01-06-2025

1103CMD303021250055 MD

PHYSICS

1)

(1) R/4
(2) R/2
(3) R
(4) 2R

2) The value of R in the circuit should be :-

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 1.5 Ω
(3) 2 Ω
(4) 2.5 Ω

3) Reading of the ideal voltmeter in the circuit below is :

(1) 10 V
(2) 8 V
(3) 6 V
(4) Zero

4) In the figure shown for gives values of R1 and R2 the balance point for Jockey is at 40 cm from A.
When R2 is shunted by a resistance of 10Ω, balanced shifts to 50 cm. R1 and R2 are (AB = 1m) :
(1)

(2) 20Ω, 30Ω

(3) 10Ω, 15Ω

(4)

5) The current i through a wire varies with time t as shown. How many coulomb charge flows

through the wire in time interval t1 = 0 to t2 = 3 second :-

(1) 13.5 C
(2) 27 C
(3) 37.5 C
(4) 54 C

6) If n represents the actual number of deflections in a converted galvanometer of resistance G and

shunt resistance S. Then the total current I when its figure of merit is K will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) In a metre bridge experiment, the null point is at a distance of 30 cm from A. If a resistance of

16Ω is connected in parallel with resistance Y, the null point occurs at 50 cm from A. The value of
the resistance Y is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic
conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match
Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Drift Velocity (P)

(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd

(C) Relaxation Period (R)

(D) Current Density (S)

(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)

(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)

9) The metre bridge shown is in balanced position with . If we now interchange the
positions of galvanometer and cell, will the bridge work ? If yes, what will be balance condition ?
(1)
yes,
(2) no, no null point
yes,
(3)

yes,
(4)

10) In the circuits shown below, the readings of the voltmeters and the ammeters will be :

(1) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2

(2) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
(3) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2
(4) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2

11) For the circuit given below, the Kirchoff's loop rule for the loop BCDEB is given by the equation

(1) –i2R2 + E2 – E3 + i3R1 = 0

(2) i2R2 + E2 – E3 – i3R1 = 0
(3) i2R2 + E2 + E3 + i3R1 = 0
(4) – i2R2 + E2 + E3 + i3R1 = 0
12) The charge flowing in a conductor changes with time as Q(t) = αt – βt2 + γt3. Where α, β and γ
are constants. Minimum value of current is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each)
which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current Ι is
measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between Ι and n ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A current flows in a wire of circular cross-section with the free electrons travelling with a mean
drift velocity . If an equal current flows in a wire of twice the radius, new mean drift velocity is:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) none of these

15) Which of the following dependence of drift velocity :-

2
(1) vd ∝ E
(2) vd ∝
(3) vd = constant
(4) vd ∝ E

16) You are given several identical resistances each of value R = 10Ω and each capable of carrying
maximum current of 1 ampere. It is required to make a suitable combination of these resistances to
produce a resistance of 5Ω which can carry a current of 4 ampere. The minimum number of
resistances of the type R that will be required for this job

(1) 4
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 20

17) The resistance of platinum wire at 0°C is 4Ω and 8.4Ω at 60°C. The temperature coefficient of
resistance of the wire is-

(1) 0.183°C–1
(2) 1.83°C–1
(3) 18.3°C–1
(4) 0.0183°C–1

18) Thirteen resistances each of resistance R ohm are connected in the circuit as shown in the

adjoining figure. The effective resistance between A and B is:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)
19) The equivalent resistance between A and B (of the circuit shown) is

(1) 4.5 Ω
(2) 12 Ω
(3) 5.4 Ω
(4) 20 Ω

20) Find total charge flow through it from 2 sec to 8 sec.

(1) 35 μC
(2) 40 μC
(3) 45 μC
(4) None of these

21) In the circuit shown the readings of ammeter and voltmeter are 4A and 20V respectively. The

meters are non ideal, then R is :-

(1) 5Ω
(2) less than 5Ω
(3) greater than 5Ω
(4) between 4Ω & 5Ω

22) n identical cells are joined in series with its two cells A and B in the loop with reversed
polarities. EMF of each is cell E and internal resistance r. Potential difference across cell A or B is
(here n > 4) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) In given circuit, the potential difference across the resistance of 400Ω, as measured by voltmeter

of resistance 400Ω, is :-

(1) 18 V
(2) 12 V
(3) 10 V
(4) 20 V

24) To know the resistance G of a galvanometer by half deflection method, a battery of emf VE and
resistance R is used to deflect the galvanometer by angle θ. If a shunt of resistance S is needed to
get half deflection then G, R and S are related by the equation :-

(1) 2S (R+G) = RG
(2) S (R+G) = RG
(3) 2G = S
(4) 2S = G

25) The current I flows through a uniform wire of diameter d when the mean drift velocity is u. The
same current will flow through a wire of diameter d/2 made of the same material if the mean drift
velocity of the electron is :

(1) u/4
(2) 4u
(3) 2u
(4) u

0
26) The area of cross section of current carrying conductor is A and in section (1) & (2) if ,
and E1, E2 are drift velocity and electric field at sec. (1) and (2) respectively, then :-

(1) : =1:2
(2) : =4:1
(3) E1 : E2 = 4 : 1
(4) E1 : E2 = 1 : 4

27) The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled,
then :-

(1) The resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
(2) The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
(3) The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
(4) The resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged

28)

Resistance of a conductor at temperature t° C is :

R = R0(1 + at + bt2)

Here, R0 is the temperature at 0°C. The temperature coefficient of residence at temperature t is :-

(1)

(2) (a + 2bt)

(3)

(4) constant

29) Two resistances R1 and R2 have effective resistance Rs when connected in series and Rp when

connected in parallel. If RsRp = 16 and , the value of R1 and R2 are :-

(1) 4 Ω and 1 Ω
(2) 8 Ω and 2 Ω
(3) 1 Ω and 0.25 Ω
(4) None of the above

30) If on stretching a wire its radius decreases by 1%, the resistance will :

(1) increase by 1%
(2) increase by 2%
(3) increase by 4%
(4) not change

31)

Four resistors 40Ω, 60Ω, 90Ω and 110Ω are connected to a battery of e.m.f. 4 volt and negligible
internal resistance as shown in the following fig. Then the potential difference between B and D is :-
(1) 0.4 volt
(2) 0.2 volt
(3) 4 volt
(4) 1 volt

32) Find the current through 2Ω :-

(1) zero
(2) 1 amp
(3) 2 amp
(4) 4 amp

33) In the circuit shown in the figure below, which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The potential at P is –7.5 V

(2) The potential at Q is –1 V
(3) The potential at R is zero
(4) The potential at S is zero

34) In the following circuit, the reading of the voltmeter V is :-

(1) 12 V
(2) 8 V
(3) 20 V
(4) 16 V

35) Potential difference between points A & B in the branch of a circuit will be (VA–VB)

(1) 7V
(2) 3V
(3) –7V
(4) –3V

36) The potential difference between A and B in the Figure is :

(1) 24 V
(2) 14 V
(3) 32 V
(4) 48 V

37)
Each Resistance is R
Find value of RAB

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A uniform wire of resistance 20 ohm having resistance 1Ω/m is bent in the adjoining form of a
circle as shown in the figure. If the equivalent resistance between M and N is 1.8 Ω, then the length

of the shorter section is:-

(1) 2m
(2) 5m
(3) 1.8 m
(4) 18 m

39) The maximum power drawn out from a cell in a circuit is given by (where r is internal
resistance)

(1) E2/2r
(2) E2/4r
(3) E2/r
(4) E2/3r

40) In the circuit shown, power dissipations in 4 Ω resistance is found to be maximum. Then find the

value of x:

(1) 2Ω
(2) 4Ω
(3) 6Ω
(4) 0Ω

41) For a cell, a graph is plotted between the potential difference V across the terminals of the cell
and the current I drawn from the cell (see figure). The e.m.f. and internal resistance of the cell is E

and r, respectively.

(1) E = 2V, r = 0.5 Ω

(2) E = 2V, r = 0.4 Ω
(3) E > 2V, r = 0.5 Ω
(4) E > 2V, r = 0.4 Ω

42) There are two cencentric spherical shells of radius a and b, where a < b . If gap between the
shell is filled with material of resistivity 'ρ' , then resistance between shells will be -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43) In the circuit diagram, all the bulbs are identical. Which bulb will be the brightest?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

44) A 100 W bulb B1. and two 60-W bulbs B2 and B3, are contected to a 250 V source, as shown in
the figure. Now W1, W2 and W3 are the output powers of the bulbs B1,B2 and B3 respectively. Then:-

(1) W1 > W2 = W3
(2) W1 > W2 > W3
(3) W1 < W2 = W3
(4) W1 < W2 < W3

45)

If X, Y and Z in figure are identical lamps which of the following bulb will show change in brightness.
When switch 'S' is closed :-

(1) X stays same, Y decreases

(2) X increased, Y decreases
(3) X increases, Y stays the same
(4) X decreases, Y increases

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion: The transition of electrons in H-atom will emit greater energy than .
Reason: n3 and n2 are closer to nucleus than n4.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

2) Assertion: A spectral line will be seen for a transition.

Reason: Energy is released in the form of wave of light when the electron drops
from orbital.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

3) Assertion: Cathode ray's are a stream of -particles.

Reason: They are generated under high pressure and high voltage.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

4) Assertion : The ground state configuration of Cr is 3d5 4s1.

Reason : A set of half-filled orbitals containing one electrons each with their spin parallel provides
extra stability.

(1) If both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) If both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) If A is correct but R is wrong
(4) If A is wrong but R is correct

5)

The energy of an electron moving in nth Bohr’s orbit of an element is given by En =

eV/atom (Z = atomic number). The graph of E vs. Z2 (keeping “n” constant) will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Match column A & column B.

Column - A Column - B

(i) Radius of nth orbit (in Å) (P)

–13.6 ×

(ii) Angular momentum in nth orbit (Q) 2.18 × 106 × z/n

(iii) Energy in nth orbit (eV/atom) (R)

(iv) Velocity in nth orbit (in m/s) (S)

0.529 ×

Correct match will be :

(1) (i) – P, (ii) – Q, (iii) – R, (iv) – S
(2) (i) – S, (ii) – R, (iii) – P, (iv) – Q
(3) (i) – S, (ii) – R, (iii) – Q, (iv) – P
(4) (i) – Q, (ii) – P, (iii) – S, (iv) – R

7) If the mass of neutron is assumed to be half of its original value where as that of proton is
assumed to be twice of its original value then the atomic mass of will be:

(1) Same
(2) 25% more
(3) 14.28% more
(4) 28.5% less

8) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched :

Isotopes
(1)

(2) Isotones

(3) Isobars
Isoelectronic
(4)

9) Calculate wavelength (in Å) of a EM radiation having frequency 3 × 1018 sec–1 ?

(1) 1 Å
(2) 10 Å
(3) 100 Å
(4) 0.1 Å

10) What is the energy of a photon from a laser that emits light at 632.8 nm?

(1) 3.14 × 10–19 J

(2) 1.26 × 10–31 J
(3) 2.52 × 10–33 J
(4) 4.19 × 10–40 J

11) Which of the following value of angular momentum of electron in a shell is not possible

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

In Bohr's model, if the radius of the first orbit is r1, then radius of third orbit of Na10+ will be:-

(1) 4r1/11
(2) 9r1/11
(3) 9r1
(4) 9r1/16

13)
Magnetic moments of V(Z = 23), Cr(Z = 24), Mn(Z = 25) are x, y, z. Hence -

(1) x = y = z
(2) x < y < z
(3) x < z < y
(4) z < y < x

14) Radial nodes are maximum in which of the following orbital.

(1) 4s
(2) 4p
(3) 3d
(4) 5f

15) The atomic number of an element ‘M’ is 26. How many electrons are present in the M-shell of
the element in its M3+ state?

(1) 11
(2) 15
(3) 14
(4) 13

16) Enthalpy of combustion of CH4, C2H4 and C2H2 are –213, –370 and –308 kcal. Best fuel is :

(1) CH4
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H2
(4) All are equally good

17) One mole of H2SO4 is completely neutralised with 2 mole of NaOH in dilute solutions. The
amount of heat evolved during the process is :

(1) 57.2 kJ

(2)

(3) 13.7 kCal

(4) 114.4 kJ

18) The heat of combustion of yellow phosphorous and red phosphorous are –9.91 kJ and –8.78 kJ
respectively. The heat of transition of yellow phosphorous to red phosphorous is

(1) –18.69 kJ
(2) +1.13 kJ
(3) +18.69 kJ
(4) –1.13 kJ
19) Which compound will absorb the maximum amount of heat when dissolved in the same amount
of water? (Integral heats of solution at 25°C in kcal/mol of each solute are given in brackets)

(1) HCl (ΔH = –17.74)

(2) HNO3 (ΔH = –7.85)
(3) NH4NO3 (ΔH = +16.08)
(4) NaCl (ΔH = +1.02)

20) H2, cyclohexene and cyclohexane have enthalpy of combustion –241, –3800 and –3920 KJmole–1.
Calculate Hydrogenation enthalpy of cyclo Hexene?

(1) –121 KJmole–1

(2) +121 KJmole–1
(3) +242 KJmole–1
(4) –242 KJmole–1

21) Which is incorrect relation among the following :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The following reactions are given

...(1)
...(2)

...(3)
Calculate the heat of formation of CH4?

(1) x + y + z
(2) y + 2z – x
(3) x – y – 2z
(4) none of the above

23) Enthalpy change for the reaction

is –900 KJ.
The dissociation energy of N–H bond is

(1) +450 KJ
(2) –450 KJ
(3) +150 KJ
(4) –150 KJ
24) The values of ΔH and ΔS for the reaction, C(graphite) +CO2(g) → 2CO(g) are 170 kJ and 170 JK−1,
respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at

(1) 910 K
(2) 1000 K
(3) 510 K
(4) 710 K

25) The quantity which is not zero for an element in its standard state at 298 K is

(1) So
(2) Ho
(3) Go
(4) Both Ho and So

26) Which of the following options contain correct set of cases where entropy of system
is increasing?
Case-I :- Dissociation of ammonia gas into N2 and H2 gases.
Case-II :- Polymerization process of ethene to form polythene.
Case-III :- Adiabatic irreversible compression of an ideal gas.
Case-IV :- Condensation of H2O(vap) to give H2O(ℓ)
Case-V :- Isothermal free expansion of an Ideal gas.

(1) All the cases

(2) Case-I, III and V only
(3) Case-I, II and V only
(4) Case-I, II, III and V only

27) Consider the following statements :-

I. ∆G is negative for a physical process
H2O(l) ⟶H2O(s) at – 20°C.
II. Molar entropy of vapourisation of ice is negative.
III. In reversible adiabatic process, heat involved is zero and therefore entropy change will be zero.
IV. At absolute zero temperature, entropy of a pure perfectly crystalline substance is zero.
The correct order of true / false of the above statements is

(1) T T T T
(2) T F T T
(3) F F F T
(4) T F F T

28) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In an isolated system there is no exchange of energy but exchange of matter is
possible between system and the surroundings.
Statement II : The presence of reactants in a thermous flask is an example of an isolated
system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

29) Statement I : A molar property (Xm) =

where X → is the value of an extensive property.
n → is mole of matter, so Xm is an intensive property.
Statement II : An extensive property is a property whose value depends on quantity of matter.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

30)

An ideal gas expands in volume from 1 × 10–3 to 1 × 10–2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure of 1
× 105 Nm–2. The work done is

(1) 270 kJ
(2) - 900 kJ
(3) - 900 J
(4) 900 kJ

31) Which of the following reactions will give 2° chiral alcohol as major product ?

(1)
(excess)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following is most reactive towards Lucas reagent:-

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
(3)

(4)

33) When the vapour of a secondary alcohol is passed over heated copper at 573 K, the product
formed is -

(1) A carboxylic acid

(2) An aldehyde
(3) A ketone
(4) An alkene

34) Which of the following ether can not be prepared by Williamson's method :-

(1) Ditertbutyl ether

(2) Ethyl-tert-butyl ether
(3) Anisole
(4) 1 & 2 Both

35) The major organic products of reaction are

CH3 – O – CH(CH3)2 + HI →

(1) CH3OH + (CH3)2CHI

(2) ICH2–O–CH(CH3)2

(3)

(4) CH3I + (CH3)2CHOH

36) Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reaction :

P, Q & R will be respectively :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37) Match the column :-

Reaction Product

Aldol
(A) (P)
condensation

(B) (Q) DDT

(C) (R) Phenolpthalein

(D) (S) Salicylic acid

(1) A – P, B – Q, C – R, D – S
(2) A – R, B – P, C – Q, D – S
(3) A – Q, B – P, C – S, D – R
(4) A – R, B – Q, C – P, D – S

38) The compound that is most difficult to protonate is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Which of the following compound gives positive test with neutral FeCl3 Solution?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

40)

On heating glycerol with excess amount of HI, the product formed is –

(1) Allyl iodide

(2) Isopropyl iodide
(3) Propylene
(4) 1,2,3-tri-iodopropane

41)

Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42)

The product 'P' of the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

43) Nitration of phenol with conc. nitric acid gives:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44)

For the following reaction

A and B are respectively.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45)

Reaction of sodium ethoxide and ethyl iodide will give:-

(1) Ether
(2) Ethyl alcohol
(3) Acetaldehyde
(4) Acetic acid

BIOLOGY

1) The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac

(1) Through one of the synergids

(2) By directly penetrating the egg
(3) Between one synergid and central cell
(4) By knocking off the antipodal cells

2)

Read the following four statement (A-D)

(A) Flowers are the morphological and
embryological marvels and the site
of sexual reproduction.
(B) Anther is attached to proximal end
of the filament of stamen.
(C) Androecium and gynoecium represent
the non essential parts of flower.
(D) The number and length of stamens are
variable in flowers of different species
How many of the above statements are right ?
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

3) Which one of the following pair of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes ?

(1) Nucellus and antipodal cells

(2) Egg nucleus and megaspore mother cell
(3) Megaspore and nucellus
(4) Synergid and antipodal cell

4)

The figure given below represents the various steps of microgametogenesis. Select the option giving
correct identification together with what it represents?

(1) (C) represents mature male gametophyte

(2) (A) Represents mature pollen grain
(3) (E) Represents mature male gametophyte
(4) (B) Represents mature male gametophyte

5)

Given below is the diagrammatic view of three dimensional cut section of an anther. Identify the
parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them.
 Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D
Pollen Pollen Filament Line Of
1
sacs grains (Stalk) dehiscence

Pollen Pollen Line Of Filament

2
sacs grains dehiscence (Stalk)

Pollen Filament Line Of

3 Pollen sacs
grains (Stalk) dehiscence

Pollen Line Of Pollen Filament

4
sacs dehiscence grains (Stalk)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Antipodal is present towards

(1) Micropylar end

(2) Chalazal end
(3) Integument
(4) Both (2) and (3)

7) Entomophily is

(1) Wind based pollination

(2) Water based pollination
(3) Insect based pollination
(4) None of these

8) The innermost layer of anther wall in angiospermic plant is

(1) Endothecium which is nutritive layer

(2) Tapetum which is nutritive layer
(3) Middle layer which is ephemeral
(4) Tapetum which is multi layered.

9) Microsporogenesis involves :-

(1) Formation of male gametphyte from microspore

(2) Formation of male gametes
(3) Formation of microspere tetrad by reduction division
(4) Formation of embryo sac

10) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Most of the plants like water hyacinth is pollinated by water
(b) Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
(c) Vallisneria flowers are pollinated by water under the water surface.
(d) Water lily are pollinated by insects. Option:

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d).

(2) Statements (b) and (d).
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d).
(4) Statements (a) and (c).

11) During an experiment, vegetative nucleus was destroyed inside the pollen tube. Immediately
afterwards it was observed that the growth of pollen tube was stopped and pollen tube could not
reach up to ovule, because-

(1) Male gametes were not developed

(2) Growth of pollen tube is controlled by vegetative nucleus
(3) Vegetative nucleus secretes chemicals
(4) All of the above

12) Which of the following ovule is also called inverted ovule ?

(1) Orthotropous
(2) Anatropous
(3) Campylotropous
(4) Amphitropous

13) In 60% of Angiosperm pollen grain pollinated in:-

(1) 3 celled stage

(2) 2 celled stage
(3) 4 celled stage
(4) 1 celled stage

14)

How many in the list given below are haploid in flowering plants ?
Microspore, Anther, Epidermis, Tapetum, Pollen grain, Endothecium, Middle layer
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five

15) Ubisch bodies are associated with the development of :-

(1) Embryo sac

(2) Embryo
(3) Pollen grains
(4) Endosperm

16) A typical angiospermic anther is :-

(1) Dithecous and disporangiate

(2) Monothecous and monosporangiate
(3) Dithecous and bisporangiate
(4) Dithecous and tetrasporangiate

17) The pollen viability in some cereals like wheat and rice is with in :-

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 30 seconds
(3) 30 Hours
(4) 30 Days

18)

How many statements are correct regarding stamen :-

(A) Stamen is a unit of androecium.
(B) Stamen is also known as microsporophyll
(C) Stamen is differentiated into filament and anther.
(D) Stamen are male sex organ of the flower.

Options :
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

19)

Match the following columns and choose the right option.

Column I Column II

(I) Mature microspore (A) Locule

 (II) Ovarian cavity (B) Pollen grain

(III) Megasporangium (C) Funiculus

(IV) Stalk of ovule (D) Ovule

(1) I–A, II–B, III–D, IV–C
(2) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C
(3) I–A, II–B, III–C, IV–D
(4) I–D, II–A, III–C, IV–B

20)

The innermost layer of microsporangium, that has polyploid and multi nucleate cells, is known as -

(1) epidermis
(2) endothecium
(3) middle layer
(4) tapetum

21)

Which of the following statements are true ?

(i) Stigma is small and dry in anemophilous flowers.
(ii) Many plants of angiosperms are cross-pollinated only because of protandrous condition.
(iii) Horse shoe shaped embryo sac is found in amphitropous ovule.

(iv) Only calcium is essential for the growth of pollen tube.

(1) i, iv
(2) ii, iii
(3) ii, iii, iv
(4) i, ii, iii, iv

22) Given below is the diagrammatic view of different stages during embryo sac development.
Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Megaspore Megaspore Megaspore

(1) Nucellus
mother cell tetrad dyad

Megaspore Megaspore Megaspore

(2) Nucellus
mother cell dyad tetrad

Megaspore Megaspore Megaspore

(3) Nucellus
mother cell dyad tetrad
 Megaspore Megaspore Megaspore
(4) Nucellus
mother cell tetrad dyad
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) One advantage of cleisotgamy is

(1) It lead to greater genetic diversity

(2) Seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread
(3) Seed set is not dependent on pollinators
(4) Each visit of a pollinator result in transfer of hundred of pollen grains

24) How many divisions are required to produce hundred eggs in Capsella?

(1) 100 Meiotic and 300 Mitotic

(2) 300 Meiotic and 100 Mitotic
(3) 100 Meiotic and 100 Mitotic
(4) 100 Mitotic and 100 Meiotic

25) The alerone layer in maize grain is specially rich in & its ploidy is respectivelty :-

(1) Proteins, 3n
(2) Proteins, 2n
(3) Starch , 3n
(4) Lipids, 3n

26) Starchy endosperm is found in :-

(1) Sunflower
(2) Groundnut
(3) Wheat
(4) Gram

27) Given below is the diagrammatic view of an embryo of grass. Identify the parts labelled (A),(B),
(C) and (D) and select the right option about them.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Coleoptile Scutellum Epiblast Coleorhiza
(2) Coleoptile Scutellum Coleorhiza Epiblast
(3) Scutellum Coleorhiza Epiblast Coleoptile
(4) Scutellum Coleoptile Epiblast Coleorhiza
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) L.S. of a maize grain is given below. Identify labelled structures [A] & [B]:

[A] Embryo,
(1)
[B] Scutellum
[A] Scutellum,
(2)
[B] Embryo
[A] Endosperm,
(3)
[B] Scutellum
[A] Scutellum,
(4)
[B] Endosperm

29) Double fertilization means :-

(1) Fusion of male gamete and ovum

(2) Fusion of two polar bodies
(3) A male gamete fused with egg and second male gamete fused with secondary nucleus
(4) All of the above

30) Autogamy means:-

(1) Transfer of pollen from anthers to stigma of the same flowers

(2) Transfer of pollen from one flowers to another on the different plant
(3) Occurrence of male and female sex organ in the same flowers
(4) Germination of pollen

31) Read the given statements-

(i) Autogamy cannot occur in open flower.
(ii) Geitonogany cannot occur in closed flower.
Choose the appropriate answer-

(1) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong

(2) (i) is wrong but (ii) is correct
(3) (i) and (ii) are both correct
(4) (i) and (ii) are both wrong

32) Epiblast is

(1) Seed having caruncle

(2) Pericarp of seed less fruits
(3) Reduced cotyledone of monocot embryo
(4) Degenerating tube nucleus

33) Apomixis is-

(1) A form of sexual reproduction that mimics asexual reproduction

(2) A form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of these

34) Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell in-

(1) Chalazal end

(2) Micropylar region
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Integument

35) All the following are non-albuminous seeds except

(1) Bean
(2) Groundnut
(3) Pea
(4) Castor

36) In angiosperm, scutellum is equivalent to?

(1) Cotyledon
(2) Zygote
(3) Sporophyll
(4) Spathe

37) Assertion : The coconut water from tender coconut is free-nuclear endosperm.
Reason : Free nuclear mitotic division in PEC result in formation of Nuclear endosperm.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Only assertion is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

38) Few events of male gametophyte development in angiosperm are shown in figure given below.
Arrange the diagram in progressive order of their occurence and select the correct order from
options given below:

(1) i, ii, iii, iv, v

(2) i, v, iv, iii, ii
(3) i, ii, iv, iii, v
(4) i, v, ii, iv, iii

39) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

a. Wind
1. Chiropterophily i. Salvia
pollination
 b. Insect
2. Ophiophily ii. Maize
pollination

c. Bat iii. Santalum

3. Entomophily
pollination (sandal)

d. Snake
4. Anemophily iv. Anthocephalus
pollination
(1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii
(2) 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii
(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-c-i, 4-a-ii
(4) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-ii, 4-d-i

40) Which of the following is not part of embryo :-

(1) Hypocotyl
(2) Radicle
(3) Epicotyl
(4) Endosperm

41) Reed the following statements :-

(A) Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of the right type of pollen
(B) The pistil has the ability to recognise the pollen
(C) The ability of the pistil to recognize the the pollen followed by its acceptance or rejection is the
result of continuous dialogue between pollen grain and the pistil
(D) Pollen pistil interaction is dynamic process.
How many above statements are correct

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All are correct

42) Statement I : The ploidy level of tissue like alurone layer, endosperm and cotyledon in maize is
3n, 3n, and 2n respectively.
Statement II : Maize seed is example of endospermic seed

(1) Both I and II are correct

(2) I is correct , II is incorrect
(3) I is incorrect, II is correct
(4) Both I and II are incorrect

43) Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of:-

(1) Solid style

(2) Dry stigma
(3) Wet stigma
(4) Hollow style
44) During double fertilization in plants, one sperm fuses with the egg cell and the other sperm fuses
with

(1) synergids cell

(2) central cell
(3) antipodal cell
(4) nucellar cell

45) Which of the following statements are correct for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering
plant?
(i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity.
(ii) It is free-nuclear during the development.
(iii) It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus.
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end.

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

46) Which of the following statements are incorrect?

A) Due to continental drift, when South America joined North America, North American animals
were overridden by South American fauna.
B) Present day mammals had Synapsids as ancestors.
C) When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical
area (representing different habitats), one can call this as divergent evolution.
D) When reptiles came down mammals took over earth
E) Coelacanth evolved into the first reptile.

(1) C,D
(2) A,C
(3) A, C, E
(4) A,B

47) Arrange the periods of Palaeozoic era in ascending order in a geological time scale:

(1) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian

(2) Cambrian → Devonian → Ordovician → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian
(3) Cambrian → Ordovician → Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian
(4) Silurian → Devonian → Cambrian → Ordovician → Permian → Carboniferous

48)

The dinosaur with 20 feet height and dagger like teeth is ........

(1) Triceratops
(2) Tyrannosaurus rex
(3) Pelycosaurs
(4) Ichthyosaurs

49) Given below are two statements

Statement I : Oparin and Haldane proposed that formation of life was preceded by chemical
evolution.
Statement II : Louis Pasteur demonstrated that life comes only from the pre-existing life.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

50) Identify A, B, C, D in the diagrammatic representation of Miller’s experiment:

Options

A-CO2,NH3, H2O, H2, B-Electrodes, C-Spark discharge, D-Water containing organic compounds
(1)
only
(2) A-CH4, NH3, H2O, H2, B-Electrodes, C-Spark discharge, D-Water containing organic compounds
(3) A-CH4, H2O, H2S, H2 B-Electrodes, C-Spark discharge, D-Water containing organic compounds
(4) A-CO2, NH3, H2S, H2, B-Electrodes, C-Infra-red rays, D-Water containing organic compounds

51) Who lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000-40,000 years back ?

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Homo habilis
(3) Neanderthal man
(4) Australopitheous

52) ____________ says that allele frequencies in a population are stable & is constant from generation
to generation.

(1) Hardy-Weinbery principle

(2) Natural selection
(3) Founder effect
(4) Bottleneck effect

53) The given image shows white-winged and dark-winged moths.

(a) Image I represents the survival advantage of white winged moths in unpolluted areas.
(b) Image II represents the survival advantage of dark winged moths in polluted areas.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both (a) and (b) are true.

(2) (a) is true but (b) is false.
(3) Both (a) and (b) are false.
(4) (a) is false but (b) is true.

54) Cave paintings by pre-historic humans can be seen at ________________

(1) Ajanta and Ellora caves of Maharashtra

(2) Elephanta island caves of Maharashtra
(3) Badami caves of Karnataka
(4) Bhimbetka caves of Madhya Pradesh

55) Which of the following were released from molten mass of earth's crust that covered it's surface?

(1) Oxygen, ammonia, methane, water vapor

(2) Hydrogen, ammonia, methane, oxygen
(3) Water vapour, Methane, Carbondioxide, Ammonia
(4) Oxygen, methane, water vapor, hydrogen sulphide

56) Choose the correct statement for the skull type A and B shown in the diagram :

(1) A is the skull of a baby chimpanzee and B is the skull of an adult human
(2) Evolutionarily A is more advance than B
(3) Cranial capacity of A is 1200-1600 cc
(4) A is the skull of an adult chimpanzee

57) Select the incorrect statement from following options:

(1) Evolution is a fast process which is discontinuous.

 During stabilization type of Natural selection, more individuals in a population acquire mean
(2)
character value.
(3) Jawless fishes probably evolved around 350 mya.
(4) Reptiles lay thick shelled eggs which do not dry up in sun unlike those of amphibians

58) Assertion :Organisms that are better fit in an environment leave more progeny than others.

Reason : Organisms that produce a large number of progenies have a large number of survivors and
hence are selected by nature.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation of assertion.

(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion and reason both are incorrect.

59)
This diagrammatic representation shows which type of natural selection.

(1) Directional selection

(2) Stabilising selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Balancing selection

60) What was not a condition on primitive earth?

(1) Cosmic radiations

(2) Lightening
(3) Subzero temperature
(4) Volcanic storms

61) First mammals were like

(1) Elephant
(2) Gorilla
(3) Shrews
(4) Gibbon

62) Which ancestor of man was the first to hunt with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit ?

(1) Ramapithecus
(2) Dryopithecus
(3) Homo habilis
(4) Australopithecus

63) Work of Alfred Wallace was based on samples/ observations on which island?

(1) Madagascar
(2) Galapagos
(3) Andaman & Nicobar
(4) Malay Archepelago

64) Which of the following organisms evolved first?

(1) Aerobic chemoautotroph

(2) Aerobic chemoheterotroph
(3) Anaerobic Chemoheterotroph
(4) Anaerobic chemoautotroph

65) Read the given statements.

Statement-I :- Homology indicates common ancestry.
Statement-II :- Homology is based on divergent evolution.
In the light of above given statements, select the correct option.

(1) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct.

66) According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are -

(1) Random and directional

(2) Small and directionless
(3) Random and directionless
(4) Small and directional

67) At a particular locus, frequency of 'A' allele is 0·6 and that of 'a' is 0·4. What would be the
frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium :
(1) 0·24
(2) 0·16
(3) 0·48
(4) 0·36

68) What are two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution?

(1) Branching descent and natural selection

(2) Inheritance of acquried characters and selection
(3) Struggle of existence and natural selection
(4) Branching descent and struggle for existence

69) Turtles originated from

(1) Synapsids
(2) Sauropsids
(3) Pelycosaurs
(4) Therapsids

70) Select incorrect statement only

(1) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms found in rocks
(2) Different aged sedimentary rocks contain fossils of same life forms
(3) New forms of life have arisen at different times in the history of earth
A cross section of earth's crust indicates the arrangement of sediment one over the other during
(4)
the long history of earth

71) "Use and disuse of organs" is a postulate proposed in an evolutionary theory by ________________

(1) Darwin
(2) Lamarck
(3) Oparin
(4) Haldane

72) Select the set of animals showing convergent evolution with respect to each other.

(1) Koala and Bandicoot

(2) Tiger cat and Tasmanian Wolf
(3) Lemur and Spotted cuscus
(4) Bobcat and Flying squirrel

73) "In England post industrial revolution, the black coloured peppered moth were more in number
than the light coloured form". This is an example of:-

(1) Inheritance of an acquired character due to the darker environment

(2) Natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected
(3) Appearance of the darker colored moths due to lichen growth on tree stumps
(4) All of the above

74) Which of the following is not a connotation of special creation theory?

(1) All living beings that we see today are created as such.
(2) Diversity was always the same since creation and will be same in future
(3) Earth was formed 4.5 bya
(4) Both 1 and 2

75) The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of :-

(1) Special creation theory

(2) Saltation theory
(3) Retrogressive evolution
(4) Biogeographical evolution

76) Which of the following factors do not affect the genetic equilibrium ?

(1) Mutation
(2) Gene flow
(3) Random mating
(4) Genetic drift

77) Which one provides correct sequence of events in origin of new species according to Darwinism
?
(1) Natural selection
(2) Variations and heredity
(3) Survival of the fittest
(4) Struggle for existance

(1) 1,2,3,4
(2) 2,3,1,4
(3) 3,4,1,2
(4) 4,2,3,1

78) Read the given statements.

Statement-A : Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism.
Statement-B: Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance
mutation in the organisms.
In the light of above given statements. Select the correct option.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct

(2) Both statements A and B are Incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
79) By the time of __________, invertebrates were formed and active.

(1) 320 mya

(2) 2000 mya
(3) 200 mya
(4) 500 mya

80) Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of :

(1) Evolution by anthropogenic action

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Saltation
(4) Divergent evolution

81) Eyes of octopus and eyes of mammals are not the example of _____________

(1) Analogous structures

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Different structures evolving for same function.
(4) Convergent evolution

82) Identify the animal-A depicted in image below.

(1) Stegosaurs
(2) Pelycosaurs
(3) Triceratops
(4) Brachiosaurs

83) Which of the following option is incorrect :-

(1) Stellar distances are measured in light years

(2) The universe is very old almost 20 million years old
(3) The Big-Bang theory attempts to explain the origin of universe
(4) There was no atmosphere on early earth

84) According to Lamarckism, evolution of present day giraffe is best explained by ___________

(1) Natural selection

(2) Isolation
(3) Inheritance of acquired characters
(4) Speciation

85) 'Founder effect' is related to:-

(1) Gene recombination and Natural selection

(2) Genetic drift and Origin of new species
(3) Isolation and Natural selection
(4) Hybridization and Origin of new species

86) Dicotyledons originated in :-

(1) Cretaceous
(2) Triassic
(3) Permian
(4) Silurian

87) The process of evolution is :-

(1) Continuous
(2) Discontinuous
(3) Continuous in the beginning but presently discontinuous
(4) Discontinuous in the beginning but presently continuous

88)

Find out the correct match from the following table

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Australian
(i) Sugar glider Koala
marsupial
Adaptive Darwin's Australian
(ii)
radiation finches marsupial
 First
(iii) Homo habilis 900 cc
hominid

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) only
(4) (i) and (ii)

89) Which of the following events cause random, non directional fluctuation of allele frequencies in a
population's gene pool due to chance events and is particularly prevalent in small populations?

(1) Mutation
(2) Migration
(3) Natural selection
(4) Genetic drift

90) Who proposed the embryological support for evolution based on observation of certain features
during embryonic stage common to all vertebrates?

(1) Karl Ernst von Baer

(2) C. Marsh
(3) Ernst Haeckel
(4) Alfred Wallace
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 1 4 4 2 1 4 3 2 4 1 3 4 3 4 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 4 2 2 4 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 1 4 2 1 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 4 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 3 1 4 1 4 4 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 2 1 2 2 3 4 3 4 1 3 1 4 4 2 4 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 4 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 4 3 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 3 4 1 3 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 1 1 3 4 3 3 1 4 3 2 2 4 1 1 4 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 1 2 3 3 1 2 4 2 3 1 1 4 3 4 1 3 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 4 3 4 3 3 1 2 2 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 4 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 2 3 2 1 1 4 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

5) =6 = 54 C
Hence option (4)

6)

Figure of merit
Ig = Kn

7)

….(1)

⇒ 3(Y + R) = 7R ⇒ 3Y + 3R = 7R
⇒ 3Y = 4R

8) (A)
(B) J = σE = E/ρ ⇒ ρ = E/J

(C)
(D) i = neAυd

J = neυd

9) Interchanging cell and galvanometer do not effect balance condition.

10)
10Ω is in series with ideal voltmeter. Therefore it will not affect the circuit (Circuit-2)

i1 = i2 =
V1 = 10V V2 = 10V

11)

By KVL
–I2R2 – E2 + E3 + I3R1 = 0
⇒ I2R2 + E2 – E3 – I3R1 = 0

12)

13) = constant

14) i = neAVd

Vd ∝

15)
vd ∝ E

17) RT = R0[1 + α(T–T0)]

8.4 = 4[1 + α(60 – 0)]
α = 0.183ºC–1

20)

Area under the curve represent charge.

= A1 + A2

21)

R=
i1 < 4A
20 = i1R

R= > 5Ω

22)
Eneq = (n – 4). E rneq = nr
From circuit analysis we get V = E + ir ....(i)

i=

23)
⇒

VAB =

24) G =

30)

volume = constant

[Negative sign. because as radius decreases, resistance of wire increases.]

= – 4 (–1%)

= 4%

34) 1. Question Explanation -

The circuit consists of resistors and a voltmeter measuring the potential difference across the
central resistor combination. Given a current of 2 A, we determine the voltmeter reading.

2. Concept:
Potential difference between two terminal.

3. Formula Used
Ohm's Law: V = IR

4. Concept Diagram (Visual - Aid) -

5. Calculation -
VA - VY = (16)(1) ----(1)

VB - VY = (4)(1) ----(2)

then eq (1) - eq (2)

VA – VB = 16 – 4 = 12V

Answer : (1)

35)

Apply KVL from A to B

VA – 6 – (2) (2) + 9 –(2) (3) – VB = 0
VA – VB = 16 – 9 = 7 Volt

37)

Effective circuit is
Let RAB = x
then

x=R+ ⇒ x2 + 2x = R2 + Rx + Rx
⇒ x2 – Rx – R2 = 0

x=+

x= =

38) Let the resistance of the shorter part MN be x. Total resistance is 20Ω. Hence, the
resistance of longer MN part will be (20–x). With respect to M and N, the two portions are
connected in parallel.
Hence,

Solving, we get; x = 2Ω
The resistance per unit length is 1Ω/m. So, length of shorter part = 2m.

39)

Power drawn will be max when external resistance = Internal resistance of

i= Pdrawn = i2r

41)
Compare with straight line equation
y = mx + C {where m = tanθ = -2/5=-0.4}

Since current is drawn from the cell,

E = 2 V,

42) By R =

43) Explanation : In mis question we have to tell which fell which bulb will glow brightest in
the given circuit diagram if all bulbs are identical.
Concept :- Electric power :-
Formula :- P = I2R
Calculation :- As all bulls are identical and the power (related by brightness) is given as P =
I2R so me bulb with the most current will be brightest. In Parallel connection, the current is
spilt between the branches while in series the current will be same.
So in figure we can set mat bulb 'C' will receive into maximum current while the bulbs A, B, D
will not get complete current as 'C' as m are connected in Parallel trenches. So bulb 'C' will
be the brightest.

Conclusion : The current answer option 3.

44) Explanation :
We are given three bulbs (100W and two 60W) connected as shown. We are to compare their
actual power outputs when connected to 250W.

Concept :
Power ; series and parallel combination of resistors.

Formula :

Calculation :
Rated resistance :

Now, B1 and B2 are in series → their combined resistance = R1 + R2

This series combo is in parallel with R3
Now output power:

Simplifying the ratio gives :

W1 : W2 : W3 = 15 : 25 : 64

Final answer : Option (4)

CHEMISTRY

46) The difference between the energies of adjacent energy levels decreases as we move away
from the nucleus. Thus in H-atom

47) orbitals are degenerate orbitals, i.e., They are of equal energy and hence no
possibility of transition of electron.

48) Cathode ray's are stream of electrons.

They are generated through gases at low pressure and high voltage.

49) Conceptual

52)
n = 7 → 3.5

→
Change = 17.5 – 14 = 3.5

55)

63)

(1) + inverse of equation (2)

71)

(A) 2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g)

Δng = +2, ΔS = +ve
(B) During polymerisation ΔS ↓ due to chain formation.

(C) for irreversible compression (Tf)irr. > (Tf)rev.

⇒ ΔS > 0 ∴ for reversible ΔS = 0

(D) for free expansion (Vf > Vi)

72)
(I) → spontaneous
(II) molar entropy for H2O(l) —→ H2O(g)
SH2O(l) < SH2O(g)

73)

In isolated system, matter and energy transfer is not possible between system and
surrounding.
Example ⇒ Thermoflask

74)

Extensive prop. are those collide depends on quantity of matter

(4) option correct.

78)

81)

Mech:
83) Bond between C and O can not be broken in phenol.

85)

86)

87) reduces aldehydes to primary alcohol and ketones to secondary

alcohol. does not reduce carboxylic acids and esters.

88)
 89)
Intramolecular dehydration of ethanol with
Conc. at 443 K gives ethene as product.

Intermolecular dehydration of ethanol with at 413 K gives diethylether product.

90)

Allen module.

BIOLOGY

92)

NCERT XII, Page # 20, 21

93)

Nucellus, megaspore mother cell = 2n antipodal cell, egg nucleus, megaspore and synergids =
n

95) NCERT XII pg. 21 Fig. 2.2 (b)

100) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29

101)

The correct answer is: Growth of pollen tube is controlled by vegetative nucleus
Explanation (NCERT-based):

A. The vegetative nucleus plays a crucial role in controlling the growth of the pollen tube.
B. It regulates the direction and growth of the pollen tube towards the ovule, and its destruction
prevents further growth.

Final Answer:2
Growth of pollen tube is controlled by vegetative nucleus

103)
 NCERT XII Page # 23

104)

The correct answer is: Two.

Explanation (NCERT-based):

A. Microspore: Haploid. It is a product of meiosis and develops into a pollen grain.

B. Pollen grain: Haploid. It contains the male gametophyte (haploid cells).

The other structures, such as Anther, Epidermis, Tapetum, Endothecium, and Middle layer, are
diploid as they are part of the plant's somatic tissues.
Final Answer:
Two (Microspore and Pollen grain)

106) NCERT XII, Page # 5

107) NCERT-XII Page # 08

109) 1. Mature microspore: The mature microspore develops into the pollen grain.

A. Correct match: (A) Pollen grain

2. Ovarian cavity: The ovarian cavity is also known as the locule, where the ovules are located.

A. Correct match: (B) Locule

3. Megasporangium: The megasporangium is the structure that produces the ovule.

A. Correct match: (D) Ovule

4. Stalk of ovule: The stalk of the ovule is called the funiculus.

A. Correct match: (C) Funiculus

Correct Answer : 2. l-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C

112) NCERT (XII) Pg # 26

113) NCERT XII, Page # 28

114)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 10, 11

117) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 35 (Fig. 2.14-b)

118) NCERT XII Pg.# 21

123) NCERT Page no 38

124) NCERT Page no 25

127) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 13

128) NCERT XIIth Pg.#23

137) NCERT Page # 122,123

144) NCERT (XII) Pg # 141 Para : 7.9

148)

Assertion: Those who are better fit in an environment leave more progeny than others.
• This statement is true. This is a central tenet of natural selection. Organisms with traits that
make them better suited to their environment {e.g., better at finding food, escaping predators,
or attracting mates) are more likely to survive and reproduce.
Reason: More reproducing organism will survive more and hence are selected by nature.
• This statement is also true, and it directly explains the assertion.
o Organisms that are better adapted to their environment will be more likely to survive and
reproduce. This means they will leave more offspring, passing on their advantageous traits to
the next generation.
Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason provides a valid and
accurate explanation for the assertion.

149) NCERT Pg. # 103, Para # 2

150) NCERT Pg.# 127

152) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 140

155) NCERT XII Pg. 130

156) NCERT Pg. # 119

157)

To solve this, we use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. which states that the frequency of
heterozygotes in a population is given by:
2pq
Where:
 A. p is the frequency of allele A.
B. q is the frequency of allele a.

Step 1: Extract the given information

A. p = 0.6.
B. q = 0.4.

Step 2: Calculate the frequency of heterozygotes (2pq)

2pq = 2(0.6)(0.4) = 0.48
Correct Answer:3.
0.48

160) NCERT- Pg. # 113, para-6.3

169) NCERT Page#122 (ENGLISH)

170) Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of pre-existing variation in the

population.

172) NCERT XI Pg.# 130, Fig.7.2

173) NCERT Pg. # 127

176) NCERT - Pg 138