SET-2

Series : Y7XWZ

Q.P. Code 57/7/2

Roll No.

Candidates must write the Q.P. Code

on the title page of the answer-book.
NOTE

) 44T GÍg A 3H 9-47 4fT YgI) Please check that this question paper
27~1 contains 27 printed pages.
(II) 94-47 I JY ÁÌ 3AT feu Tr YH-4T(II) Q.P. Code given on the right hand side
of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by
the candidate.
(II) 4T gh t fe# 3H H-47 33 Y(III) Please check that this question paper
contains 33 questions.
write down the Serial
Number of the question in the
answer-book at the given place
before attempting it.
() 3H TN4-47 Y fMU 15 f4-e I HHY|(V) 15 minute time has been allotted to read
this question paper. The question paper
will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 fhI ITT | 10.15 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the candidates
will read the question paper only and
will not write any answer on the
answer-book during this period.

BIOLOGY (Theory)
Agffa Hy:3 qU 3fUHTH 34*:70
Time allowed :3 hours Maximum Marks : 70

DO
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D
General Instructions :

Recd the flloing instructions carefiully and follow them :

This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
() Questionpaper isdivided into five sections -Sections A, B, C, D and E.
Section A -Questions number 1 to 16 are multiple choice type questions. Each
Question carries Imark.
Section B -questions nunmber 17 to 21 are very short answer type questions.
Each question carries 2 marks.
SectionC -questions number 22 to 28 are short answer type questions. Each
question carries3 marks.
(i) Section D - questions number 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each
Question carries 4 marks. Each question has subparts with internal choice in
one of the subparts.
(vii) Section E - questions number 31 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks.
(vüi) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
Sections B, D and E of the question paper. A candidate has to write answer for
onlyone of the alternatives in such questions.
(ix) Kindly note that there is a separate question paper for Visually Impaired
candidates.
(x) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A

Questions no. 1to 16 are Multiple Choice Type Questions, carrying 1mark
each. Choose the best option. 16X1=16

1. pBR which is frequently used as a vector for cloning gene in E. coli is

a/an :

(A) Original bacterial plasmid

(B) Modified bacterial plasmid
(C) Viral genome
(D) Transposon
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 The given graph shows the range of variation among population
2.
members, for a trait determined by multiple genes. If this population is
subjected to disruptive selection for several generations, which of the
following distributions is most likely to result ?

Choose the correct option :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

3. Which one of the following immune system components does not

correctly match with its respective role ?
(A) Interferons Secreted by virus-infected cells and protect
non-infected cells from further viral infection.
(B) Macrophages - Mucus-secreting cells that trap microbes entering
intothe body.
(C) B-Lymphocytes - Produce antibodies in response to pathogens into
blood to fight with them.
(D) IgA - Present in colostrum in early days of lactation to protect
infantsfrom diseases.
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4. During the process of oogenesis in human female, the primary 00cyte
results in the formation of which of the following?
Choose the correct option.
(A) Unequal cells -a smaller haploid secondary oocyte and a larger
diploid polar body
(B) Unequal cells - a larger haploid secondary oocyte and a smaller
haploid polar body
(C) Unequal cells - a smaller diploid secondary oocyte and a larger
haploid polar body
(D) Equalcells - a haploid secondary oocyte and a haploid polar
body

5. Adwarf pea plant was treated with gibberellic acid and it becomes as tall
as a tall pea plant. If these treated pea plants are crossed with pure tall
pea plants, the phenotypic ratio in F1 generation will be:
(A) All tall (B) 50% tall, 50% dwarf
(C) 75% tall, 25% dwarf (D) 25% tall, 75% dwarf

6. Out of the following, select the correct match :

(A) Transgeniccow milk Human beta-lactalbumin protein
(B) ELISA - Antigen antibody interaction
(C) Corn Borer Cry II Ab gene
(D) Cotton plant Meloidegyne Incognitia

7. The following information is about drugs and tobacco. Select the correct
statement from the options given below.
(A) Cocaine is given topatients after surgery as it stimulates recovery.
(B) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate.
(C) Barbiturates when given to criminals makes them tell the truth.

(D) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as

a painkiller.

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 share of the global
8. India has only 2-4% of the world's land area but its
species diversity is :
(A) 8-1%

(B) 12-9%

(C) 7-3%

(D) 51%

9. Name the microbe that is used as biocontrol agent for controlling pest
butterfly caterpillars :
(A) Streptococcus spp.
(B) Trichoderma spp.
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis
(D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

10. Study the table given below showing the relationship between organism,
its trophic level and kind of food chain it belongs to.
Trophiclevel Food chain
Organism
Eagle P Grazing
Earthworm Primary consumer Q
Frog R Grazing
given
Select the option that correctly identifies P, Q and R in the table
below :

P R

A Top Carnivore Detritus Secondary Consumer

B Top Carnivore Detritus Primary Consumer

C Scavenger Grazing Secondary Consumer

D Scavenger Grazing Producer

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 11. What are minisatellites ?

(A) 10 40 bpsized smallsequences within the genes.

(B) Short coding repetitive sequences region on the eukaryotic genome.
(C) Short non-coding repetitive sequences forming alarge portion of
eukaryotic genome.
D) Regions of coding strand of DNA.

12. Choose the option that correctly describes the gynoecium of Michelia
(A) Multicarpellary, Apocarpous
(B) Bicarpellary, Apocarpous
(C) Multicarpellary, Syncarpous
(D) Bicarpellary, Syncarpous

For Questions number 13 to 16, two statements are gven one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to
these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
thecorrect explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

13.
Assertion (A): A piece of DNA inserted into an alien organism generally
does not replicate, if not inserted into a chromosome.

Reason (R): Chromosomes have specifie sequences called 'ori' region,

where DNA replication is initiated.
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14.
Assertion (A) : Swiss cheese is characterized by large holes due to CO
production.
Reason (R): It is ripened by growing a specific fungi.

15. Assertion (A): Human male is referred toas heterogametic.

Reason (R): The male produces millionsof sperms of the same kind.

16. Assertion (A): Replication of DNA takes place in S phase of the cell
cycle.
Reason (R) : DNA replication and cell division cycle should be highly
coordinated.

SECTION B

17. (a) Biotechnology has helped farmers to get pest-resistant cotton

plants. Explain the technique adopted along with its mode of
action. 2

OR

(b) Explain any two molecular diagnostic techniques that help to

detect pathogens from suspected patient. 2

18. (a) How does a human body respond when vaccine is introduced into
it ? It is said that vaccinations are a must for a healthy society.
Justify.
OR

(b) Humans have innate immunity for protection against pathogens

that may enter the gut along with food. What are the two barriers
in our body that protect it from such pathogens ? 2

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 19. (a) A fully developed foetus initiates its delivery from the mother's
2
womb." Explain.
OR

2
(b) Give reasons for the following :
(i) Why can a woman generally not conceive a child after
50years of age ?
(ii) Polar bodies are formed during oogenesis and not during
spermatogenesis.

20. A few stages and their respective time period in the evolutionary history
of human beings are mentioned in the flowchart given below:

15 mya - Primates walking like gorillas and chimpanzees existed. (a)

3 4mya Man-like primates walked in Eastern Africa. Fossils of

their bones were discovered. (b)

2 mya This ancestor lived in the East African grasslands and ate
fruits. (c)

1:5 mya This honminid had abrain size of 900 cc and probably ate
meat. (d)

Based on the above information, answer the following questions : 2

(a) Name one primate about l5 mya.

(b) Name one place where fossils of primates were discovered in
Eastern Africa.

(c) Name the ancestor that lived in the East African grasslands about
2mya.
(d) Name the hominid that was found around 15 mya.

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21. (a) Write the scientific name of the fruit fly.

(b) Why did Morgan prefer to work with fruit flies for his
experiments ? State two reasons. 2

SECTION C

22. Name the type of food chains responsible for the flow of larger fraction of
energy in an aquatic ecosystem and a terrestrial ecosystem, respectively.
Mention any two differences between the two food chains. 3

23. Name the process involved in the production of nematode-resistant

tobacco plants, using genetic engineering. Explain the strategy adopted
todevelop such plants. 3

24. The base sequence in one of the strands of DNA is:

"TAGCATGAT"

(a) Give the base sequence of its complementary strand.

(b) How are these base pairs held together in DNA molecule?
(c) Explain the base complementarity rule. Name the seientist who
framed this rule. 3

25. A village health worker was taking a session with women. She tells them
that one has to be careful while using oral pills as a method of birth
control. Wrong usage can actually promote conception.
(a) Analyse the above statement and compare the merits and demerits
of using oral pills and surgical methods of birth control.
(b) Village women are confused as to how a thin metallic copper loop
can provide protection against pregnancy. Explain the mode of
action of IUDs. Give two points. 3

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 techniques.
26. (a) Mention any two advantages of micropropagation laboratory.
(b) how the process is carried out in the
Write in brief
commercially by this
(c) Name any two important food plants grown
method.
given
27. (a) The process of evolution of different species
radiates to other
geographical areastarts from apoint and literally
geographical areas." Explain it with an example.
has
(b) Cite an example where more than one adaptive radiation
type of
occurred in an isolated geographical area. Name the 3
evolution your example depicts.
to
28. A person is suffering fromn high grade fever. Which symptoms will help 3
identify if he/she is suffering from Typhoid, Pneumonia or Malaria ?
SECTION D

Questions No. 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each question has

3 sub-questions with internal choice in one sub-question.
29. The following question is based on pollination. Study the figures 4
carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Pollens, e

Figure A Figure B
(a) Give the scientific terms for the processes taking place in Figures A
1 and B respectively.
2
(b) Mention two conditions necessary for the process occurring in
Figure B.
1 (c) (i) State one advantage and one disadvantage of the process
occurring in Figure B.
OR
(c) (ii) Name one plant where, in some flowers only, the process in
1
Figure Btakes place and give the reason responsible for it.
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 Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow.
4
30.
Settling Tank/
Aerator Tank Secondary Clarifier
Influent (From Effluent
Primary Clarifier)

Activated sludge
Air Diffusers

Return Activated Waste Activatd

Sludge (RAS) Sludge(WAS)

1
(a) Identify the figure and state its importance.
(b) Why is air diffused into the aerator tank ? Explain. 2

(c) (i) What changes take place in the settling tank? 1

OR

(c) (ii) How is BOD related to organicmatter present in the water ?

SECTION E

31. (a) (i) What is atest cross ? How can we find out the zygosity of a
plant by the use of test cross ?

(ii) Why are human females rarely haemophilic ? Explain with

thehelp of a cross. Under what conditions can a haemophilic
female be born ? How do haemophilic patients suffer ? 5

OR

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 (b) Name the two events 'a' and c shown in the diagram below.
Exon 1 Exon 2 Exon 3 Exon 4
1

Gene (DNA)
Promoter Intron 1 Intron 2 Intron 3

Primary Transcript
(RNA)

Mature Transcript (mRNA)

Protein

(i) Mention where in the cell these events take place.

(ii) Explain the changes taking place during event b' and
mention why these are needed.

32. (a) (i) How does alien species invasion cause decline in
biodiversity ? Explain.
How have the following contributed to biodiversity loss ?
NilePerch
II. Lantana and Eichhornia
III. Clarias gariepinus
(ii) Why have certain regions been declared as biodiversity
hotspots by environmentalists of the world ? Name any two
such regions in India. 5
OR

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 (b) (i) Write an equation for Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth Curve
where:
N =Population density at time t
r= Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(ii)
Draw agraph for a population whose population density has
reached carrying capacity.
(iii) Draw a growth curve where resources are non-limiting to
growth of population.
(iv) Which growth curve is considered more realistic and why ?
Explain. 5

33. (a) Study the given diagram showing the sectional view of a seminiferous
tubule.

Secondary
spermatocyte
B

Primary
spermatocyte
C

Answer thefollowing questions : 2+1+2=5

(i) Label A, B, Cand D in the figure.

(ii) What will be the number of chromosomes in secondary
spermatocyte and spermatid respectively ?
Gii) Explain the termns Spermiogenesis and Spermiation.
OR

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 (b) Study the figures given below showing initial stages in the
formation of female gametophyte and answer the questions that
follow.

Micropylar end Micropylar end Micropylar end

Nucellus Nucellus

(Q)
(P)

(i) Identify (P) and (Q).

(iü) I. What kind of division does cell (P) undergo to form ()?
II. How many (Q) cells form the embryo sac ? What is the
name given to such kind of development ?
III. How many free nuclear mitotic divisions will the
functional megaspore undergo to form the embryo sac ?
IV. Describe the structure of a mature female gametophyte. 5

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