Social & Preventive Pharmacy

Model Question Bank

Unit I: Concept of health and Disease

1. Immunosuppressant’s such as ………………. prevent transplanted organs from

being rejected as recipients.
a. Thrombin b. Cyclosporine
c. Aspirin d. None of the above
2. The __________ is at its largest in children, but with the onset of puberty, it
eventually shrinks and gets replaced by fat.
a. Thymus b. hypothalamus
c. Parathyroid gland d. None of the above
3. Which of the following diseases has been eradicated
a. Smallpox b. Rinderpest
c. Polio d. All of the above
4. A kind of an injury or damage, which results in the premature death of all the
nearby cells in a tissue or an organ through autolysis is called ______
a. Neurosis b. Necrosis
c. Apoptosis d. Cellular senescence
5. The immune system comprises ________
a. Humoral and fibrous systems
b. Humoral and cell-mediated systems
c. Antigens
d. Lymphocytes
6. Which of the following is a viral disease
a. Diptheria b. Filariasis
c. Leprosy d. Influenza
7. Carcinoma arises from the______
a. Epithelial cells b. Bone marrow
c. Pigment containing cells d. None of the above
8. _________ is an example of a stimulant
a. Lorazepam b. Amphetamine
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c. Oxazepam d. Phencyclidine
9. Which of the following is the most essential nutrient for a woman during her
initial stages of pregnancy to prevent birth defects.
a. Thiamin b. Folic acid
c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin E
10. Which of the following food sources has the highest levels of vitamin C
a. Parsley b. Broccoli
c. Black currants d. Orange juice
11. Which of the following vitamin helps in blood clotting.
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin K
12. Which is the leading cause of blindness in children worldwide?
a. Glaucoma b. Cataracts
c. Colour blindness d. Vitamin A deficiency
13. Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes Beriberi
a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B6 d. Vitamin B12
14. Who is most likely to develop Scurvy- A Vitamin C deficiency
a. A pregnant woman
b. A malnourished child
c. A long-time alcoholic
d. A person with the eating disorder anorexia nervosa
15. Which of the following vitamin functions as both, hormone and visual
pigment
a. Thiamine b. Retinal
c. Riboflavin d. Folic acid
16. Which of the following nutrient deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia
a. Folic acid b. Niacin
c. Pyridone d. Cobalamin
17. Which of the following is a fat- soluble vitamin
a. Vitamin B b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin B 12 d. Vitamin
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18. Which of the following diseases is caused by the deficiency of Niacin

a. Scurvy b. Rickets
c. Pellagra d. Pernicious anaemia
19. Which the following vitamins serves as a hormone precursor
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin K
20. The most serious problem facing global health now and in the future is
a. Nutrition b. Water
c. Oil d. Smoking
21. The leading cause of poor health globally is
a. Poverty b. Smoking
c. Sanitation d. Cardiovascular disease
22. The leading infectious disease killer globally in 2001 was
a. Respiratory diseases b. HIV/ AIDS
c. Diarrheal diseases d. Tuberculosis
23. Which of the following is/are related to over-nutrition
a. Obesity b. Type 2 diabetes
c. Cardiovascular diseases d. All of above
24. Breast feeding is important to an infant’s health because
a. It is not affected by the mother’s nutritional status
b. It transfers immunity against certain infectious diseases
c. It decreases the mother’s chances of getting pregnant
d. All of the above
25. Fortunately for infants in poor nations, the nutritional value of the
mother’s breast milk is not affected by her own diet
a. True b. False
26. The epidemiologic transition is
a. The elimination of infectious diseases and the increase in chronic
diseases as the major problem in developing countries
b. The continuing problem of infectious diseases plus the rapid
increase in chronic diseases in developing countries

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c. The development of epidemiology as a major discipline in developing

countries
27. The primary objective of immunization programs is to
a. Prevent infection
b. Prevent disease
c. Prevent further transmission of the disease agent
d. All of these
28. The most important requirement of a vaccine is
a. Safety
b. Ability to stimulate antibody production
c. Ability to stimulate an immune response
d. The proportion of infections prevented
29. The inadequate absorption or availability of proteins and energy in known
as:
a. Protein-energy malnutrition
b. Pepsin-enzyme malnutrition
c. Pepsin-energy malnutrition
d. Protein-excess malnutrition
30. The problems related to nutrition of nutrients is called:
a. Malnutrition b. solubility of nutrition
c. Insolubility d. balancing of nutrition
31. Which among the following is a biological agent of disease?
a. Virus b. Bacteria
c. Fungi d. Protein
32. Urbanization refers to the change in size, density and heterogeneity of
cities.
a. Size b. Density
c. Heterogeneity d. All of these
33. There are………. types of Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM).
a. 3 b. 4
c. 5 d. 6

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34. Bitot’s spot are the buildup of ……. located superficially in the
conjunctiva of human’s eyes.
a. 2 b. keratin
c. 4 d. 5
35. Night blindness occurs due to deficiency of ……… vitamin.
a. C b. D
b. A d. All of these

1-b 2-a 3-d 4-b 5-b 6-d

8-b 9-b 10-c 11-d 12-d
7-a
13-a 14-c 15-b 16-a 17-d 18-c
20-b 21-a 22-a 23-d 24-b
19-c

25-b 26-b 27-a 28-a 29-a 30-a

31-d 32-d 33-a 34-b 35-c
Answer:

Model Question Bank

Unit II: Preventive Medicine

1. Pneumonia is a common ……… infection.

a. Kidney b. Heart
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c. Lung d. Spleen
2. Malaria is caused by …………
a. Female mosquito b. Male mosquito
c. Both d. None of these
3. EVD previously known as
a. Ebola haemorrhagic fever b. Ebola Virus disease
c. Both d. None of these
4. Dengue fever also known as ……….
a. Blood fever b. Muscular fever
c. Feet fever d. break bone fever
5. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a serious form of …….
a. Blindness b. Pneumonia
c. Cancer d. AIDS
6. Which of the following is a set of bacterial diseases?
a. Malaria, poliomyelitis, mumps b. Mumps, cholera, typhoid
c. Plague, leprosy, diphtheria d. measles, tuberculosis, tetanus
7. Vibrio cholera is a motile bacterium, which belong to the group of …...
a. Lophotrichous b. Monotrichous
c. Peritrichomous d. Amphitrichous
8. What is the standard treatment of cholera?
a. Oral replacement therapy b. Tetracycline antibiotics
c. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole d. diuretic drugs
9. What is the full form of SARS?
a. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
b. Severe Actual Respiratory Symptoms
c. Severe Acute Respiratory Symptoms
d. Serious Acute Respiratory Syndrome
10. What is the biggest risk factor for infection with Ebola?
a. Working in a category IV laboratory
b. Attending a funeral of a victim outside
c. Nursing a patient at home
d. Attending large gatherings
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11. Ebola virus disease is a type of ……….

a. Viral Haemorrhagic Fever b. Plague
c. Avian influence d. Viral Respiration
12. Incubation period of Ebola virus is ………
a. Within an hour b. Within 48 hours
c. 2 to 21 days d. 2 to 7 days
13. Which of the following indicates hypertensive crisis?
a. BP of 140/90 mm Hg b. BP of 150/90 mm Hg
c. BP of 160/90 mm Hg d. BP of 180/90 mm Hg
14. What are the top three modifiable risk factors for developing cancer?
a. Tobacco use, excess body weight, alcohol intake.
b. Tobacco use, sun/exposure, alcohol use
c. Tobacco use, cancer-causing pathogens, physical inactivity
d. Tobacco use, sun/exposure, excess body weight
15. Changing or modifying certain behaviours can reduce your risk for developing
cancer, which of the following lifestyle modifications can reduce your risk of
cancer?
a. Stay physically active
b. Limit alcohol consumption
c. Limit consumption of red meat and processed foods
d. All of these
16. Which of the following drug functions as a CNS depressant?
a. Amphetamine b. Caffeine
b. Opium d. Cocaine
17. Compulsory- drinking is also called
a. Dipsomania b. Pyromania
c. Trichotillomania d. Dyslexia
18. Substance abuse is:
a. Taking of a drug or alcohol in damaging quantities other than prescribed.
b. Typified by the continued use of alcohol or other drugs in spite of negative
consequences

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c. Characterized by repeated, compulsive seeking or use of a substance despite

adverse social, psychological and/or physical consequences
d. Use of any drug
19. Filarial larva can be collected from man’s ………
a. Peripheral blood at midnight b. Smears of spleen
c. Smears of intestinal contents d. Biopsy of liver
20. This does not accurately describe lymphatic filariasis
a. Vector is the mollusc b. Mainly affects the lower limb
c. Chyluria is the most common manifestation
d. Caused by worms Wuchererabancrafti
21. Which of the following coronavirus has caused thousands of deaths around the
world as an ‘emergent’ virus?
a. MERS b. SARS
c. OC43 d. HKU1
22. Chikungunya is primarily spread by …….
a. Bacteria b. Virus
c. Protozoa d. Mollusc
23. Chikungunya has spread widely from Asia and Africa into the Caribbean in recent
years. This has been mainly facilitated by:
a. Mutation in the virus allowing replication in the mosquito
Aedesalbopictus
b. Air travel
c. Climate change
d. Poor mosquito control and absence of DTT
24. Mosquito responsible for malaria transmission
a. Aedesaegypti b. Aedesalbopictus
b. Anopheles d. Haemagogus
25. Trophozoites, Schizonts and gametocytes of all malarial parasites are seen in the
peripheral blood smear except:
a. P. falciparum b. P. malariae
c. P. ovale d. P. vivax
26. Which of the following can repel mosquitoes?
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a. Banana b. Chilli
c. Citronella d. Garlic
27. At what age should you have first screening for high blood pressure?
a. 16 b. 18
c. 30 d. 50
28. What is the most common symptom of high blood pressure?
a. Racing b. Fatigue
c. High body temperature d. It has no symptoms that you
Notice
29. This measure does not help to prevent diabetes complications
a. Controlling blood lipids and blood pressure
b. Prompt detection of diabetic eye and kidney disease
c. Controlling blood glucose
d. Eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet
30. Gestation diabetes is diagnosed by:
a. Glucose tolerance Test (GTT)
b. fasting and postprandial blood sugar
c. Random blood sugar
d. 24 hours’ glucose profile
31. What is/are the primary goal(s) Oral Replacement Therapy?
a. Replace lost water and electrolytes. b. Kill Vibrio Cholera
c. Slow down the heart rate d. None of these
32. Which makes SARS even more difficult to diagnose?
a. Asymptomatic nature b. Symptoms same as common cold & flu
c. Mistake in lab tests d. All of these
33. Which laboratory test is the criterion standard for diagnosis of viral community-
acquired pneumonia in adults?
a. Viral culture b. rapid RSV test
c. Rapid antigen testing d. Nasal swab test
34. Risk factors for hospital-acquired pneumonia include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
a. Presence of COPD b. Obesity
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c. Duration of surgery Age older than 60 years

Answer:
1-c 2-a 3-a 4-d 5-d 6-c
7-c 8-b 9-a 10-c 11-a 12-c
13-d 14-a 15-d 16-c 17-a 18-b
19-a 20-a 21-b 22-b 23-a 24-c
25-a 26-c 27-d 28-d 29-d 30-a
31-a 32-d 33-d 34-b

Model Question Bank

Unit III: National Health Programmes

1. World AIDS day was observed on which day?

a. 30th November b. 2nd December
c. 1st December d. 3rd December
2. Consider the following statements:
i. In 1986 first case of AIDS was detected in India
ii. In 1992 India’s first National AIDS Control Program (1992-1999)
was launched. Also national AIDS Control Organization (NACO)
was constituted to implement the program.
iii. A National Council on AIDS chaired by the prime Minister iv.
Currently NACO is working on special software to link Aadhar cards
of AIDS patient.

Which of the above statements are true?

a. 1,3,4 b. 2,3,4
c. 1,4 d. All of these

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3. Which body is responsible for formulating policy and implementing

programs for the prevention and control of HIV in India?
a. AIMS b. IIM
b. IIT d. NACO
4. On which date the World Health Organization recognized to celebrate the
World Tuberculosis Day?
a. 24 March b. 7 April
c. 24 April d. 14 November
5. World health Organization recommended a control strategy for TB known
as:
a. DOTS b. Morphine
c. Gene Therapy d. MCT
6. NLEP was launched in
a. 1983 b. 1990
c. 1980 d. 1985
7. Full form of DPMR
a. Direction Prevention & Medical Rehabilitation

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b. Disability Prevention & Medical Research

c. Disability Prevention & Medical Rehabilitation
d. None of these
8. The indicator is to decrease the visible disabilities to less than 1 per 10,
00,000 populations in the community in NLEP is by ……….
a. 2030 b. 2005
c. 2020 d. 2025
9. National Mental Health Program (NMHP) was launched in
a. 1982 b. 1985
c. 1980 d. 1990
10. In which year the manpower development scheme (Scheme-A & B)
became part National Mental Health Program (NMHP):
a. 2010 b. 2009
c. 2015 d. 2013
11. WHO on ………… removed India from the list of countries with active
endemic wild polio virus transmission
a. 24th February 2012 b. 20th February 2012
c. 10th February 2012 c. 15th February 2012
12. Eye donation fortnight is observed on
a. 25 Aug to 8 Sep b. 28 Aug to 8 Sep
c. 22 Aug to 1 Sep d. None of these
13. The last polio case in the country was reported from…….
a. West Bengal b. Gujarat
c. Delhi d. Orissa
14. Under programme NPCB Vision is
a. “THE RIGHT TO SIGHT” b. “THE OUTH TO SIGHT”
c. Both d. None of these
15. Biggest achievement of the immunization program is the eradication of
a. Chicken Pox b. Tetanus
c. Small Pox d. TB
16. Vaccine under UIP
a. BCG b. DPT

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c. OPV d. All of these

17. Disease protected by vaccination under UIP are
a. Diphtheria b. Pertussis
c. Tetanus d. All of these
18. Full form of AEFI
a. Adverse Events following Immunization
b. Adverse Events for Immunization
c. Adverse Evidence following immunization
d. None of these
19. Measles Rubella (MR) vaccine was introduced
a. 1985 b. 2017
c. 2018 d. 2005
20. Mission Indradhanushon was launched in………
a. 2014-15 b. 2017-18
c. 2010-12 d. 2009-10
21. National Programme for prevention and control of Deafness (NPPCD)
was launched in
a. 2005 b. 2007
c. 2010 d. 2015
22. Full form of NLEP
a. National Leprosy Eradication Process
b. National Leprosy Enrolment Programme
c. National Leprosy Eradication Programme
d. None of these
23. A 24 x7 call centre receive disease alerts all across the country on a troll
free telephone number is
a. 1075 b. 108
c. 1096 d. 1086
24. Parts of surveillance unit in IDSP are
a. DSU b. CSU
c. SSU d. All of these
25. Nikshyaposhakyojan is centrally sponsored scheme under
a. National Health Mission (NHM)
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b. National Urban Health Mission (NHUM)

c. National Rural Health Mission (NHRM)
d. None of these
26. Full form of DOT
a. Directly observed treatment (DOT)
b. Directional observed treatment (DOT)
c. Director observed treatment (DOT)
d. None of these
27. TB elimination has been integrated into the four strategic pillars of
“Detect-Treat-Prevent-Build” (DTPB).
a. True b. False
28. Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by
a. Virus b. Bacteria
c. Protozoa d. Fungi
29. HIV is caused by
a. Virus b. Protozoa
c. Fungi d. Bacteria
30. What are types of Blindness
a. Curable b. Absolute
c. Social d. All of these
31. NACP was launched in the year….
a. 1980 b. 1962
c. 1990 d. 1992
32. National TB Control Programme started in ………….
a. 1960 b. 1962
c. 1964 c. 1966
33. Head of the programme of National Leprosy is ………. of health and
family welfare
a. Deputy Director b. Director
c. Secretary d. None of these
34. NMHP has …4…. components.

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1-c 2-d 3-d 4-a 5-a 6-a

7-c 8-c 9-a 10-b 11-a 12-a
13-a 14-a 15-c 16-d 17-d 18-a
19-b 20-a 21-b 22-c 23-a 24-d
25-a 26-a 27-a 28-b 29-a 30-d
31-d 32-b 3-a 34-c 5-a

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d. 5

Blind

2
c. 4

a. ness
c.

Answer:

35. Second leading cause for years lived with disability is …blindness……
b. Deafness
d. None of these
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Model Question Bank

Unit IV: National Health Intervention Programme
1. What is the full form of MTP?
a. Medical Termination of Parturition
b. Mechanical Transfer of Pollen
c. Medical Termination of Pregnancy
d. Maternally Transmitted Pathogens
2. The programs to get total reproductive health as a social goal of national
level are called
a. Family organization b. Family planning
c. Family care d. Reproductive care
3. Which of the following is used for grading protein energy malnutrition?
a. Ballard’s scale b. Gomez scale
c. Bishop scoring d. Kramer’s rule
4. Which type of the following food is rich in omega 3 fatty acids?
a. Oily fish b. Chicken
c. Pork d. Egg
5. Which of the following food item believed to be complete meal or balance
diet?
a. Vegetables b. Fruits
c. Milk d. Honey
6. Which one of the following is the main target of family welfare programs?
a. Couples in the fertile age b. Children below 12 years
c. Women after fertile age d. Male after fertile age
7. Which one of the following is the activity of the Family Welfare
Programme?
a. Malnutrition programme b. Child marriage

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c. IUD programme d. One child one nation policy

8. When the Family Planning Insurance Scheme was introduced?
a. 2003 b. 2005
c. 2007 d. 2009
9. Which is the first state in India to recognize the basic relevance of family
planning to nation planning?
a. Kerala b. Goa
c. Karnataka d. Tamil Nadu
10. Which is the first country to initiate a Family Planning Programme in the
world?
a. Brazil b. Pakistan
c. India d. France
11. What is the addictive drug in tobacco?
a. Ethanol b. Nicotine
c. Ammonia d. Tar
12. Which of the following disease is commonly caused by spit tobacco?
a. Lung cancer b. Liver cancer
c. Brian cancer d. Mouth cancer
13. Which of the following is not an effect of smoking during pregnancy?
a. Low birth weight, leading to breathing and other health problems
b. Premature birth, leading to breathing and other health problems
c. Birth defects such as missing limbs or malformed ears
d. Learning and behaviour problems later in childhood
14. What is the leading cancer killer of women in the United States?
a. Oral cancer from spit tobacco
b. Brain cancer from various causes
c. Liver cancer from excess alcohol consumption
d. Lung cancer from smoking
15. Mosquito responsible for malaria transmission.
a. Aedes aegypti b. Aedes slbopictus
c. Anopheles d. Haemagogus
16. How many people are at risk of malaria in the world?
a. 1.2 million people b. 1.2 billion people
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c. 3.2 million people d. 3.2 billion people

17. We can protect our self from malaria
a. Using mosquito repellent
b. Wearing light-coloured, long-sleeved shirts and trousers
c. Sleeping under insecticide-treated bed nets
d. All of these
18. There is a vaccine against malaria
a. True b. False
19. The term ageism was coined malaria
a. Robert Butler b. Ignatz Leo Nascher
c. Dr, O. P. Sharma d. Dr. Sharad Gokhale
20. The elderly population (>60 years) accounted for what percentage of total
population of India in 2011.
a. 6.2% b. 7.4 %
c. 8.3 % d. 9.3 %
21. About 64/1000 elderly (>60 years) persons in rural areas and 55/1000 in
urban areas suffer from one or more disabilities. The most common
disability among the elderly in India is
a. Locomotor disability b. Visual disability
c. Hearing disability d. Speech disability
22. Which of the following Institutions in India does not conduct Geriatric
Medicine courses?
a. IGNOU b. AIIMS Delhi
c. Mysore Medical College d. Madras Medical College
23. Which of the following mentioned portals and sub-programmes were
created under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)? a. Rashtriya
AvishkarAbhiyan (RAA)
b. Padhe Bharat Badhu Bharat
c. Shagun Portal
d. All of these
24. What does ‘S’ stand for in SATH, an initiative by government of India to
initiate transformation in Health and Education Sectors by associating
with states?
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a. Sustainable b. Supervisory
c. Social d. All the these
25. Under Swachh Swasth Sarvatra, financial assistance of ………. Rupees
will be given to the community health centres so that they can be
strengthened to meet the standards of sanitation, hygiene and infection
control?
a. 10 lakhs b. 15 lakhs
c. 20 lakhs d. 25 lakhs
26. Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhaya
Grameen Kaushalaya Yujana (DDN-GKY) is not correct?
a. It is a placement linked skill training programme exclusively rural girls
b. It is a generational poverty alleviation programme
c. It aims to correct India’s demographic surplus into a demographic dividend
d. All of these
27. India’s first healthcare and wellness centre under Ayushman Bharat
Yojana was inaugurated in
a. Bijapur (Chhattisgarh) b. Udaipur (Rajasthan)
c. Vidisha (Madhya Pradesh) d. Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh)
28. The ministry of communication has recently launched a Pan India
Scholarship programme for school-children called ‘Deen Dayal Sparsh
Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of
a. Philately b. Sports
c. Music b. Fashion Designing
29. Which one of the following statement about ‘Niryat Bandhu Scheme’ is
correct?
a. It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.
b. It is a scheme for crop protection
c. It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs
d. It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society
30. Which state has been named first among states for its performance under
the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritav Abhiyan (PMSMA) in India?
a. Madhya Pradesh b. Himachal Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu d. Uttar Pradesh
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31. World health Organisation (WHO) established on which year……

a. 1947 b. 1948
c. 1949 d. 1955
32. The headquarters of WHO is located at…………
a. United State b. Brazil
c. Geneva d. Italy
33. The BCG vaccine prevent from which disease/
a. Malaria b. Typhoid’s
c. Tetanus d. Tuberculosis
34. Detection and management of 4Ds include …….
a. Disease b. Deficiencies
c. Development d. All of these
35. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyahram (RBSK) launched in which year
a. 2010 b. 2012
c. 2013 d. 2014
Answer:
1-c 2-b 3-b 4-a 5-c 6-a
7-c 8-b 9-d 10-c 11-b 12-d
13-d 14-d 15-c 16-d 17-d 18-b
19-a 20-c 21-a 22-c 23-d 24-a
25-a 26-a 27-a 28-a 29-c 30-b
31-b 32-c 33-d 34-d 35-c

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Model Question Bank

Unit V: Community Services in Rural, Urban and School
health
1. Which of the following are not causing agents of disease?
a. Physical agents b. Biological agents
c. Chemical agents d. All of these
2. Sanitization broadly means …………
a. Supporting small-scale entrepreneurs
b. Disposal of human excreta
c. To develop household water treatment (HWT) and social Waste
Management System
d. Education people and community
3. What is estimated death linked to poor sanitation and hygiene in rural
India?
a. 1 in every 10 death b. 1 in every 100 deaths
c. 10 in every 50 death d. it can’t be estimated
4. The Central Rural Program was launched in …….
a. 1980 b. 1950
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c. 1986 d. 2012
5. The Central Rural Sanitation Program was reconstructed in April and
renamed as ……………
a. Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan b. bhartiya Nirmala Abhiyan
c. Nirmal Gram Abhiyan d. Total Sanitization Scheme
6. The first Nirmal Gram Puraskar was given in …….
a. 2005 b. 2003
c. 2011 b. 2012
7. What do you mean by HWT?
a. Household Waste Treatment b. Housing Water Treatment
c. Housing Waste Treatment d. Household Water Treatment
8. The materials required for the construction of sanitary latrines and other
sanitary facilities are sold from ………
a. Rural Sanitization mart (RSM) b. Rural Sanitary Mart (RSM)
c. Rural Sanitary Mall (RSM) d. Gram Panchayat
9. The main objective of the program …………. is to eradicate 100 % open
defecation.
a. Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan
b. Central Rural Sanitation Program
c. Total Sanitation Campaign (TSC)
d. Open Defecation free India
10. Which of following is objective of the community health?
a. Promotion and protection of health i.e. PRIMARY LEVEL
PREVENTION
b. Early diagnosis and treatment and control of further spread of disease
i.e. SECONDARY LEVEL PREVENTION
c. Control of disability and rehabilitation
d. All of these
11. The concept of primary health care was introduction at international level
jointly by WHO and UNICEF at the Alma Atta conference in ….
year.
a. 1975 b. 1978
c. 1976 d. 1973
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12. What was the goal to achieve Alma Atta conference

a. Basic facility for all b. Health for all
c. Sanitization for all d. None of these
13. Full form of PHC
a. Primary Health Centre b. Purposive Health Centre
c. Primary Health Care d. Paediatric heath Care
14. Required number of population to establish PHC in Plain area
a. 20000 b. 25000
c. 15000 d. 30000
15. What are levels of care in PHC
a. First level health care b. Second level health care
c. Tertiary level health care d. all of these
16. What is first referral level at in various levels of health care in PHC
a. First level health care b. Second level health care
c. Tertiary level health care d. all of these
17. What are objectives of PHC
a. To provide comprehensive primary health care to the community
PHCs.
b. To achieve and maintain an acceptable standards of quality of care
c. To make the services more responsive and sensitive to the need of the
community
d. All of these
18. The government of India launched the National urban health Mission
(NUHM) as a submission under the National Health Mission (NHM) in
st
a. 1 April 2005 b. 1st May 2013
c. 1st May 2007 d. 1st April 2015
19. Rajiv Rinn Yojana (RRY) addresses housing need of
a. Economically weak and lower income groups in urban areas
b. Urban BPL population
c. Urban slum dwellers and homeless
d. All of these
20. Urban areas covered under N. U. H. M are
a. Town Panchayat b. Municipal Corporation
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c. Municipalities d. All of these

21. The major cause of death in Urban Areas
a. Cardiovascular disease b. malignant and other neoplasms
c. Tuberculosis d. Diarrheal disease
22. The key public health challenges are
a. Weak and dysfunctional public system of outreach
b. Poor environment health, poor housing
c. Many slims not having primary health care facility
d. All of these
23. NUHM will promote ________ convergence to avoid duplication or
resources and efforts
a. Inter sectoral b. Intra sectoral
c. Both d. None of these
24. Which of the following statement is correct
a. Health promotion can refer to any event, process or activity that
facilitates the protection or improvement of the health status of
individuals groups, communication or populations,
b. The objective of health promotion is to prolong life and to improve
quality of life.
c. Health promotion practice is often shaped by how health is
conceptualized
d. All of these
25. …………….. refers to the application of consumer-oriented marking
techniques in the design, implementation and evaluation of programmes
aimed towards influencing behaviour change
a. Health education b. Social marketing
c. Consumer health d. None of these
26. Which of the following are major components of coordinated school
health?
a. Comprehensive school health education
b. Physical education
c. Nutritional services
d. All of these
27. The frame work of health promoting school include …….
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a. Education b. Environment
c. Partnership d. All of these
28. Health is best described as a resource that allows a person to have:
a. A social and spiritual life
b. A productive social and economic life
c. Economic well-being
d. Physical capacity
29. The main aim of public health is to improve health by:
a. Providing medical intervention appropriate for the individual
b. Performing research to compare the effectiveness of treatments
c. Promoting health and preventing disease in populations
d. Providing advice on risk markers and genetics to families.
30. Primary prevention is concerned with
a. Preventing disease or illness occurring
b. Delaying the progress of an existing disease or illness
c. Maintaining current health status
d. Treatment of existing health status
31. An example of primary health care is an
a. Nurse practitioner clinic
b. Aboriginal community controlled health organization
c. Outpatient clinic for a specific disease process
d. Aged care services organization
32. A person working as a health educator uses an approach that views health
as related to
a. Pathological processes
b. Behavioural change
c. Health screening
d. Minimising complications
33. Which of the following factors is necessary for a healthy person
a. Vaccination b. Balanced diet
c. Personal hygiene d. All of the above
34. The main cause of contagious disease is ______
a. Contaminated air b. Contaminated food
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c. Poor hygienic conditions d. All of the above

35. Which one of the following is not a bacterial disease?
a. AIDS b. Dengue
c. Measles d. All of these
36. Which one of the following is an unhealthy habit?
a. Sharing food
b. Bathing twice a day
c. Drinking boiled water
d. Eating without washing one’s hand
37. Cleanliness, physical exercise, rest and sleep are a part of ………
a. Hygiene b. Social hygiene
c. Personal hygiene d. None of these

1-d 2-c 3-a 4-b 5-a 6-a

7-d 8-c 9-b 10-d 11-b 12-c
13-a 15-d 16-b 17-d 18-c
14-d
19-a 21-a 22-d 23-c 24-d
20-d

25-b 26-d 27-d 28-b 29-c 30-a

31-b 33-d 34-d 35-d 36-d
32-b
37-c
Answer:

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