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MĐ 104

The document is a quality assessment test for high school students in Thanh Hoa province, Vietnam, focusing on English language skills for the academic year 2024-2025. It includes multiple-choice questions covering listening comprehension, phonetics, lexico-grammar, and reading comprehension. The test is structured into four parts, with various tasks designed to evaluate students' proficiency in English.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
21 views9 pages

MĐ 104

The document is a quality assessment test for high school students in Thanh Hoa province, Vietnam, focusing on English language skills for the academic year 2024-2025. It includes multiple-choice questions covering listening comprehension, phonetics, lexico-grammar, and reading comprehension. The test is structured into four parts, with various tasks designed to evaluate students' proficiency in English.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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SỞ GD&ĐT THANH HOÁ ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG ĐT HSG TỈNH

TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN ĐỊNH 1 NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025


(Đề gồm có 09 trang ) Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
Mã đề 104 (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Họ, tên thí sinh..........................................................................SBD…………………………

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (70 points)


HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
- Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 20 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi
phần nghe có tín hiệu.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài sau khi kết thúc 3
phần nghe.
- Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
PART 1. LISTENING
TEST 1. Listen to a radio programme about two writers. Listen carefully and choose the best
answer to complete each of the questions. (5 pts)
Question 1. The novelist J. D. Salinger went to university but ________.
A. received poor grades in his first year. B. left before finishing the first year.
C. was asked to leave D. did not regard getting a degree as ‘success’
Question 2. Salinger’s famous novel about adolescence was _________.
A. only popular with younger readers. B. not taught in many schools at first.
C. extremely popular but condemned by some people D. popular mainly because it was controversial.
Question 3. Because Salinger refused to be in the public eye, _________.
A. he was rarely talked about. B. his fame actuality increased.
C. people stopped asking him for interviews. D. nobody was even sure what religion he was.
Question 4. Harper Lee’s education was _________.
A. not as successful as Salinger’s. B. very similar to Salinger’s.
C. not as successful as she had hoped. D. more successful than Salinger’s
Question 5. How did Harper Lee find time to write her first novel?
A. A friend got her work as a songwriter in New York. B. A friend paid for her to take a year off work.
C. She couldn’t find a job in New York. D. She wrote slowly for ten years in total.
TEST 2. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chef who both
won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the correct answer A, B,
C, or D. You will hear the recording twice. (5 pts)
Question 6. What was Chris’s attitude to the competition?
A. He was worried about the quality of his dishes.
B. he said conditions were similar to his routine.
C. He admitted he’d been looking forward to the challenge.
D. He was afraid time might be a bit of a problem.
Question 7. Jane admitted that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was having to
A. work in a very small space. B. create a meal with so little money.
C. be original when travelling at speed. D. prepare a meal so quickly.
Question 8. What do both Chris and Jane feel is unique about their job?
A. the close contact with the customers B. the necessary to do everything the same time

Mã đề 104 – page 1/9


C. the need to be focused on the job D. the opportunity to be creative
Question 9. What do Chris and Jane feel about what they cook on board the train?
A. They approve of the menus created for them.
B. They would like to have more freedom of choice.
C. They consider themselves more adventurous than other chefs.
D. They are happy to adapt their ideas to suit the job.
Question 10. What is often Jane’s initial reaction when things spill over?
A. She feels herself to keep a closer watch next time.
B. She blames the train driver for the accident.
C. She asks another member of staff to help her clear up.
D. She says nasty things to the other staff.
TEST 3. You will hear part of a radio interview in which Harry and Jennifer, two members of an
after-work adult drama class, are asked about their reasons for attending the class. For questions 11 –
15, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
Question 11. How does Jennifer feel about working with strangers in the class?
A. relaxed in her attitude towards it B. excited at the thought of it
C. resigned to the need for it D. doubtful about the value of it
Question 12. According to Harry, the improvisation sessions_______.
A. require some careful preparation B. encourage him to relate to the group
C. allow him to show his acting talent D. enable him to use his imagination
Question 13. What does Jennifer say about improvisation?
A. You should be familiar with the character you invent
B. It is important not to make a mistake
C. You need to be completely involved in the activity
D. It is necessary to be aware of the timing
Question 14. In Jennifer’s opinion, playing written parts will __________.
A. lead to competition for parts B. be less challenging than improvisation
C. include research into previous performances D. involve guidance from an expert
Question 15. Jennifer says that the drama classes have taught her how to ______.
A. manage groups of people B. improve her interaction with people
C. develop her natural acting skills D. be satisfied with minor achievements

PART 2. PHONETICS
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 16. A. dogged B. plugged C. begged D. dragged
Question 17. A. prestige B. mirage C. regime D. stingy
Question 18. A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsess D. observe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. magnificent B. conservative C. mausoleum D. disqualify
Question 20. A. liberator B. integral C. coincide D. infamous

PART 3. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 21. Superconductivity will revolutionize the way that energy is used for the next millennium,
and _______ the first truly superconductive substance will be remembered as a technological hero.

Mã đề 104 – page 2/9


A. whose discovery of B. what the discovery of
C. the discovery of D. whoever discovers
Question 22. Betty says she cannot stand looking at the rat, ______ touching it.
A. let alone B. what if C. as far as D. even so
Question 23. In his anxiety to make himself________, he spoke too loudly and too slowly.
A. understand B. to understand C. understanding D. understood
Question 24. In the eastern part of New Jersey _________ a major shipping and manufacturing center.
A. there lies the city of Elizabeth around B. around the city of Elizabeth lies
C. the city of Elizabeth lies there D. lies the city of Elizabeth
Question 25. When you arrived, there was nobody at the party, ____________?
A. was there B. didn't you C. wasn't there D. were they
Question 26. The more expensive carpet is a good choice _______ it will last longer.
A. in that B. in view of C. by means of D. due to
Question 27. Jennifer _______ the invitation to join us for dinner.
A. come out B. called on C. got out of D. passed on
Question 28. After the way he treated his staff, it was ____ justice that he lost his job.
A. rough B. poetic C. flowery D. saticfatory
Question 29. The managers there always make sure that you get a prompt reply to any query and they’re
very ______ to complaints.
A. content B. responsive C. animated D. eligible
Question 30. The non-specialist may find the book's technical terms and subtle discourse ______.
A. heavy going B. heavy duty C. heavy-handed D. heavy-footed
Question 31. The smell of the burnt cabbage was so ____ that it spread to every room.
A. effusive B. pervasive C. extensive D. diffuse
Question 32. We managed to ________ the clock and get everything finished in time.
A. score B. shoot C. hit D. beat
Question 33. If she wins the prize again this year, it’ll be a real _________in her cap.
A. gemstone B. landmark C. feather D. nutshell

PART 4. READING
Read the following advertisement/ announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 39
NOTICE OF CHANGE OF COMPANY NAME
We hereby notify our _____(34)_____ customers, distributors, suppliers and the general public that
effective 18th August 2020, our company name changed from Total Petroleum Ghana Limited to Total
Petroleum Ghana PLC and as such, our Company should be referred to as Total Petroleum Ghana PLC.
This name change is in compliance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2019 (Act 992) which
requires that all public companies ___(35)___ by shares must have the words Public Limited Company'
or its abbreviation 'PLC' as a ___(36)___ to their registered name.
Kindly note that this name change has no impact on Total Petroleum's operations, existing contractual
arrangements, products and services. Total Petroleum's brand identity, address, contact information and
all other corporate details also remain the same.
Question 34. A. cherish B. cherished C. cheering D. cheered
Question 35. A. to limit B. limitation C. limited D. limiting
Question 36. A. suffix B. addition C. attachment D. appendix
All-New EcoSmart Water Bottle! 🌿💧

Mã đề 104 – page 3/9


Are you ready to revolutionize the way you stay hydrated? Meet the EcoSmart Water Bottle, the ultimate
companion for your active lifestyle and eco-friendly goals.
Why Choose EcoSmart?
Sustainable Design: Made from 100% recycled materials, the EcoSmart Water Bottle is not just good for
you, but great for the planet.
Smart Hydration: Equipped with a smart sensor, it __(37)___ your water intake and reminds you to stay
hydrated throughout the day.
Temperature Control: Keep your drinks cold for up to 24 hours or hot for up to 12 hours with our
advanced ____(38)___ technology.
Leak-Proof and Durable: Designed for the toughest adventures, the EcoSmart Water Bottle is leak-
proof
Stylish and Functional: Available in a variety of colors and sizes to match your style and needs.
Special Launch Offer!
For a limited time, get 20% ___(39)___ your first EcoSmart Water Bottle purchase. Use code ECO20 at
checkout.
Join the EcoSmart Movement!
Stay hydrated, stay smart, and make a positive impact on the environment. Get your EcoSmart Water
Bottle today and be part of the change!
Question 37. A. tracks B. customizes C. traces D. counts
Question 38. A. isolation B. repellence C. resistance D. insulation
Question 39. A. out B. off C. from D. out of
Mark the letter A, B, C, D in your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that fits each of the
numbered blanks from 40 to 45
Have you ever heard someone describe themselves as an INTJ or an ESTP and wondered what those
letters mean? ______(40) ______ is their personality type based on the MyersBriggs Type Indicator, or
MBTI for short.
The Myers-Briggs Personality Type Indicator is a type of psychological test ______(41)_____ The
questionnaire was developed by Isabel Myers and her mother Katherine Briggs based on Carl Jung's
theory of personality types. Based on the answers to the questions, people are identified
______(42)______ The goal of the MBTI is to allow respondents to further explore and understand their
own personalities.
Both Myers and Briggs were fascinated by Jung's theory of psychological types and recognized that the
theory could have real-world applications. By helping individuals understand themselves, they believed
that they could help people select occupations _____ (43) _____So during World War II, they began
researching and developing a test that could be utilized to help understand individual differences.
In today’s world, the MBTI is extremely popular, and this is mostly because it can provide a lot of insight
into your personality, ______ (44) ____. When working in group situations in school or at work,
recognizing and understanding the strengths of others and ______ (45) ______. For example, in a group
project, you might realize that a member of the group is adept at a specific task, so you should assign it to
ensure that they perform their best and maximize the group’s efficiency as well as productivity.
Question 40.
A. People are refering to what B. This is to what these people are refering
C. What these people are referring to D. Refering to what these people
Question 41.
A. that it is designed to identify a person's personality type, strengths, and preferences.
B. designed to identify a person's personality type, strengths, and preferences.
C. designing to identify a person's personality type, strengths, and preferences.

Mã đề 104 – page 4/9


D. which designs to identify a person's personality type, strengths, and preferences.
Question 42.
A. as having one of 16 personality types B. by having one of 16 personality types
C. with having one of 16 personality types D. to having one of 16 personality types
Question 43.
A. that were suited best to their personality types and lead healthier, happier lives.
B. that were best suited to their personality types and lead healthier, happier lives.
C. that were best suited to their personality types and led healthier, happier lives.
D. that were suited best to their personality types and led healthier, happier lives.
Question 44.
A. which is probably why has it become so enormously popular
B. which is probably why it has become so enormously popular
C. and why it has probably become so enormously popular
D. as it is probably why it has become so enormously popular
Question 45.
A. their own can be very helpful B. your own can be very helpful
C. our own can be very helpful D. his own can be very helpful
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 46 to 55
SPACE TELESCOPE
Since 1990, the Hubble Space Telescope has been orbiting Earth and ___(46)____ scientists with
unique views of the universe. In that time, it has beamed hundreds of thousands of images back to Earth
and has ___(47)____ astronomy by helping researchers to make important discoveries about deep space
and the universe. Thanks to Hubble, we now know that the universe is about 13 to 14 billion years old.
The idea of an orbiting telescope was first ___(48)____ by astronomer Lyman Spitzer in 1946.
Spitzer pointed out that the Earth’s atmosphere distorts light coming from stars, making it difficult for
even the most ___(49)____ telescopes on the ground to receive clear images. ___(50)____, a telescope in
orbit above the Earth’s atmosphere would not be faced with the same problems. NASA agreed and, in
the 1960s, with the help of rocket scientists, astrophysicists, and millions of dollars the project to build a
space telescope took off in ___(51)____. Though the initial idea was Spitzer’s, the telescope was
___(52)____ named after Edwin P.Hubble, the astronomer ___(53)____, in the 1920s, proved that our
galaxy, the Milky Way, was not the only one in the universe.
The telescope orbits the Earth every 96 minutes. It travels at a speed of 8 km per second, 569 km
above the Earth’s surface. It’s fast enough to travel across the United States in about 10 minutes.
Although it is regularly ___(54)____, some time after 2013, Hubble will eventually degrade, stop
working and crash back to Earth. Its ___(55)____, the James Webb Space Telescope, has already been
developed.
Question 46. A. informing B. giving C. providing D. presenting
Question 47. A. revolutionised B. modified C. reclaimed D. reformed
Question 48. A. put up with B. put across C. put away D. put forward
Question 49. A. accurate B. specific C. precise D. meticulous
Question 50. A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. As a result
Question 51. A. earnest B. practice C. advance D. public
Question 52. A. absolutely B. actually C. certainly D. really
Question 53. A. which B. who C. whom D. whose
Question 54. A. modified B. maintained C. restored D. serviced
Question 55. A. successor B. predator C. ancestor D. predecessor

Mã đề 104 – page 5/9


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer from 56 to 62
We've all been there before: you were planning to wash dishes but your mother suddenly demands you to
do so before you can actually do it, and then you do not want to anymore. This is a classic example of
psychological reactance.
Psychological reactance is our automatic negative reaction to being told what to do. Almost everyone has
this negative mental reflex. It kicks in whenever we sense that our autonomy – the ability to make our
own decisions – is being threatened. It’s why you bristle when your manager asks you to do a task, even
though when you think logically, you know that the task is critical. This mental reaction isn’t necessarily
bad. After all, if people are too compliant all the time, they’re vulnerable to being controlled and
exploited by others. But psychological reactance can, at times, prevent us from doing things that we
should do, sometimes even things we want to do. Most alarmingly, it can make us prevent our own
progress.
How does that happen? That impulsive reaction of “Don’t tell me what to do!” can occur even when it’s
you telling yourself what to do. This is common when you’re trying to make commitments and follow
through on them by building a schedule. You may have scheduled time for something like working out or
doing homework. But when it comes time to perform those tasks as planned, you might feel a bit of
reactance. The main reason for this is that, at that moment, it doesn’t feel like you’re deciding what to
do. Rather, it’s you in the past giving orders to your present self. And in the long run, this can put a dent
on your productivity and drive for success.
Fortunately, now that you understand the theory of psychological reactance, you can lessen its power.
Instead of giving up on commitments because of a irrational feeling, you can change your perspective on
the situation. Instead of thinking you “have to” do something, tell yourself you “get to” or even “deserve
to” do it. By changing the dialogue, you empower yourself: you’re not being told what to do, but you’re
choosing to make time for something that matters to you. Combating psychological reactance takes
practice, but it’s worth learning how to deal with this uncomfortable feeling that all too often leads us off
track.
Question 56: Which best serves as the title for this passage?
A. Why Are We Annoyed When People Threaten Our Self-Control?
B. Rethinking Automatic Reactions Can Help Maintain Productivity
C. The Mental Reflex Stopping You From Getting Things Done
D. Making Use Of Psychological Reactance To Achieve Success
Question 57: The word “bristle” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. get angry B. become depressed C. feel worried D. be fearful
Question 58: In paragraph 2, what do we learn about psychological reactance?
A. It takes effect whenever we are making our own decisions.
B. It is a negative mental reflex that develops in some people.
C. It can push us to do things that we really do not want to do.
D. It might actually prove to be useful to people in many cases.
Question 59: The word “This” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. building a schedule B. feeling reactance
C. making commitments D. performing tasks
Question 60: The phrase “put a dent on” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by .
A. impede B. frustrate C. challenge D. upset
Question 61: Which of the following is NOT mentioned to the passage?
A. Planning tasks in advance may make you feel like being controlled in the future.
B. You need to spend a lot of effort to learn how to handle psychological reactance.

Mã đề 104 – page 6/9


C. Psychological reactance mostly happens when older people order us to do things
D. Knowledge of how psychological reactance works can help you reduce its effects.
Question 62: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Psychological reactance is most severe in people with weak logical thinking.
B. Scheduling our tasks is an ineffective technique that should be replaced.
C. One way to reduce reactance is to ask why you have to do something.
D. Our sense of autonomy can have an impact on our motivation to do things.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer from 63 to 70
Most people have never heard of it, and they certainly have not eaten it in its original form, but the
Atlantic Ocean menhaden is the most important fish in the ocean. However, it is disappearing at an
alarming rate. The east coast of the United States once teemed with immense schools, some as many as a
mile across, but the devastation of the menhaden stocks over the last sixty years has led to severe
dislocations in the oceans’ ecosystems. The decline of the menhaden has had particularly disastrous
effects on fish species that feed on it, on bird species that use it as a food source, and on how clean the
oceans are.
Menhaden are a small fish belonging to the haddock family, and they are not very palatable to humans,
having a foul, oily taste and consisting of many small bones. Commercial fishing of menhaden since the
end of World War II has primarily been for the production of feed for livestock, with ground-up fish used
to make meal for chickens, pigs, and cows. Companies use spotter planes to find large schools and direct
fishing boats to the location. Catches have declined almost forty percent since the 1960s and show no
sign of leveling off or increasing. Unlike other species that are protected by government quotas,
menhaden are not, most likely because they are not a species consumed directly by humans. This is
unfortunate since the loss of the menhaden spells an eco-disaster of epic proportions.
Of principal importance are the many species of fish and other animals that feed on menhaden. They are
the main diet for bluefish and striped bass, and both species have shown a serious decline in numbers.
The striped bass was once the prized catch of the Chesapeake Bay area, but the specimens brought in
by rod and reel now are weak sisters compared to the past . Not only do they lack the bulk of their
ancestors, but they are also dying at alarming rates. Fish are not the only predators of menhaden, as birds
also depend on them as a source of nourishment. Large colonies of osprey all along the eastern seaboard
have disappeared in recent years, with the numbers of nests and birds reduced by fifty percent in some
areas over the last ten years. There are similar statistics for loons in Chesapeake Bay.
The greatest threat from the loss of the menhaden is that the oceans have lost one of their great natural
filterers. Menhaden swim in massive schools with their mouths open, allowing water to flow through
their gills, which serve to absorb oxygen and grab plankton and other detritus from the water. They act
like gigantic vacuum cleaners for the ocean. The cleaner water allows sunlight to penetrate to greater
depths, which stimulates plant life that harbors other fish and shellfish and produces oxygen for the
water. With the decline of the menhaden, this process is in serious jeopardy. Chemical run-off from
farms, lawns, and houses ends up in the oceans, increasing the nitrogen and phosphorus levels in the
water. Algae grow in great numbers in these conditions, block the sunlight, and deplete oxygen of the
water. In addition, the algae sink to the ocean floor and prevent shellfish and oxygen-producing plants
from growing. Entire coastal areas are lifeless, with the algae’s killing the fish. Menhaden reduce the
levels of these chemicals, but now that there are fewer menhaden, the algae have taken over.
The large companies that process menhaden disagree with the findings of environmental scientists. Since
there is no accurate way to count the amount of menhaden in the oceans, they claim that the fewer
menhaden are a result of a cyclical event and that the stocks will grow again in time. Yet, much of the
menhaden catch consists of smaller fish, often less than one year old. These fish have not had a chance to

Mã đề 104 – page 7/9


mature long enough to become reproductive, and thus the commercial fishing companies are destroying
future menhaden stocks in order to make a profit at the moment. The largest companies have had to lay
off many employees, and many of their vessels sit idle at the wharf. In the long run, the menhaden will
probably rebound once their numbers have reached the point where catching them is no longer profitable.
Hopefully, laws will soon be in place to protect them from their greatest predator, mankind.
Question 63 . According to paragraph 1, what is TRUE about menhaden?
A. They are eaten by birds and other fish as a part of their diets.
B. They are a main source of income for American fishmen along the east coast.
C. They are consumed only by other fish and not at all by humans.
D. They are not in any immediate danger of disappearing from the ocean.
Question 64. The word “palatable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. digestive B. stinking C. eatable D. revolting
Question 65. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that humans consume menhaden ______.
A. as a result of eating livestock raised on menhaden meal
B. for the healthy benefits from eating its oily flesh
C. directly from the oceans in their original form
D. only in the eastern coastal areas of the United States
Question 66. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the bold and
underlined sentence in the passage?
A. In the past the Chesapeake Bay striped bass fishery was more valuable than it is nowadays.
B. The striped bass caught by sport fishermen in Chesapeake Bay are not as large as those caught in the
past.
C. The Chesapeake Bay area is prized for the striped bass that can be caught by fishermen there.
D. There are prizes given for the best striped bass caught by sport fishermen in Chesapeake Bay.
Question 67. According to paragraph 4, the main influence on the oceans as a result of declining
menhaden numbers is ______.
A. an overabundance of plankton near the coast
B. increased human dumping of chemicals in the ocean
C. the demise of marine life in extents of sea water
D. the decline of fish stocks that feed on menhaden
Question 68. The word “their” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. many employees B. the largest companies
C. menhaden stocks D. commercial fishing companies
Question 69. Large commercial fishing companies argue that the shrinking menhaden stocks are the
result of ______.
A. a normal cycle that will end some time in the near future
B. a lack of oxygen in the ocean as a result of too much algae
C. environmental factors that are totally beyond their control
D. fishing technology that has developed in recent years
Question 70. In paragraph 5, why does the author mention that commercial fishing companies are
catching smaller and younger fish?
A. To prove that the declining menhaden stocks are not an illusion.
B. To explain why they have had to lay off employees and leave boats idle.
C. To show that menhaden stocks are not safe for the future.
D. To counter their disagreements with the environmental scientists.
SECTION B: WRITING (30 points)
Part 1. Letter writing (10 points)

Mã đề 104 – page 8/9


You would like a job working in the summer camp which runs sports and outdoor activities for
children and young people.
Write a letter to the organisers of the summer camp. In your letter,
- explain what sort of work you would like to do
- describe your personality
- say what relevant experience and skills you have
Write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write any addresses.
Begin and end your letter as follows:
Dear Sir or Madam,
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Yours faithfully,
Part 2. Essay writing (20 points)
Some people think the government should invest more money in teaching science than other subjects
in order for a country to develop and progress. To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and
experience. Your essay shoud include at least 250 words.

Mã đề 104 – page 9/9

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