Created by I MADE WIDHYA WK

B737-600/700/800

B737-600/700/800

1. The central component for communication system is:

A REU *
B ACP
C Audio Accessory Unit
D REU AND ACP

2. When the ACP RADIO/INT switch is selected to “INT”

A The ACP is bypass
B The ACP selection is VHF no 1
C The ACP microphone selection is bypassed to flight interphone system *
D The ACP microphone selection is bypassed to service interphone

3. The electric power for REU is coming from:

A Battery bus as the last alternative power *
B Hot battery bus
C DC bus 1
D DC bus 2 incase of battery bus fail

4. When the PA amplifier selector switch is selected to LOAD, then:

A .The PA amplifier shows the output voltage of the amplifier
B .The PA amplifier checks the impedance of the speakers *
C .The priority switching is being tested
D .The amplifier is calibrated

5. To monitor and control the SELCAL is part of

A .It’s own control panel
B .The ACP
C .The light will illuminate when the call alert is coming
D .Answers b and c are correct *

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6. Choose the correct statement concerning the ELT?
A .The ELT transmits on 3 different frequencies *
B .The ELT cannot start transmitting automatically
C .When the ELT is transmitting there are no caution on the flight check
D .The ELT transmits only on 1 frequency

7. The voice recorder will start working under the following conditions
A .The switch is in AUTO and engine running
B .The switch must be the ON position if no engine running
C .Always active when electrical power on
D .Answer a and b are correct and the CVR will stop working 5 minutes after
engine stops *

8. The no 1 DEU is normally / The CDS computer no 1 normally:

A. Connected to primary engine display *
B. Connected to secondary engine display
C. Connected to all system displays
D. All the above answers are correct

9. The no 2 DEU is fail the following will happen

A. The indication is normal (Auto Transfer)
B. The hydraulic press no 2 is lost
C. To have hydraulic press indication the system display is selected on
the secondary engine display
D. All the above answers are correct *

10. What can cause the FDR (Flight Data Recorder) to turn on automatically?
A. The engine low oil pressure switch
B. The engine running relays *
C. The engine start switch
D. The ON – OFF switch on P5

11. The FMC data status is OK when

A. The performance data and NAV data valid

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B. The operational program is correct
C. The FMC bite is valid
D. All answers are correct *

12. To determine the FMC position the FMC may use the following method
A. The DME / DME station
B. The GPS position is also taken into consideration (to be compare
With FMC position)
C. FMC will also calculated the VOR bearing deviation
D. All answers are correct *

13. From which TAT probe the ADIRS get the air temperature data:
A. Left TAT only *
B Left ADIRS from LEFT TAT
C Right ADIRS from RIGHT TAT
D Right TAT only

14 The standby altimeter & airspeed indicator inputs from

A Left ADIRS
B Right ADIRS
C Auxiliary pitot & alternate static *
D In case of left ADIRS

15 Which of the following system need ADIRS input?

A CDS, FCC, EGPWS, Weather Radar
B Auto throttle, FMC
C ATC, VHF NAV, compass system
D All answers are correct *

16 Where the location of ILS receiver?

A In the VHF NAV receiver
B In the DME interrogator
C It’s located in the MMR receiver *
D It’s the special ILS receiver

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17 When the radio altimeter fails, it will cause

A The EGPWS and Autopilot approach mode are also fail
B The weather radar pre wind shear is also fails
C The altitude alert fails
D Answers A and B are correct *

18 The no 2 ILS fail (VHF NAV switch in NORMAL position) will cause
A The ILS data in copilot’s ND & PFD and standby horizon is
Invalid
B The ILS data on ND is invalid
C The ILS data on ND & PFD copilot side is invalid *
D The ILS data on PFD copilot side is invalid

19 The indicate 135 degrees during test means

A ADF receiver is OK *
B ADF receiver is FAIL
C ADF system is selected to ANT made
D ADF system is selected to VOICE mode

20 The no 1 ADIRS is fail what necessary action is to be taken?

A Select the ADIRU switch to both on 2
B Select the ATC alt mode switch to 2
C Is normal and no action needed
D Answer A and B are correct *

21 Which statement is correct concerning the ADM s

A They correct and boost the air pressure signal
B They are used for alternate / auxiliary Pitot Static
C The sense air pressure and converts measured value into ARINC 429
Data *
D They senses only pitot pressure
22 What happens if the AOA input to an ADIRU is lost?
A Nothing the AOA is not used by ADIRU

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B The ADIRU will use AOA data from off side sensor
C The ALT flag comes on for the altimeter on side PFD *
D The ALT flag comes on for the altimeter on both side of PFD s

23 With loss of AC power .What happen if ADIRU s are operating on DC power?

A The right ADIRU will loose power after 5 minutes *
B Both ADIRU s shut down, the left after 5 minutes delay
C Both ADIRU s will continue operating as long as battery power is
18V 0r higher
D Both ADIRU s will remain operating

24 Which functions does MMR contain

A GPS and ILS *
B GPS and VOR
C VOR, MB and ILS
D ILS and Marker Beacon

25 How many satellites must the GPS lock on to , before it can enter the
Navigation mode
A 2
B 3
C 4*
D 6

26 Where do you select the radio minimum altitude (RADIO MINS)

A On the MCP
B On the EFIS control panels *
C On any NAV control panel
D On the ACP

27 WXR data can be shown on the ND s in which mode

A Expanded MAP only
B MAP and expanded APP and VOR *
C Expanded VOR and MAP

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D PLAN only

28 The ALT flag on right PFD in view means

A The no 2 DEU fail on
B Right EFIS CP is fail
C EGPWS does not work
D Answers A and B are correct *

29 Which functions are provided by an FCC?

A Autopilot, Flight Director, Rudder Trim and Altitude Alert
B Autopilot, Flight Director, Altitude Alert, Mach and Speed Trim *
C Autopilot, Flight Director, Over speed warning, Mach and Speed Trim
D Autopilot, Flight Director only

30 Which axis are controlled by Autopilot?

A Roll and Pitch axis *
B Roll and Yaw axis
C Roll, Pitch and Yaw axis
D Pitch axis only

31 From where does the auto throttle computer get the TRA information?
A Directly from Auto Throttle Servo Motor
B Directly from the Primary FMC *
C Directly from the EEC
D From the MCP

32 How can you determine that an FCC is faulty?

A An FCC flag appears on both PFD s
B An FD flag is in view on the on side PFD *
C An FCC flag in view on the on side PFD
D An FCC flag appears on both ND s

33 The FCC Speed Trim function does control?

A The Elevator Autopilot Actuator

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B The Stabilizer Electric Actuator *
C The Main Rudder PCU
D The Standby Rudder PCU

34 What is true about the Mach Trim Actuator?

A It is connected directly to the elevator tab
B It is only used with the Autopilot engaged *
C It will change the position of the feel and centering unit
D It is only used during manual flight

35 Which of the following components are LRU s on the Autopilot actuator :

A Actuator Solenoid Valve and Pressure Switch *
B LVDT, Transfer Valve and Detent Solenoid Valve
C Actuator Solenoid Valve, LVDT, Pressure Switch, Transfer Valve
D Actuator Solenoid Valve and LVDT

36 Which of the following are PITCH mode :

A L NAV, LVL CHG, APP, CWS P
B V NAV, LVL CHG, ALT HLD, V/S *
C LVL CHG, VOR/LOC, V/S, V NAV
D V NAV, LNAV

37 When does the FCC use Pitch and Roll Force Transducers?
A When A/P reverts to CWS in Approach only
B When Heading Select Mode and ALT Hold modes are active
C During Control Wheel Steering mode and when APP reverts to CWS *
D During DUAL AUTOLAND mode

38 What is the procedure to perform a dual Autoland?

A Approach mode must be selected then Autopilots must be in CMD *
B One Autopilot is engaged for Elevator and the other for Aileron control
C Both Autopilots will engage automatically when Approach mode is
selected
D During DUAL AUTOLAND mode

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39 The DFCS computer consist of

A Autopilot & Flight Director
B Stabilizer & Speed Trim
C Mach Trim & Altitude Alert
D All answers are correct *

40 Which mode is not part of MCP selection push button mode

A FD take off mode
B Autopilot & F/D go around mode
C Altitude acquire & A take off mode
D All answers are correct *

41 The A/P is engage and no pitch and roll mode are already selected
A The A/P is CWS mode
B The A/P is maintain altitude
C A & B answers are correct
D C answer correct and command BAR is out in view *

42 The G/S is ready capture

A The MCP selection mode is inhibit
B The G/S signal is not use anymore
C Manual disengage for both A/Ps are possible
D All answers are correct*

43 What is the function of speed trim?

A To compensate the nose down tendency
B It is working with the autopilot engaged
C It is active with autopilot does not engaged
D Answer A and C are correct *

44 What is the function of intervention switches on the MCP?

A To alter the altitude or speed while in VNAV mode
B It’s available up to landing

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C It’s available from take off
D All the above answers are correct *

45 During aircraft approach mode the following will happen

A At 400 feet both channel will do ILS deviation test
B < 800 engagement for the second AP is not possible *
C The RA signal is not important anymore
D All answers are correct

46 What the function of auto throttle?

A It is maintain N1 target
B Mostly the command is coming from FMC
C When A/P in alt mode A/T will maintain speed mode
D All answers are correct *

47 During aircraft go around the TO/GA switch is push twice

A The auto throttle disconnect
B The auto throttle will do max go around *
C The A/P will command
D B & C answers are correct and the last A/P will disengage

48 Which statement is correct?

A The A/T always on until aircraft landing > 2 second
B The A/P engagement is never on take off mode
C The F/D switch is always on and terminate when A/C flare
D All statements are correct *

49 How will a TE un-commanded motion be indicated?

A The TE FLAP TRANSIT light illuminates
B The flap position indicator shows a split needle
C The flap position indicator disagrees with flap lever position *
D The TE FLAP BYPASS light illuminates

50 What keeps ground spoiler in down position during cruise with the speed brake

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handle down position and hydraulic pressure available
A Hydraulic pressure only
B Internal mechanical locks only
C Hydraulic pressure and mechanical locks *
D By spring tension

51 The auto speed brake system operated during landing when will the auto speed
brake actuator retract?
A When the thrust lever is advanced above idle *
B When the both engine thrust reverse lever are move to idle
C When the speed brake lever is moved to DOWN detent
D When both engine thrust reverse levers are moved to reverse position

52 Normally yaw damping is performed with

A SMYD 1 (stall management yaw damper) and hydraulic system B *
B SMYD 1 and standby hydraulic system
C SMYD 2 and hydraulic system A
D SMYD 2 and standby hydraulic system

53 The elevator tab control mechanism is controlled by

A TE flap position *
B Elevator feel actuator
C Elevator feel computer
D Aircraft speed

54 How do you stop all electrical operation of the stabilizer trim?

A Move system A flight control switch to OFF
B Move the stabilizer trim cut out switches to CUT OUT *
C Move the stabilizer trim override switch to override
D Move system B flight control switch to OFF

55 What is indicated by an illuminated YAW DAMPER light?

A The yaw damper is disengaged *
B The standby yaw damper is disengaged

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C Only hydraulic system B is in operated
D Only hydraulic system A is in operated

56 What is the purpose of the wheel to rudder interconnect system (WTRIS)?

A It provides turn coordination during normal operation
B It provides turn coordination during manual reversion *
C It provides turn coordination during alternation operation
D It provides turn coordination during electrics operation

57 The purpose of the elevator feel shift mode (EFSM) is

A To increase control column forces during stall *
B To decrease control column forces during stall
C T reduce hydraulic pressure during stall
D To increase control column forces during high speed

58 How many rudder actuators to operated the surface?

A Two actuators *
B Three actuators
C Four actuators
D Two actuators and manual reversion

59 The second priority of stabilizer control is:

A Manual
B Electrical *
C Autopilot
D Hydraulics

60 The TE flap control switches are located at the

A Landing gear wheel well *
B EE compartment
C Tail compartment
D E11

61 What is the correct statement about the hydraulic reservoir pressurization module?

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A There is one module for all reservoir *
B There is one module for standby system and one for system A and system
B
C There are two modules, one each system A and B
D There are three modules, one in each system A, B, and standby

62 Which hydraulic pumps are equipped with overheat switches?

A Only the engine drive pumps
B The electrical driven pumps in system A and B *
C Only the standby pump
D The power transfer unit / PTU

63 What happen with the supply to the EDP 1 if the FIRE HANDLE for ENG 1
Pulled?
A Hydraulic supply to both system A pumps stops
B Hydraulic supply to elect motor driven pump (EMDP) stops
C Hydraulic supply to engine driven pump (EDP 1) stops *
D Hydraulic supply to engines driven pumps (EDP 1 and 2) stop

64 The standby pump can pressurize to the following sub system?

A Rudder, thrust reversers or to extend the ground spoiler
B Rudder, thrust reversers or to extend the leading edge devices *
C Rudder, trailing edge flaps or extend the leading edge devices
D Rudder, thrust reversers or extend the trailing edge flap

65 During normal operation the extension and retraction of the landing gear is
accomplish with?
A Hydraulic system A *
B HYD system A for retraction and HYD system B for extension
C HYD system A for main gears and HYD system B for nose gear
D Hydraulic system B for normal operation and Hydraulic system a for
alternate retraction

66 What the primary function of the main landing gear transfer cylinder?

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A To the extend the nose before the main gears
B To transfer hydraulic pressure to the nose wheel steering
C To give a time delay to permit the gear to unlock before the actuator
moves the gear *
D To give a time delay to permit the actuator moves the gear before the gear
unlock

67 After take off (in flight) when gear UP is selected, the transfer valve will be
operate and allow system B to raise the gear when :
A System A reservoir fluid level is below 76 %
B System A EDP and EMDP fails and the gear is in transit
C Eng 1 fails (N2 < 50%) and either main gear is not up and locked *
D Eng 1 fails (N1 < 50 %) and either main gear is not up and locked

68 With the isolation valve in AUTO both engine switches ON and both air
conditioning PACK switches selected to AUTO or HIGH
A The isolation valve will open
B The isolation valve will open when the flap are extended
C The isolation will closed *
D The isolation valve will closed when the flap are extended

69 The DUAL bleed light will be ON

A With No 2 engine bleed valve open, the isolation valve will open and APU
bleed valve open *
B With engine bleed valve open, the isolation valve will open and APU
bleed valve close
C With no 1 and no 2 bleed valves closed and APU bleed valve open
D With the air conditioning panel set for bleeds off take off

70 An engine BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates:

A Only if engine bleed air pressure exceeds a predetermined limit
B Only if engine bleed air temperature exceeds a predetermined limit
C Only if engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined
limit *

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D Only if engine bleed air temperature and pressure exceeds a predetermined
limit

71 The pneumatic duct pressure gauge

A Is AC powered
B Is DC powered
C Indicated pressure available for engine anti ice
D Indicated pressure in left and right pneumatic duct *

72 What initial action is required in the even of a WING BODY OVERHEAT is

illuminated ?
A Switches OFF the associated engine bleed *
B Open the isolation valve and switch OFF the engine bleed
C Switches OFF
D Open the isolation

73 The window heat switches must be

A ON to make a power or OVERHEAT test *
B OFF when making an OVERHEAT test only
C OFF to make a power and OVERHEAT test only
D OFF while on the ground

74 After the OVERHEAT light have illuminated during OVERHEAT test

A The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to the ON the
system
B The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to the OFF the
system *
C The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to the reset the
system
D No action is required as the resetting of the system automatic

75 Thermal air for wing anti icing is obtained from

A Bleed air ducted from the main air conditioning manifold
B Bleed air ducted from the main air pneumatic manifold *

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C 5th stage engine bleed air only
D 9th stage engine bleed air only

76 The total temperature probe

A Does not require heating
B Is electrically heated *
C Is not heated while on the ground
D Is not heated while in flight

77 The COWL ANTI ICE light illuminated

A Indicates an over temperature or over pressure condition in down stream of
the engine cowl anti ice valve
B Indicates an over pressure condition only in the duct down stream of the
engine cowl anti ice *
C Indicates an over temperature or over pressure condition in of the engine
anti ice valve
D Indicated an excessive pressure in the supply duct only

78 The component of the pack system is as follow except

A Re heater and condenser
B Turbo fan *
C Primary and secondary heat exchanger
D Air cycle machine (turbine and compressor)

79 With various zone temperature selection, how normally out flow valve
conditioning pack?
A The left pack gives the highest, while the right pack gives the normal
B Both packs give the highest temperature selection
C Both packs give middle temperature selection
D Both packs give the lowest temperature selection *

80 The pack output temperature control is normally done by this valve

A TCV *
B Pack valve

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C Trim air pressure regulator valve
D Trim air modulating valve
81 The function of TRIM AIR PRESSURE REGULATING VALVE
A To trim the pack output temperature
B To maintain the trim air (hot air) pressure 4 PSI above *
C To control the cabin temperature
D As mentioned A , B and C

82 The function of standby TCV

A To provide manual selection for the cockpit / cabin temperature
B To provide the condenser with icing prevention
C As back up for the normal TCV
D As mentioned A, B and C *

83 What pressurization mode depend on selection of FLIGHT ALT and LANDING

ALT
A Auto mode
B Alternate mode
C Manual DC
D Answers A and B are corrected *

84 When the automatic mode fails with AUTO FAIL light illuminate the illumination
of the alternate light (green) so
A The mode selector knob moves to alternate automatically
B The pressurization system must be deactivated
C The mode selector knob must be turn to MANUAL
D It changed to Alternate Mode automatically *

85 How is operation of two pressurization controllers?

A One for fight deck and one for pressurization
B When one in auto mode and the other one in standby *
C One in auto mode and one in manual mode
D They operate together

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86 With system in AUTO mode when will pressurization?
A When the selector is just selected to AUTO
B When the FLIGHT ALT and LAND ALT have selected
C At a certain engine power setting *
D When the selector is in alternate

87 The pressurization system consist of

A 2 CPC s forward outflow valve, overboard
B 2 CPC s forward outflow valve, aft outflow overboard
C 2 CPC s forward outflow valve, aft outflow
D 2 CPC s aft outflow valve overboard exhaust *

88 When the aircraft flying with all fuel tanks full and all boost pumps operate, the
center tank fuel will be consumed firstly due to
A Main tank pumps have higher capacity
B Main tank pumps have lower cracking pressure on check valve
C Center tank pumps have higher capacity *
D The center tank pumps have lower cracking pressure on check valve

89 The boost pumps location is as follow:

A Center tank boost pumps are installed on the center wing rear spar *
B Center tank boost pumps are installed on the main tanks
C All main tank boost pumps are installed on the wing front spar
D All main tank boost pumps are installed on the wing rear spar

90 The electrical power to operated the fueling valve comes from

A External power
B Switch hot battery bus or external power
C Switched hot battery bus
D Hot battery bus *

100 Where is the location of the fuel shut off valve battery?
A In E/E compartment
B In wheel well

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C In flight compartment P6 *
D In flight compartment P18

101 What caution can we find on the fuel quantity indicator?

A CONFIG on main tank fuel quantity
B LOW on center tank fuel quantity indicator
C IMBAL on main tank fuel quantity indicator *
D A, B and C are true

102 Where is the location of the FQPU?

A In the lower nose compartment *
B In the wheel well
C In the flight compartment
D In the forward cargo compartment

103 Concerning the engine fire detectors are as follow, except:

A The fire detector are from gas loop type
B The responder has a normally closed fault switch normally open
C Three detectors are in fan case compartment, one detector is in engine core
Compartment *
D Two detectors are in Fan case compartment, two detectors are in engine
core compartment

104 Where is the location of and engine and APU fire protection control module and
compartment overhead detection control module?
A Engine and APU fire protection control module on E2 rack
in E/E compartment
B Compartment overheat detection control module on E3 rack in E/E
Compartment
C The compartment overheat detection control module are on E1 rack in
E/E compartment
D A and C true *
105 What is the indication when the smoke is detected in the cargo compartment
A Red cargo smoke light on P8 illuminated

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B Fire warning light on P7 illuminated
C Bell (aural warning) sound
D As mentioned A,B and C *

106 What is right concerning the cargo fire protection system?

A Every aircraft has two fire extinguisher bottles
B The smoke detectors are six in the forward cargo and six in aft cargo
C The CEU s are (in the forward and aft cargo compartments) *
D The fire extinguisher bottle is in the aft cargo compartment

107 For EEC operation

A Channel A for the first leg and the channel B for the next leg
B The healthiest channel operated *
C Channel A and B operated together
D Channel A operate when EEC switch ON and channel B operated when
EEC switch ALTN

108 What is meant by SOLF ALTERNATE on EEC?

A The EEC operates at the corner temperature
B The EEC fails
C The EEC switch selected to ALTN manual
D The PT signal failure that makes EEC operates at the frozen DTSTD *

109 In the FMU, following EHSV (servo valve) are controlled by the EEC except
A HP fuel shut off valve *
B Fuel metering valve
C LPTACC / HPTACC / TBV servo valves
D VBV / VSV servo valve

110 What the correct about HP fuel shut off valve in HMU?
A The valve is normally close
B The solenoid is energized when the start lever CUT OFF
C The valve is closed when the FMV closed
D A, B and C are true *

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111 What the function of the governor in the HMU?

A To regulate fuel flow when the engine loaded
B To regulate the pressure drop upon the HMU
C To normally protect the engine over speeding
D As back up for engine speeding *

112 During engine starting

A The starter valve open just due to the selection of the engine start switch
to GRD
B The ignition triggered due to the EEC operation
C The APU air system moves to MES mode
D All of answers are true *

113 At a certain RPM the EEC will provide engine shut down protection for the
following conditions during engine starting, except:
A Wet start
B Warm start *
C Hot start
D Roll back over temperature
114 During engine start the starter and ignition will automatically cut off
due to the operation of switch located in the :
A starter motor
B DEU *
C EEC
D A, B and C are correct

115 What are correct concerning the VBV system?

A There are 12 valves connected each other using actuation ring
B There are 2 actuators
C VBV is open at low RPM and closed at high RPM
D A, B and C are correct *
116 What is the function of VBV system?
A To bleed air from the 5th stage HP compressor

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B To prevent stall at the rear stage of HP compressor at low RPM *
C To prevent stall at the front stage of HP compressor at low RPM
D A , B and C are correct

117 In dimension, Boeing B737-600/700/800 different from B737-300/400/500 as

follow:
A B737-300 is longer than B737-600
B B737-400 is longer than B737-700
C B737-500 is longer than B737 -800
D Answer A and B are correct *

118 For lifting and shoring the aircraft has the following facilities:
A Main jack points on wing and tail section
B Main jack points on wing and forward fuselage
C Plumb bob and leveling scale in right hand wheel well
D As mentioned A and C *

119 For towing, what does different between the B737 NG and B737 CLASSIC?
A Landing gear pins
B Towing lever safety pin and tow bar cross bolt
C Parking brake light on external power panel
D All of the answers are true *

120 How is the rack arrangement in the electronic equipment compartment?

A E1 in front of the access door
B E2, E3, E4 behind the access the door
C E5 on the right hand side of the access door
D As mentioned A, B and C *

121 Which one is correct concerning the aircraft zoning?

A Major zone 100 for upper fuselage and 200 for lower fuselage
B Major zone 700 for landing gear and 800 for doors *
C Major zone 200 for includes nose landing gear and 300 / 400 includes
Main landing gears

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D A , B and C are correct

122 The fuselage on B737 NG is structurally divided into sections as follows:

A Section 41, section 43, section 44, section 46, section 47, section 48 *
B Section 41, section 43, section 46, section 48
C Section 41, section 43, section 44, section 46, section 48
D Section 41, section 43, section 46, section 47, section 48

123 Where is the location of the crew oxygen bottle?

A E/E compartment *
B Forward cargo compartment
C Flight compartment
D Lower nose compartment

124 The passenger oxygen system is chemical type drop out system which will
deploy as follow :
A Automatically when cabin altitude 14 000 feet or manually selected
From P5 *
B Automatically when aircraft altitude 14 000 feet or manually selected
From P5
C Automatically when cabin altitude 14 000 feet
D Manually selected from P5

125 Which of the following statement s does not match with the over wing emergency
exit on B737 NG ?
A It is plug type inward opening door *
B It is opened outward due to the counter balance assembly
C It is two hinges and two latches
D It is the solenoid for flight lock system

126 What makes the flight lock solenoid on the over wing emergency exit energized
locked?
A Three or more entry and galley service doors are closed and locked
B Either engine is running

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C The aircraft on ground with both TLA > 53% or the aircraft in air mode
D All of answers are correct *

127 What condition makes the over wing emergency exit caution light illuminates
(amber on P5)?
A The door is closed
B The door flight lock is unlocked when the aircraft ready for take off
C The aircraft on the ground
D A and B are true *

128 What are the outputs of the airplane portable water system?
A Galley supply water, lavatory compartment wash water, toilet bowl
rinse water *
B Galley supply water and lavatory compartment wash water
C Toilet bowl rinse water
D Toilet bowl flush water

129 How is pressurization for the portable water tank?

A Air compressor start working when the tank pressure <30 PSI and stops
when the tank pressure > 40 PSI
B The air pressure is normally from the pneumatic manifold
C The compressor pressure is 60 PSI
D As mentioned A and B *

130 Where is the location of vacuum waste tank?

A Aft cargo left hand side *
B Aft cargo right hand side
C Tail compartment
D Forward cargo

131 For toilet flush operation (flushing switch in pushed) the vacuum blower will
operate for following conditions , except :
A The tank drain ball valve closed
B Aircraft altitude 17 000 feet *

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C Waste tank is not full
D Aircraft altitude 10 000 feet

132 Following are concerning the toilet flush operation, except:

A Vacuum blower operated for 15 second
B Rinse water supplies about 8 kg s *
C Rinse water flows for 0.7 second
D Flush valve open for 4 second

133 Which statement is correct?

A The toilet flush control unit (FCU) is located below the toilet bowl
B Logic control module (LCM) is located near the vacuum water tank
C The vacuum blower is located near the toilet bowl
D A and B are correct *

134 What are correct concerning portable water tank and water tank quantity
Indicator?
A Water tank quantity indicators are on aft attendant panel and water service
panel
B Waste tank quantity indicators are on aft attendant panel and toilet service
panel
C Above aft galley service door and water service panel
D A and B are true *

135 The power source of the electrical system on B737 NG are:

A 3 identical IDG s and external power
B 2 identical IDG s and 1 APU starter generator and external power
C The IDG and starter generator capacity is not same
D The answer B and C are correct *

136 The wire routing from the IDG goes to

A PDP 1 for IDG 1 and PDP 2 for IDG 2 *
B APU feeder also goes to PDP 1 and PDP 2
C External power feeder also goes to PDP

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D All of answers are correct

137 The electrical power control computer system is:

A The IDG controlled by the GCU
B The APU generator is controlled by AGCU which is not interchangeable
with GCU
C The external power is controlled by BPCU and GCU
D All the answers are correct *

138 Which the computer is not located PDP / E/E compartment?

A GCU and AGCU
B GCU and BPCU
C SPCU *
D SPCU and TR

139 When the forward attendant panel ground switch is pushed in?
A The external power supplies the G/S bus *
B The APU supply the ground service bus
C The IDG supply the G/S bus
D All answers are correct

140 The Ground Service Bus:

A The G/S bus is only one and it is supplied from bus 1
B The G/S buses are 2 buses G/S bus 1 and G/S bus 2 *
C The G/S bus is effective on ground only and off in flight
D Answers B and C are correct

141 The main electrical power bus in the aircraft is:

A AC XFR bus *
B Main bus
C Galley bus
D Ground service bus

142 How can the electrical transfer occur?

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A Single source electrical power: IDG, EXT or APU only
B The transfer is done by BPCU
C The transfer is completed when both BTB s are closed
D All of the answers are correct *

143 When is IDG automatically supplying the transfer bus?

A Aircraft in flight *
B The electrical load is only APU
C The IDG automatic take over as soon as the APU generator switch selected
to OFF
D All of answers are correct

144 The auxiliary battery charger is connected to:

A AC XFR bus 1
B AC XFR bus 2
C AC G/S bus 1 *
D AC G/S bus 2

145 The electrical auto load shedding is part of:

A Overload is sensed by GCU and load shedding is commanded by BPCU *
B Overload is sensed by BPCU and load shedding is commanded by GCU
C Overload is sensed by BPCU and load shedding is commanded by BPCU
D Overload is sensed by GCU and load shedding is commanded by GCU

146 How is electrical system for APU starting?

A Main battery only in case no power electrical power
B AC XFR bus 1 in case AC electrical power available
C The starting method is using the SPU and SCU
D All of answers are correct *

147 It is possible to start the APU using the battery charger if:
A Forward attendant panel AC ground service bus switch is ON
B External power is OK
C Main Battery is installed and battery switch is ON

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D All of the answers are correct *

148 Which computer manager the DC system (DC standby system and battery
system)?
A The SPCU which is located close to the TRU
B SPCU and BPCU
C GCU and SPCU
D SPCU which is located behind copilot *

149 GRD POWER AVAIL light illuminates and NOT IN USE light extinguishes
means
A The external power is connected and not OK
B The external power is not OK and no one switch is active
C The external power OK and no one switch is active *
D External power OK and 1 of GRD PWR, G/S or refuel door open

150 When will the ELEC and STBY POWER light on P5 panel illuminate
A One of the transfer bus is dead
B The battery charger fails
C Aircraft in flight or on ground and electrical standby bus fail
D Aircraft on ground and electrical standby bus fail *

151 The TRU light on P5 panel illuminates while the aircraft on ground, means :
A One of the TRU fails *
B All TRU s fail
C TRU 1 fails
D TRU 2 and TRU 3 fail

152 The function of MAINT switch on P5 panel is:

A To stimulate the function of the GCU
B To stimulate the function of the BPCU
C To stimulate the function of GCU, BPCU and SPCU
D To stimulate the function of the standby power and manage by SPCU *

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153 The landing light of the aircraft:

A Consist of fix and extend landing light
B no moveable landing light anymore
C Switch is located on P5 panel
D All of the answers are correct *

154 Where is the location of the aircraft logo light?

A Fuselage aft side
B Wing
C Stabilizer *
D Nose landing gear

155 With the isolation valve switch in AUTO, both engine bleed switches ON and
both air conditioning pack switches selected to AUTO and HIGH
A The isolation valve will be open
B The isolation valve will be open when the flaps are extended
C The isolation valve will be closed *
D The isolation valve will be closed when the flaps are extended

156 An engine BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates

A Only if the engine bleed air pressure exceeds a predetermined limit
B Only if the engine bleed air temperature exceeds a predetermined limit
C When engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined
limit *
D When engine bleed air temperature and pressure exceed a predetermined

157 The pneumatic duct pressure gauge

A Is AC powered
B Is DC powered
C Indicates pressure available for engine anti icing
D Indicates pressure in left and right pneumatic ducts *

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158 What initial action is required in the event of a WING BODY OVERHEAT light
is illuminating?
A Switch OFF the associated engine bleed
B Open the isolation valve and switch OFF the associated engine bleed
C Close the isolation valve and switch OFF the associated engine bleed *
D Close the isolation valve and switch OFF the associated AC pack

159 The window heat switches must be:

A ON to make a PWR or OVHT test *
B OFF when making an OVHT test only
C OFF to make PWR and OVHT test only
D OFF while on the ground

160 How is the fuel tank configuration of B737-600/700/800?

A Main tank no 1 extends from rib no 5 to rib no 22 in left wing
B Main tank no 2 extends from rib no 5 to rib no 22 in right wing
C Center tank extends from rib 5 I left wing to rib 5 in right wing
D As mentioned A, B and C *

161 During flight with all boost pumps operates, the residual fuel in center tank is
transfer to tank no 1
A When both center tank pumps switches are selected OFF *
B When both center tank pumps switches are selected ON
C When fuel quantity in tank no 1 below 2000 kg s
D All the time

162 Where the location of the FQPU?

A Lower nose wheel compartment *
B E/E compartment
C Forward cargo
D Flight compartment

163 What messages can we have on the fuel quantity indicators?

A CONFIG message on center tank indicator when main tank fuel is

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Consumed firstly
B LOW message on main tank indicator when fuel below 2000 lbs
C IMBAL message for any fuel quantity difference in main tanks
D A, B and C are true *

164 The physical feature of the APU installed on B737-600/700/800 is as follows:

A Air inlet section giving the air inlet to combustion compressor and
load compressor
B The combustion section consist of centrifugal flow compressor annular
combustion chamber and axial flow turbine
C The load compressor and the accessory gearbox
D As mentioned A, B and C *

165 Where is the location of the ECU (APU)?

A Forward cargo
B Aft cargo *
C E/E compartment
D APU compartment

166 In the fuel control unit, what are operated by the ECU (APU)?
A Fuel metering unit
B fuel shut off valve
C Fuel pump
D A and B are correct *

167 What is the output of the FCU (APU)?

A Combustion fuel metered by FMV and Servo fuel to operated IGV and
SCV *
B Combustion fuel metered by FMC and Servo fuel to operated IGV
C Combustion fuel metered by FMC and Servo fuel to operated SCV
D Combustion fuel metered by FMC and Servo fuel to operated IGV,
SCV and Bleed air valve

168 Following take place during APU starting (APU switch is selected to START and

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ON) except:
A Fuel shut off valve and air intake door open
B Ignition operated from 0% until 60% rpm
C HP fuel shut off valve open at 7% rpm
D Starter generator operates before ignition starts *

169 What gives the starter generator with the 270 VAC power?
A APU generator control unit
B Starter power unit
C Starter converter unit *
D Starter generator it’s self

170 Where the location of the SPU and SCU?

A E1 rack in E/E compartment
B E2 rack in E/E compartment *
C E3 rack in E/E compartment
D E6 rack in E/E compartment

171 The power to operate the APU starter priority comes from:
A 115 VAC transfer bus 1 *
B Main battery
C Together, the 115 VAC bus 1 and main battery
D Auxiliary battery

172 The shut down protection for the APU is accompanied by the illumination of
A MAINT, LOW IOL PRESS, FAULT or OVERSPEED lights
B LOW OIL PRESS, FAULT or OVERSPEED lights *
C MAINT light
D FAULT or and OVERSPEED lights

173 The CFM56-7 has construction as follows:

A Fan and LP compressor assembly is driven by one stage LP turbine
B Nine stage HP compressor is drive by four stage HP turbines
C The combustion chamber is from annular type has 20 fuel nozzles

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D A, B and C are true *
174 When the engine is static, how can the EEC be powered?
A When the engine start switch is selected to GRD or CONT
B When the BITE is performed on CDU
C When the engine start lever is moved to IDLE
D As mentioned on A, B and C *

175 What EEC input come from the ADIRS?

A PT, PO, TAT *
B T12, T25, T30
C Ps12, Ps30
D A, B and C are correct

176 In what selection makes both ignition systems operate?

A Engine start switch to GRD, start lever IDLE, ignition switch BOTH
B Engine start switch to FLT, start lever IDLE, ignition switch LEFT
C Engine start switch to CONT, start lever IDLE, ignition switch RIGHT
D A and B are true *

177 During engine starting

A The starter valve open just due the selection of the engine start switch
to GRD
B The ignition triggered due to EEC operation
C The APU air system moves to MES mode
D All of the answers are true *

178 During thrust reverser operation, the full reverser power can be selected when:
A The REV light on upper center DU illuminated
B The reverser sleeves have been deployed below 60%
C The reverser sleeve have been fully deployed
D The reverser sleeve have been deployed more than 60% *

179 The thrust lever position is sensed by the EEC via:

A Thrust control cable

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B Thrust multi switch
C Thrust linear variable displacement transducer
D Thrust resolver *

180 Concerning the engine primary indicator normally:

A The N1 and EGT indicators are on the upper center DU
B The N2 and Fuel Flow indicators are on the lower center DU
C The Vibration monitor is on the upper center DU
D A and B are correct *

181 Following are about the engine indicating sensor except:

A The EGT sensors are in the second stage LPT nozzles
B The N2 sensor is on the accessory gearbox
C The Vibration sensors are on the compressor case and turbine case *
D The N1 sensor is on the engine fan case

182 What happens if the thrust reverser LVDT fails?

A No dispatch *
B No problem
C The EEC runs at corner point temperature setting
D Thrust reverser indication (amber) on P5 panel

183 What do you have for the thrust reverser indication system?
A LVDT to give thrust reverser position signal to EEC
B REV amber light on upper center DU for thrust reverser position between
10% to 90%
C REV green light on upper center DU for thrust reverser position above
90%
D All of the above answers are correct *

184 The signals needed by the EEC from the oil system are:
A Oil quantity, Oil temperature and Oil pressure
B Oil quantity, Oil temperature and Oil debris as optional
C Oil quantity, Oil temperature, Oil pressure and Oil debris as optional

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D Oil temperature, Oil pressure and Oil debris as optional *
185 The illumination of the oil filter bypass amber light on the upper center DU
indicates :
A Oil supply filter bypass valve open
B Oil scavenge filter bypass valve open
C Oil supply filter blocked
D Oil scavenge filter blocked *

186 Where are the normal primary jacking points located ?

A In the tail section and under the wings *
B Below the nose and The main landing gear legs
C Left side of the nose section
187 Which the purpose have the CTC (Cabin Temperature Controller)?
A It controls the temperature on the flight deck and in the passenger cabin *
B It controls FCSOV s flow modes and provides pack protection
C It controls cabin temperature and protects the packs

188 Which the aircraft air data is used by the CPC s (Cabin Pressure Controller)?
A Alternate/standby static sources
B Air data from both ADIRU s *
C Only local CPC sensors

189 Which of the following can be controlled by an FCC?

A Aileron, Rudder and Mach Trim actuators
B Aileron, Elevator and Rudder Autopilot actuators
C Aileron, Elevator, Stab Trim and Mach Trim actuators *

190 Which condition will cause a steady red A/P light on the auto flight status
annunciator ASA?
A The DFCS is in BITE *
B The autopilot has reverted to CWS
C That the autopilot has been disconnected

191 Which LRU is faulty if the SPD LIM warning appears on the captains PFD?

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A The FCC A
B The SMYD 1 *
C The A/T computer

192 What A/T modes are possible to select from the Mode Control Panel (MCP)?
A LVL CHG and N1
B N1 and V NAV
C N1 and SPEED *

193 From where does the auto throttle computer get the TRA information?
A Directly from auto servo motor
B Directly from the Primary FMC
C Directly from the EEC *

194 What the controlling the 6 dB gain increase function of the Passenger Address
amplifier?
A Air/ground relays
B Engine running relays *
C Engine oil pressure switch

195 What is correct concerning the ELT?

A The ELT transmits on 3 different frequencies *
B The ELT cannot start transmitting automatically
C When the ELT is transmitting, there are not caution on the flight deck

196 Which LRU is in change of controlling the quality of the External Power?
A The GCU s
B The BPCU *
C The SPCU

197 What is correct about the IDG?

A There is no pop out on any filter
B An automatic disconnect occur at high oil temp *
C There is only one cooling device/heater exchanger for the IDG oil

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198 Both engine generators were on their respective transfer busses, when the no 1
generator was tripped. Which of the light on P5 will then illuminate?
A No 1 SOURCE OFF *
B No 1 TRANSFER BUS
C No 2 TRANSFER BUS

199 What does the TR UNIT light on P5 panel indicate?

A Any TRU failed on ground *
B The TRU 2 only failed in flight
C The Standby Inverter failed in flight

200 Which bus is always powering The Main Battery Charger?

A The Transfer Bus 2
B The AC Standby Bus
C The Ground Service Bus 2 *

201 What will cause The ELEC light on P5 to illuminate?

A The SPCU has a failure *
B The AC Main system has a failure
C The APU generator system has a failure

202 The External Power is connected and ON and the battery switch in ON. Where is
battery bus normally supplied from?
A TRU 2
B TRU 3 *
C The Main Battery

203 Which light will illuminate to indicate a battery bus has failed?
A Standby Power Off light *
B Source Off light
C TR UNIT

204 Which detector types are used for engine and APU fire detection?

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A Pressure responding loops *
B Continuous thermistor loops
C Pressure responding loops for the engine and thermistor loops for the APU

205 Which aircraft part are monitor by the Compartment Overheat Control Module?
A The main wheel well only
B Pneumatic ducts and the main wheel well *
C The cargo compartments and main wheel well

206 What control surfaces have balance tabs?

A Aileron and rudder
B Rudder and elevators
C Elevators and ailerons *

207 Trailing edge flaps can be operated by :

A Hydraulic pressure from system A or B
B Hydraulic pressure from system A or electrically
C Hydraulic pressure from system B or electrically *

208 How is the fuel quantity computed?

A By the DEU s
B By the FMCS
C By the FQPU *

209 The pressure pumps in system A are?

A Two engine driven pumps
B Two electrical motor driven pumps
C One engine driven pump and one electrical motor drive pump *

210 The PTU can pressure the following components:

A Standby Rudder
B Both thrust reversers
C Leading edge devices *

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211 Which aircraft area uses hot bleed air for anti icing?
A The engine air inlets only (CTAI)
B The engine air inlets (CTAI) and the TAT sensor
C Wing leading edges (WTAI) and the engine air inlets (CTAI) *

212 What is the purpose with the window heat control units (WHCU)?
A The control heating of windshields and the side windows *
B The control heating of windshield only
C The control heating side windows only

213 How many DEU s and Coax Couplers are installed in the CDS system?
A 2 DEU s and four Coax couplers *
B One DEU and two Coax couplers
C Two DEU and two Coax couplers

214 How can you determine that the DEU 1 has failed when the CDS FAULT is show
on the PFD?
A Hydraulic A pressure indication is missing
B CDS FAULT appears only on the on side PFD
C The captain PFD, ND and Upper Center Display are blank *

215 Where is the FDAU (Flight Data Acquisition Unit) BITE data shown?
A In a MCDU bite test
B On the FDAU front panel *
C Only visible for shop maintenance

216 What can cause the FDR (Flight Data Recorder) to turn on automatically?
A The engine oil pressure switches
B The engine running relays *
C The engine start switch

217 How do you test the Aural Warning Module?

A By use of the CDU
B By use of a screwdriver *

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C By a six push button front BITE
218 GMT time output from captain clock is supplied via an ARINC 429 data bus to
the:
A FMC 2 (flight management computer)
B Both DEU s (display electronic unit) and the Voice Recorder
C FDAU (flight data acquisition unit), FMC 1 and the Voice Recorder *

219 Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the nose wheel steering system,
during alternate operation?
A Hydraulic system A
B Hydraulic system B *
C The power transfer unit (PTU)

220 How many Emergency Exit Light Power Packs are on a B737-600?
A 6
B 7*
C 8

221 Where are the Logo Light located on a B737-600?

A In the wing tips
B In the Vertical Stabilizer
C In the Horizontal Stabilizer *

222 Which statement is correct concerning the pitot/static system on B737-600?

A There are 4 Pitot probes and 6 Static ports
B There are 1 auxiliary Pitot probe and 2 alternate Static port drains
C There are 3 Pitot probes and 6 Static ports and 4 Air Data Module *

223 Which system is connected to the Standby Altimeter/Airspeed Indicator?

A The alternate static pressure line
B The captain’s static pressure line
C The alternate static system via an ADM *

224 Which statement is correct concerning the ADM s?

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A They correct and boost the air pressure signal
B They are used for alternate/auxiliary Pitot Static
C They sense air pressure and converts measured value into ARINC 429
data *

225 What happen if the AOA input to an ADIRU is lost?

A Nothing, the AOA is used by the ADIRU
B The ADIRU will use AOA data from off side sensor
C The ALT flag comes on for the altimeter on on-side PFD *

226 What happen if the ADIRU s are forced to operate DC power:

A The right ADIRU will loose power after 5 minutes *
B Both ADIRU s shut down, the left after a 5 minutes delay
C Both ADIRU s will continue operating as long as battery power is 18 volt
or higher

227 What sensors can the FMC use to calculate Present Position?
A GPS, DME, VOR *
B GPS, DME and ADF
C GPS, DME, VOR, RA and ADIRU

228 Which statement about VOR is correct?

A The receivers can be auto tuned by the manual FMC
B VOR course is selected on on-side EFIS control panel
C Station ident (code) (ARL/FBU/KAS) shows on the ND if valid ident
signal received *

229 Where is the Marker Beacon system information is displayed?

A In the upper left corner of the ND
B On the P5 overhead panel by 3 lights
C In the upper right corner of the ADI on the PFD *

230 ILS uses inputs from different antennas. What is correct?

A The dual localizer antenna is always used

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B The dual Localizer antenna is used if an FCC is in APP or LOC mode *
C The systems use their dual Localizer and dual Glide Slope antennas only

231 Where is the Radio Altitude number 1 shown?

A On the left PFD only
B On the left and right PFD s *
C On the left ND, when below 2500 feet

232 Which of the engine pneumatic controls components interfaces with the ACAU?
A The Bleed Air Regulator (BAR) for the PRSOV (engine bleed valve) *
B The PRSOV and the high state valve (HSV)
C Only the high state valve (HSV)

233 Air pressure for water tank pressurization comes from:

A Only the pneumatic system
B A dedicated water tank air compressor
C Pneumatic system or an air compressor *

234 The vacuum blower will operate when the flush switch flush is pressed, ball valve
closed, tank not full and:
A Only when the airplane on the ground
B The barometric switch senses airplane above 16 000 feet
C The barometric switch senses airplane below 16 000 feet *

235 Which APU components use servo fuel as muscle pressure?

A IGV actuator and Surge Control Valve (SCV) *
B APU bleed air valve and exhaust nozzle deflector
C APU inlet door actuator and the eductor control valve

236 What is correct concerning an illuminated blue APU MAINT light?

A That the APU needs to be serviced with oil *
B That the APU ECU has maintenance faults logged in memory
C That the APU has performed a protective shutdown due to low oil pressure

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237 Which aircraft control box monitors the door warning proximity sensors?
A The aural warning module
B The DEU s
C The PSEU *

238 How is the Thrust Resolver Angle (TRA) transmitted to EEC?

A Directly as analog signals *
B Via the FMCS by an ARINC 429 signal
C By a digital signal through the two DEU s

239 Which component controls the P5 REVERSER fault light?

A The EEC when it is powered
B The engine accessory unit (EAU) *
C LVDT on the upper hydraulic actuator

240 At what RPM will start valve start to close?

A At 56% N2 *
B When the engine is running at stabilized idle
C At 56% N2 or if the EEC detects an abnormal start

241 Which component supplies the ground to keep the engine start switch in the GRD
position until starter cutout?
A The EEC
B The DEU *
C The start switch

242 The maximum speed with the MACH TRIM system inoperative is?
A 250 / 0.74 M *
B 280 / 0.82 M
C 280 / 0.80 M

243 The recommended turbulent penetration airspeed is?

A 280 Kt s / 0.76 M *
B 280 Kt s / 0.72 M

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C 280 Kt s / 0.78 M
244 The maximum landing weight of the B737-700 is:
A 58.059 Kg *
B 54.657 Kg
C 51.709 Kg

244 The maximum differential pressure is :

A 7.8 PSI
B 9.1 PSI *
C 8.35 PSI

245 The Allied signal 131 APU maximum EGT indicator is :

A No limit *
B 760 deg C
C Indicated by a red line on the EGT indicator

246 The maximum aircraft altitude for electrical use of the Allied Signal 131 APU is :
A 37 000 feet
B 35 000 feet
C 41 000 feet *

247 The maximum N1 RPM is :

A 106%
B 105%
C Indicated by a red line on the DU / 104 % *

248 The minimum start pressure at 2 000 feet above sea level (prior to starter) :
A 39 PSI
B 29 PSI
C No limit / 10 – 15 PSI *

249 The typical maximum fuel tank quantities are :

A 4 600 kg s in each wing tank, 7 000 kg s in the center tank
B 3 900 kg s in each wing tank, 16 200 kg s in the center tank

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C 3 900 kgs in each wing tang, 12 800 kgs in the center tank *
250 What is approximate minimum engine oil quantity (per engine) for dispatch?
A 12 US Quarts is 88% Full
B 12 US Quarts is 75% Full
C 12 US Quarts is 69% Full *

250 For an automatic landing the head and crosswind limits are :
A Headwind limit is 25 kts and crosswind limit is 15 kts
B Headwind limit is 25 kts and crosswind limit is 20 kts *
C Headwind limit is 20 kts and crosswind limit is 15 kts

251 The maximum demonstrated crosswind component for take off and landing is :
A 35 knots / 33 knots *
B 36 knots
C 25 knots

252 The Allied Signal APU is rated at :

A 90 KVA up to FL310 and 66 KVA above FL310 *
B 80 KVA up to FL310 and 45 KVA above FL310
C 90 KVA up to FL310 and 55 KVA above FL310

253 If the malfunction exists causing an automatic shutdown of the APU and the APU
switch is placed to OFF :
A The FAULT light extinguished after 5 minutes *
B The FAULT light remain on
C The FAULT light extinguishes

254 Which of these statements is true :

A The start lever controls the spar fuel shut off valve and is power from the
hot battery bus *
B The start lever controls the spar fuel shut off valve and is powered from
the battery bus
C The start lever control the engine fuel shut off valve and is powered from
the battery

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255 The fuel LOW indication :

A Is amber and illuminates when any main tank contains less then 907 Kgs *
B Is amber and illuminates when the related main tank contains less then 907
Kg s *
C Is amber and illuminates when the related main tank contains less then
1134 Kg s

256 The fuel IMBAL indication :

A Illuminates if the main tanks differ by more than 453 kg s and will
continue to display until the cross feed valve is opened
B Illuminates if the main tanks differ by more than 453 kg s and will
continue to display until imbalance is reduced to 91 kg s *
C Illuminates if the main tanks differ by more than 453 kg s and will
continue to display until imbalance is reduced to 363 kg s

257 The fuel CONFIG indication illuminates if the center tank contains more than 726
kg s both center tank pumps are producing low or no pressure and the engine is
running :
A And will continue to display until center tank is less than 453 kg s. One
center tank pump is producing high pressure or both engines are not
running
B And will continue to display until center tank is less than 363 kgs . One
center tank pump is producing high pressure or both engines are not
running *
C And will continue to display until center tank is less then 91 kg s. One
center tank pump is producing high pressure or both engines are not
running

258 Center tank fuel :

A Is suction feed
B Is pressure feed *
C Is gravity feed

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259 The center tank scavenge jet pump:
A Is activated by a float switch *
B Is always active
C Is activated by the center tank pump switches

259 Pulling an engine fire switch :

A Closes both fuel valves *
B Closes the engine fuel valve
C Closes the spar fuel valve

260 The Display Control Panel annunciation is accompanied by :

A A V/S flag against the vertical speed tape
B An ALT flag against the altitude tape *
C A SPD flag against the tape

261 The hydraulic quantity RF annunciation displays when the hydraulic quantity as
less than
A 69%
B 88%
C 76% *

262 The overboard exhaust valve

A Is normal open in flight
B Is driven closed if either pack switches is in HIGH and the recirculation
fan is OFF
C Is driven open if either pack switches is in HIGH and the recirculation
valve is OFF *

263 The anti skid switch

A Is not fitted to the NG *
B Is guarded in the ON position
C Is switch OFF for a manual reversion landing

264 How many tire damage impact fitting are there :

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A Two (one each side of the wheel well) *
B One
C Four (two each side of each tire recess)

265 Landing auto brake setting may be selected :

A After touch down prior to 60 Knots
B After touch down prior to 90 Knots
C In flight only *

266 The EEC gives redline protection for

A N1, N2 and EGT *
B N1, N2 and 5 minutes limit
C N1 and N2

267 The EEC will close the engine fuel shut off valve and the energized the igniters
during an engine start it
A No increase the EGT within 15 second after the start lever is raised to
IDLE *
B EGT rapidly approaching the start limit
C No increase in or very slow increase in N1 or N2 after EGT indication

268 The starter valve open , low oil pressure and oil filter bypass lights
A Will blink for 10 seconds if condition occurs
B Illuminate steady *
C Will blink for 10 seconds if condition occurs during take off and landing

269 With t flap 15 selected and landing gear UP the landing gear warning horn cannot
be silenced with HORN CUTOUT switch it
A Either thrust lever is below 10 degrees or an engine not running and the
other thrust lever is less then 30 degrees
B Either thrust lever is below 20 degrees or an engine not running and the
other thrust lever is less then 34 degrees *
C Both thrust levers are below approx 30 degrees

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270 The proximity switch electronic unit (PSEU) light illuminates :
A It a fault is detected in the PSEU at any time *
B Is inhibited from thrust lever advance for take off unit 30 second after
landing
C If an over wing exit flight lock fails to disengage when commanded at any
time

271 EGPWS terrain display changes from dotted to solid yellow

A 30 – 60 second from impact *
B 20 – 30 second from impact
C 40 – 60 second from impact

272 The weather radar automatically begin scanning for wind shear when :
A In flight below 1200 ft RA
B In flight below 2500 ft RA
C In flight below 2300 ft RA *

273 With FMC U10 after TOGA is pressed for a go around , the CRZ page will show :
A The MCP altitude *
B The highest of 1500 ft or MCP altitude or the LEGS missed approach level
C The LEGS missed approach level

274 The flap limit speed for FLAP 30 is

A 165 K
B 185 K
C 175 K *

275 The flap limit speed for FLAP 1 is :

A 230 K
B 240 K
C 250 K *

276 The standby yaw damper is power :

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A From the standby hydraulic system, automatically when loss of system B
hydraulic pressure is detected
B From the standby hydraulic system, automatically when loss of system A
and B hydraulic pressure is detected
C From the standby hydraulic system, only when both FLT CONTROL
switches are positioned to STBY RUD *

277 The Flaps/Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU)

A Monitors flap load asymmetry, skew and over run on all T/E flaps and L/E
slats and flaps *
B Monitors flap load asymmetry, skew and over run on all T/E flaps and L/E
slats 2 and 7
C Monitors flap load asymmetry, skew and over run on all T/E flaps and L/E
slats

278 A leak in the system B hydraulic will also reduce the quantity in the B system
A To 20%
B To approx zero and is sufficient for PTU operation *
C To approx 11% and is sufficient for PTU operation

279 An IDG will auto disconnected due to

A Low oil pressure
B High oil temperature *
C Low oil quantity

280 A leak in the standby hydraulic system will also reduce the quantity in the B
system to
A 72% *
B 64%
C 20%

281 ELEC light means :

A A fault exists in DC power system or standby system and only operates on
the ground *

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B A fault exists in DC power system or standby power system
C A fault exists in DC power system, standby power system and only
operates in flight

182 The SOURCE OFF light indicates

A No source has been manually selected to power the related transfer bus
B No source has been manually selected to power the related transfer bus or
a source has been selected to power the opposite transfer bus
C No source has been manually selected to power the related transfer bus or
the manually selected source has been disconnected *

282 TR UNIT light in flight indicated :

A TR1 or TR2 and TR3 failed *
B Any TR has failed
C TR1 and TR2 or TR3 failed

283 The STANDBY POWER OFF light illuminates if there is no power to either:
A AC standby power or battery bus
B AC standby bus, DC standby bus or battery bus *
C AC standby bus, DC standby bus or any of the battery busses

284 The DFDR is failed :

A Aircraft may be go home
B Aircraft may no go item *
C A answer is correct as long as DFDAU is OK
D The C answer is correct and DFDAU status light must be check first

285 From where the ADIRS get the TAT input:

A Left TAT only *
B Left ADIRS from left TAT
C Right ADIRS from Right TAT
D Right TAT only

286 Standby altimeter and air speed indicator is get input from :

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A Left ADIRS
B Right ADIRS
C Auxiliary pitot and alternate static *
D In case of left ADIRS

287 Thermal air for wing anti-icing is obtained from:

A Bleed air ducted from the main air conditioning manifold
B Bleed air ducted from the main pneumatic manifold *
C 5th stage engine bleed air only
D 9th stage engine bleed air only

288 How the fuel tank configuration on B737-600/700/800?

A Main tank no 1 extends from rib no 5 to rib no 22 in left wing
B Main tank no 2 extends from rib no 5 to rib no 22 in left wing
C Center tank extends from rib no 5 in left wing to rib no 5 in right wing
D As mention on A,B and C *

289 The electrical power used for fueling valve operation comes from :
A Switched hot battery or external power
B External power or AC standby bus
C Hot battery bus *
D Hot battery bus or External power

290 For EEC operation :

A Channel A for the first leg and channel B for the next leg
B The healthiest channel operated *
C Channel A and B always operate together
D Channel A operates when EEC switch ON and channel B operates when
EEC switch ALT

291 In what selection makes both ignition systems operate ?

A Engine start switch to GRD, start lever IDLE, ignition switch BOTH *
B Engine start switch to FLT, start lever IDLE, ignition switch LEFT
C Engine start switch to CONT, start lever IDLE, ignition switch RIGHT

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D A and B are true

292 During thrust reverser operation , the full reverser power can be selected when :
A The REV light on upper center DU illuminated
B The reverser sleeves have been deployed below 60%
C The reverser sleeves have been fully deployed
D The reverser sleeves have been deployed more than 60% *

293 The signals needed by the EEC from the oil system are :
A Oil quantity, oil temperature and oil pressure
B Oil quantity, oil temperature and oil debris as optimal
C Oil quantity, oil temperature, oil pressure and oil debris as optional
D Oil temperature, oil pressure and oil debris as optional *

294 The illumination of the oil filter bypass amber light on upper center DU indicates:
A Oil supply filter bypass valve open
B Oil scavenge filter bypass valve open
C Oil supply filter blockage
D Oil scavenge filter blockage *

294 The ADF indicator is always horizontal :

A ADF receiver is weak
B ADF receiver is fail
C ADF system is selected ANT mode *
D All answers are correct

295 The ADIRS no 1 is fail :

A Please select to both on 2
B Please select ATC alt mode 2
C A and B answers are correct *
D It’s normal

296 During flight radio altimeter no 2 is fail :

A Please select DEU switch to both on 1

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B Auto pilot automatically disconnect
C EGPWS is normal
D All answers are correct *

297 The autopilot is engage and no one mode is already selected :

A The autopilot is CWS mode
B The autopilot is maintain altitude
C A and B answers are correct
D C answer is correct and command bar is out of view *

298 What is the function of intervention switch mode :

A To change the alt or speed mode
B Its possible when autopilot is in V nav mode
C A and B are correct and aircraft heading will be change *
D C answer is correct and aircraft heading will be change

299 The power of ACP and REU is coming from :

A Battery bus is the last power *
B Hot battery bus
C DC bus 1
D DC bus 2 in case of BATT bus fail

230 Where is the location of SELCAL control panel?

A It is separate control panel
B It is part of ACP
C The light is illuminate when the alert is coming
D B and C are correct *

231 The voice recorder will active when :

A The engine running automatic trip to auto mode when the switch is already
ON
B Manually auto on switch select to ON
C A and B are correct and stop when engine stop > 5 minutes *
D Always active the electrical power ON

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232 The DEU no 2 is fail :

A The indication is normal (auto transfer)
B The hydraulic press no 2 is lost
C B is correct when system / engine switch secondary engine display select
to system *
D All answers are correct

233 To determine the FMC position :

A The VOR auto tone to DME based on NDB
B The GPS is also connected to check the position
C A and B are correct *
D FMC is calculate the VOR bearing deviation

234 Which system is depend on ADIRS input :

A CDS, FCC, EGPWS, Weather, RADAR *
B Auto throttle, FMC
C ATC, VHF NAV, COMPASS system
D All answers are correct

235 Where is the location of ILS receiver :

A In the VHF NAV receiver
B In the DME interrogator
C It’s located in the MMR receiver *
D It’s the special ILS receiver

236 The Boeing 600/700/800 series are designated for following specification :
A It is designated as short medium flight range aircraft
B The fuselage contraction is semi monoque that having low wing
monoplane cantilever wing and horstab
C It has tricycle landing gear
D All above are correct *

237 Among B737 classic and B737 NG which one is longest :

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A B737-400 *
B B737-500
C B737-600
B B737-700

238 What is the max effective steering / towing angle :

A 78 plus 3 deg
B 75 deg
C 78 deg *
D 3 deg

239 The latching system on the over wing emergency exit will be locked for
the following condition :
A Three or more the entry and galley service door are closed and locked
B Either engine running
C On ground both TLA > 53% or aircraft in the air
D All answers are correct *

240 The over wing emergency exit caution light will illuminate ( amber on P5 )as
follow :
A The door is not closed / latched
B The flight lock is unlocked when the aircraft ready for take off
C The aircraft on ground
D A and B are correct *

241 Where you can find the potable water tank quantity indicator :
A Aft attendant panel and water service panel *
B Aft attendant panel
C Water service panel
D On the water tank

242 For the vacuum flush operation ( flush switch push ) the vacuum blower will
operate as follow :
A Vacuum blower operate for 15 second

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B Rinse water supply about 8 ons
C Flush valve open 4 second
D All above correct *

243 Wiring route the IDG goes to :

A IDG 1to PDP 1 and IDG 2 to PDP 2
B APU GEN to PDP 1 and PDP 2
C Ext power to PDP 1 and PDP 2
D All above are correct *

244 The alternate brake selector valve is operate with :

A Hyd pressure from system A and B *
B Solenoid valve
C The brake pedal
D Hyd pressure from standby system

245 The CDU computer no 1 normally :

A Connected to primary engine display *
B Connected to secondary engine display
C Connected to system display
D All are correct

246 Where are the normal primary jacking points located?

A In the tail section and under the wings *
B Below the nose and the main landing gear legs
C Left side of the nose section and at the tail section

247 Which purposes have the CTC (Cabin Temperature Controller)?

A It controls the temperature on the flight deck and the passenger cabin *
B It controls FCSOV s flow modes and provides pack protection
C It controls cabin temperature and protects the packs

248 Which aircraft data is used by the CPC (Cabin Pressure Controllers)?
A Alternate / standby static source

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B Air data from both ADIRS s *
C Only local CPC sensors

249 What does the speed trim function control :

A The elevator autopilot actuator
B The stabilizer electric actuator *
C The main rudder PCU

250 Electric power to start the APU comes from :

A The main battery only if no AC power is available *
B The main battery only
C The no 1 transfer bus

251 The TR 3 cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to :
A Prevent a single bus failure from effecting both navigation receiver and
Flight Control Computer (FCC s) *
B Provide more power to the AC Standby Bus
C Ensure that the Standby DC is power

252 In flight , if the APU is supplying both AC Transfer busses , positioning the BUS
TRANS switch to OFF will :
A Cause AC Transfer Bus no 1 to loose power
B Cause AC Transfer Bus no 2 to loose power *
C Cause both AC Transfer Busses TO loose power
D Not cause either AC Transfer Bus to fail

253 The TR 3 disconnect relay :

A Must be manually opened using the Bus Transfer Switch during a Flight
Director approach
B Normally powers the Battery Charger and back up TR units 1 and 2
through a diode
C Automatically opens at glide slope capture during a Flight Director or
Autopilot ILS approach *

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D Will trip off when AC volts reach 26 volts (+ or – 4 volts) as displayed on
the AC Voltmeter
254 The Engine Drive Generators (IDG s):
A Are use in conjunction with separate generator drive unit (CSD)
B Adjust varying generator speeds to maintain a constant frequency
through-out the normal range of operation
C Allow the generator to maintain a constant speed throughout the normal
range of operation *
D Operate whenever the engine is operating and cannot be completely
isolated from their associated generator

254 After the loss of all generator , a fully charged battery can furnish power to the
STANDBY Bus equipment for a minimum of :
A 20 minutes
B 30 minutes (30 min from main battery and 30 min from aux battery) *
C 60 minutes
D 90 minutes

255 Illumination of the GND POWER AVAIL light indicate :

A Ground power is connected and meets airplane power quality standards *
B Ground power is connected however no airplane power quality is measure
C The Ground Service Bus is powered by a ground power supply
D The External Power Bus is powered by a ground power supply

256 The 115V AC Standby Bus is powered by :

A The 115 V Transfer Bus no 1 under normal condition
B The Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal condition
C The Battery through the Static Inverter with a failure of both engine driven
generators
D The first and the third statements are correct *

257 One basic principle of operation for the B737 electrical system is :
A All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby
Power System

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B There is no paralleling of the AC power sources *
C The is no paralleling of any power source
D An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source

258 The SOURCE OFF light illuminate :

A When the source selected to power the transfer bus has failed and the
automatic bus transfer function has closed the BTB s to power the transfer
bus from another source
B When the source selected to power the Transfer Bus and the automatic
transfer function have both failed resulting in the transfer bus being un
powered
C When the TRANSFER BUS OFF light illuminate
D All of the above *

259 When the STANDBY POWER switch is OFF :

A The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be illuminated *
B Automatic switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate
power source
C The STANDBY PWR OFF light will extinguished
D The Static Inverter provides 28V DC power to Transfer Bus no 1

260 Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates :

A The battery is being over charged
B Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch is ON *
C The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch is ON
D The battery bus is not powered

261 Illumination of the GEN BUS OFF light indicates :

A The associated generator bus is not powered
B The associated transfer bus is not powered
C The IDG is not supplying power to its associated transfer bus *
D The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus

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262 The crew fails properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the APU
powering both Transfer busses (Select the in correct statement)
A One transfer bus will disconnect automatically after lift off
B During climb, the galleys may be come inoperative
C Both Main busses may be come inoperative above 400 feet RA or after 12
sec from lift off *
D The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut
down or fail

263 During cruise, one engine driven generator drops off line. Indication that the crew
should see include :
A A TRANSFER BUS OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
B A SOURCE OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light *
C Illumination the fuel pump, probe heat, respective hydraulic pumps

powered by associated Transfer bus

D All of the above

264 Illumination of the DRIVE light indicates :

A IDG failure
B IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature
C IDG disconnected through the drive disconnect switch
D Any of the above *

265 Both AC Transfer busses cab be powered simultaneously by :

A A single IDG on the ground or in flight
B The APU generator while on the ground or in flight
C Both all the above *
D No single source can never both AC Transfer busses simultaneously

266 On the ground, with the battery switch OFF and STANDBY POWER switch in
AUTO, that Battery Bus is :
A Not powered *
B Powered by TR3

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C Powered by the Hot Battery Bus
D Powered by the Battery

267 The TR UNIT will illuminate in flight if :

A Any TR unit fail (on ground)
B TR1 fails or TR2 and TR3 fail *
C TR2 fails or TR1
D TR2 or TR3 fails

268 The ELECT light will illuminate in flight if:

A A fault exists in the AC or Standby power system
B A fault exists in the DC or Standby system
C A fault exists in the AC, DC or the Standby system
D The ELECT light only operates on the ground *

269 With external DC power connected to the external DC power receptacle :

A The APU can be started using DC external power *
B The battery is paralleled with the DC external power source
C All circuits normally powered by the battery are powered
D The is no external DC power receptacle

270 Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates:

A The AC Standby Bus is unpowered
B The DC Standby Bus is unpowered
C The Battery Bus is unpowered
D Any of the above *

271 With the STANDBY switch in the AUTO position , the loss of all engine or APU
electrical power results in the automatic on the normal power source to the
alternate source for standby power :
A In fight only
B On the ground only
C Either, in flight or the ground *
D Will not occur

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272 DC voltage and ampere may be read on the DC voltmeter ammeter for the battery
and each on the 3 TR s . The Standby power and battery bus displays only DC
voltage. Normal indication is:
A. 24 +/- 4 volts
B. 26 +/- 6 volts
C. 24 +/- 2 volts
D. 26 +/- 4 volts *

273 The DRIVE amber caution light comes on when:

A. Low oil pressure is sensed in the IDG
B. The IDG is disconnected automatically due to high oil pressure *
C. The IDG is disconnected manually with the drive disconnect switch
D. The engine is not running

274 DC busses power from battery following a loss of both generators are :
A. Battery busses, DC Standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus
B. DC Standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus and Switched Hot Battery Bus
C. Battery Bus, DC Standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus and Switched Hot Battery
Bus (even when the battery switch is OFF)
D. Battery Bus, DC Standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus and Switched Hot Battery
Bus. Switched Hot Battery Bus is powered whenever the battery switch is
ON *

275 In flight, two fuel pumps LOW PRESSURE light for the no 1 tank illuminate.
What happens to the no 1 engine?
A. It receives fuel from the no 2 tank automatically
B. It will shut down due to fuel starvation
C. It receives fuel from the no 1 tank through the fuel pump bypass valve *
D. It continues to operate using fuel through the center tank

276 Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because…
A. Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main
tank check valves

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B. Center tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than main
tank check valves
C. Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps *
D. Main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the Center tank LOW
PRESSURE lights illuminate and center tank pumps OFF

277 The Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve ….

A. Is controlled by both the Engine Fire Warning Switch and The Engine
Start Lever, however the spar fuel shutoff valve is controlled only by the
Engine Start Lever
B. Is the only fuel shutoff with an associated blue light on the forward
overhead fuel panel
C. And the fuel shutoff valve require AC power to operate
D. And the fuel shutoff valves closed whenever their respective Engine Fire
Warning switch is pulled or Engine Start lever is placed to CUTOFF *

278 The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when ….?
A. Both Center Tank Pump switches are turned OFF
B. The no 1 main fuel tank is about 2/3 full and the main tank no 1 forward
pump is operating *
C. The Center fuel tank is about ¾ full
D. Either engine is operating

279 The center tank scavenge jet pump transfer remaining fuel from the center tank at
a rate of approximately :
A. 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon altitude *
B. 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon speed
C. 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon weight
D. 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon temperature

280 There are CDS fuel alert for :

A. Fuel quantity low in the main tank, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive
fuel flow difference between engine

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B. Fuel quantity low in the main tank, both center tank fuel pumps producing
low or no pressure with fuel in the center tank, excessive fuel quantity
difference between main tanks *
C. Fuel quantity low in center or main tank, either center tank fuel pump
producing low or no pressure with fuel in center tank, excessive fuel flow
difference between engines
D. Any fuel pump producing low or no pressure with the pump switch ON,
impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel quantity difference between
main tanks

281 During cruise, both center tank fuel pumps have failed. You still have 320 kg (700
lbs) of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. The upper display unit
will show :
A. A LOW indication
B. A CONFIG indication
C. A pump LOW PRESSURE indication
D. None of above *

282 You have 2500 kg (5500 lbs) of fuel in the no 1 main tank and 3060 kg (6750 lbs)
of fuel in the no 2 main tank. You will see :
A. A LOW indication below main tank no 1 accompanied by a Master
Caution light and system annunciation for fuel
B. An IMBAL indication below main tank 1 accompanied by a Master
Caution light and system annunciation
C. An IMBAL indication below main tank 1 with no Master Caution light and
no system annunciation for fuel *
D. The fuel quantity are digits on main tank no 2 turn amber

283 For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between no 1 and no 2 main
tanks?
A. 453 kg (1000 lbs) *
B. 500 kg (1100 lbs)
C. 590 kg (1300 lbs)
D. There is no maximum fuel imbalance

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284 In which fuel tanks are bypass valve located?
A. Center tank
B. Both main tanks only *
C. All tanks
D. None

285 What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light
indication?
A. Low fuel pressure in the affected tank
B. Low pressure in the fuel manifold
C. Low fuel pump output pressure *
D. The fuel pump switch is OFF

286 What the condition of the VALVE OPEN light when the cross feed selector is
position OPEN and the cross feed valve is closed?
A. Illuminated dim blue
B. Illuminated bright blue *
C. Illuminated amber
D. Extinguished

287 What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
A. The Hot Battery Bus
B. The Battery Bus *
C. The DC Standby Bus
D. The AC Standby Bus

288 What is the source of electrical power for the spar fuel shutoff valves?
A. The DC Standby Bus
B. The Battery Bus
C. The Hot Battery Bus *
D. The Transfer Bus no 2

289 Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the…:

A. Left side of the fuel manifold *

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B. No 2 Main tank
C. Center tank
D. Aux tank

290 The fuel temperature indicator indicates fuel temperature in the ….:
A. No 1 tank *
B. No 2 tank
C. Center tank
D. No 1 and no 2 tanks
The temperature indicating system used AC electrical power
291 The accuracy of the fuel quantity indicators is plus or minus …:
A. 1 % of full scale reading
B. 2.5 % of full scale reading *
C. 4 % of full scale reading
D. 5 % of full scale reading

292 The fuel quantity indicators are powers by:

A. Standby DC power
B. Standby AC power *
C. Battery bus
D. TR 2

293 For vacuum flush operation (flush switch push) the vacuum blower will operate as
follow:
A. The tank drain ball valve closed
B. Aircraft altitude below 16000 ft
C. Waste tank not full
D. A,B and C are true *

294 The DEU computer no 1 normally:

A. Connected to primary engine display
B. Connected to secondary engine display
C. Connected to system display
D. All are correct *

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295 When is the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light illuminate?

A. With the aircraft on the ground only
B. Only when the pack valve is open and the aircraft on the ground, or in air
with recirculation fan switch in OFF position
C. With aircraft on ground, or in the air with flaps not up *

296 How are the ram air panels actuated?

A. With a pneumatic actuator
B. With an electric actuator *
C. With an electric motor in flight and mechanically on ground

297 What the procedure to reset a P5 (DUCT OVERHEAT) light?

A. Overheat condition cools
B. Pack valve switch is moved to OFF position
C. Overheat condition cools and the reset switch is pushed *

298 To get APU HIGH flow from left pack, the left pack switch have to be in HIGH,
APU have running, APU bleed switch ON and:
A. Right pack valve OFF
B. Aircraft on ground *
C. Flaps up

299 When does the alternate equipment cooling supply fan start?
A. Automatically when normal blower fails
B. Automatically when the duct temperature rises 149 deg C
C. When the switch on the P5 panel is set to the ALTN position *

300 A single detector element has failed in one of the engine loops. Which indication
follow:
A. The P8(FAULT) light comes on
B. Failure indications occur when the P8(FAULT/INOP) test is performed
C. A fault light code showed on the front of the ENG & APU fire detection
controller *

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301 What is correct regarding the center tank scavenge system?

A. The FQPU turns the system on when the total fuel mass is less than 7500
kg
B. It operated when the fuel level in the center tank is less than 5000 kg
C. It operates when the fuel level in main tank 1 is less than 2000 kg *

302 How do you perform a BITE test of the Fuel Quantity Indicating System (FQIS)?
A. By accessing the FQIS bite page through the CDU *
B. It’s done from the front of face of the FQIS processor unit
C. That it can only be tested when you make a BITE of the FMCS

303 What is indicated by a flashing P15 fuel gauge during fueling operation?
A. That the respective fuel tank is about to be overfilled *
B. That the Fuel Quantity Processor Unit (FQPU) has fail
C. That the pre-selected fuel mass is about to be reached (within 100 kg)

304 What is true concerning window 1L and 1R primary and spare sensor?
A. They can be swapped by a switch in the EE compartment
B. The terminals has to changed over manually in case of failure *
C. If the primary sensor fails, the spare sensor automatically takes over

305 Which condition may result in an amber P5 COWL ANTI ICE light?
A. Overpressure in the CTAI supply duct *
B. An over temperature condition in the CTAI supply duct
C. The PRSOV fails to regulate the pneumatic pressure supply

306 The passenger oxygen masks can deployed electrically by:

A. The cabin pressure altitude
B. A control switch on the forward attendant panel
C. The cabin pressure altitude switch or manually from the P5 oxygen panel *

307 Which condition will make the isolation valve open up (isolation valve switch is
in AUTO position)?

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A. A BLEED TRIP OFF
B. If the engine are shut down
C. One engine bleed switch or a pack switch set to OFF *

308 What are functions of the high stage regulator?

A. Control the high stage valve with an electric signal to the valve
B. Pressure regulator and back up function as a temperature regulator
C. It sense the 9th stage pressure and pneumatically controls the High Stage
Valve *

309 Which pressure sources are available for water tank pressurization?
A. Only the pneumatic system
B. A dedicated water tank air compressor
C. Pneumatic system or an air compressor *

310 The vacuum blower will operate when the flush switch is pressed, ball valve
closed, tank not full and:
A. Only when the airplane is on ground
B. The barometric switch senses airplane above 16.000 feed
C. The barometric switch senses airplane below 16.00 feed *

311 When is the ignition cut off during APU starting?

A. At 7 %
B. At 60 % *
C. At 95 %

312 Which APU components use servo fuel as muscle pressure?

A. IGV actuator and Surge Control Valve (SCV) *
B. APU bleed air valve and exhaust nozzle deflector
C. APU inlet door actuator and the educator control valve

313 What is true concerning the APU ECU and the DMM (Data Memory Module)?
A. The DMM is responsible for every APU start up sequence
B. Replacing the ECU also requires that the DMM is replaced

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C. The ECU and the DMM are not to be replaced at the same time *

314 What is correct concerning an illuminated blue APU (MAINT) light?

A. That the APU needs to be serviced with oil *
B. That the APU ECU has maintenance faults the DMM is replaced
C. That the APU has performed a protective shutdown due to low oil pressure

315 What is the result if the one of the two thermocouple (TC) rake fails?
A. The blue MAINT light illuminates
B. The APU will not start and an EGT TC fault is stored in the ECU
C. The APU will run normally and an EGT TC fault is stored in the ECU *

316 Which of the filter on the APU has protective shutdown logic in the case
clogging?
A. The oil supply filter on the lube module
B. The fuel supply filter on the fuel control
C. The scavenge oil filter for the starter generator *

317 When will the emergency exit doors locking solenoids to be energized?
A. Only in air mode
B. On ground with entrance and services doors closed
C. On ground with entrance and services door closed and high thrust setting *

318 Which of following statements is correct?

A. The HP spool has 9 compressor stages and 2 turbine stages
B. The HP spool has 10 compressor stages and 2 turbine stages
C. The LP spool has 1 fan stage, 3 booster stages and 4 turbine stages *

319 Where is the aerodynamic station # 25 located?

A. At the booster inlet
B. Before the fan inlet
C. Before the HPT inlet *

320 What is the purpose of the wash filter located in the engine fuel pump?

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A. It filters the servo fuel to the HMU *
B. It filters fuel to oil/fuel heat exchanger
C. It filters all fuel, both servo fuel and fuel to spray nozzles in the
combustion chamber

321 What is indicated by an illuminated ENGINE CONTROL light?

A. The EAU has failed
B. A NO DISPATCH condition has been detected by the EEC *
C. That new accidence data has to be accessed through the CDU s

322 Which engine filter is related to the amber FILTER BYPASS light on the P5 fuel
control panel?
A. The oil scavenge filter
B. The low pressure filter *
C. The wash filter inside the engine fuel pump

323 How will EEC CH A be powered if the EEC alternate power supply fails?
A. It will be powered from the BAT BUS
B. It will be powered from the CH B supply
C. It will be powered from on-side AC transfer bus *

324 Which of the following “dispatch levels” will cause a cockpit indication?
A. Alternate failures *
B. Economic failures
C. Short time failures

325 Which of the following flight deck actions will energize the EEC?
A. Start switch in FLT position
B. Start switch in OFF position
C. Start switch in CONT position *

326 How is a soft alternate thrust mode indicated on the P5 ENGINE panel?
A. By a ALTN light in the EEC switch only
B. By a NORM light in the EEC switch only

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C. By a ON indication and a ALTN light in the EEC switch *

327 What happens when the flight crew, with both engines running, place the start
switch in CONT position?
A. Only the R igniter will operate
B. Only the selected igniter (s) will operate *
C. Both igniters will operate regardless of the selector switch position

328 What purpose has the Transient Bleed Valve (TBV)?

A. It increase the LPC stall margin during acceleration
B. It helps engine operation recover during an engine stall
C. It increases the HPC stall margin during start and acceleration *

329 The Transient Bleed Valve (TBV) bleed off:

A. 9th stage air *
B. booster air to the fan duct
C. 5th stage air to unload the LPC spool

330 The HPTACC valve mixes:

A. Booster air and HPC discharge air
B. Air taken from 4th stage and fan air
C. Air taken from 4th stage and 9th stage *

331 Which of the following operations/components closes the HPSOV in the HMU?
A. N2 over speed governor in the HMU
B. A severe fault in one of the EEC channels
C. When the engine start lever in set to the CUT OFF position *

332 When is the thrust reverser interlock solenoid energized?

A. When the both T/R sleeves are fully deployed
B. When the both T/R sleeves are above 60% deployed *
C. When one T/R sleeve is more than 90% deployed

333 How are the T/R sleeves kept stowed and locked, when not in use?

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A. By locking actuators and the sync locks *
B. By on side hydraulic pressure
C. By the sync locks only

334 What causes the N2 digital display box to trim ‘RED’ on the ground when both
engines are stopped?
A. N2 went below idle speed during flight
B. There was an N2 exceedance condition *
C. The N2 speed signal to the EEC was lost

335 Which component controls the P5 ‘REVERSER’ fault light?

A. The EEC when it is powered
B. The Engine Accessory Unit (EAU) *
C. LVDT on the upper hydraulic actuator

336 At what RPM will the start valve be commanded closed?

A. At 56% N2
B. When the engine is running at stabilized idle
C. At 56% N2 or if the EEC detects an abnormal start *

337 Which component supplies the ground to keep the engine start switch in the
‘GRD’ position until starter cutout?
A. The EEC
B. The DEU s *
C. The start switch

338 Which condition will make the EEC fully close the FMV on the ground, during
engine starting?
A. EEC sees no increase in N1 acceleration
B. The EEC sees a no ‘light up’ condition (wet start) *
C. The Transient Bleed Valve (TBV) remain fully closed

339 Which functions does the MMR contain?

A. GPS and ILS *

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B. GPS and ILS
C. VOR, MB and ILS
D. ILS and Marker Beacon

340 How many fuel measuring sticks are in each main tank?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Six *

341 The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the cross feed valve. The
valve is motor operated from the …
A. AC and Transfer Bus no 1
B. DC and Battery Bus *
C. AC and Transfer Bus no 2
D. DC and DC Standby Bus

342 When is the PWS (Predictive Windshear System) function active?

A. Always when the WXR is powered
B. When automatically turned on by the GPWC *
C. Below 1200 feet, during take off and approach

343 What happens if you push the right TFR (transfer) switch on the WXR (weather
radar) control panel?
A. The WXR transceiver will use right ADIRU attitude inputs
B. The WXR mode, TILT and GAIN selected on the left side, is used on the
F/O’s ND *
C. Right WXR display will follow range and mode selected on the left EFIS
control panel

344 Which statement about DME tuning is correct?

A. If the control panel fails, auto tuning is inhibit
B. Auto tuning is inhibit if an ILS frequency is manual selected

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C. Normally a DME gets manual tune and FMC auto tune inputs from the
control panel *

345 Which statement about GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning) is correct?

A. The terrain warnings are always inhibited if WXR is selected
B. The Terrain Awareness function is only active below 2450 feet
C. Terrain data will show automatically on a ND when the terrain warning is
detected *

346 Electrical power to start the APU comes from:

A. The main battery only if no AC power is available *
B. The main battery always
C. The no 1 transfer bus

347
348 B
349 B
350 Bb
351

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