and contains water and
4. In the light of the above statements, choose the
excretory substances
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
166. Which layer of the cell envelope of a 1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
bacterial cell provides a strong structural support correct.
to prevent the bacterium from bursting or 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
collapsing? 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are
1. Slime layer of glycocalyx incorrect.
2. Capsule 4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
3. Cell wall incorrect.
4. Plasma membrane
170. Bacterial plasmids are:
167. Like mitochondria, the chloroplasts: 1. Circular dsRNA
I: have their own DNA 2. Circular dsDNA
3. Linear dsDNA
II: have an analogous inner membrane 4. Linear dsRNA

1. Only I is correct 171. Regarding Endoplasmic reticulum in a


2. Only II is correct eukaryotic cell:
3. Both I and II are correct I: SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
4. Both I and II are incorrect II: RER has ribosomes attached to ER
III: In prokaryotes, only RER are present
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
168. Which type of plastid is responsible for 3. Only II and III are correct
storing oils and fats in plant cells? 4. I, II and III are correct
1. Chloroplasts
2. Chromoplasts
3. Leucoplasts
4. Elaioplasts

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172. Consider the two statements: 176. What type of chromosomes will not have a
The Golgi apparatus, also known short and a long arm?
Assertion (A): as the Golgi body, is like a post 1. Acrocentric
office. 2. Metacentric
The Golgi apparatus is an 3. Sub-metacentric
Reason (R): important site for the formation 4. Both 1 and 2
of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
177. Oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotic cells
takes place in:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. 1. Chloroplasts
explanation of (A)
2. Mitochondria
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 3. Peroxisomes
2.
correct explanation of (A). 4. ER
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 178. The component molecules of the cell
membrane have two main parts, the head and
the tail. These parts are either hydrophobic
173. Besides phospholipids, what other lipid (repelled by water) or hydrophilic (attracted to
component is present in the cell membrane? water). Which is which?
1. Cholesterol 1. Hydrophilic Head and Hydrophobic Tail
2. Triglycerides 2. Both Hydrophobic
3. Glycolipids 3. Hydrophilic Tail and Hydrophobic Head
4. Fatty acids
4. Both Hydrophilic
174. The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) divides the
intracellular space into two distinct
compartments. What are these compartments 179. Which of the following structures performs
called? the function of mitochondria in a bacteria?
1. Luminal and nuclear compartments 1. Nucleoid 2. Ribosomes
2. Luminal and extra-luminal compartments 3. Cell wall 4. Mesosomes
3. Cytoplasmic and nuclear compartments
Cytoplasmic and nucleoplasmic 180. Select the correct statement from the
4.
compartments following regarding cell membrane:
+ +
1. Na and K ions move across cell membranes
175. An elaborate network of filamentous by passive transport
proteinaceous structures consisting of Proteins make up 60% to 70% of the cell
2.
microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate membrane
filaments present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar
3.
cells is collectively referred to as the: heads towards the inner part
1. cytoskeleton 2. MTOC Fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane was
4.
3. Contractile elements 4. vimentin proposed by Singer and Nicolson

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