Fisheries World Test Series 2025-4

Test ID: 250129233925

Q1. The target gene used for DNA Barcoding for identification of fish is:

1. Cytochrome C Oxidase

2. cDNA

3. Nuclear DNA

4. None of these

Q2. Chilka Lake has been removed from the Montreux Record due to its restored condition in the
year:

1. 2003

2. 2002

3. 2004

4. 2001

Q3. The sampling design used for estimating marine fish landings in India is:

1. Stratified Multistage Random Sampling

2. Simple Random Sampling

3. Cluster Sampling

4. Stratified Random Sampling

Q4. The scientific name of the Indian Trout is:

1. Raiamas bola

2. Schizothoraichthys esocinus

3. Schizothoraichthys progastus

4. Schizothorax niger

Q5. Pro-phenol oxidase (Pro-PO) enzyme, which plays a key role in the defense reactions of
crustaceans, is stored in granular haemocytes present in:

1. Haemolymph of crustaceans

2. Hepatopancreas of crustaceans

3. Haemocoel of crustaceans

4. Both A and B
Q6. The maxillipeds (1st and 2nd) in prawns help in the functioning of:

1. Grinding food

2. Respiration

3. Locomotion

4. None

Q7. One Gray equals to:

1. 100 rads

2. 1000 rads

3. 100 ergs

4. 1000 ergs

Q8. The traditional surimi-based product in the form of fried fish paste is:

1. Hampen

2. Satsumage

3. Chikuwa

4. Kamaboko

Q9. IMViC test is used for the estimation of:

1. E. coli

2. Salmonella

3. Streptococcus

4. None

Q10. The WTO enquiry point in India as designated by the Government of India is:

1. EIA

2. BIS

3. MPEDA

4. ISO

Q11. The karyotype used to group chromosome characteristics is represented by a graph called:

1. Karyogram

2. Idiogram

3. Karypgraph

4. None
Q12. Interferons are produced by:

1. Bacteria

2. B cells

3. T cells

4. Virus-infected cells

Q13. Black discoloration is prevented by a dip in a solution containing:

1. Sodium bicarbonate

2. Sodium nitrite

3. Sodium metabisulphite

4. ATP

Q14. Alginic acid is a compound prepared from:

1. Red seaweed

2. Brown seaweed

3. Green seaweed

4. Both A and B

Q15. Freezer used to freeze irregularly shaped products:

1. Spiral freezer

2. Air blast freezer

3. Horizontal freezer

4. Liquid nitrogen freezer

Q16. Ambergris is formed in the intestinal tract of sperm whale when it feeds on:

1. Shrimp

2. Cuttlefish

3. Squids

4. None

Q17. Which of the following curves represents preference of consumers between two
commodities?

1. Demand curve

2. Supply curve

3. Indifference curve
 4. Income curve

Q18. For control of aquatic insects, the soap oil emulsion with the following composition is used:

1. 18 kg/ha of oil, 56 kg/ha of soap

2. 18 kg/ha of soap, 56 kg/ha of vegetable oil

3. 18 kg/ha oil, 56 kg/ha detergent

4. None

Q19. To compare the magnitude of different values we use:

1. Frequency polygon

2. Bar diagram

3. Frequency curve

4. Histogram

Q20. Cuttlefishes come under the order:

1. Sepiodea

2. Octopoda

3. Teuthoidea

4. None

Q21. Calipee is a byproduct obtained from:

1. Seahorse

2. Sea cucumber

3. Squid

4. Turtle

Q22. Choose the correct sequence of microbial load in fish:

1. Gill > Skin > Intestine

2. Intestine > Skin > Gill

3. Intestine > Gill > Skin

4. Skin > Intestine > Gill

Q23. If temperature is high, then D-value will be:

1. High

2. Low

3. Remain same
 4. None

Q24. Among extension teaching methods, to develop skill among farmers, ______ method is used:

1. Observation plots

2. Method demonstrations

3. Result demonstrations

4. National demonstrations

Q25. Storage comes under which form of utility?

1. Time

2. Place

3. Form

4. None

Q26. Dopamine antagonist present in Ovatide is:

1. Pimozide

2. Domperidone

3. Tamoxifen

4. All

Q27. Which of the following is a bacterial disease of salmonid fishes?

1. Whirling disease

2. White Spot disease

3. Enteric red mouth disease

4. Gas bubble disease

Q28. The saline water species of Infusoria is:

1. Paramecium

2. Stylonichia

3. Euplotes

4. A and B

Q29. Which among the following is a Zooplankton?

1. Branchinous

2. Cladocerans

3. Copepods
 4. Both A and B

5. All of the above

Q30. The fish feed ingredient that contains almost complete essential amino acid profile is:

1. FPC

2. Fish meal

3. Fish silage

4. Fish hydrolysate

Q31. Grow More Food campaign was started in:

1. 1948

2. 1941

3. 1940

4. 1443

Q32. The high heat resistance of spores is due to high content of:

1. Ca

2. Dipicolinic acid

3. Both

4. None

Q33. The TFS cans have a coating of:

1. Zn

2. Chromium

3. Al

4. Fe

Q34. The most commonly used material for delivery of chilled and frozen fish is:

1. HDPE

2. LDPE

3. Moulded polystyrene

4. BOPP

Q35. DMC stands for:

1. Down microbial cells

2. Direct microbial count

4. Decreased microbial count

Q36. Supra littoral zone is also called as:

1. Spray zone

2. Submerged zone

3. Dried zone

4. None

Q37. Sunetta scripta is:

1. Marine clam

2. Freshwater clam

3. Brackish water clam

4. None

Q38. Which larval stage of sea cucumber is slipper-shaped?

1. Doliolaria

2. Pentactula

3. Auricularia

4. All of the above

Q39. Parallels are also called as:

1. Poles

2. Equator

3. Longitude

4. Latitude

Q40. Navigation used after proceeding to sea beyond visual range to land is:

1. Dead reckoning

2. Piloting

3. Celestial navigation

4. Electronic navigation

Q41. The false/extra keel which is attached to the upper part of keel is called:

1. Keel

2. Hog keel
 3. Flare

4. Sheer

Q42. Mostly used route of administration of hormone in fish body is:

1. Intramuscular injection

2. Intraperitoneal injection

3. Intra-venal injection

4. Intra-cranial injection

Q43. Edwardsiella septicaemia mainly affects:

1. Carps

2. Catfish

3. Eels

4. Tilapia

Q44. The free-swimming ciliated larva released by adult Digenean parasites is:

1. Cercaria

2. Miracidium

3. Pleurocercaria

4. Metacercaria

Q45. Largest exit point for ornamental fishes in India:

1. Kerala

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Kolkata

4. Mumbai

Q46. Culture method in vogue for shrimp farming in India:

1. Intensive culture system

2. Semi-intensive culture system

3. Extensive culture system

4. Semi-extensive culture system

Q47. Species distributed from bottom to 5m above sea floor:

1. Pelagic fisheries

2. Semi-pelagic fisheries
 3. Demersal fisheries

4. None

Q48. Harpoon fishing flourished in the year:

1. 1900

2. 1901

3. 1902

4. 1903

Q49. Paste shrimp is a:

1. Penaeid shrimp

2. Non-penaeid shrimp

3. Both

4. None

Q50. PADDU fishing dominated by which crab?

1. Portunus pelagicus

2. Charybdis cruciata

3. Scylla serrata

4. S. tranquiberica

Q51. ALIVI shore seine operated in:

1. Gandhinagar reservoir

2. Hirakud reservoir

3. B bulkyani Sagar reservoir

4. Tungabhadra reservoir

Q52. Not a tributary of Ganga:

1. Ramganga

2. Gomti

3. Ken

4. Wainganga

Q53. NRLP stands for:

1. National Reservoir Linking Project

2. National Reservoir Linking Programme

4. National River Linking Programme

Q54. Sympathetic breeding involves:

1. Injecting 10% of the brooders

2. Injecting 50% of the brooders

3. Injecting 70% of the brooders

4. Injecting 90% of the brooders

Q55. Trituration is a function of:

1. Stomach

2. Intestine

3. Esophagus

4. Large intestine

Q56. Algal bloom can be controlled by:

1. Copper sulphate

2. Anhydrous ammonia

3. Nitrofuran

4. Simazine

Q57. Preferred shrimp part for WSSV detection:

1. Terminal portion of pereopods

2. Terminal portion of pleopods

3. Using faecal matter

4. By detecting growth lines

Q58. Herbivorous fish:

1. Grass carp

2. Surgeonfish

3. Parrotfish

4. All

Q59. Adverse effect from short-term exposure:

1. Acute toxicity

2. Chronic toxicity
 3. Sub-chronic toxicity

4. Sub-lethal toxicity

Q60. First major international environmental conference:

1. 1970

2. 1971

3. 1972

4. 1973

Q61. Fisheries beyond territorial waters is a:

1. Union subject

2. International subject

3. State subject

4. None

Q62. Ca(OH)2 is also known as:

1. Slaked lime

2. Calcium hydroxide

3. Hydrated lime

4. All

Q63. Line speed is critical for:

1. Canned products

2. Battered and breaded products

3. Salted products

4. Marinated products

Q64. Promiscuous means:

1. Male mates with several females, not each female

2. Female mates with several males, not each male

3. Each male and each female mates with several

4. None

Q65. Poison glands containing teleost:

1. Siluridae

2. Bartrachidae
 3. Dasyatidae

4. Both A and B

Q66. Blue slime disease caused by:

1. Cryptobia

2. Trichodinia

3. Ichthyobodo nector

4. Ich

Q67. Lysine deficiency causes:

1. Scoliosis

2. Lordosis

3. Dorsal fin erosion

4. All

Q68. Coral reefs:

1. Only tropical

2. Built by hermatypic

3. Pass through stages

4. All

Q69. First step in primary sewage treatment:

1. Remove organics

2. Remove fine particles

3. Remove floating materials

4. Remove bacteria

Q70. Most widespread cyanotoxin:

1. Domoic Acid

2. Brevetoxin

3. Microcystin

4. Ciguatoxin

Q71. Lm/L8 indicates:

1. Reproduction

2. Reproductive stress
 3. Reproductive capacity

4. None

Q72. Ideal exploited stock equation:

1. Z = F + M

2. Z = F - M

3. F = Z + M

4. M = F + Z

Q73. K in growth equation:

1. Weight coefficient

2. Length at time

3. Growth coefficient

4. Weight at time

Q74. Variance when all values same:

1. 1

2. Not countable

3. 0

4. 2

Q75. Regression coefficient independent of:

1. Origin

2. Scale

3. Both

4. None

Q76. Dhan buoy used in:

1. Squid jigging

2. Tuna longline

3. Dredging

4. Kalava traps

Q77. Measures sea length:

1. Compass

2. Log
 3. Chronometer

4. Sextant

Q78. Highly selective fishing method:

1. Beach seining

2. Purse seining

3. Seine netting

4. Targeted trawling

Q79. Diversity in pelagic ecosystem:

1. Increases with depth

2. Decreases with depth

3. No change with depth

4. Varies with depth

Q80. NMLRDC located in:

1. Chennai

2. Kochi

3. Kolkata

4. Mumbai

Q81. Total liability to net worth ratio:

1. Debt equity ratio

2. Net capital ratio

3. Solvency ratio

4. None

Q82. SDA highest for:

1. Lipid

2. Carbohydrate

3. Protein

4. None

Q83. Mastax in rotifers:

1. Grinding food

2. Swimming
 3. Reproduction

4. None

Q84. High-powered flat-bottom craft:

1. Merchant fish

2. Fishing craft

3. Tugs

4. Combatant craft

Q85. Latent heat of ice melting:

1. 80 Kcal/kg

2. 8 kcal/kg

3. 80 cal/kg

4. None

Q86. Freezer for small prawns:

1. Plate freezer

2. Fluidized freezer

3. Air blast freezer

4. None

Q87. Peculiarity of fish heart:

1. No blood

2. All arterial

3. All venous

4. Mixed blood

Q88. Rapid rancidity in:

1. PUFA

2. Protein

3. Lipid

4. Carbohydrates

Q89. Ideal head space of a can:

1. 5 mm

2. 20 mm
 3. 10 mm

4. 2 mm

Q90. Bacterial kidney disease caused by:

1. A. salmonicida

2. R. salmoninarum

3. C. psychrophila

4. V. salmonicida

Q91. [Question incomplete in provided text]:

1. Myliobatidae

2. Mobulidae

3. Rajiidae

4. Dasyatidae

Q92. Which fish shows a breeding pattern like this...........:

1. Stickle back

2. African lung fish

3. European Bitterling

4. Paradise fish

Q93. Statement:

i) More the double bonds, less is the melting point of the fatty acid.
ii) More the carbon atoms, less is the melting point of the fatty acid.

1. Both the statements are true

2. Both false

3. Statement 1 is true but 2 is false

4. Statement 2 is true but 1 is false

Q94. Which of the following species of shrimp have closed thelycum?

1. P. monodon

2. L. vannamei

3. P. indicus

4. A and C

Q95. Statement:
i) Bacterial DNA is called NAKED DNA
ii) Bacterial DNA is not associated with any proteins

1. Both are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of 1

2. Both are true and statement 2 is not the correct explanation of 1

3. Statement 1 is true but 2 is false

4. Statement 2 is true but 1 is false

Q96. Statement:

1. The specific heat of frozen fish is higher than that of fresh fish.

2. The specific heat of frozen fish is less than that of fresh fish.

3. 1 true, 2 false

4. 1 false, 2 true

5. Both true

6. Both false

Q97. Statements:

1. A gonad promoting hormone is believed to be produced by the Y organ in the eye stalk.

2. A gonad inhibiting hormone is believed to be produced by the X organ in the eye stalk.

3. Both true

4. Both false

5. 1 true, 2 false

6. 1 false, 2 true

Q98. The _________ zone is also called the twilight zone:

1. Epipelagic

2. Bathypelagic

3. Mesopelagic

4. Abyssopelagic

Q99. The time taken to complete one tidal cycle in the case of a semidiurnal tide is:

1. 24 hours 50 minutes

2. 6 hours 12 minutes

3. 12 hours 25 minutes

4. 18 hours 40 minutes
Q100. High organic matter is found at _______ shore:

1. Rocky

2. Sandy

3. Gravel

4. Muddy

Q101. The cell wall of diatoms is made up of:

1. Chitin

2. Calcium carbonate

3. Silica

4. Phosphates

Q102. Bony seawater fish are commonly:

1. Euryhaline

2. Stenohaline

3. Anadromous

4. Catadromous

Q103. One high tide and one low tide during a day is called:

1. Mixed tide

2. Diurnal tide

3. Semidiurnal tide

4. Spring tide

Q104. Organisms that can tolerate a narrow range of salinity are called:

1. Euryhaline

2. Osmoregulators

3. Stenohaline

4. Halophiles

Q105. An estuary formed by sea level rise and filling an existing river valley is called:

1. Fjord estuary

2. Tectonic estuary

3. Coastal plain estuary

4. Bar-built estuary
Q106. The undulatory motion of the water surface is called a:

1. Tide

2. Seiche

3. Current

4. Wave

Q107. A process in which water becomes enriched with nutrients leading to excessive plant growth
is called:

1. Sedimentation

2. Eutrophication

3. Upwelling

4. Salinization

Q108. The process by which waves wear down rock formations is called:

1. Erosion

2. Deposition

3. Sedimentation

4. Lithification

Q109. The measurement of depth using sound waves is called:

1. Hydrography

2. Echolocation

3. Bathymetry

4. Topography

Q110. The difference in depth between two contour lines is called:

1. Gradient

2. Contour interval

3. Isobath

4. Seafloor profile

Q111. The oscillation of water in a body of water is called a:

1. Swell

2. Seiche

3. Surge
 4. Rogue wave

Q112. A contour line representing similar depth is called an:

1. Isotherm

2. Isohaline

3. Isobath

4. Isobar

Q113. The Humboldt Current is also known as:

1. Kurile Current

2. Peruvian Current

3. Falkland Current

4. Oyashio Current

Q114. The Oyashio Current is also known as:

1. Kurile Current

2. Peruvian Current

3. Malvinas Current

4. Falkland Current

Q115. The Falkland Current is also known as:

1. Peruvian Current

2. Oyashio Current

3. Malvinas Current

4. Kurile Current

Q116. A cold current generally moves:

1. From the equator to the poles

2. From east to west

3. In a circular motion

4. From the poles to the equator

Q117. A warm current generally moves:

1. From west to east

2. From the poles to the equator

3. In a vertical upwelling
 4. From the equator to the poles

Q118. A positive estuary is characterized by:

1. High salinity

2. Moderate oxygen concentration

3. Extreme turbidity

4. Complete stagnation

Q119. A negative estuary is characterized by:

1. Low oxygen concentration

2. High freshwater inflow

3. High organic productivity

4. Permanent stratification

Q120. Cohesion refers to:

1. The sinking of heavy sediments

2. The erosion of river banks

3. The movement of water masses

4. Small particles sticking together

Q121. Cosmogenic sediment consists of:

1. Marine organic matter

2. Fine clay and silt

3. Extraterrestrial particles

4. Coral reef deposits

Q122. A Fjord is:

1. A deep river estuary

2. A V-shaped estuary

3. A shallow water estuary

4. A U-shaped estuary