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MADHYA PRADESH DRUG INSPECTOR d. Minoxidil

2012 6. Which of the following drug reduces blood
1. Which of the following is a Class IA ant pressureby acting on vasomotor centers in
arrhythmic drug: theCNS:
a. Sotalol a. Labetalol
b. {c}Disopyramide b. Nifedipine
c. Verapamil c. {c}Clonidine
d. Propranolol d. Enalapril
2. Which of the following is a Class II A anti 7. Which of the following hormones is produced
arrhythmic drug: by the hypothalamic gland?
a. Verapamil a. Estradiol
b. Flecainide b. {c}Growth hormone-releasing hormone
c. {c}Propranolol (GHRH)
d. Lidocaine c. Glucagon
3. Main mechanisms of action of cardiac d. Aldosterone
glycoside is: 8. Currently used second-generation
a. {c}To increase vagal activity and inhibition of sulfonylureas include the following, EXCEPT:
+ +
the Na / K a. Glibenclamide
b. To decrease vagal activity and inhibition of the b. Glipizide
Na+ / K+ c. {c}Tolbutamide
c. To increase vagal activity and potentiates the d. Glimepiride
+ +
activity of the Na / K 9. Which of the following agent increases the
d. None of the above absorption of iron from intestine?
4. Increased level of lipoprotein (a) predisposes a. Cyanocbalamin
to b. Erythropoetin
a. Liver cirrhosis c. Folic acid
b. {c}Atherosclerosis d. {c}Ascorbic acid
c. Nephritic syndrome 10. Which of the following substances is
d. Pancreatitis synthesized in the intima of blood vessels is a
5. Which of the following antianginal agents is a strong inhibitor of platelet aggregation?
calcium channel blocker? a. Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
a. Nitroglycerin b. {c}Prostacyclin (PGI2)
b. Dipyridamole c. Prostaglandin (PGE)
c. {c}Nifedipine d. All of the above

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11. Thiazolidinediones act by: a. 17𝛽-Oestradiol

a. Stimulating the beta is let cells of pancreas to b. Oestradiol
produce insulin c. {c}Ethinyl Oestradiol
b. {c}Reverse insulin resistance by stimulating d. Oestriol
GLUT4 expression and translocation 17. Mifeprostone (RU-486) is:
c. Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from a. {c}Ant progestin
the gut b. Antiadrogen
d. All of the above c. Ant estrogen
12. Glucagon is d. Androgen
a. {c}A single chain polypeptide containing 29 18. Streptokinase is chosen as part of the
amino acid and molecular weight of 3500 therapeutic regimen. Which of the following is
b. A glycoprotein with a molecular of 600 its mechanism of action?
c. A oligosaccharide a. It inhibits the conversion of fibrin to fibrin
d. A small protein with a molecular weight of b. It activates the conversion of fibrin-split
5808 having disulphide linkage products
13. The drug has a steroid – like structure which is c. {c}It activates the conversion of plasminogen
responsible for its anti androgenic effect: to plasmin
a. Amiloride d. It inhibits the conversion prothrombin to
b. Furosemide thrombin
c. Hydrochlorothiazide 19. Which of the following drug is inhibitor of
d. {c}Spironolactone thyroxin synthesis:
14. Oxytocin produces the following effect: a. Propylthiouracil
a. It causes contraction of the uterus b. Methyliouracil
b. It brings milk ejection from the lactating c. Methimazole
mammary gland d. {c}All of the above
c. It causes relaxation of the uterus 20. Combined oral contraceptives usually consists
d. {c}Both A and B of an Oestrogen and
15. Following drugs are Fluoroquinolones except a. A selective estrogen-receptor modulator
a. Norfloxacin b. {c}A progestogen
b. Ciprofloxacin c. An ant progestin
c. Oflxacin d. An androgen
d. {c}Nalidixic acid 21. Medical termination of pregnancy act was
16. The major natural estrogens produced by passed in
women are following EXCEPT: a. {c}1971

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b. 1969 c. Schedule R
c. 1977 d. {c}Schedule Y
d. 1980 28. The life period of Drug is mentioned in
22. ……………….. is not mentioned in a. Schedule Q
Dangerous Drugs act 1930. b. {c}Schedule P
a. Coca leaf c. Schedule R
b. Hemp d. Schedule V
c. {c}Ergot 29. The provisions for production of Bacterial
d. Opium vaccine are mentioned in ………………….
23. Application form no. …………… is required a. Schedule F-part IV
for sale of drugs listed in schedule C and C1. b. {c}Scheule F(I) –part I
a. 20 c. Schedule F-part III
b. 21-A d. Schedule F-part IX
c. {c}20-B 30. The term D.T.A.B. is short form for
d. 22 …………………….
24. D.P.C.O is abbreviation for a. {c}Drug technical advisory board
a. {c}Drug price control order b. Drug treatment analytical bureau
b. Drug price cut order c. Drug tolerance addiction bureau
c. Drug purchase control order d. Drug technical Advisory bureau
d. Drug purchase cut order 31. Which one of the following drugs is placed
25. Digoxine is placed in ……………. Schedule under schedule X
a. E a. Ciprofloxacin
b. X b. {c}Dexamphetamine
c. G c. Paracetamol
d. {c}H d. Tolbutamide
26. One of the following drug is not in schedule H 32. The prescription in duplicate is required for the
a. Nalidixic acid falling in …………..
b. Naproxen a. Schedule H
c. Nebivolol b. {c}Schedule X
d. {c}Phenometrazine c. Schedule G
27. The guidelines to undertake clinical trial are d. Schedule C-1
stated in …………………. 33. Pharmacy Act came in to force in the
a. Schedule M1 a. 1950
b. Schedule N b. {c}1948

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c. 1952 39. The tenure of nominated members on the

d. 1949 central pharmacy council is for …………….
34. The appointment of drugs inspector is as per a. Three years
the section …………….. of drugs and b. Six years
cosmetics act 1940. c. {c} Five years
a. 19 d. Two years
b. 42 40. ‘Registered Pharmacist’ means
c. {c} 21 a. A person passed Diploma in Pharmacy
d. 30 b. A person who is working as Compounder
35. The list of Ayurvedic and Unani poisonous c. {c} A person whose name is Registered in
drugs are mentioned in schedule…………. state register
a. C-1 d. A person who is a member of Central
b. G pharmacy council
c. {c} E-1 41. Two electrons occupying the same orbital have
d. E different
36. The designation of in charge of state drug a. Principal Quantum Number
laboratory is …………………… b. Azimuthal Quantum Number
a. Drugs controller c. Magnetic Quantum Number
b. Assistant drugs controller d. {c} Spin Quantum Number
c. {c} Government analyst 42. Silicon and Germanium in the pure state are
d. Drugs inspector a. {c} Non-Conductors
37. Wholly or partly substituted drug preparations b. Good conductors
by another substance or product is known as c. Metallic conductors
………….. d. Metal Complexes
a. Spurious drugs 43. The water free from all ions is referred to as
b. {c} Adulterated drugs a. Heavy water
c. Poisonous drugs b. Concentrated water
d. Misbranded drugs c. Mineral water
38. First pharmacy council of India was d. {c} Dematerialized water
constituted in following year 44. The resultant colour for the limit test for lead is
a. {c} 1949 a. Red
b. 1948 b. Green
c. 1960 c. {c} Violet
d. 1953 d. Orange

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45. The Aluminium Hydroxide comes under the 51. When morphine is heated at 140℃ under
category of pressure with strong Hydrochloric acid it
a. Cathartic converts into
b. {c} Antacid a. Morphinone
c. Adsobant b. {c}Apomorphine
d. Astringent c. Codeine
46. Phenobarbitone is used in d. Oxymorphine
a. {c} Grandmal and Psychomotor Epilepsy 52. Choose the IUPAC name of Carbamazepine
b. Petitmal Epilepsy a. 5-[-3(dim ethyl amino) ethyl] 10-11 dihydro –
c. Parkinson’s Disease 5 H dibenz (b, f) azepine
d. Analeptic b. {c}5 H dibenz (b, f) azepine -5- carboxamide
47. Selective 𝛼1 Receptor Antagonist is c. 5 H dibenz (b, f) azepine -5- acid chloride
a. Pronethalol d. 5[3- dim ethyl amino propyl] 10-11 dihydro –
b. {c} Prazocin 5H dibenz (b,f) azepine
c. Propranolol 53. Which one of the following is not a
d. Practolol pharmacological effect of Morphine?
48. Reversible cholinergic inhibitor is a. Constriction of pupil
a. Isoflurophate b. CNS Depression
b. Paraoxon c. {c} Diarrhoea
c. {c} Physostigmine d. Respiratory Depression
d. Tetraethyl Pyrophosphate 54. The gondal harmones like estrogens,
49. Maximum Diuretic Activity of meta androgens and progestins bind with.
disulfamoyl benzene is shown when the R a. {c} Receptors located in the cytoplasm
group is b. Receptors located in the nucleus of the cell
a. Cl-, Br- c. Receptors located in the contractile vacuoles
+ +
b. H , Na d. None of the above
c. Both 55. How many optical isomers are possible for
d. None lactic acid
50. Plasma protein binding of Hydrochlorothiazide a. {c}2
is b. 4
a. 80-90% c. 6
b. 90-95% d. 8
c. 60-70% 56. Which of the following classes of compounds
d. 70-75% are uncreative towards Sulphuric acid

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a. {c} Alkanes 62. Surface tension is measured by

b. Alcohols a. {c} Capillary rise method
c. Alkenes b. Cone and plate method
d. Alkynes c. Anderson pipette method
57. Which of the following compounds have d. All of the above
planer molecules 63. Following is associated with colloidal
a. {c} 1,3-Butadiene dispersion stability
b. Dimethyl Ether a. {c} Schulze-Hardy rule
c. 1-Butene b. Hildebrand constant
d. Allene c. Huckel’s rule
58. Which of the bonds in ethyl alcohol (CH3 CH2 d. None of the above
OH) will most readily undergo heterolytic 64. Which of the following statement is true
bond a. Surface tension is sudden expansion of the
a. {c}O – H surface
b. C – H b. {c} Surface tension increases with increases in
c. C – O the downward pull of molecules in the water
d. C – C c. Surface tension is equal to maximum, free
59. The reaction of Ethanol with one equivalent of energy
methanol and a trace of an acid will give. d. Surface tension has units of N
a. Acetal 65. Which of the following are not kinetic
b. {c} Hemiacetal properties?
c. Ketal a. Brownian Motion
d. Hemiketal b. Osmotic Pressure
60. Solubility of unionized drug increases with c. {c} Ionization
a. Always with increase in temperature d. Both a and b
b. Always with increase in pressure 66. Which of the following statement is true
c. {c} Majority of time with increase in temp a. {c} Haunser ratio of < 1.25 indicates a powder
d. Always with increase in pH that is free flowing where > 1.25 indicates poor
61. Drugs having pKa between 2.5 to 6.0 remain flow ability
a. Ionized in gastric pH and unionized in b. Haunser ratio of >1.25 indicates a powder that
intestinal pH is free flowing where < 1.25 indicates poor
b. Unionized in gastric pH flow ability
c. Ionized at all pH values c. The larger the Carr’s index the better the flow
d. {c} Practically unionized at all pH value properties

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d. Angle of repose > 40° indicates a powder that c. To prevent gastric irritation caused by drug
is free flowing d. For local action of the drug in intestine
67. True density is 73. Oral absorption is ideal when
a. Mass/volume excluding inter particulate or a. Log P>5
intra particulate spaces b. {c} Log P<5
b. Mass/volume excluding inter particulate spaces c. There are more than 5 hydrogen bond donors
c. {c} Mass/volume excluding inter particulate d. Molecular weight > 500 Dalton
and intra particulate spaces 74. Disintegration test for tablets is not done in
d. None of the above cases?
68. The critical micelle concentration influences a. Effervescent tablets
a. Conductivity b. Sugar coated tablets
b. Viscosity c. Film coated tablets
c. Surface tension d. {c}Controlled release tablets
d. {c}All of the above 75. Which one of the following is USP-IV
69. Nonlinear drug distribution in body is due to dissolution apparatus?
a. Drug following one compartment model a. Paddle Apparatus
b. Drug distribution only in central compartment b. Paddle Over Disc
c. {c} Drug distribution in central and peripheral c. {c} Flow-Through Cell
compartments d. Reciprocating Cylinder
70. Non-Newtonian shows which behavious 76. A drug having plasma half-life of 24 hrs and
a. Linear follows one compartment model is formulated
b. {c}Non-linear as a 25 Mg tablet. What will be % of drug will
c. Both linear and non-linear remain in plasma on 4th day?
d. None of the above a. {c} 12.5
71. Which one of the following is used as b. 25
suppository base c. 50
a. Coca butter d. 6.25
b. Polyethylene glycol 77. Ratio of systemic availability of a drug
c. Adepes solids administered orally and I.V. is called
d. {c} All of the above a. {c} Absolute bioavailability
72. Which one is not the purpose of Enteric b. Relative bioavailability
coating is c. Dynamic bioavailability
a. {c}To increases bioavailability of drug d. None
b. To prevent drug degradation in stomach

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78. Following device can be used for in line and c. Serine

off-line to weight and sort a complete batch of d. Lysine
capsules 84. The biological source for physostigmine from
a. Varicap physostigman venonesum is………….
b. Rotofull a. {c} Dried seeds
c. {c}Rotosort b. Dried leaves
d. All of the above c. Fresh bark
79. Total organic carbon limit for water for d. Fresh flowers
injection is 85. The content of clay in Loamy soil is…………..
a. {c}<500ppb a. 05 -07%
b. <5000ppb b. {c}30 – 50%
c. <50ppb c. 20 - 40%
d. <1000ppb d. 10 – 25%
80. Andrographolides are found in ……………. 86. The chemical constitution of Kaolin is
a. Cinchona ………..
b. Datura a. {c} Hydrated Aluminium Silicate
c. {c}Kalmegh b. Hydrated Ferrous Aluminium Silicate
d. Gentian c. Hydrate Magnesium trisilicate
81. Cinnamon oil contains Cinnamaldehyde and d. Hydrated Aluminium Calcium Silicate
Eugenol in following ratios. 87. Irregular celled stomata are present in the
a. 60 – 70% and 05 – 07% leaves of
b. 60 – 70% and 25 – 25% a. {c} Buchu
c. {c}60 – 70% and 05 – 10% b. Spearmint
d. 60 – 70% and 01 – 04% c. Belladonna
82. The commercial source of Rauwolfia root for d. Senna
preparation of Reserbine is ………… 88. The constituents of Stereo glycol Alkaloid type
a. {c} Rauwolfia vomitoria are present in …………
b. Rauwolfia tetraphyla a. Aerial part of Polygala Senega
c. Rauwolfia obscura b. Inner bark of Quillaia saponaria
d. Rauwolfia serpentine c. Ripened fruits of Tribules terestris
83. The amino acid employed as precursor for d. {c} Aerial part of Solanum khasianum
quinine a quinoline alkaloid is ………. 89. The main constituent of Cascare grade are of
a. Tyrosine ………… type glycosides.
b. {c}Tryptophan a. Steroidal

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b. {c}Anthraquinone a. {c}10 – 15%

c. Napthoquinone b. 30 – 40%
d. Cyanophoric c. 25 – 45%
90. In mixing process the critical step is d. 60 – 70%
a. Time of mixing 96. Appraisal costs are the cost of
b. Speed of stirrers a. Inspection
c. Load of materials b. Testing
d. {c} All of the above c. Quality
91. Precision refers to d. {c}All of the above
a. Degree of responsibility 97. In classification of water, level II water is
b. {c}Degree of reproducibility a. Well water
c. Degree if repeatability b. {c}Drinking water
d. None of the above c. Purified water
92. As per ICH guidelines for establishment of d. Water to parenterals
linearity minimum number of concentration 98. The drug regulatory authority CDSCO denotes
required is a. {c}Central drugs standards control
a. 10 organization
b. 04 b. Central drugs standards council organization
c. {c}05 c. Central for drug standards and cosmetic
d. 03 organization
93. Guideline on general principles of process d. None of the above
validation was made available and the same 99. Robustness in validation refers to
was finished in a. {c}Analysis with respect to deliberate
a. May 1987 variation in method parameters
b. May 1967 b. Repeated analysis on fixed parameters
c. May 1986 c. Instrument to instrument variation
d. May 1988 d. Measurement of personal errors
94. The training of operations involves
a. Knowledge
b. Skills
c. Attitude
d. {c} All of the above
95. The quality one for pharmaceutical industry in
general are about

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