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SSC CGL Tier I Previous Year

The document contains a collection of previous year questions and solutions for the SSC CGL Tier I exam held on December 6, 2022. It includes various types of questions covering grammar, mathematics, and logical reasoning, along with detailed explanations for the correct answers. The exam consists of 100 questions to be completed in 60 minutes, with a cutoff score of 140 marks suggested for aiming at 150 marks.

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Souvik Jana
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
16 views80 pages

SSC CGL Tier I Previous Year

The document contains a collection of previous year questions and solutions for the SSC CGL Tier I exam held on December 6, 2022. It includes various types of questions covering grammar, mathematics, and logical reasoning, along with detailed explanations for the correct answers. The exam consists of 100 questions to be completed in 60 minutes, with a cutoff score of 140 marks suggested for aiming at 150 marks.

Uploaded by

Souvik Jana
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Ssc Cgl Tier I Previous Year Question Paper

Overview
Here, you can solve all the questions asked in Ssc Cgl Tier I Previous Year Question Paper on 2022-12-06 in the Morning
exam. The detailed solutions are also provided for every previous year question and some of these questions can be
asked again in your Ssc Cgl Tier I exam. There are 100 questions in the exam and 60 minutes are provided for the Ssc
Cgl Tier I exam. The Cutoff of the exam was 140 marks hence you should try to score at least 150 marks.

Ssc Cgl Tier I Previous Year Question Paper :


Questions and Solutions
Question 1 :
The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the
error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. The prisoner was / accused for
stealing / from his landlord.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 52 Seconds

Options :
1. accused for stealing

2. The prisoner was

3. from his landlord

4. No error

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. accused for stealing.

The error in the sentence is in part 2: "accused for stealing."


The correct preposition to use after the verb "accused" is "of" instead of "for."
Here, the verb "accused" is followed by the preposition "of" to indicate the crime or offense that the person is being
accused of.

Thus, the corrected sentence would be:

Page No: 1
The prisoner was accused of stealing from his landlord.

Question 2 :
According to the archaeologists, in Harappan cities, the part to the west was smaller and higher and was known as______.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 60 Seconds

Options :
1. citadel

2. Olympus

3. lower town

4. colosseum

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. citadel.

According to the archaeologists, in Harappan cities, the part to the west was smaller and higher and was known as a
Citadel.

Indus civilization, also called Indus Valley civilization or Harappan civilization. Harappa was discovered in 1921 by
Dayaram Sahni.

Question 3 :
Four different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are numbered 1 to 6. Select the number that
will be on the face opposite to the one showing '4'.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 48 Seconds

Options :
1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 5

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 1.

Page No: 2
In the third and fourth dice, 3 is common. So, start rotating either in the clockwise or anticlockwise direction.

Clockwise direction:

Dice 3: 3 6 4

Dice 4: 3 5 1

So, 4 is opposite to 1.

Anticlockwise direction:

Dice 3: 3 4 6

Dice 4: 3 1 5

So, 4 is opposite to 1.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 4 :
A solid hemisphere has radius 21 cm. It is melted to form a cylinder such that the ratio of its curved surface area to total
surface area is 2 : 5. What is the radius (in cm) of its base (take =22/7)?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 55 Seconds

Options :
1. 23

2. 21

3. 17

4. 19

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 21.

Given:

Radius of hemisphere = 21 cm

Ratio of CSA and TSA of cylinder = 2 : 5.

Concept Used:

Volume of hemisphere = \({2 \over 3} \pi r^3\)

Page No: 3
Volume of cylinder = \(\pi r^2h\)

CSA of cylinder = \(2\pi rh\)

TSA of cylinder = \(2 \pi r(r + h)\)

Explanation:

According to the given question,

\({ 2 \pi rh \over 2\pi r (r + h)} = {2 \over 5}\)

\({h \over (r + h)}={2 \over 5}\)

5h = 2r + 2h

2r = 3h

r = \({3 \over 2}h\) h = \({2 \over 3}r\)

Now, \(\pi r^2h\) = \({2 \over 3} \pi (21)^3\)

\(r^2 \times {2\over3}r\) = \({2 \over 3} (21)^3\)


3 3
r = 21

r = 21

HEnce the radius of the ylinder is 21 cm.

Question 5 :
A, B and C can do a piece of work in 11 days, 20 days and 55 days respectively. If B works daily and is supported by A
and C on alternate days beginning with A, then in how many days will the work be finished?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 94 Seconds

Options :
1. 10

2. \(9{{1} \over 3}\)

3. 12

4. 8

Solution :
The correct answer is 2 i.e. \(9{{1} \over 3}\)

Page No: 4
Concept Used:

\(Efficiency = {total\ work \over number\ of\ days}\)

Explanation:

Let the total work done be LCM of (11, 20, 55) = 220 units.

Now, efficiency of A = \({220 \over 11} = 20\ units/day\)

Efficiency of B = \({220 \over 20} = 11\ units/day\)

Efficiency of C = \({220 \over 55} = 4\ units/day\)

According to the given question, work done is as follows

(B + A) + (B + C) + (B + A) + (B + C)....so on

So, work done in 2 days = (11 + 20) + (11 + 4) = 46 units

Then, work done in (2 × 4) = 8 days = (46 × 4) = 184 units

Now (B + A) work for 1 day, work done in 9 days = 184 + 31 = 215 units

Remaining work to be done = 220 - 215 = 5 units

So, (B + C) complete 15 units in one day, they will complete 5 units in \(1\over3\) days.

Hence the total time taken to complete the whole work is \(9{{1} \over 3}\) days.

Comprehension :
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank. I will tell you what I will do and what I will not do. I will not (1) _____________ that in which I no
longer believe, (2) ____________ it calls itself my home, my fatherland, or my church: and I will try to (3)
_______________ myself in some mode of life or art as (4) _____________ as I can and as wholly as I can, using for my
defense the only arms I (5) ____________ myself to use: silence, exile and cunning.

Question 6 :
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 108 Seconds

Options :
1. behave

2. allow

Page No: 5
caution

4. effeminate

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. allow.

The meaning of the given words is:

Allow: Permit, authorize, grant


Behave: Act, conduct oneself, behave properly
Caution: Warning, alert, heed
Effeminate: Feminine, having qualities typically associated with women.
Thus, the most appropriate filler for the given blank is allow.

Therefore, the completed sentence is:

... as wholly as I can, using for my defense the only arms I allow myself to use: silence, exile and cunning.

Question 7 :
A Number n when divided by 6, leaves a remainder 3. What wil be the remainder when (n2 + 5n + 8) is divided by 6?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 62 Seconds

Options :
1. 1

2. 3

3. 5

4. 2

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 2.

Given:

A number n when divided by 6 leaves remainder 3.

Explanation:

Page No: 6
Let the number n be 9.
2
So, (n + 5n + 8) = 81 + 45 + 8 = 134

Now, 134 = 6 × 22 + 2

Hence the remainder will be 2.

Question 8 :
A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
QRM, PWD, OBU, NGL,?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 45 Seconds

Options :
1. MLC

2. MQR

3. MRS

4. MCL

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. MLC.

Given series: QRM, PWD, OBU, NGL,?

The series follows this pattern:

QRM, PWD

Q-1=P

R+5=W

M-9=D

Similarly;

NGL,?

N-1=M

G+5=L

L-9=C

Page No: 7
So, the next term in the series is MLC.

Question 9 :
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ESTABLISHED from the given sentence: Siben feels great satisfaction
and gratified when he finds his pupils established successfully in the society when a lot have been displaced because of
several failed attempts

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 56 Seconds

Options :
1. displaced

2. fail

3. gratified

4. pupils

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. displaced.

The meaning of the given words is:

Established: Set up or created; brought into existence or introduced officially.


Displaced: Forced to leave one's home or usual environment, often due to conflict, disaster, or other circumstances.
Fail: To be unsuccessful in achieving a desired outcome or goal; to not meet expectations or requirements.
Gratified: Satisfied or pleased, often as a result of having a desire or expectation fulfilled.
Pupils: Students or learners, especially those attending school or receiving instruction in a particular subject.

Thus, the most appropriate antonym for the given word is displaced.

Question 10 :
Select the correct direct form of the given sentence. Raveena asked me if I had her maid’s number.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 66 Seconds

Options :
1. Raveena asked me, "Do you have my maid's number?"

2. Raveena asked me, “Are you having my maid’s number.”

3. Raveena said to me, “Does you have my maid’s number.”

Page No: 8
Raveena asked to me, “Have you have my maid’s number.”

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Raveena asked me, "Do you have my maid's number?"

Following steps should be followed to convert the given indirect speech sentence into its direct form:

Identify the reporting verb and reporting clause: In this case, the reporting verb is "asked" and the reporting clause is
"me if I had her maid's number."

Begin the direct speech with a reporting verb: Start the direct speech sentence with a reporting verb such as "ask"
or "inquire."

Remove the reporting clause: Remove the reporting clause "me if I had her maid's number" and change it in an
interrogative form i.e., "Do you have my maid's number?'.

Adjust the pronouns: Adjust the pronouns in the reported speech to match the perspective of the direct speech. In
this case, "her" changes to "my" to reflect the first-person perspective.

Thus, the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence is:

Raveena asked me, "Do you have my maid's number?"

Question 11 :
After arranging the given words according to dictionary order, which word will come at the ‘Third’ position? 1. Series 2.
Serious 3. Serein 4. Serial 5. Serried

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 102 Seconds

Options :
1. Series

2. Serein

3. Serial

4. Serious

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Series.

In this question, you need to arrange the words as they would appear in the English dictionary and then find the word
which will come in the third position.

Page No: 9
1. Serein

2. Serial

3. Series

4. Serious

5. Serried

Hence, the word that comes in the third position is 'Series.'

Question 12 :
The mid points of AB and AC of a ∆ABC are X and Y, respectively. If BC + XY = 24 units, then the value of BC XY is:

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 51 Seconds

Options :
1. 5 cm

2. 4 cm

3. 6 cm

4. 8 cm

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 8 cm.

Given:

Mid points of AB and AC are X and Y respectively

BC + XY = 24

Concept Used:

Suppose a triangle ABC, the mid-points of AB and AC are D and E respectively. So, the line joining D and E is parallel to
BC and is half the length of BC.

i.e. \(DE\ \parallel\ BC\) ..(i) and DE = ½ BC ...(ii)

Explanation:

Let the length of BC be 2x cm.

Using Equation (ii) XY = x cm

Page No: 10
Now according to the given question, 2x + x = 24

3x = 24

x = 8 cm

And 2x = 16 cm

Now, required difference = 16 - 8 = 8 cm.

Hence the value of BC - XY is 8 cm.

Question 13 :
The table given below shows the production of beauty products by five different companies. What is the ratio of production
of beauty product by A to the production of beauty product by E? Companies Production A 30 B 50 C 32 D 15 E 25

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 79 Seconds

Options :
1. 7 : 4

2. 4 : 5

3. 6 : 5

4. 5 : 6

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 6 : 5.

Explanation:

According to the given table,

Production of beauty product by A = 30

Production of beauty product by E = 25

Now, the required ratio =30 : 25 = 6 : 5

Hence the ratio of production of beauty product by A to the production of beauty product by E is 6 : 5.

Question 14 :
In a College, the number of students with different majors are as follows. Subject Number of students Mathematics 45
Physics 60 History 30 Hindi 65 Sanskrit 45 Find the average number of students in each subject.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 49 Seconds

Page No: 11
Options :
1. 55

2. 49

3. 42

4. 35

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 49.

Concept Used:

\(Average = {{sum\ of \ terms} \over {Number\ of \ terms}}\)

Explanation:

According to the given question,

Total number of students in all subjects = (45 + 60 + 30 + 65 + 45) = 245

Now, average number of students in each subject = 245/5 = 49.

Hence the average number of students in each subject is 49.

Question 15 :
AD is the median of triangle ABC. P is the centroid of triangle ABC. If AP = 14 cm, then what is the length of PD?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 49 Seconds

Options :
1. 14 cm

2. 28 cm

3. 21 cm

4. 7 cm

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 7 cm.

Given:

AD is median and P is centroid

Page No: 12
Concept Used:

When a median is drawn in a triangle, and G is the centroid, then G divides the median in the ratio 2 : 1.

Explanation:

In triangle ABC, AD is the median and P is centroid

Then according to the concept used,

AP : PD = 2 : 1

Let the length of AP be 2x cm and length of PD be x cm.

Now, it is given that AP = 2x = 14 cm

x = 7 cm.

Hence the length of PD = x = 7 cm.

Question 16 :
Successive discounts of 18% and 22% are equal to a single discount of ______.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 62 Seconds

Options :
1. 36.04%

2. 35.04%

3. 37.04%

4. 34.04%

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 36.04%.

Given:

First discount = 18%

Second discount = 22%

Concept Used:

Single discount = \(X + Y - {XY \over 100}\) ....(i)

X = First discount

Page No: 13
Y = second discount

Explanation:

Using equation (i), we get

Single discount = \(18 + 22 - {18 \times 22 \over 100}\)

Single discount = 40 - 3.96

Single discount = 36.04

HEnce the single discount for 18% and 22% is 36.04%.

Question 17 :
If (x+{{1} over x}=1), then the value of x12 + x9 + x6 + x3 + 1 is _______

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 54 Seconds

Options :
1. 1

2. -1

3. 0

4. -2

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 1.

Given:

\(x+{{1} \over x}=1\)

Concept Used:
3
If \(x+{{1} \over x}=1\), then x = -1

Explanation:

According to the given question,


12 9 6 3
x +x +x +x +1
3 4 3 3 3 2 3
(x ) + (x ) + (x ) + x + 1
4 3 2
(-1) + (-1) + (-1) + (-1) + 1

Page No: 14
1
12 9 6 3
Hence the value of x + x + x + x + 1 is 1.

Question 18 :
The value of 97 × 103 is _________.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 62 Seconds

Options :
1. 7999

2. 9991

3. 8991

4. 9981

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 9991.

Concept Used:
2 2
(a - b)(a + b) = a - b ....(i)

Explanation:

According to the given question,

97 × 103 = (100 - 3)(100 + 3)

Now using the formula from equation (i), we get


2 2
(100 - 3)(100 + 3) = 100 - 3

10000 - 9 = 9991

Hence the value of 97 × 103 is 9991.

Question 19 :
What happens to the decomposition rate when detritus is rich in lignin and chitin?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 50 Seconds

Options :
1. It is negligible

Page No: 15
It is faster

3. There is no movement

4. It is slower

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. It is slower.

Detritus that is high in lignin and chitin decomposes more slowly than detritus which is high in nitrogen and water-soluble
materials, such as sugars.

Question 20 :
Sonali applied for a job of Science teacher in a school. In the test for job, she scored 8 in Physics, 8 in Chemistry, 6 in
Biology, and 6.5 in the interview. For calculating the final score, weightage of 2, 3, 3, and 4 were assigned to Physics,
Chemistry, Biology and interview, respectively. What is the weighted average score of Sonali?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 51 Seconds

Options :
1. 7

2. 8.4

3. 7.2

4. 21

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 7.

Given:

Scores of Sonali in Physics, Chemistry, Biology and interview are 8, 8, 6 and 6.5 respectively.

Weightage of Physics, Chemistry, Biology and interview are 2, 3, 3 and 4 respectively.

Concept Used:

Weighted Average = \({sum\ of\ (number\ \times\ weighing\ factor)} \over Sum\ of\ all\ weights\)

Explanation:

Weighted average score of Sonali = \({ 2 \times 8 + 3 \times 8 + 3 \times 6 + 4 \times 6.5} \over {2 + 3 + 3 + 4}\) = \(84
\over 12 \) = 7.

Page No: 16
Hence the weighted average score of Sonali is 7.

Question 21 :
The given pie- chart represents the survey report on the favourite games of a group of young people. If a total of 4980
persons were surveyed, how many of them said football is their favourite game?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 62 Seconds

Options :
1. 1324

2. 1200

3. 1430

4. 1494

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 1494.

Explanation:

The number of persons whose favorite game is football are 30% of 4980

\({30 \over 100} \times 4980 \) = 1494

Hence 1494 person said that football is their favourite game.

Question 22 :
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of the following set. (NOTE: Operations
should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits.) (2, 8, 36) (4,
9, 25)

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 47 Seconds

Options :
1. (14, 18, 9)

2. (13, 20, 49)

3. (21, 15, 35)

4. (12, 14, 26)

Solution :

Page No: 17
The correct answer isOption 2 i.e. (13, 20, 49).

The logic used here is:

(2, 8, 36)

8-2=6
2
6 = 36

(4, 9, 25)

9-4=5
2
5 = 25

Similarly,

(13, 20, 49)

20 - 13 = 7
2
7 = 49

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 23 :
Which of the following letter clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? MU, NE, PX, QF, SA, TG,?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 45 Seconds

Options :
1. UC

2. VE

3. VD

4. VC

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e.VD.

Given series: MU, NE, PX, QF, SA, TG,?

The series follows this pattern:

MU, NE

Page No: 18
M+1=N

U + 11 = E

NE, PX

N+2=P

E + 19 = X

PX, QF

P+1=Q

X+8=F

QF, SA

Q+2=S

F + 21 = A

SA, TG

S+1=T

A+6=G

TG,?

T+2=V

G + 23 = D

So, the next term in the series is VD.

Question 24 :
In a certain code language, 'PLANNED' is written as 'RNCNPGF', and ‘PROMOTE’ is written as ‘RTQMQVG’. How will
'IMPROVE' be written in that language?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 62 Seconds

Options :
1. KORTQXG

2. KORRQXG

3. KOQRQXG

Page No: 19
KORTOXG

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. KORRQXG.

The logic used here is:

'PLANNED' is written as 'RNCNPGF'

P+2=R

L+2=N

A+2=C

N=N

N+2=P

E+2=G

D+2=F

‘PROMOTE’ is written as ‘RTQMQVG’

P+2=R

R+2=T

O+2=O

M=M

O+2=Q

T+2=V

E+2=G

Similarly;

Code for the word IMPROVE:

I+2=K

M+2=O

P+2=R

R=R

Page No: 20
O+2=Q

V+2=X

E+2=G

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 25 :
In a certain code language, 'BELL’ is coded as '111141', and 'HEAR' is coded as '172647'. How will 'MIKE' be coded in that
language?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 68 Seconds

Options :
1. 410813

2. 410811

3. 410812

4. 410612

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 410812.

The logic used here is:

'BELL’ is coded as '111141'

First, reverse the code.

BELL = 141111

B-1=1

E-1=4

L - 1 = 11

L - 1 = 11

'HEAR' is coded as '172647'

HEAR = 742617

H-1=7

Page No: 21
E-1=4

A - 1 = 26

R - 1 = 17

Similarly;

Code for the word MIKE:

M - 1 = 12

I-1=8

K - 1 = 10

E-1=4

MIKE = 410812

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 26 :
Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at AB as shown.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 58 Seconds

Options :

1.

2.

3.
Page No: 22
4.

Solution :

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. .

The mirror image of the question figure is shown below:

Since the mirror is placed right to the question figure, the right-hand side of the original image will be now the left-hand
side of the mirror image.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 27 :
By interchanging the given two signs which of the following equation will be not correct? × and –

Page No: 23
Difficulty : Moderate
Average Time : 74 Seconds

Options :
1. 15 + 5 ÷ 1 – 9 × 4 = 70

2. 5 – 6 × 3 + 16 ÷ 4 = 31

3. 11 + 6 × 3 – 8 ÷ 2 = 5

4. 15 – 4 × 3 + 6 ÷ 1 = 63

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e.15 + 5 ÷ 1 – 9 × 4 = 70.

Given conditions: × and –

Option 1: 15 + 5 ÷ 1 – 9 × 4 = 70

After interchanging the expression becomes:

= 15 + 5 ÷ 1 × 9 - 4 = 70

= 15 + 5 × 9 - 4

= 15 + 45 - 4

= 60 - 4

= 56 is not equal to 70.

As we have found our answer, so, there is no need of checking further options.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 28 :
Select the word pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the given pair of words. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Police: Protection

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 64 Seconds

Options :
1. Minister: Governance

2. Thief: Jail

Page No: 24
King: Kingdom

4. Teacher: Class

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Minister: Governance.

The logic used here is:

Police: Protection

Police give protection to the citizens of the country.

Similarly,

Minister: Governance

Minister is responsible for the governance of the country.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 29 :
Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 45 Seconds

Options :

1.

2.

3.

Page No: 25
Solution :

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e.

The logic used here is:

The figure is moving 45 degrees in the anticlockwise direction.

The series of figures is:

Question 30 :
Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 67, 78, 71, 82, 75, 86,?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 65 Seconds

Options :
1. 97

2. 92

3. 84

4. 79

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e.79.

Given series: 67, 78, 71, 82, 75, 86,?

The series follows this pattern:

Page No: 26
67 + 11 = 78

78 - 7 = 71

71 + 11 = 82

82 - 7 = 75

75 + 11 = 86

86 - 7 = 79

So, the next term in the series is 79.

Question 31 :
Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first
letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster. LEISURE: USIELER:: INTENSE: NETNIES::
EXCITED:?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 49 Seconds

Options :
1. CTEDEXI

2. TICXEDE

3. EXEDTCI

4. XEDETCI

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. TICXEDE.

The logic used here is:

LEISURE: USIELER

INTENSE: NETNIES

Page No: 27
Similarly,

EXCITED:?

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 32 :
Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'MN' as shown below.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 56 Seconds

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. .

The mirror image of the question figure is shown below:

Since the mirror is placed right to the question figure, the right-hand side of the original image will be now the left-hand
side of the mirror image.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Page No: 28
Question 33 :
Three of the following letter clusters are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which letter cluster does not
belong to that group?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 75 Seconds

Options :
1. SXHP

2. UZFR

3. XCCU

4. VCDR

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. VCDR.

The logic used here is:

Opposite of 1st letter = 3rd letter

2nd letter - 8 = 4th letter

Option 1: SXHP

Opposite of S = H

X-8=P

This follows the logic.

Option 2: UZFR

Opposite of U = F

Z-8=R

This follows the logic.

Option 3: XCCU

Opposite of X = C

C-8=U

This follows the logic.

Page No: 29
Option 4: VCDR

Opposite of V = E

C-8=U

This does not follow the logic.

Hence, option 4 is the odd one out.

Question 34 :
A & B means ‘A is the son of B’ A # B means ‘A is the sister of B’ A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’ A % B means ‘A is
the father of B’ A B means ‘A is the daughter of B’ A * B means ‘A is the wife of B’ If C # D @ E % Z & L # M – N * P, then
how is E related to L?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 85 Seconds

Options :
1. Husband

2. Son

3. Father

4. Son-in-law

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Husband.

In the diagram shown;

Square shows males, the circle shows females, vertical lines show generations, a single horizontal line shows brothers or
sisters, and double lines show a couple.

From the above tree, E is the husband of L.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 35 :

Page No: 30
If A – B means that A is the brother of B, A + B means that A is the sister of B, A × B means that A is the father of B. Then
which of the following expression shows that P is the brother of R?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 60 Seconds

Options :
1. P – Q + R

2. P + Q – R

3. P × Q + R

4. P – Q × R

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. P – Q + R.

In the diagram shown;

Square shows males, the circle shows females, vertical lines show generations, a single horizontal line shows brothers or
sisters, and double lines show a couple.

Option1: P – Q + R

From the above tree, P is the brother of R.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 36 :
Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the * signs and balance the given equation. 5 * 15 * 320 *
2 * 45 = 190

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 59 Seconds

Options :
1. +, ÷, ×,

2. ×, +, ÷,

3. +, ×, ÷,

4. ×, ÷, , +

Solution :

Page No: 31
The correct answer isOption 2 i.e. ×, +, ÷, .

Given equation: 5 * 15 * 320 * 2 * 45 = 190

Option 1: +, ÷, ×,

After interchanging the expression becomes:

= 5 + 15 ÷ 320 × 2 - 45 = 190

= -39.90 is not equal to 190.

Option 2: ×, +, ÷,

After interchanging the expression becomes:

= 5 × 15 + 320 ÷ 2 - 45 = 190

= 5 × 15 + 160 - 45

= 75 + 160 - 45

= 235 - 45

= 190 is not equal to 190.

As we have found our answer, so, there is no need of checking further options.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 37 :
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of the following sets: (7,11, 72) (5, 8, 39)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 75 Seconds

Options :
1. (4, 7, 33)

2. (2, 3, 1)

3. (5, 2, 23)

4. (5, 6, 13)

Solution :

Page No: 32
The correct answer isOption 1 i.e. (4, 7, 33).

The logic used here is:

(7,11, 72)

(7 + 11) × (11 - 7) = 18 × 4 = 72

(5, 8, 39)

(8 + 5) × (8 - 5) = 13 × 3 = 39

Similarly,

(4, 7, 33)

(7 + 4) × (7 - 4) = 11 × 3 = 33

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 38 :
Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.
30 * 4 * 2 * 1 * 121

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 44 Seconds

Options :
1. ×, +, , =

2. ×, , ÷, =

3. ×, , +, =

4. ÷, +, , =

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. ×, +, , =.

Given equation: 30 * 4 * 2 * 1 * 121

Option 1: ×, +, , =

After interchanging the expression becomes:

= 30 × 4 + 2 - 1 = 121

= 120 + 2 - 1

Page No: 33
= 122 - 1

= 121 is not equal to 121.

As we have found our answer, so, there is no need of checking further options.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 39 :
Select the set in which the numbers are NOT related in the same way as the numbers of the given set. (NOTE: Operations
should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 –
Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed) (267, 128, 139)

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 65 Seconds

Options :
1. (267, 132, 135)

2. (325, 112, 215)

3. (365, 154, 211)

4. (297, 146, 151)

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. (325, 112, 215).

The logic used here is:

(267, 128, 139)

267 - 128 = 139

Option 1: (267, 132, 135)

267 - 132 = 135

This follows the logic.

Option 2: (325, 112, 215)

325 - 112 = 215

This does not follow the logic.

Hence, option 2 is the odd one out.

Page No: 34
Question 40 :
In the following question, four number pairs are given. In each pair, the number on the left side of (–) is related to the
number on the right side of (–) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three pairs are similar on the basis of the same
Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the
whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g.13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical
operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 69 Seconds

Options :
1. 15 – 220

2. 9 – 84

3. 13 – 172

4. 11 – 124

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 15 – 220.

The logic used here is:


2
(1st number) + 3 = 2nd number

Option 1: 15 – 220
2
(15) + 3 = 225 + 3 = 228

This does not follow the logic.

Hence, option 1 is the odd one out.

Question 41 :
Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, and III. Assuming the statements to be true,
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from
the statements. Statements: Some tests are exams. Some exams are viva. All viva are theories. Conclusions: I. Some
theories are exams. II. Some theories are viva. III. Some tests are viva.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 58 Seconds

Options :
1. Only conclusions II and III follow

Page No: 35
Only conclusions I and II follow

3. Only conclusions I and III follow

4. All conclusions follow

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Only conclusions I and II follow.

The least possible Venn Diagram for the given statements is drawn below:

Conclusions:

I. Some theories are exams True (As some exams are viva, and all viva are theories, so, some theories are exams is also
true.)

II. Some theories are viva True (As all viva are theories, so, some theories are viva is also true.)

III. Some tests are viva False (It is possible, but no definite conclusion can be drawn.)

Hence, Only conclusions I and II follow.

Question 42 :
Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 73 Seconds

Options :

1.

2.

Page No: 36
3.

4.

Solution :

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. .

The logic used here is:

The number of lines increases by one.

The series of figures is:

Question 43 :
In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements.
Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. Statements: I. All Z are
X. II. All G are X. Conclusions: I. Some G are Z. II. All X are G. III. Some Z are X.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 82 Seconds

Options :

Page No: 37
Both conclusions I and III follows

2. Only conclusion III follows

3. Neither conclusion follows

4. Both conclusions II and III follows

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Only conclusion III follows.

The least possible Venn Diagram for the given statements is drawn below:

Conclusions:

I. Some G are Z False (It is possible, but no definite conclusion can be drawn.)

II. All X are G False (It is possible, but no definite conclusion can be drawn.)

III. Some Z are X True (As all Z are X, so, some Z are X is also true.)

Hence, Only conclusion III follows.

Question 44 :
The chemical formula of washing soda is ______.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 66 Seconds

Options :
1. Na2CO3 .10H2O

2. Na2SO4

3. NaOH

4. NaHCO3

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Na2CO3 .10H2O.

Page No: 38
Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate. Its chemical formula is Na2CO3 .10H2O.

NaOH: Sodium hydroxide is called caustic soda.

Sodium bicarbonate is known as baking soda.

Question 45 :
Which of the following is NOT a feature of National Income?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 50 Seconds

Options :
1. It is a macroeconomic concept.

2. It is a flow concept.

3. It is always expressed with reference to the financial year

4. It is included only in intermediate goods

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. It is included only in intermediate goods.

National income is the sum total of the value of all the goods and services manufactured by the residents of the country, in
a year.
''It is included only in intermediate goods'' is NOT a feature of National Income.

Question 46 :
According to census 2011, the child sex ratio was ______ females per 1000 males.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 49 Seconds

Options :
1. 919

2. 909

3. 929

4. 939

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 919.

According to census 2011, the child sex ratio was 919 females per 1000 males.

Page No: 39
According to data from the 2011 Population Census, there are 943 females for every 1000 males in India.

Question 47 :
Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi dancer Yamini Krishnamurthy was awarded which of the following awards in 2016?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 38 Seconds

Options :
1. Padma Bhushan

2. Padma Shri

3. Tagore Puraskar

4. Padma Vibhushan

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Padma Vibhushan.

Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi dancer Yamini Krishnamurthy was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2016.

Yamini Krishnamurthy was born in Madanapalli, Chittoor District, Andhra Pradesh.


Bharatanatyam is an Indian classical dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu.

Question 48 :
In November 2022, retired Army officer Raj Shukla has been appointed as a member of the _______.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 45 Seconds

Options :
1. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority

2. Union Public Service Commission

3. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation

4. Bureau of Indian Standards

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Union Public Service Commission.

Raj Shukla, a retired Army officer, has been appointed to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
Manoj Soni is the chairman of UPSC.

Question 49 :

Page No: 40
In June 2022, the Supreme Court directed that every protected forest, national park, and wildlife sanctuary across the
country should have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum _______ starting from their demarcated
boundaries.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 47 Seconds

Options :
1. 1 km

2. 3 km

3. 2 km

4. 5 km

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 1 km.

The Supreme Court on Wednesday modified its June 2022 order that ruled each national park and wildlife sanctuary must
have an eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum of 1km, measured from the demarcated boundary of such protected
forest, while also lifting a complete ban on development and construction activities within ESZs.

Question 50 :
Rani Karnaa Nayak, who was awarded the Padma Shri in 2014, was a _______ dancer.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 46 Seconds

Options :
1. Odissi

2. Mohiniyattam

3. Kathak

4. Kathakali

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Kathak.

Rani Karnaa Nayak, who was awarded the Padma Shri in 2014, was a Kathak dancer.

Rani Karna was born in 1939 in a Sindhi family in Hyderabad.

Kathak is one of the eight major forms of Indian classical dance. It is a classical dance form from Uttar Pradesh.
Mohiniyattam (Mohiniattam) is a classical dance form of Kerala.

Page No: 41
Question 51 :
Black Card given to a badminton player during the game indicates:

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 48 Seconds

Options :
1. suspension

2. fault

3. warning

4. disqualification

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. disqualification.

Penalty cards are used in many sports as a means of warning, reprimanding, or penalising a player, coach, or team
official.

A black card is used in the sport of badminton to indicate disqualification.


A red card in badminton is given when a player makes a continued breach of misconduct or a significant breach of
misconduct.
A yellow card is given for misconduct on the court. Remember, two yellow cards make one red card.

Question 52 :
Who has been appointed as NITI Aayog’s new Vice Chairman in May 2022?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 54 Seconds

Options :
1. S Somnath

2. Suman Bery

3. Tarun Kapoor

4. Manoj Pande

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e.Suman Bery.

An experienced policy economist and research administrator, Mr. Bery took over as NITI Aayog Vice Chairperson
on 1 May 2022.

Page No: 42
The NITI Aayog serves as the apex public policy think tank of the Government of India. NITI Aayog was formed via
a resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2015. NITI stands for National Institution for Transforming India.

Question 53 :
Who among the following is said to have devised many Raagas or melodies in Hindustani music?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 49 Seconds

Options :
1. Tansen

2. Raja Beerbal

3. Todar Mal

4. Raja Man Singh

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Tansen.

Tansen is said to have devised many Raagas or melodies in Hindustani music.

Tansen was a singer and instrumentalist who composed many ragas. He was born in Gwalior.
Tansen is best remembered for his epic Dhrupad compositions, composing several new ragas as well as writing two
classic books on music, the Shri Ganesh Stotra and the Sangita Sara. Sangeet Samrat Tansen was one of the
priceless Navratnas of Akbar.

Question 54 :
Vernacular Press Act was enacted in which year?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 51 Seconds

Options :
1. 1875

2. 1876

3. 1878

4. 1877

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e.1878.

The Vernacular Press Act was enacted to curtail the freedom of the Indian press and prevent the expression of criticism

Page No: 43
toward British policies 1878. It was proposed by Lord Lytton.
The law was repealed in 1881 by Lytton's successor as viceroy, Lord Ripon (governed 1880–84).

Question 55 :
Which of the following is NOT a conductor?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 40 Seconds

Options :
1. Hard rubber

2. Copper

3. Silver

4. Nickel

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Hard rubber.

A substance or material that permits the flow of electricity is referred to as a conductor. When voltage is given to a
conductor, electrical charge carriers, often electrons or ions, travel easily from atom to atom.

Examples of heat conductors are iron, aluminum, copper, silver, brass, lead, and stainless steel.

Question 56 :
Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides for how many types of freedoms?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 45 Seconds

Options :
1. 3

2. 4

3. 5

4. 6

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 6.

Article 19 of the Constitution provides freedom of speech which is the right to express one's opinion freely without any fear
through oral/written/electronic/ broadcasting/press.
Article 19: the Indian Constitution provides for 6 types of freedoms:

Page No: 44
(a)Right to freedom of speech and expression.
(b)Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
(c) Right to form associations or unions.
(d)Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
(e) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
(g) Right to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business.

Question 57 :
Who among the following belonged to the ancient chiefly family of the Cholas from Uraiyur, captured the Kaveri delta from
the Muttaraiyar in the middle of the ninth century?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 62 Seconds

Options :
1. Gandaraditya

2. Vijayalaya

3. Parantaka I

4. Aditya I

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Vijayalaya.

In the middle of the ninth century, Vijayalaya, a member of the ancient Chola main family from Uraiyur, conquered the
delta from the Muttaraiyar. He created the town of Thanjavur and a temple dedicated to the goddess Nishumbhasudini
there.

Question 58 :
Sarojini Naidu was elected the first Indian woman President of the Indian National Congress at __________.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 43 Seconds

Options :
1. Kanpur

2. Ahmedabad

3. Delhi

4. Nagpur

Solution :

Page No: 45
The correct answer isOption 1 i.e. Kanpur.

Sarojini Naidu was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress Party in 1925 at Kanpur, the first-ever woman
to assume that position. The first woman president of the Indian National Congress was Annie Besant.

Question 59 :
Which branch of the government is responsible for implementing laws and policies?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 40 Seconds

Options :
1. Judiciary

2. Legislature

3. Executive

4. NITI Aayog

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Executive.

The executive branch of government is in charge of putting the laws and regulations that the legislature has passed
into effect.
Legislature of the Union, which is called Parliament, consists of the President and two Houses, known as Council of
States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha).

Question 60 :
In a food chain, secondary producers are ______.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 44 Seconds

Options :
1. omnivores

2. herbivores

3. carnivores

4. decomposers

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Herbivores.

Food chain, in ecology, is the sequence of transfers of matter and energy in the form of food from organism to

Page No: 46
organism.
Autotrophs or primary producers are organisms that acquire their energy from sunlight and materials from nonliving
sources.
Herbivores are regarded as secondary producers since they generate their own biomass utilising the main
producers' energy.

Question 61 :
Which among the following crops is related to the “Rabi” season in North India?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 49 Seconds

Options :
1. Rice

2. Jowar

3. Maize

4. Barley

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Barley.

The rabi crops are sown around mid-November, preferably after the monsoon rains are over, and harvesting begins in
April / May.
Rabi crops- wheat, barley, oats, gram, mustard, linseed.

Kharif crops- rice, maize, millet, ragi, pulses, soybean, groundnut.

Question 62 :
Thousands of people from all walks of life took part in the ______ organised at Hyderabad in May 2022 to mark the 25-day
countdown to International Day of Yoga.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 46 Seconds

Options :
1. Yoga Sutra

2. Yoga Utsav

3. Yoga Mahotsav

4. Yoga Umang

Solution :

Page No: 47
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Yoga Utsav.

Thousands of people from all walks of life joined the Yoga Utsav at Hyderabad.
The event was organised by the Ministry of Ayush, Government of India with active support from the Government of
Telangana.
The event was conducted by the Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga.
The event was aimed at creating awareness about the various dimensions of Yoga and its ability to enrich human
lives. The theme of the Utsav was “Make Yoga a Part of Your Life''.

Question 63 :
Mango showers are common in ______________.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 53 Seconds

Options :
1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Kerala

3. Maharashtra

4. West Bengal

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Kerala.

Pre-monsoon rains known as "mango showers" are frequent in the states of Kerala and Karnataka. The end of the summer
season is often when these rains occur. The mangoes benefit from these showers as they ripen. As a result, these rains
are frequently referred to as "mango showers."

Question 64 :
In the first phase of the green revolution, the use of HYV seeds was restricted to the more affluent of which group of
states?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 48 Seconds

Options :
1. Punjab, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh

2. Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh

3. Punjab, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

4. Punjab, Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh

Page No: 48
Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Punjab, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.

The adoption of HYV seeds was first limited to wealthier states like Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
The Green Revolution significantly increased agricultural output in Punjab, where it was originally implemented, boosting
India's national economy.
The country's status was transformed from one of the world's leading agricultural nations as a result of the green
revolution, which was a huge success. It began in 1967 and continued until 1978.

Question 65 :
Sunanda Nair is famous for performing which of the following dance forms?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 56 Seconds

Options :
1. Kathak

2. Odissi

3. Yakshagana

4. Mohiniyattam

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Mohiniyattam.

One of the well-known Indian classical dancers, Sunanda Nair, played a significant part in the spread of Mohiniyattam.
Nair took her initial training in Bharatanatyam at age six.
Mohiniyattam (Mohiniattam) is a classical dance form of Kerala.

Question 66 :
The flat-topped table land standing above the surrounding area is called ______.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 41 Seconds

Options :
1. Hill

2. Plateau

3. Mountain

4. Valley

Solution :

Page No: 49
The correct answer isOption 2 i.e. Plateau.

A plateau is an elevated flat land. It is a flat-topped table land standing above the surrounding area. A plateau may have
one or more sides with steep slopes. The height of plateaus often varies from a few hundred meters to several thousand
meters.

Question 67 :
Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence. The promises made by the old minister
were fulfilled.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 45 Seconds

Options :
1. Contemporary

2. Aged

3. Recent

4. Vernal

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e., Aged.

The meaning of the given words is:

Old: "Old" refers to something that has existed or been in existence for a long time.
Aged: "Aged" is similar to "old" and also refers to something that has reached an advanced age.
Contemporary: "Contemporary" refers to something that belongs to the same time period or era.
Recent: "Recent" indicates something that has occurred, happened, or been created in the near past or not long
ago.
Vernal: "Vernal" relates to springtime or the season of spring.

Thus, the most appropriate synonym for the given word is Aged.

Question 68 :
Select the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the given sentence. He consolidated his position
as the leader of the political party.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 72 Seconds

Options :

Page No: 50
Weakened

2. Devised

3. Strengthened

4. Formulated

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Weakened.

The meaning of the given words is:

Consolidated: The term "consolidated" refers to the act of combining or merging separate elements or entities into
a unified whole.
Weakened: "Weakened" indicates a decrease in strength, power, or effectiveness.
Devised: "Devised" means to create, invent, or come up with a plan, strategy, or solution.
Strengthened: "Strengthened" refers to the act of making something stronger, more robust, or more resilient.
Formulated: "Formulated" means to develop or create a system, theory, concept, or idea in a structured and
organized manner.

Thus, the most appropriate antonym for the underlined word is weakened.

Question 69 :
Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a
meaningful and coherent paragraph. A.It is a very popular character and is the mascot for Walt Disney company. B.Mickey
generally appears with his girlfriend Minnie Mouse and pet Pluto. C.The animated movies on Mickey mouse have been
nominated for the Academy award. D.Mickey mouse is a fictional cartoon character created by Walt Disney in 1928.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 87 Seconds

Options :
1. DABC

2. ADBC

3. ACDB

4. BACD

Page No: 51
Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. DABC.

The paragraph begins by introducing the character of Mickey Mouse in sentence D, providing background
information about its creation by Walt Disney.
Sentence A states that Mickey Mouse is a popular character and serves as the mascot for the Walt Disney
company.
Sentence B mentions Mickey's companions, his girlfriend Minnie Mouse and pet Pluto.
Sentence C highlights the recognition of the animated movies featuring Mickey Mouse with Academy Award
nominations.
The sentences, when arranged in this order, form a coherent paragraph that presents information about Mickey
Mouse and his significance.

Thus, the correctly arranged paragraph is:

Mickey mouse is a fictional cartoon character created by Walt Disney in 1928. It is a very popular character and is the
mascot for Walt Disney company. Mickey generally appears with his girlfriend Minnie Mouse and pet Pluto. The animated
movies on Mickey mouse have been nominated for the Academy award.

Question 70 :
Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. The lecture by the French professor
seemed Latin and Greek to the young students.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 81 Seconds

Options :
1. Interesting

2. Lucid

3. Unbiased

4. Incomprehensible

Solution :
The corret answer is Option 4 i.e. Incomprehensible.

The meaning of the given idiom, 'Latin and Greek' is ''something difficult to understand; incomprehensible'.

Thus, the most appropriate choice among the given options is Incomprehensible.

Question 71 :
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. We ensure that you will get a ___________ chauffeur with the right
car for your day.

Page No: 52
Difficulty : Moderate
Average Time : 45 Seconds

Options :
1. novice

2. uniformed

3. dabbler

4. riotous

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. uniformed.

The meaning of the given words is:

Uninformed: Refers to someone who lacks knowledge or information about a particular subject or topic. It suggests
a lack of awareness or understanding.
Novice: Refers to a person who is new to or inexperienced in a particular field, activity, or skill. It implies a beginner
or someone at an early stage of learning.
Dabbler: Refers to someone who engages in an activity or pursues a particular interest in a superficial or casual
manner, without serious commitment or expertise. It suggests a person who dabbles or experiments without fully
immersing themselves.
Riotous: Can have different meanings depending on the context. It can refer to something or someone that is
unruly, disorderly, or characterized by violent or disruptive behavior.
Thus, the most appropriate filler for the given blank is uninformed.

Therefore, the completed sentence is:

We ensure that you will get a uninformed chauffeur with the right car for your day.

Question 72 :
Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 79 Seconds

Options :
1. Compact

2. Compell

3. Currently

4. Savage

Page No: 53
Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Compell.

The correct spellings and meanings of the given words are:

Compel: Refers to the act of forcing or compelling someone to do something, often against their will.
Compact: Can have multiple meanings. It can refer to a small and efficient arrangement or design, or it can also
refer to a formal agreement or contract.
Currently: Refers to the present time or the period of time that is happening now.
Savage: Can have different meanings depending on the context. It can refer to something or someone that is wild,
untamed, or fierce. It can also be used to describe something that is extremely brutal, violent, or ruthless.

Question 73 :
Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘consensus’ from the following sentence. The landowner and the tenant
mutually came to an agreement for decisive acceptance of its clause.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 70 Seconds

Options :
1. Decisive

2. Acceptance

3. Mutually

4. Agreement

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Agreement.

The meaning of the given words is:

Consensus: Refers to a general agreement or harmony among a group of people regarding a particular matter or
decision.
Agreement: Refers to a state of harmony or conformity in opinions, views, or decisions between two or more
parties.
Decisive: Refers to something that has a clear and definite outcome or result, often characterized by making a firm
and conclusive decision.
Acceptance: Refers to the act of willingly embracing or agreeing to something, often without resistance or objection.
Mutually: Refers to something that is done or experienced by two or more parties in a reciprocal or shared manner.
It implies a mutual or joint involvement or understanding.

Page No: 54
Thus, the most appropriate synonym for the given word isagreement.

Question 74 :
A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative. She rubbed
her hands over her arms, and then _______ her purse, headed inside the convenience store.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 78 Seconds

Options :
1. snapping

2. slaying

3. pinching

4. grabbing

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. grabbing.

The meaning of the given words is:

Grabbing: Refers to taking hold of something quickly and firmly.


Snapping: Refers to closing or fastening something with a quick, sharp motion.
Slaying: Refers to killing or defeating someone or something.
Pinching: Refers to gripping or squeezing something with the fingers, typically using thumb and forefinger. It can
also refer to causing pain or discomfort by pressing or squeezing.

Thus, the completed sentence is:

She rubbed her hands over her arms, and then grabbing her purse, headed inside the convenience store.

Question 75 :
Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the italicised words in the given sentence. Some people still feel that
they have very little freedom to be innovative in their work.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 67 Seconds

Options :
1. elbow room

2. an old lady

Page No: 55
an old head on young shoulders

4. to make a pile

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. elbow room.

The meaning of the given idioms is:

Elbow room: Refers to having enough space or freedom to move or work comfortably without feeling restricted or
crowded.
An old lady: Refers to a woman who is advanced in age, typically considered to be elderly.
An old head on young shoulders: Describes a young person who displays wisdom, maturity, or sensible behavior
beyond their years.
To make a pile: Refers to making a significant amount of money or accumulating a large sum of wealth.

Thus, the most appropriate idiom for the italicized segment of the sentence is elbow room.

Question 76 :
Select the most appropriate option to replace the underlined segment in the given sentence. Old people acquire
experience through age.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 70 Seconds

Options :
1. got experience

2. developed experience

3. experienced

4. gain experience

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. gain experience.

Experience is not something we acquire, it is something that we gain over the course of years.
Moreover, gain experience maintains the original meaning of the sentence, keeping the context intact.
Based on the meaning and context of the sentence, the most appropriate option to replace the underlined segment
in the given sentence is "gain experience."

Page No: 56
Thus, the corrected sentence is:

Old people gain experience through age.

Question 77 :
Select the correct active form of the given sentence. AIDS will have been cured by the year 2070 by scientists.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 57 Seconds

Options :
1. Scientists will have cured AIDS by the year 2070.

2. Scientists cured AIDS by the year 2070.

3. Scientists will cure AIDS by the year 2070.

4. Scientists must have cured AIDS by the year 2070.

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Scientists will have cured AIDS by the year 2070.

Following steps should be followed to change the passive form of the given sentence into its active form:

Identify the subject: Look for the doer of the action in the sentence. In this case, the subject is "scientists."

Identify the auxiliary verbs: In the given sentence, the auxiliary verbs are "will have been."

Determine the main verb: The main verb in the sentence is "cured."

Determine the object: Identify the recipient of the action in the sentence. In this case, the object is "AIDS."

Place the subject as the doer of the action: In the active voice, the subject performs the action. Therefore, place the
subject "scientists" at the beginning of the sentence.

Choose an appropriate active verb: Select a verb that conveys the intended meaning and matches the tense and
form of the passive verb. In this case, the verb "will cure" is used as it corresponds to the future tense of the passive
verb "will have been cured."

Place the object after the verb: Place the object "AIDS" after the verb "will cure" in the active voice.

Adjust the tense and auxiliary verbs: Modify the tense and auxiliary verbs according to the active voice. In this case,
the future perfect tense "will have been" is changed to the future perfect tense "wil have" in the active voice.

Thus, the active form of the given sentence is:

Page No: 57
Scientists will have cured AIDS by the year 2070.

Question 78 :
Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Honest and polite people are admired by everyone.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 122 Seconds

Options :
1. Everyone has been admiring honest and polite people.

2. Everyone admired honest and polite people.

3. Everyone will admire honest and polite people.

4. Everyone admires honest and polite people.

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Everyone admires honest and polite people.

Following steps should be followed to change the passive form of the given sentence into its active form:

Identify the subject: Look for the doer of the action in the sentence. In this case, the subject is "everyone."

Identify the verb: Identify the main verb in the sentence. In this case, the verb is "are admired."

Determine the object: Identify the recipient of the action in the sentence. In this case, the object is "honest and polite
people."

Place the subject as the doer of the action: In the active voice, the subject performs the action. Therefore, place the
subject "everyone" at the beginning of the sentence.

Choose an appropriate active verb: Select a verb that conveys the intended meaning and matches the tense and
form of the passive verb. In this case, the verb "admires" is used as it corresponds to the present tense of the
passive verb "are admired."

Place the object after the verb: Place the object "honest and polite people" after the verb "admires" in the active
voice.

Thus, the active form of the given sentence is:

Everyone admires honest and polite people.

Question 79 :
Choose the incorrectly spelt word.

Page No: 58
Difficulty : Moderate
Average Time : 100 Seconds

Options :
1. Assidous

2. Disapproval

3. Devastation

4. Conjoined

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Assidous.

The correct spellings and meanings of the given words are:

Assiduous: diligent, hardworking, persistent.


Disapproval: dissent, objection, criticism.
Devastation: destruction, ruin, devastation.
Conjoined: joined, linked, connected.

Question 80 :
Select the appropriate option to replace the underlined word with the adverb of frequency. He did not admit that his team
played badly.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 49 Seconds

Options :
1. never admitted

2. yesterday admitted

3. happily admitted

4. willingly admitted

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. never admitted.

Page No: 59
In the original sentence, the verb "did not admit" indicates a negation or absence of admission.
By using the adverb of frequency "never," we convey the meaning that there was no instance in which he admitted
that his team played badly.
This choice aligns with the intended meaning and maintains grammatical correctness in the sentence.

Thus, the required sentence would be:

He never admitted that his team played badly.

Question 81 :
The question below consists of a set of labeled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of
the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. P. There once was a little boy who had a very bad temper. Q. The boy
gradually began to control his temper over the next few weeks, and the number of nails he was hammering into the fence
slowly decreased. R. His father decided to hand him a bag of nails and said that every time the boy lost his temper, he had
to hammer a nail into the fence. S. On the first day, the boy hammered 37 nails into that fence .

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 83 Seconds

Options :
1. QRSP

2. PRSQ

3. RPSQ

4. QPRS

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. PRSQ.

The paragraph begins by introducing the little boy with a bad temper in sentence P.
It is then explained how his father devised a method to help him control his temper by assigning him the task of
hammering nails into the fence in sentence R.
The next sentence provides specific information about the boy's behavior on the first day, where he hammered 37
nails into the fence sentence S.
Finally, the paragraph concludes by mentioning the positive change in the boy's behavior as his temper gradually
improves sentence Q.

Thus, the appropriate paragraph would be:

There once was a little boy who had a very bad temper. His father decided to hand him a bag of nails and said that every
time the boy lost his temper, he had to hammer a nail into the fence. On the first day, the boy hammered 37 nails into that
fence. The boy gradually began to control his temper over the next few weeks, and the number of nails he was hammering

Page No: 60
into the fence slowly decreased.

Question 82 :
Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. He said to him, "Is your name not Ahmed?"

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 86 Seconds

Options :
1. He enquired is your name not Ahmed.

2. He enquired whether his name was not Ahmed

3. He said whether his name was not Ahmed.

4. He said is your name not Ahmed.

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. He enquired whether his name was not Ahmed.

Following steps should be followed to convert the given direct speech sentence into its indirect form:

Identify the reporting verb and reporting clause: In this case, the reporting verb is "said" and the reporting clause is
"to him."

Introduce a reporting verb clause: Begin the indirect form of the sentence with a reporting verb clause such as "He
asked him" or "He enquired of him."

Introduce a conjunction: Include a conjunction such as "if" or "whether" to introduce the indirect question. In this
case, "whether" can be used.

Change the pronouns: Adjust the pronouns in the indirect question to reflect the perspective of the reported speech.

In this case, "your" changes to "his" to match the perspective of the reported speech.

Thus, the indirect form of the sentence would be:

He enquired him whether his name was not Ahmed.

Comprehension :
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank. I will tell you what I will do and what I will not do. I will not (1) _____________ that in which I no
longer believe, (2) ____________ it calls itself my home, my fatherland, or my church: and I will try to (3)
_______________ myself in some mode of life or art as (4) _____________ as I can and as wholly as I can, using for my

Page No: 61
defense the only arms I (5) ____________ myself to use: silence, exile and cunning.

Question 83 :
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 116 Seconds

Options :
1. serve

2. drain

3. lag

4. debit

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. serve.

The meaning of the given words is:

Serve: Assist, help, attend to


Drain: Empty, deplete, remove liquid
Lag: Delay, fall behind, trail
Debit: Deduct, withdraw, charge
Thus, the most appropriate filler for the given blank is serve.

Therefore, the completed sentence is:

I will not serve that in which I no longer believe, whether it calls itself my home, my fatherland, or my church

Comprehension :
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank. I will tell you what I will do and what I will not do. I will not (1) _____________ that in which I no
longer believe, (2) ____________ it calls itself my home, my fatherland, or my church: and I will try to (3)
_______________ myself in some mode of life or art as (4) _____________ as I can and as wholly as I can, using for my
defense the only arms I (5) ____________ myself to use: silence, exile and cunning.

Question 84 :
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 83 Seconds

Options :

Page No: 62
sometimes

2. nevertheless

3. whether

4. presumably

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. whether.

The meaning of the given words is:

Whether: If, regardless of whether, in case


Sometimes: Occasionally, at times, now and then
Nevertheless: However, nonetheless, despite that
Presumably: Supposedly, presumably, likely
Thus, the most appropriate filler for the given blank is whether.

Therefore, the completed sentence is:

I will not serve that in which I no longer believe, whether it calls itself my home, my fatherland, or my church.

Comprehension :
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank. I will tell you what I will do and what I will not do. I will not (1) _____________ that in which I no
longer believe, (2) ____________ it calls itself my home, my fatherland, or my church: and I will try to (3)
_______________ myself in some mode of life or art as (4) _____________ as I can and as wholly as I can, using for my
defense the only arms I (5) ____________ myself to use: silence, exile and cunning.

Question 85 :
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 85 Seconds

Options :
1. express

2. disappear

3. collect

4. sterilise

Solution :

Page No: 63
The correct answer isOption 1 i.e. express.

The meaning of the given words is:

Express: Articulate, convey, communicate


Disappear: Vanish, fade, evaporate
Collect: Gather, accumulate, amass
Sterilise: Sanitize, disinfect, decontaminate
Thus, the most appropriate filler for the given blank is express.

Therefore, the completed sentence is:

I will try to express myself in some mode of life or art as freely as I can and as wholly as I can, using for my defense the
only arms I allow myself to use: silence, exile and cunning.

Comprehension :
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank. I will tell you what I will do and what I will not do. I will not (1) _____________ that in which I no
longer believe, (2) ____________ it calls itself my home, my fatherland, or my church: and I will try to (3)
_______________ myself in some mode of life or art as (4) _____________ as I can and as wholly as I can, using for my
defense the only arms I (5) ____________ myself to use: silence, exile and cunning.

Question 86 :
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 87 Seconds

Options :
1. morbidly

2. bleakly

3. pithily

4. freely

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. freely.

The meaning of the given words is:

Freely: Without restriction, openly, unrestrictedly


Morbidly: Unhealthy, gruesomely, excessively

Page No: 64
Bleakly: Desolately, grimly, gloomily
Pithily: Concisely, tersely, succinctly
Thus, the most appropriate filler for the given blank is freely.

Therefore, the completed sentence is:

'...art as freely as I can and as wholly as I can, using for my defense the only arms I allow myself to use: silence, exile and
cunning.'

Question 87 :
The simple interest received on a sum is 25/36 of the sum. The number of years is equal to the annual rate of interest.
What is the annual rate of interest?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 64 Seconds

Options :
1. 9.25 percent

2. 10.25 percent

3. 6.62 percent

4. 8.33 percent

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 8.33 percent.

Given:

Interest = \({25 \over 36} \times Principle\)

R=T

Concept Used:

\(SI = {{P \times T \times R}\over 100}\)

Explanation:

According to the given question,

\({25 \over 36} P = {P \times R^2 \over 100}\)

\({25 \times 100 \over 36} = R^2\)

Page No: 65
Taking square root on both sides, we get

R = 50/6

R = 8.33

Hence the rate of interest is 8.33%.

Question 88 :
Two candidates P and Q contested in an election. 70% of the registered voters are P supporters. If 60% of the P
supporters and 30% of the Q supporters are expected to vote for candidate P, then what percentage of the registered
voters are expected to vote for candidate P?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 68 Seconds

Options :
1. 30%

2. 51%

3. 26%

4. 47%

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 51%.

Explanation:

Let the total number of registered voters be 100.

Now, supporters of P = 70% of 100 = 70

So, supporters of Q = 100 - 70 = 30

Expected voters for P = 60% of 70 + 30% of 30 = 42 + 9 = 51

The percentage of registered voters which are expected to vote for candidate P = \({51 \over 100} \times 100\) = 51%

Hence the percentage of the registered voters are expected to vote for candidate P is 51%.

Question 89 :
If the length of certain rectangle is decreased by 4 cm and breadth is increased by 2 cm, it would result in a square of the
same area. What is the perimeter of the original rectangle?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 57 Seconds

Page No: 66
Options :
1. 15 cm

2. 24 cm

3. 20 cm

4. 10 cm

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 20 cm.

Concept Used:

Area of rectangle = l × b
2
Area of square = a

Perimeter of rectangle = 2(l + b)

Explanation:

Let the length and breadth of the given rectangle be l cm and b cm respectively.

According to the given question, side of square = l - 4 = b +2

Now, l = b + 6 ....(i)

Also, Area of square = area of rectangle

(l - 4)(b + 2) = lb

lb + 2l - 4b - 8 = lb

2(l - 2b) = 8

l - 2b = 4 ...(ii)

Using the values in equation (i) in equation (ii), we get

(b + 6) - 2b = 4

6-b=4

b = 2 cm

Now, from equation (i), l = 2 + 6 = 8 cm

So, the perimeter of rectangle = 2(8 + 2) = 20 cm.

Question 90 :

Page No: 67
Find the greatest number that will divide 49, 147 and 322 to leave the same remainder in each case.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 75 Seconds

Options :
1. 9

2. 5

3. 7

4. 8

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 7.

Concept Used:

When two numbers are divided by another number and leaves same remainder their difference must produce a remainder
that is equal to zero.

Explanation:

Difference between the numbers

147 - 49 = 98

322 - 147 = 175

322 - 49 = 273

Now, HCF of (98, 175, 273),

98 = 7 × 7 × 2

175 = 7 × 5 × 5

273 = 13 × 7 × 3

The HCF of (98, 175, 273) is 7

Hence the greatest number that will divide 49, 147 and 322 to leave the same remainder in each case is 7.

Question 91 :
The mean proportional of a and b is c. What is the mean proportional of a2 c and b2 c?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 60 Seconds

Page No: 68
Options :
1. C

2. 3c
3
3. C
2
4. C

Solution :
3
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. C .

Given:

Mean proportional of a and b is c.

Concept Used:

Mean proportional of a and b, c = \(\sqrt{ab}\) ....(i)

Explanation:

2
From equation (i), we get c = ab
2 2 4
a b =c
2 2
So mean proportional of a c and b c = \(\sqrt{a^2 c \times b^2 c}\)

\(\sqrt{a^2 \times b^2 \times c^2}\)

\(\sqrt{c^4 \times c^2}\)


3
\(\sqrt{c^6}\) = c
2 2 3.
Hence the mean proportional of a c and b c is c

Question 92 :
Find the area of the sector of a circle with radius 4cm and angle 30°.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 75 Seconds

Options :
2
1. 7.186 cm
2
2. 6.186 cm

Page No: 69
2
4.186 cm
2
4. 5.186 cm

Solution :
2
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 4.186 cm

Given:

Radius of sector = 4 cm

Central angle = 30°

Concept Used:

Area of sector = \({\theta \over 360} \times \pi r^2\)

Explanation:

According to the given question,

Area of sector = \({30 \over 360} \times {22 \over 7} \times (4)^2\)

Area of sector = \({1 \over 3} \times {22 \over 7}\)

Area of sector = 4.186


2
HEnce the area of sector is 4.186 cm .

Question 93 :
({{cos20°} over sin70°}+{{cos heta} over sin(90°- heta)}=)________________.

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 57 Seconds

Options :
1. -2

2. \({{1} \over 2}\)


3. \(-{{1} \over 2}\)
4. 2

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 2.

Page No: 70
Concept Used:

\(\cos(90 - \theta) = \sin\theta\)

Explanation:

according to the given question,

\({{cos20°} \over sin70°}+{{cos\theta} \over sin(90°-\theta)}\)


\({{\cos(90 - 70)°} \over \sin70°}+{{\cos\theta} \over \cos\theta}\)
\({\sin 70 \over \sin 70} + 1\) = 1 + 1 = 2

Hence the value of \({{cos20°} \over sin70°}+{{cos\theta} \over sin(90°-\theta)}\) is 2.

Question 94 :
The number of mobiles sim - card owners in 4 states/UT are given in the bar diagram. Study the diagram and answer the
question. The average of sim-card sold in the 4 states/ UT in lakhs is:

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 78 Seconds

Options :
1. 51.5

2. 51.25

3. 50

4. 55.25

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 51.25.

Explanation:

The total of sim-card sold in the 4 states/ UT in lakhs = (20 + 15 + 25) + (25 + 20 + 15) + (15 + 10 + 20) + (10 + 25 + 5) =
60 + 60 + 45 + 40 = 205 lakhs

Now, The average of sim-card sold in the 4 states/ UT = \(205 \over 4\) = 51.25

Hence the average of sim-card sold in the 4 states/ UT is 51.25 lakhs.

Question 95 :
What will be the value of sin 10° – 4/3 sin3 10°?

Page No: 71
Difficulty : Moderate
Average Time : 44 Seconds

Options :
1. \({{1} \over 3\sqrt3}\)
2. 1/6

3. \({{1} \over 2\sqrt3}\)


4. \({{\sqrt3} \over6}\)

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. \(1\over6\).

Concept Used:

\(\sin 3\theta = 3\sin\theta - 4 \sin^3\theta \)

Explanation:

Accoding to the given question,

\(sin 10° – {4\over 3} sin^3 10°\) = \({3sin 10° – 4 sin^3 10°}\over 3\)

\(\sin 3(10°) \over 3\)

\({1 \over 3} \times \sin30°\) = \({1 \over 3}\times{1 \over 2}\) = \(1\over6\)

Hence the value of \(sin 10° – {4\over 3} sin^3 10°\) is \(1\over6\) .

Question 96 :
A man lost 15% by selling a mobile for Rs.4,675. What will be his gain percentage by selling it for Rs.6,050?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 74 Seconds

Options :
1. 10.5%

2. 9.5%

3. 9%

4. 10%

Solution :

Page No: 72
The correct answer isOption 4 i.e. 10%.

Given:

SP = Rs.4,675

Loss = 15%

Concept Used:

\(SP = CP \times {(100 - loss\%) \over 100}\) ...(i)

Profit = SP - CP

Explanation:

Using equation (i) and the given values, we get

\(4675 = CP \times {(100 - 15) \over 100}\)

\(CP = {4675 \times 100 \over 85}\)

CP = 5500

Now, new SP = Rs.6,050

So, Profit = 6050 - 5500 = 550

Hence profit % = \({550 \over 5500} \times 100 \) = 10%.

Question 97 :
A wire is in the form of square with side 11 cm. It is bent to form a circle. What is the radius of the circle?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 62 Seconds

Options :
1. 11 cm

2. 5 cm

3. 9 cm

4. 7 cm

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 7 cm.

Given:

Page No: 73
Side of square = 11 cm

Concept Used:

Perimeter of square = 4a

Circumference of circle = \(2\pi r\)

If a wire is bent to change the shape, then their perimeter is same.

Explanation:

ccording to the given question,

4a = \(2\pi r\)

\({4 \times 11} = 2 \times {22 \over 7} \times r\)

r=7

Hence the radius of the circle thus formed is 7 cm.

Question 98 :
If b sin = a, then sec + tan = ?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 59 Seconds

Options :
1. \(\sqrt{{b+a} \over b-a}\)
2. \(\sqrt{{1} \over b+a}\)
3. \(\sqrt{{1} \over b-a}\)
4. \(\sqrt{{b-a} \over b+a}\)

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. \(\sqrt{{b+a} \over b-a}\)
Given:

b sin = a

sin = a/b

Concept Used:

Page No: 74
sin = \(P\over H\)

sec = \(H \over B\)

tan = \(P \over B\)

Explanation:

According to the given question,

P = a, H = b

So, B = \(\sqrt{H^2 - P^2}\) = \(\sqrt{b^2 - a^2}\)

Now, sec + tan = \( {b \over \sqrt{b^2 - a^2}} + {a \over \sqrt{b^2 - a^2}}\)

\({b + a} \over \sqrt{b^2 - a^2}\) = \({\sqrt{b +a} \sqrt{b + a}} \over {\sqrt{b - a} \sqrt{b + a}}\) = \(\sqrt{{b+a} \over b-
a}\)
Hence the value of sec + tan is \(\sqrt{{b+a} \over b-a}\)
Question 99 :
A boat racer can row (21{{3} over 2}) km/h in still water. If the speed of river is 12.5 km/hr, it takes him 40 minutes to row to
a place and back, how far off is the place (consider up to two decimals)?

Difficulty : Moderate Average Time : 147 Seconds

Options :
1. \(5{{5} \over 27}km\)

2. \(5{{2} \over 5}km\)

3. \(4{{5} \over 27}km\)

4. \(3{{5} \over 27}km\)

Solution :
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. \(5{{5} \over 27}km\)
Given:

Speed of boat in still water = \(21{{3} \over 2}\) km/hr = 22.5 km/hr
Speed of stream = 12.5 km/hr

Page No: 75
Time = 40 minutes

Concept Used:

Downstream speed = Speed of boat in still water + Speed of stream

Upstream speed = Speed of boat in still water - Speed of stream

Disatance = speed × time

Explanation:

Let the distance of the place be D km.

Now, according to the given question,

\({D \over downstream\ speed} + {D \over upstream\ speed} = {40 \over 60}\)

\({D \over (22.5 + 12.5)} + {D \over (22.5 - 12.5)} = {2 \over 3}\)

\({D \over 35} + {D \over 10} = { 2\over 3}\)

\({9D \over 70} = {2 \over 3}\)

\(D = {140 \over 27}\) = \(5 \frac{5}{27}\) km.

Hence the distance is \(5 \frac{5}{27}\) km.

Ssc Cgl Tier I Previous Year Question Paper


Analysis
The analysis of Ssc Cgl Tier I Previous Year Question Paper held on 2022-12-06 in the Morning exam is as follows:
1. 99 questions were moderate.
2. The safe score is 140 marks.
3. 24 questions were asked from English Language, 25 questions were asked from General Awareness, 25 questions
were asked from Logical Reasoning and 25 questions were asked from Quantitative Aptitude
4. 28 questions should have been skipped if you were short of time.

Ssc Cgl Tier I Previous Year Question Paper Topic


Wise Weightage
English Language

Page No: 76
Cloze Test - 5
2. Parajumbles - 2
3. Idioms - 2
4. Fillers - 2
5. Narration - 2
6. Voice - 2
7. Sentence Improvement - 3
8. Synonym - 2
9. Antonym - 2
10. Incorrectly Spelt - 2
11. Incorrectly Spelt - 2

General Awareness
1. History - 3
2. Polity - 1
3. Science - 1
4. GK Misc - 17
5. Current Affairs - 3

Logical Reasoning
1. Coding Decoding - 2
2. Analogy - 5
3. Classification - 2
4. Blood Relations - 2
5. Syllogism - 2
6. Dictionary Based - 1
7. Figure Based - 4
8. Series - 3
9. Mathematical Reasoning - 3
10. Cubes And Dice - 1

Quantitative Aptitude
1. Arithmetic - 25

Ssc Cgl Tier I Previous Year Question Paper Tips

Page No: 77
and Tricks

1. Try to solve Ssc Cgl Tier I Previous Year Question Paper without taking any help from the solutions.
2. Ssc Cgl Tier I Previous Year Question Paper require proper usage of concept so firstly read the question thoroughly
and then use the right concept.
3. In case you're not able to solve the question in less than 30 seconds in the exam then you should skip the question
and move to the next question.

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Page No: 78
KD Live is Offering Every Information and Study Material required for the self study. Please click on the following links for
accessing those.

Study Plan
General Science
General Awareness
General Knowledge
Quantitative Aptitude
Logical Reasoning
English Language
Today In History
Syllabus
Know Your State
Know Your Country
Know Your City
Know Your Leader
Books And Authors
Daily Vocabulary
Daily Editorial
Latest Notifications
Exam Dates
Admit Card
Exam Results
Exam Cutoff
Exam Eligibility
Exam Pattern

Page No: 79
Answer Key
Important Days

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Page No: 80

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