Đề AV12-Global Success
Đề AV12-Global Success
Biên soạn: Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương || Độc quyền và duy nhất tại: Ngoaingu24h.vn
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. defeat B. hero C. experience D. devote
Question 2. A. diagnose B. adopt C. bond D. biography
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. adopt B. attend C. admire D. marry
Question 4. A. blockbuster B. genius C. enemy D. achievement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The organisation is _______ to improving literacy rates among children in underdeveloped
regions.
A. arranged B. diagnosed C. dedicated D. admired
Question 6. She became a renowned _______, saving countless lives on the operating table.
A. account B. surgeon C. cancer D. genius
Question 7. Working in a _______ hospital, he treated wounded soldiers under extreme conditions.
A. death B. field C. duty D. rule
Question 8. He chose to _______ of school to pursue his dream of becoming a professional musician.
A. go out B. cut down C. pass away D. drop out
Question 9. The _______ was fierce, but his strategic acumen led to a decisive victory.
A. battle B. genius C. cancer D. touchscreen
Question 10. She has been documenting her thoughts and experiences throughout her life by keeping a
detailed _______.
A. army B. surgeon C. diary D. childhood
Question 11. Unlike his siblings, he was lucky to be able to _______ college.
A. adopt B. devote C. attend D. admire
Question 12. Many people _______ Ann for her unwavering dedication to helping others.
A. admire B. diagnose C. defeat D. volunteer
Question 13. While my mom _______ the house, my dad was fixing the car.
A. cleaned B. was cleaning C. is cleaning D. cleans
Question 14. Jane was making a cup of tea when it _______ to snow heavily outside.
A. is starting B. starts C. was starting D. started
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined bold
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. His rare illness puzzled all of the well-known doctors in his town.
A. common B. impressive C. stylish D. creative
Question 16. Despite the odds, they never lost hope and continued to fight against the enemy.
A. hero B. genius C. surgeon D. ally
Read the following advertisement/school announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Announcement: Visit to National Cancer Hospital
The School Volunteer Club would like to announce:
• Students must arrive by 08:00 on July 12; permission slips (17) _______ for all.
• Search for knowledge about the cancer journey in advance.
• (18) _______ to share your time and kindness to support and comfort (19) _______.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentence to make a meaningful
paragraph/letter in the following question.
Question 20.
a. Despite immense challenges, the Vietnamese's resilience and determination eventually led to
reunification in 1975.
b. Initially, Vietnam was under French colonial rule, but the people's desire for independence led to a
series of uprisings.
c. However, tensions remained high, leading to the Vietnam War, where the Vietnamese people fought
against foreign intervention.
d. The Vietnamese People's Resistance War was a significant event in the nation's history.
e. Thus, the First Indochina War broke out, most notably the historic battle of Dien Bien Phu.
f. Subsequently, the Geneva Accords were signed, dividing Vietnam into North and South.
A. d – b – e – f – c – a B. d – a – c – e – b – f
C. b – a – e – c – f – d D. a – d – f – e – d – c
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
Isaac Newton (1643 – 1727) and Albert Einstein (1897 – 1955) are regarded as two of the most
important scientists of all time. They also share some similarities.
Both Einstein and Newton were described as lonely children who lacked social skills,
but had a (21) _______ for complex topics. Einstein dropped out of school at the age of 15 because he
felt bored and didn't like the teaching style. Similarly, Newton didn’t excel in school, (22) _______ he
completed his secondary education and managed to enter Cambridge University.
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Both worked in the field of physics and maths, but in different time periods and (23) _______ to our
understanding of gravity. Newton was the first person to describe gravity and discover the basic laws of
mechanics and motion. While Einstein agreed with some aspects of his theory, he showed that Newton
was wrong about time and space, and came up with a new theory of gravity. Einstein also (24) _______
the foundations of modern physics.
The scientific achievements of both Newton and Einstein are impressive, and there is still a debate
about (25) _______ made the bigger contribution to humankind.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 21. A. passion B. battle C. genius D. childhood
Question 22. A. because B. so C. therefore D. although
Question 23. A. diagnosed B. contributed C. produced D. defeated
Question 24. A. dedicated B. cultivated C. established D. volunteered
Question 25. A. who B. whom C. when D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 26 to 30.
A biography is a narrative of a person's life written by another person. There are usually five main
steps in writing a good biography.
1. Choose a subject. Choosing the person you want to write about is, of course, the first step. This
could be a celebrity or someone who is lesser known. You could also write about someone who is still
alive or someone who is dead. Most importantly, choose a person who has had an impact on other people,
or whose life is interesting.
2. Get permission. Although you can still write about a person's life without his or her permission,
it is always better to get the subject's agreement. This will not only help you in your research, but you
will also avoid upsetting the person later on if he or she thinks your account is not true.
3. Do your research. You can obtain information through primary sources, e.g. the subject's
letters or other personal writings, and interviews with her or him. You can also use secondary sources
prepared by someone who didn't know the subject or published at a later time.
4. Choose a format. A biography is usually told in chronological or time order. However, you
may also choose to organise the events by themes or specific achievements.
5. Outline, write, and edit. It's a good idea to start with a detailed outline including your main
points and the number of chapters. After that, write your first draft. Then revise and edit it until you've
got a final version you are happy with.
Writing a biography is not easy, but it is worth the effort. A biography often influences or motivates
people, and teaches valuable life lessons.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 26. Which can best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Start to Write Today! B. Narrate Your Life Here
C. How to Become a Writer D. Write a Good Biography
Question 27. The word the subject in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. someone who is lesser known B. the person you want to write about
C. someone who is dead D. a celebrity
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Question 28. According to the last paragraph, a biography can _______ people.
A. encourage and educate B. impact and entertain
C. inspire and fascinate D. discourage and hinder
Question 29. The word obtain in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. apply B. admit C. acquire D. admire
Question 30. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Abiography should only be written in chronological order for ease of following.
B. A biography can be written freely as you wish without following any template.
C. The one you want to write about had better be influential or have a compelling life.
D. If the person you're writing about has died, you won't need to get his or her permission.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. festivity B. respect C. trend D. blend
Question 2. A. souvenir B. confusion C. lifestyle D. insulting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. culture B. costume C. cuisine D. barrier
Question 4. A. delicious B. insulting C. cultural D. connected
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The famous chef gave _______ and shared recipes with the crowd.
A. lifestyles B. barriers C. customs D. autographs
Question 6. Each _______ at the fair showcased unique traditional crafts and souvenirs.
A. booth B. bamboo C. trend D. dish
Question 7. Sushi is a _______ from Japan that has gained international popularity.
A. souvenir B. specialty C. confusion D. mystery
Question 8. Learning about each other's _______ fosters mutual respect and understanding.
A. cuisines B. trends C. mysteries D. customs
Question 9. In the _______ of war at the festival, my team won first prize.
A. dish B. trend C. booth D. tug
Question 10. The secret _______ in this dish is a spice commonly used in Middle Eastern cuisine.
A. ingredient B. costume C. richness D. respect
Question 11. The _______ performance captivated everyone with its rhythm and coordination.
A. cultural diversity B. language barrier C. culture shock D. bamboo dancing
Question 12. People from different backgrounds came together to _______ their heritage.
A. gain B. celebrate C. overcome D. reflect
Question 13. _______ globalisation has made it easier for people to experience and appreciate cultural
diversity.
A. A B. An C. The D. Ø (no article)
Question 14. Yesterday, I tried _______ spicy Indian dish that was full of unique flavours.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined bold
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. Having lived here for five years, they did experience the local culture in every respect.
A. chance B. ability C. aspect D. issue
Question 16. The folk games were so interesting that they captivated visitors from start to finish.
A. overcame B. celebrated C. appreciated D. fascinated
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Traditional Korean Music Festival
Discover the charm of traditional Korean music at our festival:
• Immerse yourself in vibrant performances in stunning (17) _______.
• Take home memorable (18) _______ when participating in activities at the festival.
• Unique traditional dishes (19) _______ freely to all participants.
Contact information:
• Email: abcxyz@web.com
• Address: 172 – 174 Lake Street, Mountain District
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentence to make a meaningful
paragraph in the following question.
Question 20.
a. Initially, they might feel excited about the new adventure.
b. Despite these challenges, many students gradually adapt to their new environment.
c. Foreign students often encounter culture shock when studying abroad.
d. Eventually, culture shock transforms into a valuable learning experience, fostering openness and
adaptability.
e. They learn to appreciate the unique aspects of the culture and develop new perspectives.
f. However, as they start settling in, they begin to notice differences in customs and traditions, leading to
feelings of confusion and loneliness.
A. a – c – e – f – b – d B. b – a – d – f – c – e
C. c – a – b – e – f – d D. c – a – f – b – e – d
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
BRAZIL - A DIVERSE ETHNIC & CULTURAL HERITAGE
Brazil is home to the largest population in Latin America, of more than 215 million people. The
pace of (21) _______ has been rapid, with 75% of the population living in urban areas by 1991. While
this growth has contributed to economic (22) _______, it has also led to serious social, environmental,
and political challenges in major cities. (23) ________, Brazil remains famous for its breathtaking natural
beauty.
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The Brazilian population is made up of four main groups: the Portuguese, who colonised Brazil in
the 16th century; Africans (24) _______ were brought to Brazil as slaves; various other European, Middle
Eastern, and Asian immigrant groups who have settled in Brazil since the mid-19th century, and the (25)
_______ people. Although the Portuguese were once the dominant European ethnic group in Brazil, waves
of immigration have resulted in a diverse ethnic and cultural heritage.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 21. A. urbanisation B. urbanism C. globalisation D. anxiety
Question 22. A. autograph B. popularity C. mystery D. development
Question 23. A. In addition B. Nevertheless C. Therefore D. Finally
Question 24. A. whom B. where C. who D. which
Question 25. A. extracurricular B. traditional C. unfamiliar D. indigenous
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 26 to 30.
According to some Canadian news media, university students don't like to share their own cultures
with each other and are not keen to learn about new ones. However. a study conducted earlier this year at
the University of Winnipeg found the opposite. Its aim was to gauge undergraduate students' attitudes
towards cultural identity and cultural diversity.
The current study included 10 undergraduate students who participated in two discussions about
culture and heritage. All participants agreed on the importance of multiculturalism. Seven of them had
arrived in Canada in the last 10 years from different places including the Philippines, Pakistan, and
Nigeria. The students talked about where they, their parents, and their grandparents came from, discussing
everything from language to festivals, religion, and traditions.
Three groups of students emerged. The first group maintained a strong connection with their
heritage culture and values and shared stories about their customs and how they made sure they didn't
forget their heritage language. For example, one of them still liked listening to music in his home
language. The second group felt a sense of belonging to a blend of cultures. They were exposed to different
cultures when they grew up, however, they were open to and interested in experiencing other cultures
through festivals and friends. The third group had experienced language and culture loss through the
process of becoming Canadians. Although they were sad about that loss, they still felt enthusiastic
about enriching Canadian culture and making it more diverse.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 26. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The benefits of multiculturalism B. The difficulties of living abroad
C. The results of a cross-cultural study D. Discoveries about studying abroad
Question 27. The word them in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. students' attitudes B. 10 undergraduate students
C. two discussions D. culture and heritage
Question 28. Which of the following is NOT one of the groups mentioned as the result of the study in the
passage?
A. The one enjoying multiculturalism B. The one losing initial languages and cultures
C. The one overvaluing local culture D. The one strongly connected to their culture
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. landfill B. aware C. reusable D. agree
Question 2. A. sort B. waste C. resource D. ecotourism
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. household B. single C. aware D. friendly
Question 4. A. decompose B. recycle C. sustainable D. efficient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The farmers _______ natural methods for pest control, avoding using chemicals.
A. look up B. rely on C. ask for D. respond to
Question 6. Students are always reminded to _______ the lights when leaving the room to save energy.
A. explain to B. apply for C. turn off D. base on
Question 7. We used to conserve water by using a rain barrel as a _______ for our garden.
A. resource B. layer C. cardboard D. compost
Question 8. Kevin has a habit of _______ glass jars for storing pantry staples.
A. decomposing B. releasing C. sorting D. reusing
Question 9. Using solar panels saves money in the long _______.
A. green B. waste C. run D. pile
Question 10. Customers nowadays prefer products with minimal _______ to reduce waste.
A. awareness B. packaging C. resource D. ecotourism
Question 11. _______ boxes are always broken down and put in the recycling bin.
A. Household B. Cardboard C. Sustainable D. Contaminated
Question 12. People who lack environmental awareness often think that using organic products is a
_______ of money.
A. leftover B. landfill C. pile D. waste
Question 13. The city implemented a new recycling program, _______ has helped increase the recycling
rate.
A. which B. that C. what D. this
Question 14. They carpool to work every day, _______ helps decrease their carbon footprints.
A. that B. where C. who D. which
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined bold
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. To ensure proper disposal, you should sort your waste into recyclable materials, compost,
and trash.
A. categorise B. recycle C. contaminate D. decompose
Question 16. Certain industrial processes release harmful gases into the environment.
A. pollute B. contain C. discharge D. reuse
Read the following school announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Announcement: Recycling Campaign
The School Environment Club would like to announce:
• The Recycling Campaign takes place on June 30 right on campus.
• We encourage participants to bring their single-use but (17) _______ items for making new
products.
• Participants can bring their tools such as knives and scissors, but they must (18) _______ in a
container for (19) _______.
Question 17. A. household B. cardboard C. recyclable D. friendly
Question 18. A. keep B. have kept C. be kept D. to keep
Question 19. A. safety B. layer C. attempt D. release
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentence to make a meaningful
paragraph in the following question.
Question 20.
a. By recycling and reusing items, we can cut down on the amount of trash that ends up in landfills.
b. Going green is essential for protecting our planet.
c. In conclusion, if everyone makes small changes, we can create a healthier, more sustainable world for
future generations.
d. Additionally, using eco-friendly products reduces pollution and conserves natural resources.
e. Moreover, saving energy by turning off lights and using energy-efficient appliances lowers carbon
emissions.
f. Firstly, reducing waste helps keep our environment clean.
A. f – a – d – b – c – e B. b – f – a – d – e – c
C. b – a – f – d – e – c D. d – c – e – f – a – b
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
Earth Hour
Earth Hour is a(n) (21) ________ organised by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF). The event takes
place annually around the world. It encourages everyone to turn off non-essential electric lights, for one
hour, from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m. on the last Saturday of March. The initiative was proposed in 2004 in
Australia, but the idea of a (22) _______ event was developed in 2006 under the name The Big Flick. In
2007, the first Earth Hour was held on 31 March in Sydney, Australia at 7:30 p.m. local time. Later in
October 2007, a similar event called “Lights Out" was held in San Francisco.
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(23) ________ the success of these events, the organisers decided to hold Earth Hour annually
around the world since then. A study in 2014 claimed that the event reduced electricity (24) ________ by
an average of 4%. More importantly, it has helped raise awareness of climate change and has become a
symbol of our commitment to protecting our planet. Although one hour can't change the world, it
encourages governments and people to set long-term goals for (25) ________ development around the
world.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 21. A. ecotourism B. movement C. resource D. institute
Question 22. A. worldwide B. sustainable C. recyclable D. local
Question 23. A. Although B. Despite C. Due to D. Because
Question 24. A. packaging B. production C. consumption D. container
Question 25. A. sustainable B. contaminated C. single-use D. efficient
Read the following paragraph and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 26 to 30.
It's easy to adopt eco-friendly habits, and you can always start at home. Here are three tips to help
you.
There are so many electrical appliances around us, so if we could save even a little amount of
energy from each appliance, it would add up to a lot. For example, there are likely to be tens of light bulbs
in your house, so if you can replace them with LED ones, which are more energy-efficient and long-
lasting light bulbs, you would save a lot of electricity. Before you buy a new appliance, you should also
check its energy star rating, which shows how much energy it will use in a year. It's easy to understand:
the more stars there are, the more energy you can save!
To reduce your carbon footprint, you should also turn off the lights when you leave a room. In
addition, keep your windows or curtains open during the day to let natural sunlight in, or place more
mirrors near a lamp to maximise lighting in the house. This can also help to reduce both energy
consumption and your energy bills.
While many people already know that turning off appliances around the house when they finish
using them can save energy, they may not know that it is even better to unplug them. It is estimated that
we could save up to 10% of our electricity bills every month simply by unplugging appliances when
they're not in use. This is especially true for chargers. Many people tend to leave their fully charged phones
connected, not knowing that it consumes around 2.24 watts. The figure goes up to 29.84 watts for laptops
and computers. Leaving an empty charger plugged in has a similar effect, so make unplugging a habit!
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 26. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Unplug Your Electrical Appliances! B. The Increasing Electricity Production
C. How to Develop Eco-friendly Habits D. Consume Less, Generate More!
Question 27. The word them in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. electrical appliances B. tens of light bulbs
C. LED light bulbs D. long-lasting light bulbs
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Question 28. Each of the following is one of the ways to save energy according to the passage, EXCEPT
_______.
A. unplugging appliances not in use B. placing more mirrors indoors
C. taking more advantage of natural light D. using energy-efficient appliances
Question 29. The word natural in paragraph 3 is opposite in meaning to ______.
A. artificial B. reusable C. sustainable D. affordable
Question 30. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Turning off devices when not in use saves as much electricity as unplugging them.
B. Leaving an empty charger plugged in can possibly create a fire hazard.
C. The more stars rated on an electrical appliance, the more electricity it consumes.
D. Proper placement of mirrors relative to light sources helps optimise indoor lighting.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. urban B. afford C. expand D. reliable
Question 2. A. concern B. colonial C. crowded D. convenient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. urban B. pollute C. crowded D. high-rise
Question 4. A. affordable B. reliable C. colonial D. residential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. There are plenty of _______ activities available in the city, from parks to theatres.
A. resident B. housing C. leisure D. convenience
Question 6. The city plans to _______ its public transportation system next year.
A. rely B. afford C. seek D. expand
Question 7. Living downtown is _______ because everything is within walking distance.
A. convenient B. reliable C. colonial D. crowded
Question 8. The city is filled with _______ buildings that define its skyline.
A. affordable B. high-rise C. reliable D. urban
Question 9. There's a(n) _______ store on every corner, making it easy to buy essentials.
A. resident B. convenience C. urbanisation D. concern
Question 10. The city has many beautiful _______ constructions that attract tourists.
A. convenient B. gradual C. reliable D. colonial
Question 11. _______ has rapidly transformed those small towns into bustling cities.
A. Convenience B. Unemployment C. Urbanisation D. Infrastructure
Question 12. Housing is getting _______ in the central areas.
A. more and most expensive B. more expensive and more expensive
C. the more expensive D. more and more expensive
Question 13. The quality of life _______ significantly since the new infrastructure was built.
A. will improve B. is ỉmproving C. improves D. has improved
Question 14. The higher the unemployment rate is, _______ people move to urban areas seeking jobs.
A. the more B. the most C. much more D. more
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined bold
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. Many people prefer urban living because of career opportunities and easy access to
amenities.
A. reliable B. foreign C. colonial D. rural
Question 16. Roads are always crowded during rush hour, causing traffic jams.
A. empty B. rapid C. high-rise D. hurried
Read the following notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits
each of the numbered blanks.
Notice: Parking Garage Upgrade
Dear Residents,
The building management kindly informs you of the following:
• The (17) _______ upgradation starts from Monday to Sunday next week.
• (18) _______ should avoid approaching the construction area during the project period.
• Vehicles are recommended (19) _______ in the neighbouring buildings' garage.
Thank you for your cooperation.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentence to make a meaningful
paragraph in the following question.
Question 20.
a. Additionally, urban areas attract large companies, leading to more jobs in various sectors.
b. Moreover, improved infrastructure in cities supports economic growth, which in turn generates more
employment.
c. Firstly, as cities expand, new businesses open, offering diverse employment options.
d. However, the competition for jobs can be intense, making it essential for individuals to acquire relevant
skills.
e. Despite this, the potential for career advancement is greater in urban settings.
f. Urbanisation creates numerous job opportunities.
g. In conclusion, urbanisation significantly boosts job prospects, benefiting both individuals and the
economy.
A. f – c – a – b – d – e – g B. f – d – a – b – c – e – g
C. f – e – a – d – g – c – b D. b – c – g – d – e – a – f
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
SINGAPORE'S URBANISATION
In 2018, the United Nations announced that Singapore was completely urbanised as 100 per cent
of its population is defined as “urban”. Urbanisation has brought both (21) _______ and disadvantages to
the small city-state. On the one hand, Singapore (22) _______ a lot of skilled workers from many other
countries to ensure the economy continues to grow. Migrants have also helped create a more culturally
diverse society in Singapore.
On the other hand, urbanisation has caused some serious problems such as deforestation,
overpopulation, and waste (23) _______. Since it was first colonised by the British in 1819 and Singapore
was formally founded, over 95 per cent of its vegetation has been cleared. In terms of population (24)
_______, in many parts of Singapore, there are over 20,000 people living per square kilometre. Waste
treatment used to be another problem in Singapore. (25) _______, thanks to the development of
technology, this problem has been solved. Singapore has even become a leader in urban waste
management.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 21. A. features B. benefits C. impacts D. concerns
Question 22. A. was attracting B. will attract C. attracts D. has attracted
Question 23. A. management B. leadership C. pollution D. structure
Question 24. A. workload B. density C. usage D. product
Question 25. A. Although B. In conclusion C. However D. Therefore
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 26 to 30.
An Binh used to be a small village on the bank of the Red River. Local people mainly worked on
farms and grew their own food. Public transport was not very convenient at that time. Villagers just went
around the local area by bicycle or on foot. The only way for them to travel to another town or city was
to cross the river by boat, and then get on the train.
Their life, however, started to change in the year 2000. A bridge across the Red River was built,
connecting the village with one of the biggest motorways in the country. Since then, many local people
have migrated to big cities. The village has also attracted people to come and start a business here. In
addition, a new industrial zone has been developed. Local people and residents of neighbouring villages
have started working in the industrial zone’s factories. The infrastructure has also been improved. Clean
water facilities and drainage systems have been installed. A number of high-rise buildings have been built.
Supermarkets, hospitals, and many other facilities have also been provided.
The village has now grown into an urbanised town with a population of over 20,000 people. Life
has become easier for its residents. However, there are now some new problems. Many young people are
unemployed because they lack the necessary knowledge and skills to work in the factories. In addition,
the town is getting more and more crowded. As a result, pollution has increased and has sparked concern
among local residents and the authorities. Despite all these concerns, the lives of An Binh’s residents have
generally become much better.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
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Question 26. Which can best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Urbanising the Countryside B. Moving to Bigger Cities
C. Modernising the Infrastructure D. Caring for the Environment
Question 27. The word neighbouring in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. colonial B. faraway C. reliable D. adjacent
Question 28. According to the passage, each of the following is one of the advantages of urbanisation to
An Binh Village, EXCEPT _______.
A. better transportation B. increasing population
C. improved infrastructure D. new job opportunities
Question 29. The word they in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. the village’s residents B. over 20,000 people
C. many young people D. some new problems
Question 30. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Overall, the quality of life in An Binh village has improved despite some issues.
B. During the process of urbanisation, the village's infrastructure has greatly improved.
C. Many people from urban areas have moved to An Binh village since 2000.
D. In the past, An Binh villagers had to travel with difficulty to reach other regions.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. follow B. overtime C. bonus D. only
Question 2. A. wage B. qualification C. accountant D. vacancy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. well-paid B. tiring C. stressful D. vacant
Question 4. A. flexible B. challenging C. relevant D. rewarding
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The company plans to _______ more staff to handle the increased workload.
A. review B. follow C. employ D. supervise
Question 6. A bachelor's degree is an important _______ for many professional careers.
A. qualification B. responsibility C. attendance D. accountant
Question 7. Kate prefers the night _______ because it fits better with her schedule.
A. wage B. review C. bonus D. shift
Question 8. The new policy gave _______ to a lot of discussion among workers.
A. trip B. shift C. rise D. wage
Question 9. Engineering is said to be a(n) _______ but demanding profession.
A. well-paid B. hard-working C. nine-to-five D. on-the-job
Question 10. The new project is _______ but offers a great opportunity to learn new skills.
A. enthusiastic B. responsible C. relevant D. challenging
Question 11. Employees received a(n) _______ at the end of the year for their commitment and
contributions.
A. shift B. bonus C. review D. overtime
Question 12. After his father's retirement, Mark decided to _______ in his footsteps and take over the
family business.
A. review B. follow C. employ D. supervise
Question 13. They were tired after a long day, _____ they decided to eat out instead of cooking.
A. when B. or C. if D. so
Question 14. _____ he was studying for his exams, his friends were out having fun at the party.
A. While B. Because C. If D. So that
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined bold
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. Working long hours can be very stressful, but it's necessary to meet deadlines.
A. tiring B. challenging C. rewarding D. relaxing
Question 16. His hardworking attitude and dedication to his studies have earned him the top position in
the class.
A. diligent B. playful C. lazy D. exciting
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
ABC University Internship and Career Fair
Join us on the campus on June 18th from 8 AM to 5 PM!
● Learn the recruitment process and how to (17) _______ internships and jobs.
● Receive detailed (18) _______ about companies and organisations.
● Participants (19) ________ to have qualifications and relevant documents ready.
Don’t miss this chance to connect with potential employers and boost your career prospects!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences
to make a meaningful letter for the following questions.
Question 20.
a. Additionally, I have a deep passion for helping students achieve their language goals and succeed
academically.
b. Moreover, my skills in lesson planning, classroom management, and engaging students are well-
developed and effective.
c. Thank you for considering my application. I look forward to the possibility of discussing my application
further. Sincerely!
d. I am particularly impressed by your centre's commitment to high-quality education and would love the
opportunity to be a part of it.
e. With a degree in English and over two years of teaching experience, I am confident in my ability to
contribute positively to your team.
f. Dear Ms. Hoa, I am writing to express my interest in the teaching position at your English centre.
A. f – a – e – c – b – d B. b – c – e – a – f – d
C. d – b – f – a – c – e D. f – e – a – b – d – c
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
What does a shop assistant do?
The day-to-day work of a shop assistant includes (21) _______ customers as they enter the store
and answering questions about products or services available in stores. (22) _______, shop assistants help
customers find what they need and inform them of price changes. A shop assistant may also assist with
complaints about items not working correctly when purchased from a particular location.
Successful shop assistants should have excellent (23) _______ skills and understand customer
needs. They have to be friendly and helpful, especially when working in clothing stores or fashion houses.
They also need to have good problem-solving skills and an ability to think on their feet to deal with
difficult situations (24) _______ may occur during their working hours.
A shop assistant usually works alongside a cashier. The shop assistant directs the customers to
cashiers when they are ready to purchase items. They might also (25) _______ any cashier duties when
understaffed.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 21. A. greeting B. reviewing C. employing D. interfering
Question 22. A. In conclusion B. In general C. In short D. In addition
Question 23. A. responsibility B. leadership C. communication D. attendance
Question 24. A. who B. which C. this D. what
Question 25. A. take over B. rely on C. work out D. find out
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 26 to 30.
If you're currently in secondary school, you may be interested in getting a job during your summer
break. Here is some useful advice for you.
Firstly, you should find out when your school will close for the summer. Then you should plan to
apply for jobs two to three months before the start of your summer break. This can help ensure that you
have a job already lined up when summer arrives. After that, you need to learn about the types of jobs that
are available. For example, find out whether there are full-time or part-time jobs, and whether they require
previous experience or training so that you can feel confident about applying.
Secondly, you should prepare an application letter for the job you want to apply for. In the letter,
you should explain why you want the job and provide more details about the experience or skills listed on
your CV. You may have to change each application letter for every specific job to increase your chances
of moving further in the hiring process. For example, your application letter for a shop assistant may
highlight different qualifications than the one for a home tutor to a young child.
Lastly, you should prepare for the job interview. If employers are interested in hiring you, they
may ask you for an interview. Before the interview, prepare for some questions that the interviewer is
likely to ask you, such as why you want the position and what relevant skills you have. On the day of the
interview, bring printed copies of your CV and application letter in case the employer wants to review
them. You should also wear a professional outfit and try to be positive and friendly during your interview.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
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Question 26. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Guide for Students Seeking Jobs B. Preparations for Your Future Careers
C. When Should You Change Jobs? D. Important Skills for a Successful Interview
Question 27. The word them in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. employers interested in hiring you
B. some questions likely to be asked
C. relevant skills you have
D. printed copies of your CV and application letter
Question 28. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Students need to create only one application letter and use it for any job vacancy.
B. The outfit and attitude during the interview will greatly determine the outcome.
C. It's advisable that students practice some possibly asked questions before the interview.
D. The summer vacation length will decide what kind of job for students to apply for.
Question 29. The word highlight in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. endanger B. qualify C. emphasise D. supervise
Question 30. According to the passage, students should do all of the following for their job application,
EXCEPT _______.
A. creating an application letter B. preparing for an interview
C. deciding two or three desirable jobs D. planning the time
Vì quyền lợi chính đáng của chính các em. TUYỆT ĐỐI KHÔNG chia sẻ tài liệu ĐỘC QUYỀN này cho người khác!
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. chatbot B. human C. advance D. distance
Question 2. A. imitate B. milestone C. learning D. digital
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. advanced B. facial C. virtual D. hands-on
Question 4. A. digital B. personal C. effortless D. self-driving
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The security system employs _______ recognition technology to grant access to authorised
personnel.
A. self-driving B. interactive C. virtual D. facial
Question 6. The _______ assistant can schedule your meetings and send reminders.
A. hands-on B. distant C. capable D. virtual
Question 7. The new robot has a _______ appearance and can mimic our gestures.
A. self-driving B. human-like C. hands-on D. real-time
Question 8. The system provides _______ analytics to help businesses make decisions.
A. real-time B. human-like C. facial D. self-driving
Question 9. You can _______ the device by saying the wake word followed by a command.
A. interact B. analyse C. activate D. programme
Question 10. Healthcare providers can greatly benefit _______ diagnostic tools that increase accuracy
and efficiency.
A. from B. by C. of D. with
Question 11. There are concerns that AI might eventually _______ all of our jobs.
A. turn on B. drop out C. take over D. carry out
Question 12. The smart home system can be controlled by voice _______, making it very user-friendly.
A. milestone B. speech C. platform D. command
Question 13. He had his financial records _______ by an audit software.
A. review B. reviewed C. be reviewed D. to review
Question 14. They got the developer _______ a chatbot for their website.
A. be created B. created C. creates D. to create
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined bold
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. The app uses speech recognition to transcribe your spoken words into text.
A. personalisation B. intelligence C. identification D. application
Question 16. With AI integration, tasks that used to take hours can now be completed effortlessly.
A. easily B. hardly C. complexly D. digitally
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Join Our AI Workshop: Boost Your Career!
Unlock the power of AI in your work with our workshop:
● Listen to experts with (17) _______ experience in Artificial Intelligence.
● Create, organise, and manage your (18) _______ with AI assistants.
● Learn how to have various tasks (19) _______ productively by AI software.
Don't miss this opportunity to advance your career!
• Email: workshop@ABC.com
• Address: 81 Door Street, Milestone District
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences
to make a meaningful paragraph for the following questions.
Question 20.
a. Through AI, learning experiences become personalised, with instant feedback and task automation.
b. Consequently, students engage more deeply, enhancing their understanding.
c. In summary, AI enriches learning experiences, fostering student success in the digital age.
d. Artificial intelligence (AI) is transforming university education.
e. However, they must also learn to collaborate effectively with AI, a vital skill for future careers.
f. Therefore, universities are integrating AI courses into their curricula, ensuring students are prepared for
evolving job markets.
A. a – c – e – f – b – d B. d – a – b – e – f – c
C. d – b – f – a – c – e D. f – d – a – b – e – c
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
Understanding ChatGPT: What it is and how it works
ChatGPT is an artificial intelligence chatbot, which was developed by OpenAl research laboratory
and (21) _______ in November 2022. It uses natural language processing (NLP), which helps computers
to understand and interpret text or speech and produce human-like language. ChatGPT has been trained
on a huge amount of text data from different (22) _______ such as books, articles, and web pages, which
has enabled it to understand various topics and answer a wide range of questions. ChatGPT can also be
used to write text in different languages, explain complex topics, and even hold conversations.
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One of the main advantages of ChatGPT is its ability to (23) _______ coherent and informative
answers to a variety of questions on any topic, from science and technology to history and literature.
ChatGPT can also generate text in different styles, (24) _______ can assist you with tasks such as
composing emails and essays, summarising articles, or generating product descriptions. (25) _______,
ChatGPT can be used as a conversational tool, allowing users to join in natural-language conversations
with the system. Overall, ChatGPT is a powerful Al chatbot that has the potential to transform the way
we interact with machines and access information.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 21. A. prepared B. launched C. analysed D. fixed
Question 22. A. sources B. firms C. points D. papers
Question 23. A. reproduce B. generate C. develop D. distribute
Question 24. A. that B. which C. this D. what
Question 25. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. In conclusion
Read the following article and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 26 to 30.
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is likely to improve your engagement in non-STEM subjects
(Literature, Art, Education, and Humanities). For instance, AI-powered language learning platforms like
Duolingo and Rosetta Stone use natural language processing and machine instructions to provide
personalised learning experiences. These platforms can adapt their learning content and pace to match
your individual needs. This can help you learn at your own pace and in your own way, thereby, increasing
engagement and motivation.
AI-powered writing and grammar tools such as Grammarly and Hemingway can provide instant
feedback and suggestions for alternative phrasing and word choices. By analysing your grammar,
vocabulary, and style, they can help you improve your writing skills and communicate better.
Similarly, you can play AI-powered educational games in history and social studies classes. Games
like Civilization and Age of Empires use AI to create realistic historical simulations that can help you
understand historical events and concepts in a more enjoyable and interactive way.
In music and art, there are creative tools such as Amper Music and Dream. These tools use AI to
create original music and art based on users' input. This can provide you with fun and imaginative ways
to study these subjects.
Overall, AI can stimulate your interest in non-STEM subjects by providing personalised
instructions, creating various learning experiences, and offering real-time feedback and support. As AI
technology continues to evolve, you can expect to see even more innovative uses of AI in non-STEM
education.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 26. What is the topic of the article?
A. The usefulness of AI in certain subjects B. AI's limitless and extraordinary capabilities
C. The harmful effects of abusing AI D. A new AI chatbot’s outstanding functions
Question 27. The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. instant suggestions B. phrasing and word choices
C. grammar, vocabulary, and style D. AI-powered writing and grammar tools
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. place B. bias C. fake D. update
Question 2. A. content B. promote C. poster D. forgo
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. access B. update C. fact-check D. broadcast
Question 4. A. flexible B. advertise C. credible D. loudspeaker
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. The TV show attracted millions of _______ during its premiere.
A. viewers B. posters C. adverts D. interests
Question 6. Influencers are often hired at high prices to _______ products on social media platforms.
A. distribute B. update C. promote D. place
Question 7. _______ has become a serious problem in the age of social media.
A. The mass media B. Loudspeaker C. The press D. Fake news
Question 8. _______ features on websites engage users and encourage their participation.
A. Credible B. Flexible C. Interactive D. Accessible
Question 9. The _______ must attractively display key information about the upcoming event.
A. source B. poster C. bias D. interest
Question 10. _______ along the highway grab the attention of passing motorists.
A. Broadcasts B. Billboards C. Interests D. Loudspeakers
Question 11. Digital marketing allows businesses to _______ a wider range of audiences.
A. reach B. spread C. place D. distribute
Question 12. News websites try to constantly _______ their content to retain readers.
A. broadcast B. update C. fact-check D. interact
Question 13. She was _______ a talented singer that she won the singing competition easily.
A. such B. so C. like D. as
Question 14. The children played together _______ they had known each other for years.
A. although B. so that C. likely D. as if
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined bold
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. With instant messaging, information can be exchanged rapidly regardless of distance.
A. credible B. fast-growing C. immediate D. interactive
Question 16. The advert was effective, both making the product widely known and delivering a
meaningful message.
A. broadcast B. interest C. commercial D. publicity
Read the following notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits
each of the numbered blanks.
Notice: Combat fake news in the school environment!
Recently, fake news is increasingly appearing and causing more and more consequences. Therefore, the
School Board would like to encourage:
● Students ought to fact-check (17) _______ before sharing on social networks.
● Everyone should use (18) _______ sources for information access.
● Any suspicious news encountered online must (19) _______.
Any violators will be disciplined if discovered.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences
to make a meaningful paragraph for the following questions.
Question 20.
a. Firstly, it allows individuals to connect with friends and family, keeping them updated on their daily
activities and milestones.
b. Secondly, sharing personal experiences can inspire and motivate others, fostering a sense of community
and support.
c. Sharing personal life on social media has become a common practice.
d. Therefore, the key is to share thoughtfully, focusing on positive and meaningful content that adds value
to both the individual and their audience.
e. In conclusion, sharing personal life on social media can enhance relationships and inspire others, but
it's crucial to strike a balance and prioritise privacy and discretion.
f. However, over-sharing personal information may lead to privacy breaches and unwanted attention.
A. c – a – b – f – d – e B. a – c – b – e – f – d
C. d – b – f – a – c – e D. c – d – a – b – f – e
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
THE INTERNET IN VIET NAM
Over the past 30 years, the Internet has changed the way people experience and create all media.
Today, there are more than five billion Internet users in the world, (21) _______ is more than 60 per cent
of the global population. Current news, information, and entertainment are readily available through
websites and can be easily accessed through search engines. The Internet has become the most exciting
type of (22) _______.
In Vietnam, there were 72.10 million Internet users in early 2022, which accounted for 73.2 per
cent of the total population. The number of social media users in Vietnam was (23) _______ to nearly 70
per cent of the total population. The number of Vietnamese on popular platforms was also impressive
since it was reported that more than 70 million people used Facebook in Vietnam and around 62 million
Vietnamese were on YouTube. These users may not (24) _______ active or unique individuals as some
people may not check or post to their social media platforms. Besides, some accounts can belong to
businesses or groups. (25) _______, these numbers still strongly indicate that the Internet has become one
of the most popular types of mass media in Viet Nam today.
(Adapted from Global Success)
Question 21. A. which B. this C. that D. who
Question 22. A. virtual reality B. fake news C. the press D. mass media
Question 23. A. important B. equivalent C. similar D. different
Question 24. A. distribute B. activate C. observe D. represent
Question 25. A. Additionally B. However C. Therefore D. To sum up
Read the following article and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 26 to 30.
Before the invention of newspapers, the main source of news was word of mouth. Any writings
and drawings were done by hand. Although printing presses had existed in eastern Asia, it was
Gutenberg’s invention in Europe in 1453 that made printing faster and books more accessible. It reduced
the cost and size of printed books and made them the first form of mass media affordable to less wealthy
people. Gutenberg’s invention also quickened the spread of discoveries and information and promoted
literacy in Europe.
The printing press led to the rise of printed newspapers that appeared regularly. The first
newspapers developed from around 1612 and in a short period of time, they became very popular in
Europe and the European colonies. In the 19th century, they also appeared in Asia. Newspapers and
magazines are still very popular today. Although most of them have online versions, many people
continue to read print media, which is considered more credible than digital media.
In the 1920s, when radio, television, and video were introduced, the phrase “the media” began to
be used. Black and white television quickly became popular in the 1950s, and in the 1960s, colour
broadcasts started in many countries. Thanks to its audiovisual presentation, television became one of the
most important forms of mass media in the 20th century. As a source of news, entertainment, and
education, it still attracts a large number of viewers today.
(Adapted from Global Success)
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Question 26. Which best serves as the title for the article?
A. The Rise of the Media B. Outdated Media Platforms
C. Traditional Forms of Media D. Development of Journalism and Information
Question 27. All of the following are the forms of mass media mentioned in the passage EXCEPT
_______.
A. video B. photo-sharing C. television D. printed newspapers
Question 28. The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the printing press B. printed newspapers
C. Europe and the European colonies D. online versions
Question 29. The word wealthy in paragraph 1 is opposite in meaning to ______.
A. visual B. luxury C. poor D. rich
Question 30. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Printing presses, a European invention, appeared first in eastern Asia in the 15th century.
B. After the advent of the printing press, printing newspapers started to become more popular.
C. Many people still choose printed newspapers and magazines thanks to their credibility.
D. Information had been mainly exchanged verbally before the advent of newspapers.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. survive B. gibbon C. illegal D. critical
Question 2. A. coral B. monitor C. recover D. deforest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. debris B. forest C. release D. species
Question 4. A. recovery B. illegally C. captivity D. vulnerable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Without immediate action, many species could go _______ within our lifetime.
A. illegal B. extinct C. marine D. rare
Question 6. They _______ the health and behaviour of the animals after their release.
A. degrade B. recover C. survive D. monitor
Question 7. The new _______ was designed to mimic the natural habitat of the apes.
A. enclosure B. deforestation C. clearance D. threat
Question 8. Efforts are underway to help the endangered species _______ their population numbers.
A. rescue B. recover C. poach D. degrade
Question 9. The sanctuary will _______ the rescued animals until they can be safely released back into
the wild.
A. hunt B. degrade C. house D. poach
Question 10. The _______ serves as a crucial spawning ground for many marine species.
A. forest clearance B. sign language C. habitat loss D. coral reef
Question 11. The rescued animals were kept in a temporary _______ before being moved to the reserve.
A. cage B. debris C. threat D. ape
Question 12. Many _______ species are threatened by habitat loss and poaching.
A. nursery B. captivity C. wildlife D. enclosure
Question 13. Forest clearance is _______ issue facing us.
A. the most urgent B. more urgent C. as urgent as D. more urgent than
Question 14. Unless deforestation is halted, many gibbons _______.
A. would disappear B. will disappear C. disappear D. had disappeared
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined bold
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. The illegal wildlife trade is one of the main reasons for the decline in primate populations
here.
A. allowable B. valid C. unlawful D. extinct
Question 16. Wildlife conservation is important for the ecological balance of the planet.
A. destruction B. enclosure C. deforestation D. protection
Read the following notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that best fits
each of the numbered blanks.
NOTICE: Missing Monkey from Zoo
Central Zoo would like to inform residents:
● A monkey (17) _______ its enclosure at 4 pm on March 13th and was last seen heading towards
Ocean Street.
● Be cautious if you see the animal; it is dangerous but (18) _______.
● If you capture it, call 1938223 immediately, and do not (19) _______ it until our rescue staff
arrive.
Your help in safely returning the monkey is greatly appreciated.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences
to make a meaningful paragraph for the following questions.
Question 20.
a. This process supports food production for various animals and humans.
b. For example, bees pollinate plants, which helps in the reproduction of many crops.
c. However, some argue that human intervention can replace natural roles.
d. The role of a species in an ecosystem is crucial for maintaining balance.
e. Nevertheless, each species contributes uniquely to its environment, ensuring diversity and resilience.
f. Furthermore, predators like wolves keep prey populations in check, preventing overgrazing.
g. Thus, protecting every species is essential for a healthy ecosystem.
A. d – a – c – f – g – b – e B. c – a – g – f – e – f – b
C. d – b – a – f – c – e – g D. f – d – a – b – g – c – e
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
Protecting the red-crown crane
The red-crowned crane, (21) _______ is native to East Asia, is considered one of the most
endangered crane species in the world. Moreover, the birds have faced many challenges in recent years.
One of the biggest threats to their survival is (22) _______. As human populations continue to grow, the
crane's habitats are being destroyed. Fortunately, conservation efforts are underway to protect this
magnificent bird. Many organisations are working to preserve wetlands and other habitats that are
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essential for the species' (23) _______. Additionally, programmes are in efforts to protect the cranes from
hunters and to stop the illegal trade in cranes and their body parts. The crane also serves as a(n) (24)
_______ species, which means that changes in their populations can signal larger problems in the
environment.
(25) _______, it is important for us to take action to protect endangered species like the red-
crowned crane. This can include supporting conservation efforts through donations or volunteering, as
well as making changes in our own lives to reduce our impact on the environment.
(Adapted from Global Success)
Question 21. A. who B. that C. what D. which
Question 22. A. big profit B. habitat loss C.sign language D. coral reef
Question 23. A. captivity B. clearance C. survival D. nursery
Question 24. A. initiative B. mammal C. deforestation D. indicator
Question 25. A. Therefore B. However C. Nevertheless D. Moreover
Read the following news items and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 26 to 30.
Nike, one of the world's largest sportswear companies, has announced that it will no longer use
kangaroo leather in the production of its shoes starting in 2023. This decision is a significant step towards
wildlife protection, particularly in Australia, where millions of kangaroos are killed every year.
The use of kangaroo skin in athletic shoes has always caused a lot of anger among environmental
groups due to the cruel practices involved in the commercial killing of kangaroos. Many have called for
a ban on the use of kangaroo leather in products, and Nike's announcement is a step towards that goal.
Nike will instead produce a new version of its popular football boots made from a new synthetic
material that provides better performance. The company's decision to replace kangaroo leather with a
synthetic material is also in line with the growing trend among luxury brands to ban it in their products.
Other major brands such as Puma, Versace, and Prada have already taken similar steps.
While Nike's decision has been widely applauded, there are concerns about the impact on the
commercial kangaroo industry in Australia. Its supporters believe that banning the use of kangaroo
leather in products would have negative economic impacts on the industry, despite the environmental
benefits. The commercial killing of kangaroos is legal in Australia and kangaroo products are also
considered by some to be a sustainable option, as their carbon footprint is believed to be a lot lower than
that of cattle and sheep.
Nike's decision to stop using kangaroo leather in its products is a positive step towards wildlife
protection. However, it is also important to consider its impact on the commercial kangaroo industry and
the need for sustainable and humane management of kangaroo populations.
(Adapted from Global Success)
Question 26. The word supporters in paragraph 4 is opposite in meaning to _______.
A. advocates B. onlookers C. opponents D. environmentalists
Question 27. According to the passage, Nike's decision brings all of the following benefits, EXCEPT
_______.
A. increase in kangaroo population B. protecting the environment
C. public approval D. keeping up with trends
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. childminder B. thinking C. skill D. critical
Question 2. A. adviser B. applicant C. barista D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. tutor B. career C. leaver D. vitae
Question 4. A. specialty B. decision C. childminder D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. A(n) _______ should highlight his strengths and experiences on his CV.
A. applicant B. passion C. personality D. position
Question 6. Some jobs may become _______ due to technological advancements.
A. critical B. fascinating C. obsolete D. passionate
Question 7. Choosing the right _______ is crucial for long-term job satisfaction and growth.
A. career B. demand C. barista D. character
Question 8. Many routine tasks in the industry are becoming _______ with the help of machines.
A. passionate B. obsolete C. automated D. critical
Question 9. The program is specifically designed to help _______ transition into the workforce.
A. career paths B. school-leavers C. decision-making D. critical thinking
Question 10. Skilled software developers are always in _______ due to the tech sector's rapid growth.
A. demand B. passion C. tutor D. decision
Question 11. Becoming a(n) _______ requires patience and a genuine love for kids.
A. decision B. childminder C. adviser D. applicant
Question 12. She applied for a _______ as a junior software developer at a tech company.
A. character B. tutor C. barista D. position
Question 13. We should _______ our colleagues to create a positive work environment.
A. get on with B. get through to C. live up to D. put up with
Question 14. After graduating, he _______ having a high-paying job in marketing.
A. cut down on B. got on with C. looked forward to D. went in for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined bold
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. She found the field of environmental science fascinating and decided to pursue it.
A. interesting B. passionate C. boring D. stressful
Question 16. Internships are a great way to gain practical experience in your chosen field.
A. get B. lose C. acquire D. add
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Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Career Advisory Workshop for Seniors!
The Student Support Centre would like to announce the organisation of the Career Advisory Workshop
for seniors. Come join us, you can:
● Meet top (17) _______ in recruitment and HR.
● Discover which jobs match your (18) _______ traits and character.
● Hear from experts to (19) _______ the latest job trends.
All your questions will be answered at our workshop!
▪ Contact Email: ssc.info@uft.edu.vn
▪ Date & Time: 5 pm on May 24th, in room D201
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences
to make a meaningful paragraph for the following questions.
Question 20.
a. First, identify your strengths and interests to guide your decision.
b. In conclusion, combining thoughtful planning with flexibility will lead to a fulfilling and rewarding
career.
c. Choosing the right career path is crucial for long-term success and happiness.
d. Next, research various industries and job roles that align with your skills.
e. Additionally, seek advice from career advisors and professionals in the field to gain insights.
f. However, sometimes instead of waiting for the perfect job, it’s beneficial to try different roles.
g. This approach helps you gain experience and discover what you truly enjoy.
A. f – d – g – c – a – b – e B. c – g – f – a – b – e – d
C. c – a – d – e – f – g – b D. b – a – c – f – g – e – d
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
In a changing job market
The world of work is changing rapidly. A lot of common jobs such as travel agents and cashiers
are expected to (21) _______ by the year 2050. At the same time, new jobs will be created. In such a
rapidly changing job market, it seems impossible to teach or learn technical or (22) _______ skills for
jobs that don't exist yet. So, what can we do to prepare for the job opportunities of the future? Researchers
have suggested that both future employers and employees will always need (23) _______ such as
collaboration, organisation, and communication skills. Some of the jobs or businesses that will exist in 30
years' time haven't been invented yet. But we will probably still work in organisations (24) _______
consist of people from different generations. We will need to be open to different points of view and ways
of thinking. (25) _______, it is important for us to overcome bias and be willing to take in new information
and ideas. Having key soft skills and being open-minded about new things will help us prepare for the
future world of work.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
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Read the following article and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 26 to 30.
When you leave secondary school, you have different options, including going to a university or a
vocational school, getting a job or taking a gap year. Sometimes choices may make you confused, so you
should examine all your options before making any plans for the future. Below are some things you may
like to try before making your decision.
If there are teachers you really love or look up to, you can ask them for some advice. Your teachers
have been observing you for months, so they know your strengths, talents, and personality. You may share
your dreams and concerns with them and ask them to give you an honest opinion about what option may
be suitable for you.
If possible, you can talk to career advisers when you are still undecided about your future plans
and ask for their advice. If you can't find a career adviser, you can take some career-matching tests online.
They are typically created by career experts and psychologists, so they can help you make an informed
decision.
Visiting a college or university campus is also important as it will make you think about if you can
see yourself there or not. Usually, educational institutions have orientation days for secondary school
students to experience university life first-hand. You could even contact the university.
So try following the above suggestions, and you will certainly make a more informed decision
about your future plans.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 26. The word They in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. career advisers B. future plans C. career experts D. career-matching tests
Question 27. Which of the folowing is true according to the passage?
A. The best choice after graduating from secondary school is to go to university.
B. A teacher will help you a lot if you decide to go to university after graduation.
C. Real-life experience in the college environment will help you in decision-making.
D. If you decide to go straight to work, seek a career advisor for their career suggestions.
Question 28. Which best serves as the title of the passage?
A. Consider Your Future Plan! B. Prepare for College Life
C. Get Ready for Your Career D. Learn about Adulthood
Question 29. The word look up to in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. dislike B. remember C. adapt D. respect
Question 30. All of the advice is mentioned in the passage, EXCEPT _______.
A. consulting a close teacher B. seeking suggestions from career advisers
C. asking for advice from colleges D. experiencing university life
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. distance B. adult C. relevant D. obstacle
Question 2. A. expand B. complex C. self-study D. education
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. lifelong B. martial C. complex D. informed
Question 4. A. imprison B. expensive C. relevant D. well-rounded
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. _______ requires a high level of self-discipline and determination.
A. Governess B. Self-study C. Motivation D. Distraction
Question 6. Reading can _______ your horizons and deepen your understanding of various subjects.
A. imprison B. wonder C. maintain D. expand
Question 7. My _______ taught not only academic subjects but also essential life skills.
A. governess B. education C. distance D. obstacle
Question 8. Attending a _______ allows adults to continue their education while working full-time.
A. self-study B. martial art C. night school D. learning community
Question 9. I often study alone in a quiet space to avoid _______.
A. hardships B. distractions C. pursuit D. determination
Question 10. Learners can seek support and motivation in _______.
A. self-study B. adult education C. martial arts D. learning communities
Question 11. _______ provides flexibility for those who cannot attend traditional classes.
A. Self-motivation B. Distance learning C. Martial art D. Adult education
Question 12. Don’t let fear and laziness _______ your potential to learn and grow.
A. wonder B. imprison C. boost D. overcome
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that fits in the blank so that the rewritten sentence
has the same meaning as the question.
Question 13. “Don’t forget to bring your ID cards for the event,” Mark said.
→ Mark _______ us to bring our ID cards for the event.
A. advised B. reminded C. offered D. ordered
Question 14. “Don’t play with the sharp objects,” Jenny said to her brother.
→ Jenny _______ her brother not to play with the sharp objects.
A. agreed B. said C. suggested D. warned
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined bold
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. Travel and cultural experiences can widen one's perspective and understanding of the world.
A. broaden B. overcome C. acquire D. imprison
Question 16. It’s never too late to acquire new skills and knowledge.
A. relate B. lose C. enhance D. obtain
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
English Classes for Working Adults
Improve your English language skills with our courses designed for working adults. Coming to our class,
you will:
● Overcome age barriers with our (17) _______ adult education environment.
● Have flexible learning (18) _______: night schools combined with distance learning.
● Gain essential knowledge and skills (19) _______ to your profession.
The class starts in September. For more details, please contact us.
▪ Email: englishforadult@tht.com
▪ Phone No.: 1900 2941
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences
to make a meaningful paragraph for the following questions.
Question 20.
a. What's more, self-study fosters independence and self-reliance, valuable skills in language acquisition.
b. Having a tutor can provide personalised support and immediate feedback, addressing challenges more
efficiently.
c. Self-studying a new language offers flexibility and convenience, allowing learners to progress at their
own pace and on their own schedule.
d. While both approaches have merits, finding the right balance between self-study and guided instruction
is key to successful language learning.
e. However, it requires self-discipline and motivation to stay on track without direct guidance.
f. Besides, it's often more affordable than traditional classes, making it accessible to many.
A. c – b – d – a – e – f B. f – c – d – a – b – e
C. b – c – f – a – e – d D. c – f – a – e – b – d
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to choose the word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
IT'S NEVER TOO OLD TO STUDY
At the age of 97, Allan Stewart set a world (21) _______ for being the oldest university graduate
when he received his Master of Clinical Science from Southern Cross University in New South Wales,
Australia. This was Stewart's fourth university degree, (22) _______ broke his own Guinness World
Record in 2006 when, aged 91, he completed a law degree at the University of New England. Stewart
(23) _______ his first degree, a Bachelor of Dentistry, from the University of Sydney in 1936. He later
completed a Doctor of Dental Surgery degree at Northwestern University in Chicago and worked (24)
_______ a dentist in London, Sydney and the rural areas of northern New South Wales. He said that
people were never too old to study. Allan Stewart has (25) _______ an inspiring example for us to follow
and learn throughout our lives.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 21. A. objective B. obstacle C. hardship D. record
Question 22. A. which B. who C. that D. what
Question 23. A. made B. wondered C. earned D. widened
Question 24. A. as B. like C. so D. of
Question 25. A. made B. set C. taken D. done
Read the following interview and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 26 to 30.
Teen Talk Magazine has recently interviewed Dr Ha, a sociologist at a local university. Here is
what he shared with us.
Dr Ha, what do you think about education for adults?
According to UNESCO's Institute of Statistics, there are about 770 million illiterate adults
globally. And even many more don't have the skills and knowledge they need to succeed in the 21st
century. It's true that more and more people are participating in adult education in some places, however,
learning opportunities are still beyond the reach of many others.
So, why is adult education important?
As we all know, the world is changing rapidly and constantly, and everybody must be ready to
change with it, otherwise, they will be left behind. This means making the effort to learn about society
and all the technological, scientific, and social advancements happening today. Lifelong learning is also
important for personal and professional growth.
Yes, I agree. But how can school dropouts get access to adult education?
Well, in fact, it's a big challenge for them. Going back to school after dropping out is not easy,
especially when people have to work to support their families or take care of young children or sick family
members. At present, those who need adult education the most, such as women, disadvantaged and
vulnerable groups, rural populations, and older citizens, still have limited access to learning opportunities.
A recent UNESCO report has revealed some worrying statistics. About 60% of countries reported no
improvement in participation by people with disabilities, migrants, or prisoners. In addition, 24% of
countries reported that the participation of rural populations had declined. And participation of older
adults had also decreased in 24% of the 159 surveyed countries.
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How about adult education in Viet Nam? Is our country facing similar challenges?
Yes, but we have actually made some progress in promoting the education of rural workers and
increasing our community learning centres. Our government has also invested more in adult learning and
education. I strongly believe this investment will not only help improve the quality of adult classes but
also give all people the same access to educational services and experiences.
(Adapted from Global Success Workbook 12)
Question 26. What is the interview mainly about?
A. Students dropping out of schools B. Challenges in adult education
C. Obstacles in education for women D. Difficulty accessing formal education
Question 27. The word they in the first question of the interview refers to _______.
A. adults B. skills C. places D. opportunities
Question 28. The word improvement in paragraph 4 is opposite in meaning to _______.
A. progress B. promotion C. enhancement D. decline
Question 29. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Vietnam has seen no progress in adult education despite government investment.
B. On average, only 24% of the rural population participates in education.
C. Today, the majority of people in the world are literate or have access to education.
D. The world's rapid and continuous change requires people to adapt to keep up.
Question 30. Which of the following problems affecting adult learners who need education the most?
A. Married ones can't afford education. B. They find it difficult to return to school.
C. They are still inaccessible to education. D. They receive no support from the government.
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