Date : 04/02/2025

A
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01010402

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GENERAL STUDIES

TEST-1

POLITY + Current Affairs

June 2024 (Polity and Environment)

Time Allowed: One Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Before attempting paper please read the instructions given on page no. 2 carefully and follow
them.

Vivekananda House: Mukherjee Nagar: BHOPAL CENTRE: JAIPUR CENTRE: Plot PRAYAGRAJ CENTRE:
6-B, Pusa Road, Metro 1422, Main Mukherjee Plot No. 46 Zone‑2, No. 6 & 7, 3rd Floor, IInd Floor 31/31, Sardar
Pillar no. 111, Near Karol Nagar Road, Near M.P Nagar, Sree Gopal Nagar, Patel Marg, Civil Lines
Bagh Metro, New Batra Cinema, New Bhopal 462011 Gopalpura Bypass, Prayagraj,
Delhi-110060 Delhi-110009 Phone: 8827664612, Jaipur - 302015 Phone: Uttar Pradesh-211001
Phone: 8081300200 Phone: 8081300200 8081300200 9358200511 Ph. 9958857757
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 POLITY + Current Affairs June 2024 (Polity and Environment)

1. With reference to the Committees of the intangible property like IPR, digital
Indian Constituent Assembly, consider the assets, etc.
following pairs: (d) A person can directly move to High
Major Committee Chairman Courts under Article 226 against any
1. States Committee Sardar violation of this right.
Vallabhbhai Patel
100% 75% 50% Guess
2. Rules of Procedure G.V. Mavalankar
Committee 4. Which of the following Acts ended all the
3. Drafting Dr. B.R. activities of the East India Company as a
Committee Ambedkar commercial body and made it a purely
How many of the pairs given above are administrative body?
correctly matched? (a) Charter Act, 1813
(a) Only one (b) Charter Act, 1833
(b) Only two (c) Charter Act, 1853
(c) Only three (d) Government of India Act, 1858
(d) None
100% 75% 50% Guess
100% 75% 50% Guess
5. Consider the following statements:
2. How many of the following Indian Acts/ 1. The Constituent Assembly was
constituted under the scheme
codes can be utilized to tackle online
formulated by the Cabinet Mission.
misinformation?
2. The Constituent Assembly was partly
1. Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita, 2023
elected and partly nominated.
2. Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000
3. The Constituent Assembly was not
3. Information Technology (Intermediary
directly elected by the people of India
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics
on the basis of adult franchise.
Code) Rules, 2021 4. Mahatma Gandhi was a member of the
4. Disaster Management Act, 2005 Assembly.
Select the correct answer from the code How many statement(s) given above is/are
given below: correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) Only three
(d) All four (d) All four

100% 75% 50% Guess 100% 75% 50% Guess

3. Which of the following statements is correct 6. Which of the following statement(s) is

about the status of “Right to Property in correct about the Government of India Act,
India”? 1919?
(a) It is not available to non-citizens. (a) It introduced a system of separate
(b) It is a fundamental right. electorate.
(c) The term “property” encompasses (b) For the first time, Indians were
only tangible property but not associated with the Executive Council.

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Prelims Booster Test Series 2025

(c) It introduced the system of dyarchy at Statement II: Iron reacts with air to form
the provincial legislature level. iron oxide and release heat.
(d) It was for the first time the Budget was Which one of the following is correct in
allowed to be discussed in the Central respect of the above statements?
legislature. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
100% 75% 50% Guess correct and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
7. What does the term “constitutional (b) Both Statement I and Statement II
Government” mean in the Indian context? are correct but Statement II is not the
(a) A Government limited by the correct explanation of Statement I
Constitution. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(b) A Government committed to the is not correct
demands of the majority. (d) Statement II is correct but Statement I
(c) A Government which is responsible to is not correct
the Legislature.
(d) A Government with representation 100% 75% 50% Guess
from all parties.
11. Match the following Schedule(s) of the
100% 75% 50% Guess Indian Constitution with their Contents:
8. Which of the following is the most essential Schedule Content
feature of “federalism”? A. First 1. Allocation of Seats in
(a) The Judiciary should be independent. Schedule Rajya Sabha
(b) The Union Government consists of
B. Fourth 2. Recognition of States
members from regional parties.
Schedule and Union Territories
(c) The Constitution can be easily amended
with the concurrence of the States. C. Sixth 3. Administration of
(d) The All-India Services (AIS) can be Schedule Tribal Areas
transferred or suspended by the State D. Tenth 4. Anti-Defection
Governments. Schedule Provisions
100% 75% 50% Guess Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
9. Consider the following statements with (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
respect to Rights: (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
1. All rights put restrictions on the State. (c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
2. Some rights put restrictions on the (d) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
citizens.
3. All rights are protected by the State. 100% 75% 50% Guess
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
12. Consider the following statements about
are not correct?
Preamble of Indian Constitution:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. The Preamble can be used as a source
(c) 1 and 3 only of power for the legislatures to enact
(d) 1, 2 and 3 laws.
2. The Preamble aids the Courts in
100% 75% 50% Guess interpreting ambiguous or conflicting
provisions in the Constitution, if any.
10. Consider the following statements: 3. The Preamble is part of the “Basic
Statement I: Chemical heating patches have Structure of the Constitution” and
iron powder, salt, and activated carbon. cannot be amended.

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 POLITY + Current Affairs June 2024 (Polity and Environment)

Which of the statement(s) given above is/ (b) A group of people who necessarily
are not correct? come from the same descent, language,
(a) 1 and 2 only or ethnicity, living permanently within
(b) 2 and 3 only a particular territory.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) A group of people with individual
(d) 1, 2 and 3
identities and loyal to the controlling
100% 75% 50% Guess authority protecting their rights and
aspirations.
13. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
(d) A group of people with a Government
matched?
to govern them.
Features of the Borrowed From
Constitution 100% 75% 50% Guess
1. Parliamentary Britain
System 16. How many of the following features are
essential for a “democratic” Government?
2. Amendment Process South Africa
1. Single citizenship
3. Directive Principles Ireland
2. Universal adult franchise
of State Policy
3. Free and fair elections
4. Fundamental Rights United States of
4. A committed judiciary
America
5. An independent election commission
Select the correct answer from the codes established by the Constitution
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer from the codes
(b) 2 and 4 only given below:
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only (a) Only two
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (b) Only three
100% 75% 50% Guess (c) Only four
(d) All five
14. Consider the following statements:
1. All fundamental rights are justiciable 100% 75% 50% Guess
in nature.
2. All fundamental rights are automatically 17. Consider the following statements:
enforceable by the Constitution. 1. A person in prison cannot fight
3. All fundamental rights are absolute. elections in India.
How many statement(s) given above is/are 2. A person in prison cannot vote in India.
correct? 3. A person under preventive detention
(a) Only one cannot vote in India.
(b) Only two
4. A person out on bail cannot vote in
(c) All three
(d) None India.
How many statement(s) given above is/are
100% 75% 50% Guess
not correct?
15. Which of the following best describes a (a) Only one
“nation”? (b) Only two
(a) A group of people with a collective (c) Only three
identity, vision for the future and beliefs (d) All four
with an aspiration of independent
political existence and a right to self- 100% 75% 50% Guess
govern.

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Prelims Booster Test Series 2025

18. Consider the following statements: 21. The Preamble to the Constitution of India
1. Paradiplomacy is, best described as:
2. Economic sanctions on India-Russia (a) a part of the Constitution but has no
S-400 deal by the USA under CAATSA legal effect
3. Khalistan’s demand for secession from (b) not a part of the Constitution and has
India no legal effect either
(c) a part of the Constitution and has the
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ same legal effect as any other part
are challenge(s) to India’s sovereignty? (d) a part of the Constitution but has no
(a) 1 and 2 only legal effect independently of other
(b) 2 and 3 only parts
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 100% 75% 50% Guess

100% 75% 50% Guess 22. With reference to the politico-geographical

extent of India, consider the following
19. The idea of “justice” in India is challenged territories:
in how many of the following statements? 1. Enclaves of foreign nations in India
1. Rising income inequality in India 2. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in
2. No right to vote to prisoners in India India
3. Caste inequality in India 3. Airspace over territorial waters of India
4. Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs)
4. Prevention of entry of women in
temples How many of the statement(s) given above
can be considered as a part of the “territories
Select the correct answer from the codes of India” under Article 1?
given below: (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) Only three
(c) Only three (d) None
(d) All four
100% 75% 50% Guess
100% 75% 50% Guess
23. Consider the following statements with
20. Consider the following statements about respect to functions of the Constitution:
“equality in India”: Statement-I: The Constitution provides for
1. The Indian Constitution does not coordination between various members of
have a concept of “negative equality” the society.
enshrined under Article 14.
Statement-II: The decision making authority
2. The Indian Constitution provides for
of various members in the society is sourced
both formal and substantive equality.
directly or indirectly from the Constitution.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ Which one of the following is correct in
are correct? respect of the above statements?
(a) 1 only (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) 2 only correct and Statement-I is the direct
(c) Both 1 and 2 implication of Statement-II
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct but Statement-I is not the direct
100% 75% 50% Guess implication of Statement-II

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 POLITY + Current Affairs June 2024 (Polity and Environment)

(c) Statement-II is correct but Statement-I 3. India recognizes all islands south of
is not correct 60 degrees south latitude as a part of
(d) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II Antarctica.
is not correct
How many of the statement(s) given above
100% 75% 50% Guess is/are correct?
(a) Only one
24. Consider the following statements: (b) Only two
1. Union territories do not form the part (c) All three
of “Union of States”. (d) None
2. The Parliament has the power to
legislate on all matters for Union 100% 75% 50% Guess
territories, regardless of the fact they
have an Assembly or not. 27. Consider the following statements:
3. Article 239AA deals with the Statement I: Bharat Ratna cannot be used
administration of NCT of Delhi as “suffix” or “prefix” to the name of the
while Article 239A deals with the Awardees.
administration of Puducherry.
Statement II: The conferment of Bharat
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ Ratna is violative of Article 18.
are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only Which one of the following is correct in
(b) 2 and 3 only respect of the above statements?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct and Statement-I is the direct
implication of Statement-II
100% 75% 50% Guess (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct but Statement-I is not the direct
25. Consider the following statements implication of Statement-II
considering international migration: (c) Statement-II is correct but Statement-I
1. All refugees are migrants. is not correct
2. All migrants are stateless. (d) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
3. All refugees are stateless. is not correct
4. All refugees are illegal immigrants.
How many statement(s) given above is/are 100% 75% 50% Guess
correct?
(a) Only one 28. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two 1. India is the only country with
(c) Only three constitutional provisions related to
(d) All four preventive detention during peacetime.
2. The grounds of detention shall be
100% 75% 50% Guess mandatorily communicated to the
detenu in all circumstances.
26. Consider the following statements regarding 3. State legislatures have the exclusive
Antarctic Treaty 1959: jurisdiction to make laws on preventive
1. It is the only example of a single treaty detention.
governing a whole continent.
2. It aims at ensuring de-militarization Which of the statement(s) given above is/
of the region, preventing future are not correct?
establishment of military bases in the (a) 1 and 2 only
country. (b) 2 and 3 only

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Prelims Booster Test Series 2025

(c) 1 and 3 only 3. This writ can be issued against

(d) 1, 2 and 3 both public authorities and private
individuals.
100% 75% 50% Guess
Which of the following writs is being talked
29. Consider the following statements: about in the statement(s) given above?
1. Israel is the only State to have (a) Quo-warranto
compulsory military conscription for (b) Habeas corpus
both men and women. (c) Mandamus
2. Article 23 prohibits the State from (d) Certiorari
imposing compulsory military service
for public purposes. 100% 75% 50% Guess
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
32. Consider the following statements:
are correct?
(a) 1 only 1. Flag Code of India
(b) 2 only 2. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. National Education Policy 2020
How many Act(s)/Policie(s) given above
100% 75% 50% Guess
implement the principles mentioned under
30. Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties (Article 51A)?
minority institutions under Article 30: (a) Only one
1. Minorities institutions primarily (b) Only two
imparting religious instructions are (c) Only three
covered under the Right to Education (d) All four
Act, 2005.
2. Only religious minorities are allowed 100% 75% 50% Guess
to establish educational institutions
under Article 30. 33. Article 13 declares laws which are
3. Rights of minority institutions under inconsistent with the fundamental rights as
Article 30 are part of the “Basic null and void. How many of the following
Structure of the Constitution”. laws can be considered under the purview
How many statements given above is/are of Article 13?
correct? 1. Supreme Court while making judicial
(a) Only one legislations under Article 142.
(b) Only two 2. SEBI while issuing notifications under
(c) All three SEBI Act, 1992.
(d) None 3. Sharia Board while issuing rules for
administration of marriages in India
100% 75% 50% Guess
under Muslim Personal Law.
31. Consider the following statements: 4. Bodoland Territorial Council while
1. This writ acts as the bulwark of making laws for supply and distribution
individual liberty. of raw cotton and raw jute.
2. This writ principle of locus standi is 5. President issuing ordinance to
not necessary for issuance of the writ. implement farm laws in India

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 POLITY + Current Affairs June 2024 (Polity and Environment)

Select the correct answer from the codes How many right(s) given above is/are
given below: fundamental right(s) under Article 19 of the
(a) Only two Constitution?
(b) Only three (a) Only one
(c) Only four (b) Only two
(d) All five (c) Only three
(d) All four
100% 75% 50% Guess
100% 75% 50% Guess
34. Which one of the following reflects the
most appropriate relationship between law 37. Which of the following laws cannot be
and rights? declared unconstitutional and void for
(a) Rights are actions permissible only violating the fundamental rights under
under a law. Article 14 and 19?
(b) Laws provide protection to rights by 1. A law amalgamating two or more
promoting stability in the society. corporations in public interests and
(c) If there are no laws, there are more secure proper management of any such
rights. corporations.
(d) If laws are changed too frequently, the 2. A law providing acquisition of any
rights come under grave danger. estate by the State on compensation of
the market rates.
100% 75% 50% Guess 3. A law giving effect to the principles
under Article 39(b) or (c) of the
35. Consider the following statements: Constitution.
1. Prescribing residence as a condition
Select the correct answer from the codes
for employment in the Department of given below:
Archeology, Telangana. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Empowering Special Courts in Manipur (b) 2 and 3 only
to issue directions, directives and (c) 1 and 3 only
writs for enforcement of Fundamental (d) 1, 2 and 3
Rights.
3. Prescribing life imprisonment for 100% 75% 50% Guess
offenses related to trafficking in
LGBTQ+ community. 38. The right to default bail is a fundamental
right under which of the following Articles?
How many of the above is/are the exclusive (a) Article 22
power(s) of the Parliament to enact laws (b) Article 21
on? (c) Article 14
(a) Only one (d) Article 20
(b) Only two
(c) All three 100% 75% 50% Guess
(d) None
39. Consider the following pairs:
100% 75% 50% Guess
Country Emergency Reason
36. Consider the following rights: 1. Trinidad Rise in criminal
1. Right to Internet and Tobago activities and civil
2. Right to Information violence
3. Right to Silence 2. Ecuador Protests against electoral
4. Right to Self-Identified Gender reforms

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Prelims Booster Test Series 2025

3. South Imposition of martial (c) 1 and 3 only

Korea law (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. New Shortage of water, forest
100% 75% 50% Guess
Caledonia fires and drought
Which of the pair(s) given above is/are 42. How many of the following is/are
intersected by the recently proposed India-
correct?
Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor?
(a) 2 and 4 only
1. Equator
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. Tropic of Cancer
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 3. Tropic of Capricorn
(d) All are correct Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
100% 75% 50% Guess
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
40. Consider the following pair(s):
(c) All three
Directive Principle of Type of (d) None
State Policy Principle
100% 75% 50% Guess
1. Free Legal Aid for Socialist
Poor (Article 39A) 43. Which of the following statements is correct
2. Promotion of Gandhian regarding ‘Constitution Day’ in India?
Cooperative Societies 1. Constitution Day has been celebrated
(Article 43B) on 26th November every year since
3. Right to Work Intellectual 2015.
(Article 41) 2. The decision to celebrate Constitution
Day was notified by the Ministry
How many statement(s) given above is/are
of Social Justice & Empowerment,
correct? Government of India.
(a) Only one 3. The objective of Constitution Day is
(b) Only two to enforce the fundamental duty under
(c) All three Article 51A(a).
(d) None Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
100% 75% 50% Guess (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
41. Consider the following statements about (c) 2 and 3 only
the Directive Principles of State Policy: (d) 1 and 3 only
1. They reflect the principle of parens
patriae for the Indian State. 100% 75% 50% Guess
2. They lay down the basis of “economic 44. How many Article(s) given below acts
justice and economic democracy”. as enabling provision(s) for providing
3. They are inferior to the fundamental representation to the Scheduled Tribes
rights in existence. (STs) and Scheduled Castes (SCs) in public
employment?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ 1. Article 16
are correct? 2. Article 335
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Article 46
(b) 2 and 3 only 4. Article 21

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 POLITY + Current Affairs June 2024 (Polity and Environment)

Select the correct answer from the codes 3. Economic backwardness

given below: 4. A declining or stagnant population
(a) Only one 5. High incidences of communicable
(b) Only two
diseases
(c) Only three
(d) All four 6. No political representation
How many statement(s) given above form
100% 75% 50% Guess
the criteria for identifying PVTGs?
45. Which of the following best reflects the idea (a) Only two
of “secularism” in the Indian Constitution? (b) Only four
1. The State has no religion of its own. (c) Only five
2. The Head of State or Head of
(d) All six
Government are prohibited from
attending religious affairs and 100% 75% 50% Guess
congregations.
3. The State cannot utilize public money 48. Consider the following statements:
for maintenance of any particular
1. Abolishment of the Press Council of
religion.
4. The religious denomination can India.
establish and maintain institutions for 2. The Centre attains the power to issue
charitable purposes. executive directions to the State.
Select the correct answer from the codes 3. Ban of certain organizations/groupings
given below: on apprehension of disturbance to
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only social and communal harmony.
(b) 2 and 3 only 4. Suspension of right to freedom of
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
speech and expression.
(d) All are correct
How many of the statement(s) given above
100% 75% 50% Guess
are automatic consequences of national
46. Consider the following statements: emergency due to armed rebellion in India?
1. Increase in trade (a) Only one
2. Weakening of federal structure (b) Only two
3. Reduction of multidimensional poverty (c) Only three
How many of the statement(s) given above (d) All four
is/are possible long term implications of
creation of a new State in India? 100% 75% 50% Guess
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 49. Under this system, the candidate who
(c) All three gets the majority of the votes, is elected
(d) None from each territorial constituency and the
100% 75% 50% Guess additional seats are filled based on various
parties’ percentage of votes. In order to
47. Consider the following statement(s) about maintain balance between stability and
PVTGs (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal commensuration, this system can be adopted
Groups):
in India according to the recommendation
1. Pre-agricultural level of technology
2. Low level of literacy of the Law Commission.

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Prelims Booster Test Series 2025

Which of the following systems is being 2. Till date, India does not have any active
described in the above given passage? offshore wind projects.
(a) Party List Proportional Representation 3. Offshore wind energy projects are
(b) Two-Round System more efficient, more productive and
(c) Borda Count System have less transmission losses than
(d) Mixed Member Proportional onshore wind energy projects.
Representation Which of the statement(s) given above is/
100% 75% 50% Guess are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
50. Consider the following statements regarding (b) 1 and 3 only
wind energy in India: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. India is amongst the top five countries (d) 1, 2 and 3
in the world in terms of wind energy
100% 75% 50% Guess
capacity.

nnnn

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