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Model Test 102

The document contains a series of English language exercises designed for a competitive exam, including sentence rearrangement, word replacement, and contextual usage questions. It also includes a passage discussing the implications of population aging, highlighting its impact on economic factors such as labor shortages and government spending. The exercises aim to assess comprehension and grammatical skills in the context of various topics.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
51 views12 pages

Model Test 102

The document contains a series of English language exercises designed for a competitive exam, including sentence rearrangement, word replacement, and contextual usage questions. It also includes a passage discussing the implications of population aging, highlighting its impact on economic factors such as labor shortages and government spending. The exercises aim to assess comprehension and grammatical skills in the context of various topics.

Uploaded by

gk837439
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

I B PS PO-M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 102

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-4): Rearrange the following four sentences (P), (Q), (R) are (S) in
the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions

r’s
given below.
1. P. a particular wedding anniversary
Q. flower picture to commemorate
R. works very well
S. the idea of making a special
1) SPQR
ha
2) RSPQ 3) SQPR 4) QSPR 5) PQRS
2. P. necessity to showcase individual
Q. nicely without feeling the

E
R. Baseball had been getting along
S. stars during a midseason break
d
1) SPQR 2) RQPS 3) PRSQ 4) QSPR 5) PQRS
3. P. the permanent collection that will
Q. he is considering ways’ to
ee

R. relate to different sectors of the population


S. develop exhibitions beyond
1) QSPR 2) RSPQ 3) PRSQ 4) QSPR 5) PQRS
4. P. abolish institutional racial segregation, discrimination,
C
Q. and campaign from 1954 to 1968 in the United States to
Sr

R. and disenfranchisement throughout the United States


S. the civil rights movement was a political movement
1) QRSP 2) RPSQ 3) SRQP 4) SQPR 5) SPQR
Directions (5-8): In each of the questions given below four words are given in bold
these four words may or may not be in their correct position. Find the correct
combination of words that replace each other.
5. The afterlife is a consciousness (A) existence in which the death (B) part of an
individual’s identity or their stream of purported (C) continues to live after the
C
essential (D) of their physical body.
1) DBCA 2) ABCD 3) CBAD 4) CDAB 5) ACBD
6. Britain’s Covid-19 booster vaccine rollout is to be ahead (A) to people aged between
40 and 49, officials extended (B) on Monday, in a bid to boost waning (C) immunity
in the population said (D) of the colder winter months.
1) DBAC 2) ABCD 3) BDCA 4) CBAD 5) ACDB
7. An addressing (A) is a title that position (B) esteem, courtesy, or respect for
conveys (C) or rank when used in honorific (D) or referring to a person.
1) DBCA 2) ABCD 3) BCAD 4) DCBA 5) ACBD
8. Japan’s former princess Mako Komuro imperial (A) in the United States on Sunday
with her husband, swapping (B) ancient leaving (C) rites for the bright lights of
New York after arrived (D) the royal family.
1) ABCD 2) DBAC 3) DCBA 4) CBAD 5) BDAC

1
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

Directions (9-11): In the following questions, a word is given along with its usage
in sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of the given
word is contextually and grammatically correct.
9. Ostensible
I. The ostensible cause of a modern labour dispute is frequently not the real or
the most important cause.
II. The ostensible reason for war the existence of weapons of mass destruction
has been conclusively disproved.
III. The restaurant serves up ostensible seafood options, and famously large
desserts.
1) Only I and II 2) only II 3) Only III
4) All of the above 5) None of the above

r’s
10. Extinguish
I. It took the fire fighters several hours to extinguish the flames.
II. Last thing before you go to bed extinguish all candles, empty ashtrays, check
the kitchen and close all doors.
III. To safely extinguish a campfire, cover it with dirt and then pour water over
the area.
1) Only I
ha 2) only II 3) Only III
4) All of the above 5) None of the above
11. Tangible

E
I. Some people just put more effort into distinguishing right from tangible than
others.
d
II. There is an air of excited anticipation in the air so tangible you can feel it
creeping along your skin.
III. Looking back on the previous chapters of my life, I am very tangible for my
ee

family’s love and support.


1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III
4) All of the above 5) None of the above
Directions (12-14): In the following questions two columns are given containing
C
three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and
C and in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/
Sr

phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/
phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which
the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence.
12. Column I
A. A skilled supervisor is an effective communicator
B. The fundamental right to asylum for
C
C. They had long suspected the existence of a neutral atomic
Column II
D. Particles, the neutron, which James Chadwick, found in 1932
E. Problem-solving and employee motivating
F. For the politically persecuted knows no upper limit.
1) A-E, B-D 2) A-F, A-E and B-D 3) B-F
4) C-D 5) C-D, B-F
13. Column I
A. Traveling with co-workers is a great chance
B. It is scientifically proven that
C. A jam-packed business trip doesn’t
Column II
D. To get to know them on a deeper level
E. Running is beneficial for health
F. Allowed a lot of flexibility with time.
1) B-E 2) A-E & B-D 3) C-F 4) A-F 5) A-D, B-E
2
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

14. Column I
A. Plant out the spring cabbage
B. The company had the
C. We will commence building
Column II
D. his employment at any time.
E. whenever opportunities arise.
F. work in August of next year.
1) C-F 2) A-E & B-D 3) A-E and C-F
4) A-F, B-D and C-E 5) A-D

r’s
Directions (15-18): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
15. Three people were found shot in death on Friday inside an Indianapolis apartment,
police said.
1) find shot for death
ha
3) finds shot with death
2) founded shot from death

4) found shot to death 5) No correction required


16. They remained passive throughout the war and the neutrality of the country is
respect to both armies.

E
d
1) country was respecting with 2) country is respects of
3) country was respected by
4) country were respect with 5) No correction required
ee

17. No matter how much work it may require, getting an MBA turns out to be a wise
investment for most people.
1) Eventhough it requires much work 2) Although requires more work
C
3) Needs more work
4) However requires more work 5) No correction required
Sr

18. The close handshake will and could continue to catalyse digital acceleration,
and ensure that benefits percolate to all end-users across social strata.
1) Will and would 2) Will and must 3) Would and did
4) Will and has 5) No correction required
Directions (19-23): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are given below the passage and against each,
five options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank
C
appropriately to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
In 2022, the United States ______ (19) a severe shortage of infant formula as
a result of the 2021–2022 global supply chain crisis _____ (20) by a large scale
product recall, import restrictions, and market concentration. Unlike other food
products, infant formula ______ (21) does not have an available and acceptable
substitute as a source of nutrition for those who ______ (22) on it. In addition to
infants, the formula recalls have ______ (23) non-infant medical patients who
require nasogastric feeding or have certain other conditions.
19. 1) practically 2) ignorant 3) inept 4) experienced 5) unable
20. 1) duplicated 2) compounded 3) reduced 4) divided 5) decreased
21. 1) occasionally 2) never 3) often 4) now 5) once
22. 1) distrust 2) consistence 3) suspect 4) question 5) rely
23. 1) affected 2) effected 3) calm 4) happy 5) worried

3
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

Directions (24-30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
One of the most critical demographic events in the world today is population
ageing i.e., the process by which the share of older individuals in the total
population starts becoming larger. The ageing phenomenon, which has been initially
experienced by developed countries, is now steadily approaching the developing
world. Projections show that over the next five decades world median age will
continue to increase, resulting in enhanced old age dependency ratios in all
parts of the world. Thus, population ageing would be major global public policy
concern in the twenty-first century posing unprecedented challenges for fiscal,

r’s
monetary and overall macro-economic management.
There is a general consensus that ageing population reduces output growth,
limits economic welfare and lowers employment. One direct effect of population
ageing is labour shortages that are caused by declining birth rates and increasing
life spans. This translates itself into a higher old age dependency ratio (i.e.,
ha
proportion of population aged and older to population aged 15 to 35). Consequently,
with ageing, the economy’s capacity to sustain the elderly population would decline.
An important consequence of this development is reflected in increasing fiscal
pressures through higher government spending on social security, health care

E
and other welfare programmes for the elderly accompanied by lower tax buoyancy
consequent to falling proportions of the productive labour force. Given the hard
d
budget constraint for many developing countries, this could mean lower government
spending for programmes to primarily benefit the young. With public pension
ee

schemes coming under increasing pressure to raise contribution funds or cut the
size of social safety benefits, the issue of fiscal sustainability is one of the principal
challenges facing policy makers worldwide, particularly in the context of
intergenerational equity.
C
The experience of US, Western Europe and other Organisation for Economic
Sr

Cooperation and Development (OECD) countries suggests that substantial


demographic changes have occurred in the past few decades. Improvements in
life standards, health care and nutrition have increased life expectancy. As a
result, the old-age dependency ratio in OECD countries is projected o reach
nearly 50 percent by 2050. This is going to pose a huge to 1 fiscal burden in terms
of social security, health care, pension and other related expenditures. In this
reveals a In this regard, an OECD exercise a rise in old age pension spending, on
C
an average, by about 3-4 4 percent of GDP over the period till 2050. Expenditure
pined relating to health and long term medical care is estimated to increase by
more than 3 percentage points of GDP over same period. Overall, total age-related
expenditures relative to GDP could rise on average by about 7 percentage points
over the period 2000-2050. In turn, this would imply an average decline. of 6-7
percentage points in the primary balance to GDP ratio.
24. Which of the following is definitely true of population ageing?
1) it was almost simultaneously experienced by all the countries of the globe
2) the underdeveloped countries cannot experience the phenomenon
3) developing and developed countries experienced the phenomenon respectively
in succession
4) the challenges posed by population ageing had been witnessed in the past also
5) none of the above

4
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

25. On which of the following points related to population ageing, there is no dispute
among thinkers?
1) the direct effect of population ageing is abundance of laborers
2) economic welfare will be enhanced due to availability of experienced people
3) employment will be lowered significantly due to population ageing
4) old age dependency ratio will be lowered significantly
5) none of the above
26. The term “population ageing” refers to
1) the proportion of senior citizens in a developed country
2) the percentage of older people in a developing nation
3) increase in the overall population of a developed country

r’s
4) enhancement in the proportion of a developed country
5) none of the above
27. Which of the following factors is responsible for increase in longevity?
(i) substantial rise in living status
(ii) adequate and timely health care
ha
(iii) nourishing and healthy diet
1) (i) and (ii) only 2) (ii) and (iii) only 3) (i) and (iii) only
4) all the three 5) none of these
28.

E
Which of the following is/are most likely to happen by the middle of the 21st
century?
d
(i) in countries like US and Western Europe, the old-age dependency ratio is
likely to touch 50%
(ii) six to seven points increase in primary balance to GDP ratio in OECD countries
ee

(iii) rise to the extent of three to four percentage points of GDP in age old pension
spending
1) (i) and (ii) only 2) (i) and (iii) only 3) (ii) and (iii) only
4) all the three 5) none of these
C
29. What is most likely to happen if the dependency ratio is higher?
Sr

1) it would lower the economy’s capacity to sustain the elderly population


2) government spending on social security would significantly decline
3) productive labour force will increase significantly
4) due increased longevity expenditure on health care will reduce
5) none of the above.
30. Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the word as used in
the passage.
Consensus
C
1) agreement 2) consent 3) harmony 4) compromise 5) interaction
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (31-35): In the following question, two quantities I and II are given .you
have to solve both the quantities to establish the correct relation between Quantity
I and Quantity II and choose the correct option.
31. Quantity I: A shopkeeper purchased two shirts at Rs.1200 and Rs.1600 respectively.
He sold first shirt at two successive discounts of 10% and 20% where as second
shirt at a discount of 15% and 10%, then find the total profit earned when each of
the both shirts are marked up 50%?
Quantity II: 340,332
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

5
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

32. Quantity I: M and N entered in to a partnership with an investment of Rs. 5400


and 6300 respectively. The time period of M invested for 4 months less than N. If
the respective ratio between the profit of M to that of M and N together is 4:11,
then find the period of time which A invested?
QuantityII: 8, 7
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
33. Quantity I: Kavitha and Pranavi invested 9600 each. Kavitha invested her sum at

r’s
12% p.a. simple interest for 10 years, while Pranavi invested her sum at 50% p.a.
compound interest, compounded annually for 2 years and then find the sum of
the interest received by them?
Quantity II: 22250.
ha
1) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II
2) Quantity I > Quantity II
4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
34.

E
Quantity I: The respective ratio between the speed of the boat in still water to
the speed of the stream is 6:1. If boat a can cover 300km upstream in 20hrs. If the
d
speed of the stream increases by 33.33%, then find the time taken the boat a to
travel 198km downstream and 182km upstream?
ee

Quantity II: 22
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
C
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
35. Quantity I: Pram and Lucky started a business with an initial investment of Rs.
Sr

K and Rs.3400 respectively. If the profit share of Pram and lucky at the end of the
16months in the respective ratio is 14:17, then find the value of the K?
Quantity II: 6500
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
C
Direction (36-40): What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the
following questions.
36. 27 40 79 144 235 ?
1) 352 2) 321 3) 347 4) 359 5) 354
37. 25 147 317 543 833 ?
1) 1295 2) 1195 3) 1275 4) 1285 5) 1290
38. 648 324 324 648 2592 ?
1) 20189 2) 20976 3) 20736 4) 20405 5)20486
39. 64 101 239 831 3939 ?
1) 23752 2) 23757 3) 23761 4) 23291 5) 23769
40. 11 1342 613 956 831 ?
1) 854 2) 857 3) 858 4) 864 5) 859

6
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

Direction (41-45): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
question.
The given below pie chart shows that percentage of ballons in six different
stores and the table shows that ratio between the two different colors i.e
black and pink.

Total number of ballons 16700

Stores Black: Pink


U, 10%
P 13:9

r’s
P, 22%
T, 19% Q 7: 12
R 5: 8
Q, 19% S 9: 8
S, 17%
R, 13%
ha T
U
13: 6
3: 7

41.

E
What is the ratio between the number of balloons in store R black color to that of
d
Pink color in store Q?
1) 3:8 2) 3:4 3) 3:7 4) 5:12 5) 5 : 7
42. What is the total number of pink balloons in all the stores together?
ee

1) 8350 2) 8340 3) 8330 4) 8320 5) 8360


43. The total number of black balloons in all the stores together is what percent of
the total number of balloons?
C
1) 40 2) 30 3) 70 4) 20 5) 50
Sr

44. What is the difference between the number of black balloons in the stores P, Q
and T together and the number of balloons in the stores P, Q and U together?
1) 837 2) 834 3) 835 4) 832 5) 836
45. If the total number of black balloons in store W is 30% of the total number of pink
balloons in all the stores together and the total number of balloons in store W is
7460, then find the total number of pink balloons in store W?
1) 4950 2) 4940 3) 4955 4) 4925 5) 4960
C
Directions (46-50): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
46. 38.05  11.908 + 5.98  3.912 = ?  576.21
1) 15 2) 20 3) 25 4) 30 5) 10
47. 239.989% of 79.891 = ? + 118.902 – 2.901 x 8.99
1) 100 2) 150 3) 200 4) 50 5) 20
48. 83.33% of 239.978 + 28.05% of 600.12 = ? + 15.12% of 119.891
1) 330 2) 340 3) 350 4) 360 5) 380
49. 22.123% of 350.19 + 59.90% of 85.06 + 139.97% of 134.90 = ?
1) 313 2) 317 3) 323 4) 327 5) 308
50. 45.345% of 179.931 – 15.231% of 160.093 = ? – 10.9212
1) 50 2) 40 3) 70 4) 80 5) 60

7
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

Directions (51-55): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
The given below bar graph show that six different persons ordered four types of
articles i.e. Face Scanner, Desktop, monitor and Laptop.
The distribution of data is based on the cumulative frequency.

Face Scanner Desktop Monitor Laptop

840

740

r’s
680
640
600
540 540 540
480
440 440
ha 340
400
300
280 300
280
180

140
180

E 240
d
140
100
60
ee

M N O P Q R

51. What is the respective ratio between the total number of articles sold by stores M
and O together to that of N and Q together?
C
1) 15:12 2) 11:12 3) 15: 17 4) 11: 17 5) 11: 18
52. The total number of Monitors sold by stores M, N and O together is
Sr

approximately what percent of the total number of Laptops sold by stores O, P,


Q and R together?
1) 60 2) 65 3) 68 4) 70 5) 63
53. The total number of Desktops sold by store R, N, P, and O together is what
percent more or less than the total number of Face Scanners sold by store M, P,
O and R together?
1) 40 2) 45 3) 25 4) 30 5) 35
54. What is the difference between the average number of articles sold by stores M
C
and O together with the average number of articles sold by stores N, P, Q and R?
1) 40 2) 50 3) 20 4) 30 5) 35
55. If the total number of articles sold by store T is 150% more than the total number
of articles sold by store O. If the respective ratio between the number of Face
scanners, desktops, Monitor and Laptop is 5:7:9:4, then find the total number of
Monitor and Desktop in the store T?
1) 640 2) 500 3) 480 4) 530 5) 550
Direction (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
A survey conducted on 1800 village’s shows that 25% of the total villages
have only adequate water supply. 15% of the total number has proper supply of
electricity only. 7% of the total number of villages has only proper education
facilities. 12% of the total number of villages has telecommunication services
only. 16% of the total number of villages has proper health care services only. 6%
of the total number of villages has adequate water as well as supply of electricity.
8% of the total number of villages has adequate supply of water, electricity as
8
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

well as health care services. 5% of the total number of villages has proper supply
of electricity, telecommunication services as well as health care services and 6%
of the total number of villages has all facilities.
56. The number of villages which have only adequate Health and Telecom services is
how much percent of the number of villages which have both adequate water and
electricity supply?
1) 120 2) 180 3) 188 4) 140 5) 148
57. What is the respective ratio between the number of villages which have only
adequate Water, Electricity and Education together to the villages which have
atleast three of the services adequately?
1) 21:47 2) 47:19 3)18:47 4)24:29 5)19:33
58. What is the difference between the villages which have atleast two services

r’s
adequately to the villages which have atmost two services adequately?
1) 1008 2)1228 3) 1118 4)1124 5)1148
59. What is the average number of villages which have only one of the service
adequately?
1) 210 2) 250 3)180 4) 370 5) 270
60.
ha
If the survey conducted in villages is 20% more than the previous and the number
of villages which have two services adequately is 15% of the total number of
villages conducted the survey, then find the number of villages having two services
adequately?

61.
1) 304 2) 270

E 3) 216 4) 324 5)348


Sachem spends 40% of his monthly income on rent, X% on sports, and Y% on
d
transport, and the rest is saved by him which is Rs.4200. If his monthly income is
3
Rs.15000. and the value of Y is th of the value of X then how much amount does
5
ee

he spend on transport?
1) 1400 2) 2000 3) 1500 4) 1600 5) 1800
62. A shop keeper bought two tables (M and N) for Rs. 1400. He sold N at a loss of 10%
and M at a profit of 20%. If the selling price of each table is the same, then find
C
what is the cost price of N?
1) 500 2) 400 3) 800 4) 600 5) 700
Sr

63. M is 25% more efficient than N. N takes 6 days more time to complete the work
alone than M takes to complete the same work alone. If both works together, then
find how many number of days the same work will be completed?
2 1 2 1 1
1) 12 2) 16 3) 18 4) 13 5) 17
3 3 3 3 3
64. Four times the difference in ages of Chetan and Anil is one more than the age of
Binod. The ratio of the Anil’s age to Chetan’s age is 3:4. If ratio of Binod’s age 5
C
years hence to chetan’s age 1 year ago is 4:3. Find the average of ages Anil and
Chetan?
1) 15 2) 16 3) 18 4) 14 5) 17
65. A 350m long train A passed a pole in 17.5sec and passed another train B running
in the direction opposite to A in 15.4sec. If length of train B is 420 meters, then in
what time train B will pass train A when they both runs in same direction?
1) 57 2) 66 3) 88 4) 77 5) 57
REASONING
Direction: (66-70) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven persons - D, E, F, G, M, N and P live on seven different floors of the
building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building
is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost
floor is numbered seven. Each one of them also likes different flowers – Dianella,
Daffodil, Dahlia, Dandelion, Datura, Daisy and Dames but not necessarily in the
same order.
9
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

M lives in odd number floor but above the third floor. Only one person lives
between M and the one who likes Dames. M does not like Daisy. Only one person
lives between D and the one who likes Daffodil. P does not like Dames. The
number of the persons above the one who likes Dames is same as the number of
persons below the one who likes Daisy. D lives three floors below E, who likes
Dianella. N likes Datura. Only one person lives between the one who likes Dianella
and the one who likes Dandelion. Only two persons are live between the one who
likes Daisy and E. D and P do not lives immediate floors. Two persons live between
F and the one who likes Dandelion.
66. Who among the following person lives on third floor?
1) P 2) The one who likes Dandelion
3) E 4) The one who likes Daffodil 5) The one who likes Daisy

r’s
67. M likes which of the following flower?
1) Datura 2) Dandelion 3) Dianella 4) Dames 5) Dahlia
68. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
1) D likes Daisy 2) Only two floors between N and M
3) M lives below to E 4) Both 1 and 2 5) Both 1 and 3
69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
ha
above arrangement and hence from a group. Find out the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) G – Dianella 2) E – Daisy 3) M – Datura 4) N – Dahlia 5) P – Daffodil
70. Who likes Dames?
1) D 2) F

E 3) M 4) G 5) P
Direction: (71-73) Study the following information carefully and answer the
d
questions given below.
H 4 % W B ^ 2 T 9 O $ N Q 1 @ K  M 8 E S 7 ! J 6 * A Y 2 ¥
D K 5 @ U Z ~ V 3 P
71. How many numbers are there in the above arrangement which are immediately
ee

followed by a letter and immediately preceded by a symbol?


1) Two 2) One 3) Four 4) Three 5) More than four
72. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and hence from a group. Find out the one that does not
C
belong to that group?
1) ^W9 2) 8  7 3) Z@3 4) KQM 5) 6!Y
Sr

73. If all the letters are removed from the above arrangement, then which of the
following 15th from the right end?
1) 9 2) @ 3) $ 4)  5) 2
74. In the given word ‘ABJUNCTION’, if all the vowels are changed to their next
latter and all the consonants are changed to their previous letter according to
the alphabetical order then all the repeated letters are removed then which of
the following letter is fourth from the right end?
1) S 2) J 3) A 4) V 5) I
C
Direction: (75-79) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven persons – G, H, I, J, K, L and M are work in a school. Each of them has
different designation - Director, Principal, Vice Principal (VP), Senior Teacher
(ST), Teacher, Assistant Teacher (AT) and Librarian but not necessarily in the
same order. These designations are in the decreasing order as Director is the
senior most designation and Librarian is the junior most designation. At least
four persons are junior to K. Only three designations lie between K and H. G does
not Assistant Teacher. K does not the senior most designation. M is senior to K. I
is senior to G and junior to L, who is senior teacher.
75. Who is the Vice Principal?
1) I 2) K 3) G 4) H 5) J
76. How many designations lie between L and G?
1) Two 2) None 3) Three 4) One 5) More than three
77. As many persons senior to H is same as junior to ___?
1) I 2) J 3) K 4) H 5) L

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

78. Which of the following combination is correct?


1) Principal – G 2) Librarian – M 3) Director – L
4) Assistant Teacher – H 5) Teacher – K
79. What is the position of K?
1) Principal 2) Director 3) Teacher 4) Librarian 5) Vice Principal
80. Which of the following symbols should replace the question marks (?) in the
expression “M > N ? P = Q  R = S ? T”, in order to make the expressions ‘T > Q’ as
well as ‘N  S’ is definitely true?
1)  , > 2) <,  3)  , < 4) >, = 5)  , 
Direction: (81-85) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight persons are sitting around two circular tables as one is inscribed in
another one. Those who are sitting in an outer circle face towards the center

r’s
while those who are sitting in the inner circle face outside the center.
A, B, C and D are sitting around the inner circular table. P, Q, R and S are
sitting around an outer circular table. The persons at the outer circular table are
facing the persons sitting around the inner circular table. The one who faces S is
sitting second to the right of B. The one who faces A sits immediate left of Q. C
sits immediate left of D, who doesn’t face R.
81.
2) A
ha
Who among the following person faces the one who sits second to the left of Q?
1) D 3) C 4) B 5) Either 2 or 3
82. What is the position of D with respect to the one who faces R?
1) Third to the left 2) Immediate right 3) Third to the right

83.
4) Second to the right

E 5) Immediate left
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
d
Which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) A – Q 2) D – S 3) B – R 4) D – Q 5) A – R
84. If all the persons in the inner circle are arranged in alphabetical order starting
from A in anti clock wise direction, then who amongst the following person faces
ee

C?
1) Q 2) R 3) P 4) S 5) Either 1 or 3
85. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE?
1) The one who faces P is an immediate neighbour of B.
C
2) Only two persons sit between B and C.
3) D faces Q. 4) Both 1 and 3. 5) All are true
Sr

Direction: (86-88) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
There are nine members in three generation family i.e., S, M, T, G, C, E, U,
Q and J. Among them three are married couples and only four females. J is
paternal uncle of Q. U has only two children. S is daughter-in-law of M and M is
son-in-law of T. C is married to M. E and G are sons of C. E is not married. T is
father-in-law of S’s father-in-law. T is married to U.
86. How is Q related to M?
C
1) Brother-in-law 2) Sister-in-law 3) Uncle
4) Son 5) Cannot be detrained
87. How is E related to T?
1) Grandfather 2) Grand-Daughter 3) Nephew
4) Grandson 5) Niece
88. How is C related to S?
1) Daughter-in-law 2) Mother 3) Sister-in-law
4) Daughter 5) Mother-in-law
Direction: (89-91) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
There are six persons – F, G, H, I, J and K each person has different weights.
F is heavier than I but lighter than K. G is heavier than I and J. K is not the
heaviest person. H is lighter than F but heavier than I. J is not the lightest
person. The weight of the second heaviest person is 50kg. The weight of the
second lightest person is 20kg.
89. How many persons heavier than H?
1) Two 2) None 3) One 4) Three 5) More than three

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO M T-X I I / SB I PO PRELI M S M T - 102

90. Which of the following person is heaviest?


1) F 2) G 3) I 4) J 5) H
91. What is the possible weight of F?
1) 52kg 2) 18kg 3) 51kg 4) 35kg 5) 17kg
Direction: (92-96) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Nine persons – G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting in a straight line facing
North, but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons are sitting between
M and H. Neither M nor H sits immediate to N. Only three persons sit to the right
of N. K sits three places away from J. K does not sit immediate to I. G is immediate
left of H. O sits second to the right of J.
92. Which of the following person sits third to the left of H?

r’s
1) O 2) K 3) L 4) M 5) I
93. How many persons sit between G and I?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) Five 5) More than five
94. What is the position of N with respect to M?
1) Second to the right 2) Third to the left 3) Second to the left
4) Immediate left
ha 5) Third to the right
95. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and hence from a group. Find out the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) L – G 2) J – O

E 3) I – O 4) G – N 5) J – G
96. If all the persons are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right then how
d
many persons will remain unchanged?
1) One 2) None 3) Three 4) Two 5) More than three
97. In the give number ‘4972613582’, if all the numbers are arranged in ascending
order, then how many numbers places will remain unchanged?
ee

1) Two 2) Three 3) None 4) One 5) More than three


Direction: (98-100) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
C
In a certain code language,
“apartments are highest buildings” is written as “xe br hk es”
Sr

“rooms are highest budgets” is written as “hk ga fg xe”


“some buildings are beautiful” is written as “es hy bx hk”
“beautiful nature is apartments” is written as “bx br go ne”
(Note: All the letters are two letter codes only)
98. In the given code language, what does the code “ga” stand for?
1) Either ‘rooms’ or ‘are’ 2) buildings 3) beautiful
4) budgets 5) Either ‘budgets’ or ‘rooms’
99. What is the code for “heighest” in the given code language?
C
1) hk 2) ne 3) bx 4) xe 5) es
100. What may be the possible code for “apartments more beautiful” in the given code
language?
1) br bx ga 2) xe hk br 3) bx br eg 4) go br bx 5) es bx hy

KEY
1.3 2.2 3.1 4.4 5.4 6.3 7.4 8.2 9.1 10.4 11.2 12.4 13.5
14.3 15.4 16.3 17.5 18.2 19.4 20.2 21.3 22.5 23.1 24.5 25.3 26.4
27.4 28.2 29.1 30.1 31.4 32.3 33.2 34.5 35.1 36.1 37.2 38.3 39.4
40.3 41.4 42.1 43.5 44.3 45.3 46.2 47.1 48.3 49.2 50.3 51.2 52.5
53.3 54.4 55.1 56.4 57.2 58.1 59.5 60.4 61.5 62.3 63.4 64.4 65.4
66.4 67.5 68.4 69.4 70.4 71.2 72.4 73.3 74.4 75.5 76.1 77.3 78.4
79.1 80.3 81.3 82.4 83.5 84.3 85.1 86.2 87.4 88.5 89.4 90.2 91.4
92.3 93.4 94.3 95.4 96.2 97.4 98.5 99.4 100.3

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