REVISE FOR THE FIRST- MIDDLE TERM TEST

GIỚI HẠN ÔN TẬP GIỮA KỲ I THEO MÔ HÌNH ĐỀ THI MỚI 2025

FULL NAME ....................................................... 12…. CHẤM ĐỀ CƯƠNG SAU 2 TUẦN TÍNH 19/9
TEST 1- ĐỀ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which has the underlined part
pronounced differently from the others in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. peace B. threat C. death D. bread
Question 2. A. childhood B. biography C. marriage D. biological
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. bamboo B. cattle C. journey D. forest
Question 4: A. attendance B. candidate C. scholarship D. scenery
Read the following advertisement/school announcements and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks form 10 to 15.
Ho Chi Minh Mausoleum Tour!
Join us on a journey through Vietnam's history with a tour of Ho Chi Minh Mausoleum!
In our tour, you can:
● Discover the (5) of Ho Chi Minh, the founder of modern Vietnam and a key figure in the
country's struggle for independence.
● Explore the impressive structure of the mausoleum, where (6) Ho Chi Minh's body is
preserved.
● Learn (7) the life and achievements of Ho Chi Minh from our expert guides.
Contact us to book now!
● Email: Vietnamtourguide@gmail.com
● Zalo: +841234567.
Question 5: A. biology B. biographic C. biography D. biological
Question 6: A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 7: A. about B. on C. in D. for
ANNOUNCEMENT OF MARK ZUCKERBERG’S VISIT
Dear students, parents, and staff,
I am excited to announce that Mark Zuckerberg, the founder and CEO of Facebook, (8) our
school last week. Here are some highlights from his visit:
● Mr. Zuckerberg arrived at our school on Wednesday morning. While he (9) a talk in the
auditorium, students were preparing for his visit in their classrooms.
● After his talk, Mr. Zuckerberg answered questions from students. They asked about his (10)
, his experiences, and his advice for young people.
● Finally, Mr. Zuckerberg took a group photo with our students and staff. It was a memorable moment
for everyone involved.
Question 8: A. visiting B. visited C. was visiting D. is visiting
Question 9: A. giving B. were giving C. gave D. was giving
Question 10: A. rule B. battle C. career D. poetry
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: From a young age, she was determined to her youth and whole life to the
preservation of endangered species.
A. devote B. expose C. open D. direct
Question 12. The company’s sales have doubled since the introduction of new technology.
A. full-length B. traditionalC. cutting-edge D. standard
Question 13: After receiving a diamond ring from her husband, Annie feels like she is girl in the
world.
A. happy B. happier C. the happiest D. happiest
Question 14: Being self-reliant is what many young people .
A. rely on B. strive for C. cope with D. figure out
Question 15: She has recently bought a new car, ?
A. hasn’t she B. didn’t she C. did she D. has she
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Question 16: She when the alarm off this morning.
A. slept, went B. was sleeping, went C. was sleeping, was going D. slept, was going
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 17 to 23.
In 1812 a young man called James Barry finished his studies in medicine at Edinburgh University.
After graduating he moved to London where he studied surgery at Guy’s Hospital. After that the popular
young doctor joined the army and over the next forty years had a brilliant career as an army medical
officer, working in many far-off countries and fighting successfully for improved conditions in hospitals. It
was a remarkable career - made even more remarkable by the discovery upon his death that he was in fact
a she, James Barry was a woman.
No one was more surprised at this discovery than her many friends and colleagues. It was true that
throughout her life people had remarked upon her small size, slight build and smooth pale face. One officer
had even objected to her appointment as a medical assistant because he could not believe that Barry was
old enough to have graduated in medicine. But no one had ever seriously suggested that Barry was
anything other than a man. By all accounts Barry was a pleasant and good-humored person with high
cheekbones, reddish hair, a long nose and large eyes. She was well-liked by her patients and had a
reputation for great speed in surgery - an important quality at a time when operations were performed
without an aesthetic. She was also quick tempered. When she was working in army hospitals and prisons
overseas, the terrible conditions often made her very angry. She fought hard against injustice and cruelty
and her temper sometimes got her into trouble with the authority. After a long career overseas, she returned
to London where she died in 1865. While the undertaker’s assistant was preparing her body for burial, she
discovered that James Barry was a woman.
So why did James Barry deceive people for so long? At that time a woman could not study
medicine, work as a doctor or join the army. Perhaps Barry had always wanted to do these things and
pretending to be a man was the only way to make it possible. Perhaps she was going to tell the truth one
day, but didn’t because she was enjoying her life as a man too much. Whatever the reason, Barry's
deception was successful. By the time it was discovered that she had been the first woman in Britain to
qualify as a doctor, it was too late for the authorities to do anything about it.

Question 17: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. James Barry pretended to be a man to become a doctor
B. Gender discrimination among doctors in London
C. James Barry and her career overseas
D. Punishment for James Barry’s deception
Question 18: In paragraph 1, the word “remarkable" is closest in meaning to .
A. noticeable B. commented C. rewarding D. focused
Question 19. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT .
A. many people suspected that she was a woman
B. all people were surprised at the discovery
C. people remarked upon her small size
D. people noticed her slight build and smooth pale face
Question 20: In paragraph 2, the word “objected" is oppostie in meaning to .
A. protested B. agreed C. protected D. shared
Question 21: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about James Barry?
A. She lost her temper easily. B. She could control her temper perfectly.
C. She never lost her temper. D. She was calm and well-behaved.
Question 22: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about James Barry?
A. She performed her operations quickly. B. She performed her operations slowly.
D. Her patients did not like her much. C. She performed her operations carelessly.
Question 23: In paragraph 4, the word “it" refers to .
A. Barry’s deception B. Barry's choice C. Barry’s career D. Barry's reputation
Read the following text and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits
each other numbered blanks below.
Cultural exchange programs have many benefits for individuals, communities, and the world. These
programs aim (24) for participants.

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Working in a new cultural environment helps develop various soft skills like adaptability, organization,
problem-solving, and self-confidence. (25) a valuable learning opportunity that participants can
use long after the program ends. Therefore, cultural exchange is an excellent way for young people to grow
professionally and improve their career prospects. Future employers often view international experience
positively, giving individuals (26) .
Engaging with people from different cultures provides an eye-opening experience as it exposes individuals
to different norms and values. This experience can significantly shape personal and professional growth.
(27) helps develop a broader view, known as intercultural competence. Intercultural
competence not only fosters empathy and understanding but also uncovers aspects of one's own culture
that were previously unknown.
Cultural exchange programs offer a unique way to travel, distinct from typical tourist experiences. These
programs provide a deeper understanding of other countries and cultures, allowing participants to live like
locals. Experiencing community-based travel, with its hidden gems, undiscovered streets, and delicious
homemade meals, (28) how they engage with different cultures, leading them to vow never to
travel like tourists again.
Question 24.
A. providing learning opportunities C. learning to provide opportunities
B. to provide learning opportunities D. to learn providing opportunities
Question 25.
A. Those experiences are C. This experience is
B. That experience is D. These experiences are
Question 26.
A. an advantage in today's competitive job market
B. the today advantage of competitive job market
C. a competitive advantage toward today’s job market
D. the today’s job market with competitive advantage
Question 27.
A. Involve oneself in another culture C. Involving oneself in another culture
B. To be involving oneself in another culture D. Be involved oneself in another culture
Question 28.
A. encourages individuals reconsider C. to encourage individuals to reconsider
B. encouraging individuals to reconsider D. encourages individuals to reconsider
Question 29. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to
make a meaningful paragraph.
a. Cross-cultural learning has three main benefits.
b. Secondly, it allows us to learn new ways of thinking and problem-solving by exchanging ideas with
others.
c. Finally, it encourages us to appreciate diversity and work together with people from various cultures
d. Firstly, it helps understand and respect different backgrounds, making us more open-minded.
e. So it is important to learn about different cultures around the world.
A. e – b – d – a – c C. a – c – d – b – e
B. a – d – b – c - e D. e – d – b – c - a
Question 30. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to
make a meaningful paragraph.
a. The first stage is commonly referred to as the honeymoon phase.
b. Then people experience frustration stage as the excitement of being in a new environment disappears.
c. People who experience culture shock may go through four phases.
d. During the acceptance stage - the final one, people are better able to experience and enjoy their new
home.
e. The third stage is the adaptation stage when people feel more at home in their new surroundings.
A. d – c – e – a – b C. c – e – a – b – d
B. c – a – b – e – d D. a – b – c – e - d
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

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 Nowadays, a growing number of travel companies are adding adventure holidays to their list of
getaways. The reason? More and more people are looking to do something a bit different when they go on
holiday. Today’s traveller is increasingly likely to be (31) with simply lying on a beach all day or
visiting the usual tourist spots. Instead, he/she is seeking a more unique experience. One that might involve
travel to an isolated or unexplored area, for example, or one which offers activities (32) provide
an adrenaline rush. In short, today’s traveller wants a holiday where he/she can expect (33) more
excitement.
Trekking, mountaineering expeditions, bungee jumping, rock climbing, safaris, conservation work,
overland journeys, cultural exchanges, deep sea diving; all these are just a few of the types of adventure
holidays that are (34) on. In fact, the different types of adventure holiday are limited only by the
imagination. (35) , if you are the type of traveller who loves new experiences, enjoys challenges,
and seeks inspiration, why not consider an adventure trip for your next holiday?
(Adapted from FCE Use of English by Virginia Evans)
Question 31: A. content B. cautious C. unsatisfied D. disqualified
Question 32: A. where B. that C. what D. whose
Question 33: A. a few B. many C. another D. a little
Question 34: A. growing B. fitting C. picking D. catching
Question 35: A. But B. Though C. Therefore D. Or
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Global sea level has been rising over the past century, and the rate has increased in recent decades. In
2014, global sea level was 2.6 inches above the 1993 average - the highest annual average in the satellite
record (1993-present). Sea level continues to rise at a rate of about one-eighth of an inch per year.
Higher sea levels mean that deadly and destructive storm surges push farther inland than they once
did, which also means more frequent nuisance flooding. Disruptive and expensive, nuisance flooding is
estimated to be from 300 percent to 900 percent more frequent within U.S. coastal communities than it was
just 50 years ago.
The two major causes of global sea level rise are thermal expansion caused by warming of the
ocean since water expands as it warms and increased melting of land-based ice, such as glaciers and ice
sheets. The oceans are absorbing more than 90 percent of the increased atmospheric heat associated with
emissions from human activity.
With continued ocean and atmospheric warming, sea levels will likely rise for many centuries at
rates higher than those of the current century. In the United States, almost 40 percent of the population
lives in relatively high-population-density coastal areas, where sea level plays a part in flooding, shoreline
erosion, and hazards from storms. Globally, eight of the world's 10 largest cities are near a coast, according
to the U.N. Atlas of the Oceans.
Question 36: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Sea level within U.S. coastal communities
B. Sea level and emissions from human activity
C. An increasing rate of sea level rise
D. Sea level and its effects on the world’s 10 largest cities
Question 37: The word “deadly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. huge B. toxic C. fast D. lethal
Question 38: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. water B. sea level C. ocean D. ice
Question 39: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the last paragraph?
A. Sea levels will likely rise for many centuries at rates of the current century.
B. Nearly 40 percent of the population of the U.S lives in densely populated coastal areas.
C. Sea level has no relation to flooding, shoreline erosion, and hazards from storms.
D. Sea level rise will only affect the world’s largest cities near the coast.
Question 40: The passage is likely to be extracted from .
A. a sci-fi document B. a personal essay
C. a weather forecast D. a scientific magazine

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 TEST 2- ĐỀ 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. drink B. think C. bring D. fine
Question 2: A. culture B. student C. distance D. mistake

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. broaden B. provide C. pursue D. succeed
Question 4: A. important B. domestic C. educate D. increasing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: For the last 20 years, we significant changes in the world of science and technology.
A. witness B. have witnessed C. witnessed D. are witnessing
Question 6: Your mother is cooking in the kitchen, ?
A. isn’t she B. doesn’t she C. won’t she D. is she
Question 7: Exercising regularly is than sitting for long periods of time in front of a screen.
A. as beneficial B. more beneficial C. the most beneficial D. most beneficial
Question 8: I can hear a cat...................... at the window.
A. scratches B. to scratch C. scratching D. to scratching
Question 9: A new study group has been by the United Nations.
A. gone off B. set up C. put up D. called for

Read the following advertisement/ announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 10 to 15.

Do you speak English?

Are you interested in museums?
Would you like a holiday job where you could meet people from all over (10)
world?
We are looking (11) someone to work in the City Museum shop during the
holidays.
No experience is necessary but you must be (12) and helpful and have some
interest in art.
Contact Mrs Donovan at the City Museum.

Question 10: A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)

Question 11: A. for B. on C. at D. in
Question 12: A. friend B. friendship C. friendliness D. friendly

School Announcement
School Assembly
There will be a school assembly in the (13) on Monday, January 22nd at 9:00 AM.
The assembly will cover important topics for the upcoming semester.
Science Fair
Our annual Science Fair will (14) on Friday, February 16th. Students are
encouraged to start preparing their projects.
Health and Safety
As always, we remind everyone to follow health and safety guidelines. (15) you are
ill, contact your class monitor or your homeroom teacher immediately.

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Question 13: A. auditorium B. classroom C. gymnasium D. stadium
Question 14: A. hold B. have held C. be held D. be holding
Question 15: A. Should B. Were C. Had D. If

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences
to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following questions.
Question 16:
a. First, doing housework helps children develop some important life skills such as doing the laundry,
cleaning the house or taking care of others.
b. They will certainly need those skills in their lives later, when they start their own families.
c. I think children should do housework for a number of reasons.
d. Second, children can learn to take responsibility when they do housework. They know that they have
to do something even though they don't like to do it.
e. So doing housework is really good for children and I believe that they should do it.
A. e-c-a-b-d B. e-a-c-b-d C. c-a-b-d-e D. c-e-a-b-d
Question 17:
a. Thirdly, the government needs to have policies to prioritize women, so that they have better chances to
develop their ability, and better conditions to contribute more to the society, and to compete equally with
men.
b. Dear Mary, I hope you’ve been doing well! I’ve been thinking of several ways to improve gender
equality and give women better chances to develop their ability.
c. Finally, more jobs should be made available to women so that they will have better conditions to
develop themselves to be equal to men.
d. Firstly, the importance and roles of women should be propagated to the development of society.
e. Secondly, education system should do more to improve the knowledge of people about women, and to
eliminate the prejudice of neglecting women and their value.
f. Lots of love.
A. b-c-a-e-d-f B. b-d-e-a-c-f C. b-a-d-e-c-f D. b-e-d-a-c-f

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks from 18 to 23.
Many young people strive to be independent. (18) , and you don't have to rely on anyone
else. However, to live independently, you need a number of life skills in order not to (19) and
older brothers or sisters. One of the most important skills is time management (20) and self-
esteem. With good time management skills, you can perform (21) , including your responsibilities
at school and at home with pleasing results. Moreover, you will not feel stressed when exam dates are
approaching. These skills can also help you act more independently and responsibly, get better grades at
school and (22) .
Developing time-management skills is not as challenging as you may think. Firstly, make a plan for
things you need to do, including appointments and deadlines. Using a diary or apps on mobile devices will
remind you of what you need to accomplish and when you need to accomplish it. Secondly, prioritize your
activities. You need to decide which tasks are the most urgent and important. Thirdly, develop routines
because routines, when established, take less time for you to do your tasks.
Time management skills are not hard to develop; once you master them, you will find out that they
are great keys to success and (23) .
Question 18: A. meaning you are able to take care of yourself
B. What means you are able to take care of yourself
C. That means you are able to take care of yourself
D. meant you are able to take care of yourself
Question 19: A. depend on your parents B. depended on your parents
C. to depend on your parents D. depending on your parents
Question 20: A. can help you build your confidence
B. which can help you build your confidence
C. where can help you build your confidence
D. can be helped to build your confidence

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Question 21: A. their daily tasks B. our daily tasks
C. my daily tasks D. your daily tasks
Question 22: A. have more for family and friends time
B. family and friends have more time for
C. have more time for your family and friends
D. family and friends have for more time
Question 23: A. you can become independent. B. her can become independent.
C. this is can become independent. D. that is can become independent

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
WATER: OUR MOST PRECIOUS RESOURCE
There are (24) people around the world who do not have enough water for their daily needs.
And as the world's population increases, so does the demand for water. Today, nearly 20% of the world's
population live in areas (25) there isn't sufficient fresh water. Not only that, but 25% live in
developing countries that suffer from frequent water (26) . They lack the systems necessary to
carry the water from the rivers to where it would be used.
If there is not enough clean water to drink, people will drink water of poor quality. This can increase
the risk of (27) diseases such as cholera and dysentery. Water is a precious resource, but in
countries with with anticipated above-average rainfall, like the UK or Holland, it is often taken for granted.
(28) , with anticipated increase in global temperatures in years to come, we should all learn to be
less wasteful.
Question 24: A. a little B. much C. another D. many
Question 25: A. that B. where C. when D. whose
Question 26: A. shortages B. problems C. qualities D. threats
Question 27: A. conducting B. contracting C. concluding D. containing
Question 28: A. Besides B. Therefore C. However D. For example

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 29 to 33.
Have you ever felt that there aren't enough hours in the day? These days we have to do our jobs, look
after our homes, save energy to help the environment, and do exercise to stay healthy! Like many of us,
Alex Gadsden never had enough time. He ran a business and a home and needed to lose weight. So he
decided to do something about it. He invented the cycle washer. The 29-year-old now starts each day with
a 45-minute cycle ride. He not only feels healthier but he saves on his energy bills and does the washing
too.
He said, "It gives the user a good workout. I've only used it for two weeks but I've already noticed
a difference." "I tend to get up at around six-thirty now and get straight on the cycle washer. I keep it in the
garden, so it's nice to get out in the fresh air. Afterwards, I feel full of energy. Then I generally have
breakfast and a shower and I really feel ready to start the day." The green washing machine uses 25 litres
of water a wash, and takes enough clothes to fill a carrier bag. He normally cycles for 25 minutes to wash
the clothes, and then for another 20 minutes to dry them. And it doesn't use any electricity, of course. Mr
Gadsden, the boss of a cleaning company, believes his machine could become very popular. With an
invention which cleans your clothes, keeps you fit and reduces your electricity bill, he may well be right.
Question 29: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The importance of daily exercise B. Ways to do the washing properly
C. Cycling makes you healthier D. A fascinating invention
Question 30: The word “ran” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. moved B. allowed C. managed D. changed
Question 31: According to paragraph 1, what does Alex Gadsden achieve with the invention of the cycle
washer?
A. His electricity bills are reduced. B. He puts on weight.
C. He helps his wife with the washing-up. D. He becomes more involved in recycling.
Question 32: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. difference B. the cycle washer C. the fresh air D. workout

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Question 33: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Alex Gadsden is positive about the success of the cycle washer.
B. The cycle washer can help you to remain strong and healthy.
C. It doesn't require any electricity to run the cycle washer.
D. Alex's machine isn't effective in terms of cleaning the clothes.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 40.
Los Angeles dancer, Brian Perez, was eating out with his friends one evening when suddenly
everyone went quiet. To his horror, he saw that the reason for this was that people were checking their
phones. Realising he had to do something to stop this, Brian made a rather daring suggestion. What if they
all put their gadgets in a pile in the middle of the table until they had finished the meal? If anyone picked
up their phone, that person would have to pay the whole bill. And so, it is said, the game of 'phone
stacking' was born.
The necessity for action like this highlights a major problem in today's society: our inability to
disconnect from technology. But while Brian's idea deals with the obsession in a social context, measures
also need to be taken at home. Some people drop their smartphones into a box the moment they arrive
home, which gives them the chance to interact with the people they live with. The fact that the phone
cannot be heard - it is on silent - nor seen - the flashing lights are hidden by the box - means that they are
no longer tempted to use it.
A less drastic solution is to ban electronic devices at certain times of day when the whole family is
likely to be together, for example at meal times. This can be hard for everyone, from teenagers desperate to
text friends to parents unable to switch off from work. On a normal day, however, dinner takes less than an
hour, and the benefits of exchanging opinions and anecdotes with the rest of the family certainly makes up
for the time spent offline.
Taking a break from technology is one thing but knowing when to turn off a device is another.
Time seems to stand still in the virtual world, and before you know it, you find that it is three o'clock in the
morning. This is where a digital curfew comes in handy, a set time when all devices must be put away.
Evenings without technology are usually nice and peaceful and make a more agreeable end to the day. And
then it's time for bed. One of the best ways of ensuring you can sleep at night is to ban electronic devices
altogether from the bedroom. Lying next to a machine bursting with information is far from relaxing, and
the sounds it emits during the night can easily wake you up. With technology out of the room, a line has
been drawn between daytime and sleep time, which enables us to switch off ourselves and drift off to
sleep.
Question 34: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Dependence on Technology: Time for Change! B. Getting Rid of Your Mobiles: For Better or Worse?
C. Shocking News: Technology Shapes Our Mind! D. Addiction to Technology: Storm in a Teacup
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, Brian Perez was shocked to find that .
A. people were willing to remove all their gadgets B. the prices for food were too expensive
C. people were glued to their phones D. everyone seemed quiet by nature
Question 36: The word “highlights” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. tackles B. expects C. proposes D. emphasizes
Question 37: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. fact B. phone C. light D. box
Question 38: The word “ban” in paragraph 3 is opposite in meaning to .
A. allow B. forbid C. prohibit D. prevent
Question 39: Which of the following statements is true, according to the passage?
A. People choose not to use their phones at home so that they can talk to other members.
B. Meal times are the most suitable for the whole family to use phones together.
C. Teenagers can find it easier to turn off their phones compared to their parents.
D. Brian's idea is not new in terms of making people less dependent on technology.
Question 40: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Having a conversation at dinner definitely strengthens the bonds among family members.
B. Using electronic gadgets at bedtime is likely to deprive yourself of having a good sleep.
C. People are more pleasant to talk with when they use technology in the evenings.
D. The line between daytime and sleep time has become increasingly blurred.

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 TEST 3- ĐỀ 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences.
Question 1. A. persuade B. scary C. soap D. season
Question 2. A. teach B. head C. meat D. seat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following sentences.
Question 3. A. Vietnamese B. volunteer C. engineer D. holiday
Question 4. A. worried B. guilty C. upset D. social

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. That teacher gave him a present, .
A. did he B. doesn't it C. didn't he D. didn't it
Question 6. I hope that woman again.
A. to see B. have seen C. of seeing D. seeing
Question 7. The passengers had to wait because the plane off one hour late.
A. took B. made C. cut D. turned
Question 8. Tom is than David.
A. the more handsome B. handsome
C. more handsome D. the most handsome
Question 9. John with the kids. That's why he looks exhausted.
A. has played B. had played C. played D. has been playing

Read the following advertisement/ announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 10 to 15.

GIVE YOURSELF A COFFEE BREAK!

THINK BETTER!
Stop working (10) a while and take a cheerful cup of coffee. Your mind is clearer and
solutions are nearer to you.
WORK BETTER!
Get ready for your work with (11) fragrant cup of coffee. Its gentle stimulation is your
cue for better work.
FEEL BETTER!
Stop getting tired with the kind of black or brown liquid known as coffee. As long as you take it,
your boredom and (12) will be gone.
Question 10. A. for B. with C. at D. of
Question 11. A. the B. an C. a D. no article
Question 12. A. disappoint B. disappointedly C. disappointment D. disappointed

ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE TEAM BUILDING EVENT

The school Young Pioneer Manager would like to announce
All pioneers are (13) present by 5:30 on Dec 29.
No mobile devices. Just put on the organization's (14)
(15) parents have any questions, please contact the Manager at 0356.211.439 for further
information.

Question 13. A. had to be B. due to C. required to be D. going to

Question 14. A. participant B. uniform C. member D. event
Question 15. A. Had B. Do C. Should D. Were

9
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the
sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/ letter in each of the following questions.
Question 16.
a. Firstly, we should clean up all areas regularly. For example, we can organise clean-up activities at
weekends.
b. There are three things we can do to improve the environment in our school.
c. Secondly, we ought to set up more rubbish bins. For instance, we can put more rubbish bins in the
school gate, in front of each building, or in the playground.
d. In conclusion, we can improve the environment in our school in many ways and even small actions can
make a big difference.
e. Finally , we should plant more trees. To give an example, we can encourage students to plant trees or
flowers in our school because this reduces CO2 and makes the air clean.
A. e-a-d-b-c B. e-b-a-d-c C. e-b-a-c-d D. b-a-c-e-d
Question 17.
a. I am writing to apply for a volunteer position at the head office. I heard the announcement about this
position on radio last Sunday.
b. I am available for an interview on any weekday from 8.00 am to 11.00 am. If my application is
successful, I can start on 15th January 2022.
c. I am interested in the job duties at the head office. I want to help you welcome guests and visitors to the
office and receive and sort donations.
d. Yours faithfully,
e. I look forward to hearing from you.
f. Dear Sir or Madam,
A. e-b-a-c-f-d B. e-c- f-d-b-a C. b-c-d-e-a-f D. f-a-c-b- e-d
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of
the numbered blanks from 18 to 23.
I joined the Volunteer Club (18) . (19) . Since then, it has organised various
volunteering activities for all students to participate.
One of the most popular activities of our club is selling handmade items to raise money for the local
orphanage and homeless old people. Last year, we also raised over one hundred million VND to help
people in flooded areas. The money was used to buy warm clothes, blankets, food, and (20) . Our
club welcomes different types of donations: clothes, picture books, unused notebooks, and (21) .
At the end of each month, we take the donations to the community centre. (22) also organises
afterschool games for the children at the orphanage and concerts for the old people at the centre. In
addition, it offers other volunteering activities, such as helping at a food bank or delivering free meals to
poor families.
Volunteering has helped me gain life experiences and (23) . When I see suffering and hardships, I
feel thankful for what I have. What is more, these activities provide opportunities for me to meet other
teenagers with similar interests and help me build essential life skills.

Question 18. A. starting secondary school B. started secondary school

C. to start secondary school D. when I started secondary school
Question 19. A. The club was formed fifteen years ago B. Which was formed
fifteen years ago
C. This was formed fifteen years ago D. That was formed fifteen years ago
Question 20. A. clean water B. cleaned water C. cleaning water D. water
Question 21. A. other unwanted B. items other C. other unwanted items D. items want
Question 22. A. Our club B. Your club C. Their club D. My club
Question 23. A. find our sense of purpose in life B. to find my sense of purpose in life
C. find my sense of purpose in life D. finding my sense of purpose in life

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.

10
 Nowadays more and more teenagers are getting involved in community activities. Some may join
different charity groups to help the needy in their neighbourhoods or other areas. (24) may set up
volunteer clubs at their schools and develop their own plans to help people in the community. These may
include various community activities, such as donating old clothes, cleaning up the environment, and
organising after-school activities for children.
When teenagers take (25) community activities, they (26) numerous benefits. First , they
come into contact with other teenagers (27) share similar interests. Second, teenagers can learn
(28) improve essential life skills. And, finally, community activities can increase teenagers' self-
confidence and boost their well-being.
Question 24. A. The other B. Other C. Others D. Another
Question 25. A. part with B. part in C. part at D. part on
Question 26. A. gain B. help C. lose D. go
Question 27. A. whose B. whom C. who D. which
Question 28. A. and B. so C. because D. but

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 29 to 33 .
Blues is a kind of slow sad music with strong rhythms. It was developed by African-American
musicians in the American South. Early blues often took the form of a story about the unkind treatment
experienced by African Americans. Many elements of the blues have grown from the music of Africa and
religious music.
The blues started at the end of the 19th century and the first blues sheet music appeared at the beginning of
the 20th century. Since then, it has developed into many styles such as country blues and urban blues.
Several decades later. electric blues with electrical equipment replaced traditional blues. At the same time,
the blues also reached a wider audience, especially white listeners. A mixture of blues styles and rock
music, called blues rock appeared in the 60s and 70s of the last century.

Question 29. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text?

A. The blues was influenced by the music of Africa and religious music.
B. Early blues songs told sad stories.
C. Different styles of blues appeared, known as country blues and urban blues.
D. In the 1960s, the blues reached a wider audience, including listeners in the Western Europe.
Question 30. The word "elements" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. parts B. forms C. sheets D. roles
Question 31. According to paragraph 1, the blues is a type of slow, sad music created by .
A. African-American musicians in the southern United States
B. African Americans who experienced unkind treatment
C. musicians in the American South
D. African Americans who like African and religious music
Question 32. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. the end of the 19th century B. the first blues sheet music
C. the blues D. the beginning of the 20th century
Question 33. What is the text mainly about?
A. The start of the blues B. The start and development of the blues.
C. Different styles of the blues. D. The meaning of the blues.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 40 .
Some Russian women became well-known fighter pilots during the Second World War. Yekaterina
Budanova was one of them. She joined the Soviet Army and became a lighter pilot after working as a non-
military pilot. At first, Budanova's officer didn't believe in her ability. But in a short time Budanova
became famous for her talent and remarkable flying skills. Unfortunately, she died at the age of 26 in air-
to-air fighting against German planes although she already shot down one plane and hit a second before
being shot down herself.

11
 Interested in flying at an early age, Lydia Ultvyak joined a flying club and performed her first solo flight
at the age of 15. She became a fight instructor after graduating from the military flying school. After the
German attack on the Soviet Union in 1941. Utvyak joined the Soviet Air Force and soon achieved great
success. Like Budanova, she was killed (at the age of 21) in fighting against German planes. And along
with Yekaterina Budanova Lydia Utvyak is often considered one of the world's most famous female fighter
pilots.

Question 34. Which of the following best serves as the title of the text?
A. Russian Female Fighter Pilots B. Female Fighter Pilots Who Made History
C. Women during the Second World War D. Fighting the Germans
Question 35. The fact that Litvyak had her first solo flight when she was only 15 implies that
.
A. it was a risky thing to do B. she loved danger
C. she had a natural talent for flying D. her flying club was the best in the world
Question 36. What did Budanova do before she become a fighter pilot?
A. She worked at a flying club. B. She was a Russian officer.
C. She worked as a non-military pilot. D. She shot down German planes.
Question 37. The word 'solo' in paragraph 2 is opposite meaning to .
A. done by one person alone B. successful
C. done by more than one person D. single
Question 38. The phrase "a second" in paragraph 1 refers to .
A. the Second World War B. a second German plane
C. a second Russian plane D. a fighter pilot
Question 39. The word "them" in paragraph 1 refers to .
A. fighter pilots B. well-known fighter pilots
C. some Russian women D. women
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT true about Budanova and Uitvyak, according to the text?
A. They died in their twenties.
B. They died when the Second World War was over.
C. They were talented and successful female fighter pilots in the Soviet Air Force.
D. They are considered two of the world's most famous female fighter pilots.

---THE END OF THE TEST---

12
 TUẦN ÔN THI GIỮA KÌ 1 – LỚP 12 – ĐỀ SỐ 01
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1 [PTBN]. A. expand B. depressed C. exchange D. mechanic
Question 2 [PTBN]. A. resource B. position C. counselor D. mindset
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to
make a meaningful
Question 3 [PTBN]. A. anxious B. suggest C. reward D. instruct
Question 4 [PTBN]. A. currency B. operate C. accountant D. motivate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5 [PTBN]. After receiving the acceptance letter from her dream university, Laya feels as if
on cloud nine.
A. she is B. she has been C. she should be D. she were
Question 6 [PTBN]. Residents are exposed diverse cultural experiences in multicultural
neighborhoods.
A. to B. with C. for D. go up
Question 7 [PTBN]. They to Spain on holiday three times this year.
A. go B. have gone C. went D. are going
Question 8 [PTBN]. We often feel more motivated we have a clear goal in mind and a sense of
purpose.
A. when B. so that C. and D. but
Question 9 [PTBN]. Noticing his struggle, the teacher to help him fill out the application form.
A. advised B. suggested C. ordered D. offered
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to
make a meaningful paragraph/ letter in each of the following questions.
Question 10 [PTBN].
a. I am an eighteen-year-old responsible student and I am passionate about working with children.
b. During my work placement there, I assisted teachers in class and supervised children at break times.
c. I am writing in response to your online advertisement looking for staff for summer activities program.
d. I gained considerable work experience at a local kindergarten last summer.
e. Therefore, I feel confident I have relevant skills and would be well suited to the position.
A. c-d-e-a-b B. c-a-d-b-e C. c-d-e-b-a D. c-a-b-d-e
Question 11 [PTBN].
a. This helps your brain associate that space with focused work, making it easier to get into the right mindset.
b. There are some tips to help you study effectively in an online environment.
c. Next, put your phone on silent and close unnecessary browser tabs.
d. By minimizing distractions, you'll be able to fully immerse yourself in the learning material and retain
information more effectively.
e. The first step is to designate a quiet, distraction-free area in your home that you use for studying.
A. b-e-a-c-d B. b-e-d-c-a C. b-a-e-c-d D. b-a-d-c-e
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the
numbered blanks.
Working holidays are a hot trend for travelers who want to mix work and exploration. These programs let you
get a job in another country (12) . Like any adventure, there are good and bad sides to consider.
(13) that living and working with locals gives you a deeper understanding and appreciation for
the place you're visiting. Many programs also let you learn new skills or improve ones you already have, which
is a big plus, (14) . Plus, working abroad can open doors to professional connections and
networking, which could be useful in the future. (15) . Maintaining a balance between work and
travel can be tough too, (16) for leisure and exploration. In the end, working holidays offer a
unique and rewarding experience, but it's important to weigh the pros and cons carefully (17) .
Question 12 [PTBN].
A. when explore the local culture and attractions
B. as though you explore the local culture and attractions
C. while exploring the local culture and attractions
D. so as to explore the local culture and attractions
Question 13 [PTBN].
A. A main advantage B. The main advantage is
C. The advantage is mainly D. There is a main advantage
Question 14 [PTBN].
A. especially for young people building their résumés
B. for people who especially built their résumés
C. for building young people’s special résumés
D. for young people to especially build their résumés
Question 15 [PTBN].
A. Because finding a good job in a foreign country can be tricky
B. Although finding a good job in a foreign country can be tricky
C. As a result, finding a good job in a foreign country can be tricky
D. However, finding a good job in a foreign country can be tricky
Question 16 [PTBN].
A. so you should find it hard to find time B. and you might find it hard to find time
C. but you must find it hard to find time D. nor can you find it hard to find time
Question 17 [PTBN].
A. before starting your journey B. for you could start your journey
C. after you started your journey D. during you start your journey
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks.
WHAT IS URBANIZATION?
Urbanization is a process (18) populations move from rural to urban areas, enabling cities and towns to
grow. It can also be termed as a progressive increase in the number of people living in towns and cities. It is highly
influenced by the notion that cities and towns have achieved better economic, political, and social mileages
compared (19) the rural areas. Accordingly, urbanization is very common in developing and developed
worlds as more and more people have the (20) of moving closer to towns and cities to acquire
“privileged” social and economic services. These (21) social and economic advantages such as better
education, health care, sanitation, housing, business opportunities, and transportation. A large majority of people
move to cities and towns because they view rural areas as places with hardship and backward lifestyle. Therefore,
as populations move to more developed areas, the immediate outcome is urbanization. This normally contributes
to the development of land for use in commercial properties, transportation, and residential buildings. Eventually,
these activities (22) several urbanization issues.
Question 18 [PTBN]. A. in which B. by which C. of which D. which
Question 19 [PTBN]. A. by B. on C. to D. for
Question 20 [PTBN]. A. movement B. direction C. tendency D. progress
Question 21 [PTBN]. A. contain B. consist C. compose D. include
Question 22 [PTBN]. A. rise B. raise C. stimulate D. promote
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
SCIENTIFIC DISCOVERIES
A satellite is best understood as a projectile, or an object that has only one force acting on gravity. Technically
speaking, anything that crosses the Karman Line at an altitude of kilometers (62 miles) is considered in space.
However, a satellite needs to be going fast — at least 8 km (5 miles) a second - to stop from falling back down to
Earth immediately.
If a satellite is traveling fast enough, it will perpetually "fall" toward Earth, but the Earth's curvature means that the
satellite will fall around our planet instead of crashing back on the surface. Satellites that travel closer to Earth are
at risk of falling because the drag of atmospheric molecules will slow the satellites down. Those that orbit farther
away from Earth have fewer molecules to contend with.
There are several accepted "zones" of orbits around the Earth. One is called low-Earth-orbit, which extends from
about 160 to 2,000 km (about 100 to 1,250 miles). This is the zone where the ISS orbits and where the space shuttle
used to do its work. In fact, all human missions except for the Apollo flights to the moon took place in this zone.
Most satellites also work in this zone.
Geostationary or geosynchronous orbit is the best spot for communications satellites to use, however. This is a zone
above Earth's equator at an altitude of 35,786 km (22,236 mi). At this altitude, the rate of "fall" around the Earth is
about the same as Earth's rotation, which allows the satellite to stay above the same spot on Earth almost constantly.
The satellite thus keeps a perpetual connection with a fixed antenna on the ground, allowing for reliable
communications. When geostationary satellites reach the end of their life, protocol dictates they're moved out of the
way for a new satellite to take their place. That's because there is only so much room, or so many "slots" in that orbit,
to allow the satellites to operate without interference.
While some satellites are best used around the equator, others are better suited to more polar orbits - those that circle
the Earth from pole to pole so that their coverage zones include the north and south poles. Examples of polar-orbiting
satellites include weather satellites and reconnaissance satellites.
(Source: https://www.space.com/24839-satellites.html)
Question 23 [PTBN]. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Parts of a satellite
B. Moons around other worlds
C. What keeps a satellite from falling to Earth?
D. What stops a satellite from crashing into another satellite?
Question 24 [PTBN]. Which of the following best summaries paragraph 5?
A. All satellites circle the Earth from pole to pole.
B. Orbit of satellites depends on their coverage zones and using purpose.
C. Satellites are best used around the equator.
D. Satellites include weather satellites and reconnaissance satellites.
Question 25 [PTBN]. Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 4 as an element that makes a satellite stay
above the same spot on Earth?
A. Geostationary or geosynchronous orbit B. Earth's rotation
C. The zone above Earth's equator D. The rate of "fall" around the Earth
Question 26 [PTBN]. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. satellite needs to be going fast - at least 8 km (5 miles) a second.
B. Satellites that travel closer to Earth contend with drag of more atmospheric molecules.
C. Satellites keep a perpetual connection with a fixed antenna on the ground
D. The Apollo flights to the moon took place in low-Earth-orbit, which extends from about 160 to 2,000 km (about
100 to 1,250 miles).
Question 27 [PTBN]. The word "perpetually" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. gradually B. quickly C. technically D. continuously
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Foot racing is a popular activity in the United States. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as a way to
exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a good cause. Though serious
runners may spend months training to compete, other runners and walkers might not train at all. Those not
competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own time or simply to enjoy the fun and exercise. People of
all ages, from those of less than one year (who may be pushed in strollers) to those in their eighties, enter into this
sport. The races are held on city streets, on college campuses, through parks, and in suburban areas, and they are
commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
The largest foot race in the world is the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco every
spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west side at the Pacific
Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this race through the streets and hills of San Francisco. In
the front are the serious runners who compete to win and who might finish in as little as 34 minutes. Behind them
are the thousands 20 who take several hours to finish. In the back of the race are those who dress in costumes and
come just for fun. One year there was a group of men who dressed like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted
of firefighters who were tied together in a long line and who were carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal
party, in which the bride was dressed in a long white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom
threw flowers to bystanders, and they were actually married at some point along the route.
Question 28 [PTBN]. The phrase "to a good cause" could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. for an award B. for a good purpose
C. to reward the winner D. to protect a wise investment
Question 29 [PTBN]. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. cause and result B. specific to general
C. chronological order D. statement and example
Question 30 [PTBN]. The word "activity” in the first paragraph is most similar to which of the following?
A. motion B. pursuit C. expectation D. pilgrimage
Question 31 [PTBN]. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners were serious about winning.
B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.
C. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley.
D. Some runners were participating in a wedding.
Question 32 [PTBN]. Which of the following is NOT implied by the author?
A. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization.
B. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.
C. Foot races appeal to a variety of people.
D. Walkers can compete for prizes.
Question 33 [PTBN]. The word “bystander” refers to .
A. a participant B. a judge C. a spectator D. a walker
Question 34 [PTBN]. The main purpose of this passage is to .
A. give reasons for the popularity of the foot races
B. describe a popular activity
C. encourage people to exercise
D. make fun of runners in costume
Read the following advertisement/ announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 35 to 40.

HOW SCHOOLS HELP GRADE-12 STUDENTS WITH CAREER PATHS

• (35) career fairs where students can interact with professionals.
• Invite industry professionals for Q&A sessions (36) school hours.
• Partner with local businesses for hands-on career experiences.
• Connect younger students with older peers who (37) career decisions so that they can
gain real-world insights.
Question 35 [PTBN].
A. Figure out B. Catch up on C. Deal with D. Put on
Question 36 [PTBN].
A. during B. while C. as D. for
Question 37 [PTBN].
A. had made B. have made C. would make D. could make

ANNOUNCEMENT
Dear Attendees,
We are thrilled to announce the annual spring festival, which will be held on Saturday, April 15th.
Please arrive at the venue (38) 9:00 AM to ensure ample time for parking and registration. •
Complimentary snacks, entertainment booths, and other (39) will be available throughout the day.
Don't forget to (40) your tickets and follow the festival guidelines for an enjoyable experience.
For additional information, contact the organizers at (555) 123-4567.
Event Management Team
Question 38 [PTBN].
A. on B. at C. to D. in
Question 39 [PTBN].
A. facilities B. volunteers C. performances D. activities
Question 40 [PTBN].
A. have bring B. bring C. brings D. bringed