TRE 3.0 and TRE 4.

0 Mock Test-1
1. __________ converts the programs written in assembly language into machine
instructions.
a) Machine compiler
b) Interpreter
c) Assembler
d) Converter

2. The instructions like MOV or ADD are called as ______

a) OP-Code
b) Operators
c) Commands
d) None of the mentioned

3. The alternate way of writing the instruction, ADD #5,R1 is ______

a) ADD [5],[R1];
b) ADDI 5,R1;
c) ADDIME 5,[R1];
d) There is no other way

4. _____ directive specifies the end of execution of a program.

a) End
b) Return
c) Stop
d) Terminate

5. Which memory device is generally made of semiconductors?

a) RAM
b) Hard-disk
c) Floppy disk
d) Cd disk

6. The small extremely fast, RAM’s are called as _______

a) Cache
b) Heaps
c) Accumulators
d) Stacks

7. The ALU makes use of _______ to store the intermediate results.

a) Accumulators
b) Registers
c) Heap
d) Stack

8. The I/O interface required to connect the I/O device to the bus consists of
______
a) Address decoder and registers
b) Control circuits
c) Address decoder, registers and Control circuits
d) Only Control circuits

9. The fastest data access is provided using _______

a) Caches
b) DRAM’s
c) SRAM’s
d) Registers

10. During a write operation if the required block is not present in the cache then
______ occurs.
a) Write miss
b) Write latency
c) Write hit
d) Write delay

11. The bit used to signify that the cache location is updated is ________
a) Flag bit
b) Reference bit
c) Update bit
d) Dirty bit

12. The program is divided into operable parts called as _________

a) Frames
b) Segments
c) Pages
d) Sheets

13. The techniques which move the program blocks to or from the physical
memory is called as ______
a) Paging
b) Virtual memory organisation
c) Overlays
d) Framing

14. The main aim of virtual memory organisation is ________

a) To provide effective memory access
b) To provide better memory transfer
c) To improve the execution of the program
d) All of the mentioned

15. The expression for Absorption law is given by _________

a) A + AB = A
b) A + AB = B
c) AB + AA’ = A
d) A + B = B + A

16. According to boolean law: A + 1 = ?

a) 1
b) A
c) 0
d) A’
17. DeMorgan’s theorem states that _________
a) (AB)’ = A’ + B’
b) (A + B)’ = A’ * B
c) A’ + B’ = A’B’
d) (AB)’ = A’ + B

18. (A + B)(A’ * B’) = ?

a) 1
b) 0
c) AB
d) AB’

19. Complement of the expression A’B + CD’ is _________

a) (A’ + B)(C’ + D)
b) (A + B’)(C’ + D)
c) (A’ + B)(C’ + D)
d) (A + B’)(C + D’)

20. Simplify Y = AB’ + (A’ + B)C.

a) AB’ + C
b) AB + AC
c) A’B + AC’
d) AB + A

21. The expression Y=AB+BC+AC shows the _________ operation.

a) EX-OR
b) SOP
c) POS
d) NOR

22. The expression Y=(A+B)(B+C)(C+A) shows the _________ operation.

a) AND
b) POS
c) SOP
d) NAND

23. Canonical form is a unique way of representing ____________

a) SOP
b) Minterm
c) Boolean Expressions
d) POS

24. Which of the following is not a fundamental data type in C++?

A) int
B) float
C) string
D) char
25. What is the output of the following code snippet?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
 int x = 10;
int &y = x;
y = 20;
cout << x << endl;
return 0;
}
A) 10
B) 20
C) Compilation Error
D) Undefined Behavior
26. What is the result of the following code snippet?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int arr[5] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
int *ptr = arr;
cout << *(ptr + 2) << endl;
return 0;
}
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
27. Which operator is used for dynamic memory allocation in C++?
A) new
B) malloc
C) alloc
D) alloc_mem
28. What is the output of the following code snippet?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class Base
{
public:
virtual void display()
{
cout << “Base Display” << endl;
}
};
class Derived : public Base
{
public:
void display() override
{
cout << “Derived Display” << endl;
}
};
int main() {
Base *ptr = new Derived();
 ptr->display();
return 0;
}
A) Base Display
B) Derived Display
C) Compilation Error
D) Undefined Behavior
29. Which statement is true about C++ references?
A) References cannot be null.
B) References can be re-assigned to refer to different variables after initialization.
C) References occupy additional memory space compared to pointers.
D) References are used for dynamic memory allocation.
30. What does the following code snippet output?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x = 5;
int *ptr = &x;
cout << *ptr << endl;
*ptr = 10;
cout << x << endl;
return 0;
}
A) 5, 10
B) 10, 10
C) 5, 5
D) 10, 5
31. What is the purpose of the ‘friend’ keyword in C++?
A) It signifies a function or class that can access private and protected members of
another class.
B) It is used to declare a function or class inside another class.
C) It denotes a function or class that is inherited from a base class.
D) It specifies a function or class that cannot be overridden.
32. What is a pure virtual function in C++?
A) A function that has no definition in the class declaration.
B) A function that cannot be overridden by derived classes.
C) A function that is defined in a base class and overridden in derived classes.
D) A function that can be called only by the base class.
33. Which operator is used to access the member functions and variables of a
class through a pointer in C++?
A) . (dot operator)
B) -> (arrow operator)
C) :: (scope resolution operator)
D) : (colon operator)
34. What is the purpose of the ‘const’ keyword in C++?
A) It declares a constant variable that cannot be modified after initialization.
B) It specifies a function that doesn’t change the state of an object.
C) It denotes a class that cannot be inherited.
D) It creates a copy of an object for use in a function.
35. What will be the output of the following code snippet?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int arr[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
int *ptr = arr;
cout << ptr[3] << endl;
return 0;
}
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
36. What will be the output of the following code snippet?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class Base {
public:
Base() {
cout << “Base Constructor” << endl;
}
~Base() {
cout << “Base Destructor” << endl;
}
};
int main() {
Base* ptr = new Base();
delete ptr;
return 0;
}
A) Base Constructor
B) Base Destructor
C) Base Constructor, Base Destructor
D) Base Destructor, Base Constructor
37. What does the ‘static’ keyword signify in C++?
A) It specifies a function that is shared among all objects of a class.
B) It declares a variable that cannot be modified after initialization.
C) It defines a variable that retains its value across function calls.
D) It indicates a function or variable accessible only within the same source file.
38. What is the purpose of the ‘new’ operator in C++?
A) To deallocate memory dynamically.
B) To allocate memory for an object or variable dynamically.
C) To initialize a variable with a default value.
D) To declare a constant variable.
39. What is the function of the following command?
Delete from r where P;
a) Clears entries from relation
b) Deletes relation
c) Deletes particular tuple from relation
d) All of the mentioned

40. __________ command is used in SQL to issue multiple CREATE TABLE,

CREATE VIEW and GRANT statements in a single transaction.
a) CREATE CLUSTER
b) CREATE PACKAGE
c) CREATE SCHEMA
d) All of the mentioned

41. Which of the following key is required in to handle the data when the
encryption is applied to the data so that the unauthorised user cannot access the
data?
a) Primary key
b) Authorised key
c) Encryption key
d) Decryption key

42. Which of the following establishes a top-to-bottom relationship among the

items?
a) Relational schema
b) Network schema
c) Hierarchical schema
d) All of the mentioned

43. What happens if a piece of data is stored in two places in the db?
a) Storage space is wasted & Changing the data in one spot will cause data
inconsistency
b) In can be more easily accessed
c) Changing the data in one spot will cause data inconsistency
d) Storage space is wasted

44. The logical design, and the snapshot of the data at a given instant in time is
known as?
a) Instance & Relation
b) Relation & Schema
c) Domain & Schema
d) Schema & Instance

45. Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation,
deleting relations and relating schemas?
a) DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
b) DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
c) Query
d) Relational Schema

46. Which one of the following provides the ability to query information from the
database and to insert tuples into, delete tuples from, and modify tuples in the
database?
a) DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
b) DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
c) Query
d) Relational Schema

47.
SELECT * FROM employee
What type of statement is this?
a) DML
b) DDL
c) View
d) Integrity constraint

48. To remove a relation from an SQL database, we use the ______ command.
a) Delete
b) Purge
c) Remove
d) Drop table

49.
DELETE FROM r; //r - relation
This command performs which of the following action?
a) Remove relation
b) Clear relation entries
c) Delete fields
d) Delete rows

50. Here which of the following displays the unique values of the column?
SELECT ________ dept_name
FROM instructor;
a) All
b) From
c) Distinct
d) Name

51. The ________ clause is used to list the attributes desired in the result of a
query.
a) Where
b) Select
c) From
d) Distinct

52. In the given query which of the keyword has to be inserted?

INSERT INTO employee _____ (1002,Joey,2000);
a) Table
b) Values
c) Relation
d) Field

53. What is the need for a circular queue?

a) easier computations
b) implement LIFO principle in queues
c) effective usage of memory
d) to delete elements based on priority
54. What is an AVL tree?
a) a tree which is unbalanced and is a height balanced tree
b) a tree which is balanced and is a height balanced tree
c) a tree with atmost 3 children
d) a tree with three children

55. Which is the most appropriate data structure for reversing a word?
a) stack
b) queue
c) graph
d) tree

56. In simple chaining, what data structure is appropriate?

a) Doubly linked list
b) Circular linked list
c) Singly linked list
d) Binary trees

57. Consider the following operation performed on a stack of size 5.

Push(1);
Pop();
Push(2);
Push(3);
Pop();
Push(4);
Pop();
Pop();
Push(5);
After the completion of all operation, the number of elements present in stack is?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

58. The type of expression in which operator succeeds its operands is?
a) Infix Expression
b) Prefix Expression
c) Postfix Expression
d) Both Prefix and Postfix Expressions

59. If the elements “A”, “B”, “C” and “D” are placed in a stack and are deleted one
at a time, what is the order of removal?
a) ABCD
b) DCBA
c) DCAB
d) ABDC

60. A linear list of elements in which deletion can be done from one end (front)
and insertion can take place only at the other end (rear) is known as
_____________
a) Queue
b) Stack
c) Tree
d) Linked list

61. Circular Queue is also known as ________

a) Ring Buffer
b) Square Buffer
c) Rectangle Buffer
d) Curve Buffer

62. FDDI used which type of physical topology?

A) Bus
B) Ring
C) Star
D) Tree
63. Which is the main function of transport layer?
A) Node to node delivery
B) End to end delivery
C) Synchronization
d) Updating and maintaining routing tables
64. In mesh topology, relationship between one device and another is ..............
A) Primary to peer
B) Peer to primary
C) Primary to secondary
D) Peer to Peer
65. The performance of data communications network depends on ..............
A) Number of users
B) The hardware and software
C) The transmission
D) All of the above
66. Find out the OSI layer, which performs token management.
A) Network Layer
B) Transport Layer
C) Session Layer
D) Presentation Layer
67. Physical or logical arrangement of network is __________
a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
d) Control

68. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is
________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
69. Bluetooth uses __________
a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing

70. WiMAX stands for ___________

a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
d) wireless internet maximum communication

71. Which of the following is not an application of symmetric encryption

algorithms.
a) Data security
b) Cloud storage
c) User privacy
d) Bitcoin’s block chain

72. Which of the following is a type of cyber security?

a) Cloud Security
b) Network Security
c) Application Security
d) All of the above

73. Which of the following is a type of cyber attack?

a) Phishing
b) SQL Injections
c) Password Attack
d) All of the above

74. What is the existence of weakness in a system or network is known as?

a) Attack
b) Exploit
c) Vulnerability
d) Threat

75. Which of the following is not a step followed by cyber-criminals in data

breaching?
a) Exfiltration
b) Research and info-gathering
c) Attack the system
d) Fixing the bugs

76. The full form of Malware is ________

a) Malfunctioned Software
b) Multipurpose Software
c) Malicious Software
d) Malfunctioning of Security

77. These are a collective term for malicious spying programs used for secretly
monitoring someone’s activity and actions over a digital medium.
a) Malware
b) Remote Access Trojans
c) Keyloggers
d) Spyware

78. Which type of topology is best suited for large businesses which must
carefully control and coordinate the operation of distributed branch outlets?
a) Ring
b) Local area
c) Hierarchical
d) Star
79. "Parity bits" are used for which of the following purposes?
a) Encryption of data
b) To transmit faster
c) To detect errors
d) To identify the user
80. What kind of transmission medium is most appropriate to carry data in a
computer network that is exposed to electrical interferences?
a) Unshielded twisted pair
b) Optical fiber
c) Coaxial cable
d) Microwave