Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

SBI CLERK MAINS MODEL TEST - 52

GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Government is implementing National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) scheme wherein

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online trading of Agriculture and Horticulture commodities is done for transparent
price discovery for farmers for their produce through competitive online bidding
system. In February 2025, how many new agricultural commodities have been
included on the e-NAM platform?
1) 12 commodities 2) 10 commodities
3) 05 commodities
ha 4) 18 commodities 5) 21 commodities
2. Which of the following bank has raised Rs 5,000 crore through its 1st Basel III

E
compliant Additional Tier 1 (AT-1) bond issuance for the current Financial Year
(FY-2025) at a coupon rate of 7.98%?
d
1) State Bank of India 2) Punjab National Bank
3) ICICI Bank 4) HDFC Bank 5) Indian Bank
ee

3. Which ministry has launched revised Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)

partnered with Railway Protection Force (RPF) to protect vulnerable children found
on railway premises nationwide?
C
1) Ministry of Home Affairs 2) Ministry of Women and Child Development
3) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Sr

4) Ministry of Law and Justice 5) Ministry of Cooperation

4. Which state government has decided to provide a 100% exemption from road tax
and registration fee on purchase of electric vehicles?
1) Telangana 2) Jharkhand 3) Tamil Nadu 4) Maharashtra 5) Kerala
5. Which of the following scheme has converged with the Employees' State Insurance
C
(ESI) Scheme to improve healthcare access for ESI beneficiaries?
1) Atal Pension Yojana (APY) 2) Unified Pension Scheme (UPS)
3) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
4) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)
5) Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)
6. On March 16, 2025, Renowned Odia poet and former IAS officer “Ramakanta
Rath”, known for his profound contribution to modern Odia literature, passed
away at 90. “Ramakanta Rath” has received the following awards.
1) Padma Bhushan Award (2006) 2) Saraswati Samman Award (1992)
3) Kendriya Sahitya Akademi Award (1977) 4) Only (1) & (2) 5) All (1), (2) & (3)
7. Architect and educator, Liu Jiakun has won the 2025 Pritzker Architecture Prize,
the most important award in architecture. He is from which country?
1) China 2) South Korea3) Russia 4) Bhutan 5) Japan

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

8. ‘International Anti-Corruption Day’ is observed annually on ‘9 December’ to raise

awareness about corruption and promote measures to combat it. Which of the
following organization established International ‘Anti-Corruption Day’?
1) World Bank (WB) 2) United Nations (UNs)
3) World Economic Forum (WEF)
4) Transparency International (TI) 5) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
9. Which of the following company has signed ‘Jasprit Bumrah’ as its brand
ambassador to promote cricket footwear?
1) Reebok 2) Adidas 3) Puma 4) Nike 5) Skechers

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10. Recently, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced a Self-Regulatory Organization
(SRO-AA) Framework to oversee and streamline the Account Aggregator (AA)
ecosystem in India. RBI has also invited applications from eligible entities to set
up. What is the deadline for submitting applications for recognition of an SRO-
AA?
1) August 15, 2025
ha 2) May 15, 2025 3) June 15, 2025
4) December 31, 2025 5) January 1, 2026
11.

E
Who had won a bronze medal in the Swiss Open 2024 Archery tournament under
the men's recurve category?
d
1) Devanah Singh 2) Mete Gazoz
3) Alessandro Paoli 4) Atanu Das 5) Lorenzo Gubbini
ee

12. India has been ranked as having the 4th most powerful military in the world after
the United States of America, Russia and China by the Global Firepower Index
2025. Which country was ranked at the bottom of the Global Firepower Index
C
2025?
1) Afghanistan 2) Maldives 3) Nepal 4) Sri Lanka 5) Bhutan
Sr

13. Which of the following regulators is NOT a part of the Financial Stability and
Development Council (FSDC)?
1) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
2) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
3) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)
C
4) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) 5) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
14. What is the total outlay approved by the Union Cabinet for the continuation of the
‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)’ and the Restructured Weather Based
Crop Insurance Scheme (RWBCIS) until 2025-26?
1) Rs 69,515 crore 2) Rs 51,015 crore
3) Rs 78,050 crore 4) Rs 83,350 crore 5) Rs 46,000 crore
15. Which of the following organization prepared the model scheme for the Kisan
Credit Card (KCC)?
1) State Bank of India (SBI) 2) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
3) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
4) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
5) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

16. The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) (formerly known as Indian Research
Fund Association (IRFA) is an organization responsible for coordination and
promotion of biomedical research and is one of the oldest and largest medical
research bodies in the world. Where is the head quarter of “ICMR”?
1) Hyderabad 2) Mumbai 3) Chennai 4) New Delhi 5) Bangalore
17. In January 2025, the Government of India (GoI) decided to retain the interest
rates on small savings schemes for Q4 FY25-26.
What is the current interest rate of the ‘National Savings Certificate (NSC)’?
1) 7.7% 2) 6.8% 3) 6.5% 4) 7.9% 5) 7.5%

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18. What is the expanded form of “IFRS” as used in the banking / financial sector?
1) Indian Financial Report Standard 2) Indian Financial Rating Standards
3) Indian Functional Reporting Standards
4) International Financial Rating Standards
ha
5) International Financial Reporting Standards
19. Which Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) has introduced a compact device for

E
early detection of breast cancer at an affordable cost?
1) IIT Indore 2) IIT Delhi 3) IIT Kanpur 4) IIT Patna 5) IIT Kharagpur
d
20. The central government imposed President's Rule in Manipur on 13 February
2025 under Article 356 of the constitution. How many times has the president's
ee

rule been imposed in Manipur until now?

1) 06 times 2) 07 times 3) 11 times 4) 15 times 5) 18 times
21. Which of the following is not a ‘Navratna’ Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?
C
1) Coal India Limited (CIL) 2) Engineers India Limited (EIL)
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3) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)

4) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
5) Container Corporation of India (CONCOR)
22. What is the estimated outlay for the Incentive Scheme for Promotion of Low-
Value BHIM-UPI Transactions (P2M) for the financial year 2024-25?
1) Rs.1,000 crore 2) Rs.2,000 crore
C
3) Rs.2,500 crore 4) Rs.1,500 crore 5) Rs.3,000 crore
23. The 18th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD Convention 2025) will be held at
Bhubaneswar in Odisha from the 8th January. What is the theme of the 18th
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD Convention 2025)?
1) “Global Indians, Global Future” 2) “Connecting India to the World”
3) “Empowering the Indian Diaspora”
4) “India’s Progress through Its People”
5) “The Diaspora’s Contribution to a Viksit Bharat”
24. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to make Legal Entity Identifier (LEI)
code mandatory for all market participants. How many digits are there in LEI
code?
1) 16 digits 2) 15 digits 3) 20 digits 4) 11 digits 5) 10 digits

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

25. Which of the following railway zone has partnered with IRCON for the maintenance
of electrification infrastructure?
1) Northern Railway 2) Northeast Frontier Railway
3) Southern Railway 4) Western Railway 5) Eastern Frontier Railway
26. The gig and platform economy is expanding, offering new jobs in ridesharing,
delivery, logistics, and professional services. Which organization has projected
the growth of the gig economy in India?
1) NITI Aayog 2) World Bank (WB)
3) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)4) International Labour Organization (ILO)

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5) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
27. With which indigenous full-stack Generative AI (GenAI) company has the Unique
Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) partnered with to enhance user experience,
while availing Aadhaar services?
1) Bhim AI
ha
2) Sanket AI 3) Kutrim AI 4) Sarvam AI 5) Ananta AI
28. Which of the following bank has launched the ‘Mahila Shaksham scheme’ designed

E
to finance individual Women Self-Help Group members under the Centre’s
Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission initiative?
1) Union Bank of India 2) Indian Overseas Bank
d
3) Punjab National Bank 4) Canara Bank 5) Bank of Baroda
29. Which state government has launched Project Hifazat to protect women from
ee

violence?
1) Haryana 2) Rajasthan 3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Uttar Pradesh 5) Punjab
C
30. Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) recently distributed 2,050 bee
boxes, honey colonies, and toolkits to 205 beekeepers across six states under
Sr

Honey Mission. When was this mission launched to promote Bee Keeping activities
and provide self-sustaining employment opportunities among farmers, Adivasies
and unemployed youth in rural India, especially in economically backward and
remote areas?
1) 2018 2) 2017 3) 2015 4) 2014 5) 2016
31. In December 2024, the Government of India (GoI) and the Asian Development
C
Bank (ADB) signed a USD 50 million loan agreement to improve water security
and climate resilience in which state?
1) Meghalaya 2) Himachal Pradesh
3) Haryana 4) Uttar Pradesh 5) Nagaland
32. Which of the following nuclear power plants will be the largest in India once
completed?
1) Kakrapar Nuclear Plant 2) Jaitapur Nuclear Power Plant
3) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
4) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant 5) Gorakhpur Nuclear Power Project
33. In November 2024, 24 coastal villages from which state were officially recognized
as 'Tsunami Ready' by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of
UNESCO?
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Odisha 3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Kerala 5) West Bengal

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

34. Which company predicts that, by 2030, India’s economy would have risen from its
present ranking of fifth to third place in the world?
1) JP Morgan 2) CRED 3) Brickwork 4) CARE 5) S&P Global
35. In which city, India has launched the ‘Study in India’ campaign at the 20th
International Education Show?
1) Montreal, Canada 2) Manila, Philippines 3) Sharjah, UAE
4) Brussels, Belgium 5) Washington, DC, USA
36. What term describes banking services offered to high-net-worth clients, such as
corporations, commercial banks, and mid-sized companies?

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1) Wholesale Banking 2) Retail Banking
3) Narrow Banking 4) Shadow Banking 5) Unit Banking
37. Which Organisation has raised its shareholding in Bank of Maharashtra from
4.05% to 7.10% following a Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP)?
1) HDFC Bank Limited 2) IDFC First Bank Limited
ha
3) Reliance Industries Limited
4) Life Insurance Corporation of India
5) Kotak Mahindra General Insurance Company Limited
38.

E
When did India become a member of “International Telecommunication Union
(ITU)”?
d
1) 1869 2) 1956 3) 1971 4) 1898 5) 1942
39. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has organised the Annual Conference of RBI
ee

Ombudsmen in Mumbai. What was the theme of the Annual Conference of RBI
Ombudsmen?
1) Customer Satisfaction in Banking 2) Strengthening Banking Regulations
C
3) Digital Banking and Future Innovations
4) Financial Inclusion through Technology
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5) Transforming Grievance Redress: The AI Advantage

40. According to Morgan Stanley, which country will India overtake to become the
world’s third-largest economy by 2028?
1) United Kingdom 2) Japan 3) Germany 4) France 5) Canada
41. The Amrit Kalash and Amrit Vrishti fixed deposit schemes have been extended by
the State Bank of India (SBI) till March 31, 2025. How many days is the fixed
C
deposit duration offered by the Amrit Kalash scheme?
1) 365 days 2) 300 days 3) 500 days 4) 400 days 5) 444 days
42. Who among the following eminent personalities have been conferred with the
“Padma Vibhushan Award 2025” for their contributions and achievements in the
field of Public Affairs?
1) Smt. Sharda Sinha 2) Jagdish Singh Khehar
3) Shri Duvvur Nageshwar Reddy
4) Smt. Kumudini Rajnikant Lakhia
5) Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam
43. The ‘Reliance Nippon Life Nishchit Pension’ is a brand-new deferred annuity plan
from Reliance Nippon Life Insurance Company Limited. According to the Indian
government’s Economic Survey, what percentage of the country’s population is
expected to be over 60 by 2041?
1) 14.8% 2) 12.7% 3) 18.5% 4) 16.4% 5) 15.9%

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

44. Which of the following two fintech companies have launched India’s first non-
banking e-Rupee (e-Rs.) wallets?
1) MobiKwik & CRED 2) Google Pay & Amazon Pay
3) ICICI Bank & HDFC Bank 4) Razorpay & BharatPe 5) Paytm & PhonePe
45. Recently, which state government has raised the upper age limit to 65 years for
the “Mukhyamantri Majhi Ladki Bahin” scheme, under which women will get Rs
1,500 per month?
1) Gujarat 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Maharashtra 5) Uttar Pradesh
46. Which regulatory body designates Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-
SIIs) in India?

r’s
1) Ministry of Finance 2) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
3) National Insurance Academy (NIA)
4) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
5) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
47. Which of the following company has launched Unified Payment Interface (UPI)
ha
Lite Auto Top-Up designed to streamline small, frequent transactions for users,
making everyday payments quick and hassle free?
1) Paytm 2) PhonePe 3) Razorpay 4) GooglePay 5) PayPal
48.

E
“Senchal Wildlife Sanctuary” is located in which of the following Indian state?
1) Himachal Pradesh 2) Arunachal Pradesh
d
3) Chhattisgarh 4) Maharashtra 5) West Bengal
49. Where was the 11th edition of the annual bilateral maritime exercise, Sri Lanka-
India Naval Exercise (SLINEX-24) held between the Indian Navy (IN) and the Sri
ee

Lankan Navy from 17-20 December 2024?

1) Panaji, Goa 2) Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
C
3) Chennai, Tamil Nadu 4) Mumbai, Maharashtra 5) Kochi, Kerala
50. With which tech giant has the IndiaAI, an Independent Business Division (IBD)
under the Digital India Corporation recently signed an MoU to drive the adoption
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and development of artificial intelligence (AI) in India?

1) Microsoft 2) Google 3) OpenAI 4) Meta 5) Nvidia
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (51-55): Which of the following phrases given against each sentence
can replace the phrase given in bold in the sentence grammatically and
contextually? If none of the phrases can replace the word or phrase given in bold
C
in the sentence, select ‘None’ as your answer :
51. The professor sought to explicate the nuances of post-structuralist theory, thereby
illuminating its relevance to contemporary socio-political discourse.
I. to obfuscate
II. to elucidate
III. to confound
1) II,III 2) I,II 3) I 4) II 5) None
52. The pair were engrossed in conversation for more than an hour, fuelling
speculation the overworked minister had unwisely opened her heart to a political
opponent.
I. fostering conjecture
II. instigating certitude
III. propagating surmise
1) II,III 2) I,III 3) I 4) II 5) None

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

53. The artist’s work served to evoke a profound sense of melancholy, prompting
viewers to contemplate the ephemeral nature of existence.
I. to induce despondency
II. to suppress sentiment
III. to generate apathy
1) II,III 2) I,II 3) I 4) II 5) None
54. The CEO’s pronouncements were designed to assuage investor anxieties, but
their efficacy remained questionable in the face of mounting economic uncertainty.
I. to exacerbate
II. to mollify

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III. to amplify
1) II,III 2) I,II 3) I 4) II 5) None
55. The author’s prose was designed to evince a profound sense of empathy.
I. demonstrate
II. manifest
III. reveal
1) I, II,III
ha
2) I,III 3) I 4) II 5) None
Directions (56-60): In the following questions, a word/phrase is given along with

56.

E
its usage in sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of the
given word/phrase is contextually and grammatically correct.
Kindle
d
I. The teacher’s words kindled a passion for science in the young student’s heart.
II. He used dry wood and paper to kindle a fire in the cold winter night.
III. The novel was so boring that it failed to kindle any interest in the readers.
ee

1) only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III

57. Endearing
I. Her endearing smile made everyone feel comfortable and welcomed at the
C
event.
II. The child’s endearing curiosity about the world made him a favorite among his
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teachers.
III. His endearing speech was so monotonous that the audience lost interest
within minutes.
1) only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
58. Indicts
I. The judge indicts the accused only after a thorough investigation of the case.
C
II. The grand jury indicts the businessman on charges of fraud and embezzlement.
III. The journalist’s report indicts the government for its failure to address
corruption.
1) only I 2) II & III 3) only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
59. Tilting
I. The strong winds kept tilting the signboard, making it hard to read.
II. She walked carefully across the boat, trying to avoid tilting it too much.
III. His argument was clearly tilted in favor of the company rather than the
employees.
1) only I 2) II & III 3) only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
60. Wall off
I. The city decided to wall off the historic site to protect it from vandalism.
II. She tried to wall off her emotions, but her sadness was evident.
III. The workers walled off the tunnel to make way for new construction.
1) only I 2) II & III 3) only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

Direction (61–66): In the passage given below, there are blanks, each preceded
by a word given in bold. Every blank has four alternative words given in options
(1), (2), (3) and (4). Find the word which best suits the place. If the given word
suits the blank, mark ‘no correction/change required’ as the answer.
A bank is a financial institution that ___(61)___(discards) deposits from the
public and ___(62)___(constructs) credit by lending money to borrowers. Banks
provide various financial services, such as ____(63)____ (socks) accounts, checking
accounts, debit cards, credit cards, loans, mortgages, and investments. Banks
play a vital role in the economy by ____(64)____ (promote) the flow of money and
credit, and by acting as intermediaries between savers and borrowers. Banks are

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regulated by the central bank and other authorities to ensure their ____(65)____
(obstruct) and stability, and to protect the interests of the depositors and the
public. Banks can be classified into different types, such as ____(66)_____ (trading)
banks, which provide basic banking services to individuals and businesses;
investment banks, which deal with securities and capital markets; and central

61. 1) acceptances 2) accepts

ha
banks, which control the money supply and monetary policy.
3) forfeits 4) declines 5) refuses
62.
63.
1) creates
1) stakes
2) parents
2) debts

E 3) spawns
3) savings
4) wrecks
4) losses
5) halts
5) properties
d
64. 1) aiding 2) easing 3) blocking 4) ceasing 5) facilitating
65. 1) rich 2) poor 3) worsen 4) solvency 5) detain
66. 1) loss 2) profit 3) mercenary 4) venal 5) commercial
ee

Directions (67-74): Read the given passage and answer the questions given below.
Some words may be highlighted.
C
The climate crisis is all around us. And the world is not moving nearly fast
enough. In that context, the Cop process for climate negotiations feels frustratingly
Sr

slow. Yet it is the best mechanism for multilateral action we have, so we have to
use it to do everything we can to speed up action. The UK went to Cop29 determined
to play its part in a successful negotiation because it is in our national interest.
As the prime minister said in Baku earlier this month, there is no national
security without climate security. That is so clear from the effects of Storm Bert
over the past couple of days. If we do not act, we can expect more and more of
these extreme and devastating outcomes. The only way we keep the British people
C
safe from extreme weather, economic disruption and the destruction of nature is
to get the world to act. The previous government used the fact that the UK is
responsible for about 1% of annual global emissions as an excuse for inaction.
But given that climate impact knows no borders, our only hope of keeping the UK
safe is to lead and work with other countries to ensure the other 99% of emissions
are also addressed.
By this standard, the 11th-hour deal reached at Cop29 is a step forward.
The reality is there is no route to a stable climate without supporting developing
countries to embrace the clean-energy revolution. The $300bn climate finance
goal, trebling the current $100bn, will help poorer countries get the finance they
need to decarbonise their economies and protect their populations. This deal
could lead to emissions reductions that are the equivalent to removing the
emissions of about 1bn cars, as well as helping to protect up to 1 billion people in
developing countries from the effects of floods, heatwaves and droughts caused
by the climate crisis.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

This deal will also help speed up the clean-energy transition globally, which
is, crucially, right for Britain because of what it offers in terms of investment and
economic opportunity, including exports. For us and others around the world,
taking advantage of this transition is the route to good jobs, economic growth and
higher living standards. The finance goal agreed also reflects a new global
landscape where traditional donors will be joined by big emitters such as China
to help fund the transition. That is a fair reflection of the world today.
Of course, many developing countries facing the intensifying effects of the
climate crisis, and the need for development and investment in a low carbon
transition, do not feel that this finance goal will address their requirements. This

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is understandable, but the outcome at Cop29 does represent an advance at a
time of massive pressures on public finances. The finance goal, along with an
agreement on Baku on carbon markets/A/ and the mobilisation of the private
sector, are the essential /B/elements for ensuring a roadmap to the $1.3tn of
finance/C/ for developing countries set out in the Cop29 deal./D/
ha
While this Cop did make strides forward on finance, and that was always
going to be its focus, it did not make the same progress elsewhere. In particular,
the UK would have wanted to see a much stronger outcome on taking forward the

E
global stocktake agreed at Cop28 on the transition away from fossil fuels and on
keeping alive the commitment to keep world’s temperature rise below 1.5C.
d
Agreement on these issues was not reached because a number of developed and
developing countries did not believe the Cop29 text was sufficiently ambitious.
These countries, of which Britain was one, will not settle for lowest common
ee

denominator outcomes on decisions that define the future of humanity; this shows
the broad coalition that exists for climate action in the global north and the global
south.
C
67. What is the significance of the $300bn climate finance goal agreed upon at Cop29?
1) It aims to fund private sector projects in developed nations.
Sr

2) It primarily supports fossil fuel-based energy transitions.

3) It eliminates the need for private investments in climate action.
4) It helps developing countries decarbonize their economies and protect their
populations.
5) None of these
C
68. According to the passage, why does the UK reject the previous government’s
stance on its 1% global emissions contribution?
A. Climate impact transcends borders, requiring global cooperation.
B. The UK no longer contributes to climate change due to its low emissions.
C. The global stocktake indicated the UK’s emissions were inconsequential.
1) Only C 2)Both A and B 3)Only A 4)Both B and C 5)None of these
69. What does the passage suggest about the participation of big emitters like China
in climate finance?
1) They are expected to take on a leading role in future climate negotiations.
2) They have been excluded from contributing to the $300bn finance goal.
3) They will join traditional donors to fund the transition.
4) They oppose any form of financial contribution to developing nations.
5) None of the above

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

70. What can be inferred about the relationship between climate security and national
security as mentioned in the passage?
1) Climate security is unrelated to national security concerns.
2) Addressing climate security directly contributes to safeguarding national
security.
3) National security must be prioritized over climate security to ensure stability.
4) Climate security is a secondary issue compared to economic security.
5) National security and climate security are mutually exclusive goals.
71. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
1) The Cop29 agreement includes a roadmap to $1.3tn of finance for developing

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countries.
2) The UK’s previous government prioritized international cooperation on climate
action.
3) The Cop29 text was universally accepted as sufficiently ambitious by all
countries.
ha
4) The $300bn climate finance goal aims to support private companies in developed
nations.
5) None
72.

1) Pollute

E
Choose the most appropriate antonym for the word “decarbonise” as used in the
passage.
2) Fossilise 3) Carbonise 4) Emit 5) Contaminate
d
73. In the above passage. A sentence has been divided into four parts. Find the error.
If the sentence is error free, select option 5.
1) A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5) E
ee

74. Pick out the word that is similar in meaning to the word ‘affiliation’ from the
passage.
1) coalition 2) emitters 3) negotiation 4) strides 5)equivalent
C
Directions (75-79): In the following question, three sentences (I, II and III) are
divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). There is an error in one part of each of
Sr

the sentences. Select the option with the parts containing errors in all three
sentences and mark it as your answer.
75. I. The Hindu Kush Himalayas (A)/ is a mountains range that (B)/ stretches over
3,500 (C)/ kilometres across eight countries (D)
II. It has been on the news (A)/after 130 global experts declared a (B)/ Hindu
Kush Himalayas as (C)/a biosphere on the brink of collapse.(D)
C
III. The range has numerous of high (A)/snow-capped peaks, with the highest (B)/
point being Tirich Mir or Terichmir (C)/ at 7,708 meters in Chitral, Pakistan.(D)/
1) I- C II-B III-D 2) I- D II- C III-A 3) I- A II-B III- D
4) I- B II-B III-A 5) I- C II - A III- B
76. I. The region is home to over 240 million (A)/ people, and 1.7 billion people(B)/ live
in the river basins downstream, (C)/equally food grown in these basins reaches
three billion people.(D)
II. The glaciers in the region (A)/ feed at least 10 major river (B)/systems, which
has bearings on (C)/agricultural activities, drinking water, and hydroelectricity
production. (D)
III. ICIMOD issued this alarming statement,(A)/emphasising the urgent need for
bold (B)/action and money support to address (C)/the catastrophic losses in nature
and habitat in the region.(D)/
1) I-A II-C III-C 2) I-D II-B III-A 3) I-D II-C III-C
4) I-D II-A III-C 5) I-D II-C III-B

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

77. I. People are (A)/annoyed at (B)/such (C)/opportunities(D)/.

II. This remote destination is (A)/celebrated for its dramatic landscapes (B)/,
featuring a stunning gorge carved by the (C)/ Pennar River at a millennia. (D)
III. The red sandstone cliffs and rock (A)/formations presents a striking contrast
to (B)/the tranquil river below, offering visitors (C)/ mesmerising views of nature’s
artistry.(D)
1) I-D II-D III-D 2) I-B II-D III-B 3) I-D II-C III-A
4) I-A II-B III-C 5) I-C II-D III-C
78. I. After a cyclone passes,(A)/ communities must rebuilding(B)/ and recover from

r’s
the (C)/destruction left in its wake. (D)
II. It was a combination (A)/ that stoked inflation to(B)/ highest in four decades
and that’s (C)/unlikely to happen again.(D)
III. Still, higher shipping costs (A)/could fuel at least some (B)/price increases,
even if its not (C)/as severe as the pandemic era.(D)
1) I- B,II-C,III-C
4) I-A,II-B,III-B
ha 2) I-A,II-B,III-C
5) I-C,II-C,III-B
3) I-B,II-D,III-C

79.

E
I. Employees should avail(A)/ them of the (B)/opportunity to buy (C)/cheap shares
in the company. (D)
II. Where have you(A)/ been? We’ve been (B)/ deprived with your (C)/company for
d
far too long! (D)
III. Shraddha is initially seen (A)/taking a ride along a metro, (B)/donning a
ee

golden embroidered (C)/ red ‘lehenga’ with heavy jewellery(D)

1) I-B II-D III-B 2) I-A II-C III-B 3) I-A II-B III-C
4) I-D II-B III-B 5) I-B II-C III-B
C
Directions (80-84): Read the following passage and answer the questions given
below. Some words may be highlighted read carefully.
Sr

The crucial question about how and where auditors should get access to
GST data continues to hang fire, even as hundreds of CAG auditors are being put
through specialised training in anticipation of the implementation of the new tax
regime from July 1. Various government officials, including ministers, have been
insisting that the proposed tax ministers, have been insisting that the proposed
tax regime will come into force as scheduled. The GST Network (GSTN), which is
C
the nationwide electronic backbone of the tax regime, will go live for testing in
early may.
For full implementation of the GST regime, to decide the compensation for
States and to determine their revenue share, auditors of the CAG (Comptroller
and Auditor General) will require access to two different datasets, which are
proving difficult to come by. One of them is data pertaining to revenue that would
accrue to States from alcohol and petrochemicals, both of which are outside GST
for now. The second issue of where and how CAG auditors will get access to the
GST data continues to vex officials. Senior officials say the government needs to
quickly settle it. An official pointed out that the GSTN has refused to give the CAG
access to its network, saying it is only holding the data in a fiduciary capacity
since the tax data originally belongs to the Centre and States. Officials also
pointed out that the GSTN is owned by a private company, and thus cannot be
audited by CAG. “The government will have to sort it out, or we would have
serious problem on our hands,” another senior official said.

11
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

The GSTN claims it is a private company as 51% stake in the company is

held by private companies such as HDFC and ICICI Bank. The CAG has pointed
out in official communications in recent times that under the new Companies
Act, GSTN can be counted as government-controlled company since its strategic
control will be with the government. Like any PSU, the CAG could depute chartered
accountants to audit GSTN. “But that is a minor issue. The real issue is where
would auditors get access to the data,” he said. “We are not so much interested
in auditing GSTN, but the real issue to be sorted out is the massive tax data from
all over the country that GSTN’s network will have,” he said. Accessing the data
at various points — point of manufacture, point of sale etc. —would make the GST

r’s
audit a complicated and almost impossible task, and will hamper other functions,
which would include CAG certification about the share of GST for States.
“There is no way out, other than auditors getting access to the entire GST data in
a centralised location. Don’t forget the fact that all that tax data, whether it
belongs to States or Centre, is already available to CAG under existing
ha
constitutional provisions,” the official said. Meanwhile, the auditors would be
using data available from individual States to assess their share of taxes
_____(A)____ from alcohol and petrochemicals, which would be kept out of GST.

E
Under the agreed terms, the States will be given full compensation for the first
five years for any shortfall in revenue because of GST. The States’ revenue in
2015-16 will be used as the basis for calculating the compensation, with an
d
assumption of 14% revenue growth in the subsequent five years. The total revenue
of a State would be the total of income of States and local bodies from sales tax,
value added tax, purchase tax, central sales tax, octroi etc.
ee

80. What challenge is primarily hindering the CAG auditors’ ability to perform a full
GST audit?
C
1) Lack of trained auditors specialized in GST procedures
2) The refusal of GSTN to provide direct access to tax data
Sr

2) The absence of a legal framework for auditing tax records

4) The complexity of tax structures in different States
5) The non-cooperation of private banks involved in GSTN
81. Why does GSTN claim it cannot be audited by CAG?
1) It holds tax data in a fiduciary capacity for the Centre and States
2) It is classified as a non-government organization under Indian law
C
3) It is a financial institution regulated by the RBI
4) It has not yet been formally recognized under the GST framework
5) Its database does not contain complete GST-related information
82. What implication does the CAG official suggest if auditors are not granted access
to centralized GST data?
1) The GSTN will have to undergo multiple audits by different agencies
2) The GST rollout may be postponed indefinitely
3) CAG will not be able to certify the revenue share for States accurately
4) The government will have to outsource the audit process to private firms
5) States will refuse to share their tax data with the Centre
83. Choose the correct option that fits in the blank (A) given in the passage.
1)forfeited 2) warranted 3) justified 4) none 5) earned
84. Select the word that is the most appropriate antonym of “Vex.”
1) Agitate 2) Soothe 3) Exasperate 4) Disturb 5) Annoy

12
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

85. Choose the word which is Most Similar to the word printed in bold “Octroi” in the
passage.
Octroi
1) Toll 2) Exemption 3) Rebate 4) Subsidy 5) Waiver
Directions (86-88): Rearrange the given group of words (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in
a proper sentence, so as to form a meaningful sentence. If none of the given
combinations represent the correct sentence then mark the ‘None of the given
combination is correct’ as the answer.
86. (A) the recent visit to India by United States Special Presidential

r’s
(B) Envoy for Climate John Kerry gave an opportunity
(C) change and the balance between
(D) for both sides to discuss cooperation on climate
(E) near-term priorities and long-term targets
1) ABDCE 2) BCEDA 3) AEBCD
4) DECBA
ha 5) None of the given combination is correct
87. (A) our distress over it misses another far

E
(B) infinitely more dangerous form of violence
(C) that is accompanying
d
(D) the elections in West Bengal
(E) more important, much more serious and
1) ABDCE 2) BCEDA 3) AEBCD
ee

4) DECBA 5) None of the given combination is correct

88. (A) choice translates into immediate availability
C
(B) While there are several vaccine candidates
(C) at various stages of approval that India
Sr

(D) the same mistake of assuming that

(E) can choose from, it must not repeat
1) ABDCE 2) BCEDA 3) AEBCD
4) DECBA 5) None of the given combination is correct
Directions (89-90): In this question, Given below are some statements which
have been broken down into four fragments labeled (A), (B), (C) and (D) and
C
arranged, not necessarily in the correct order and One of the four given statements
has a grammatically correct which in BOLD in remaining three one of parts has
an error, you are required to find the correct order and grammatical error, when
rearranged that should be both grammatically and meaningfully correct.
89. The States of Tamil Nadu and Kerala, along (A) / with the Union Territory of
Puducherry, (B) / an extreme competitive campaign (C) / are going to the polls
today after.(D) / NO ERROR (E)
1) ABDC: D 2) BCDA: C 3) ABCD: B
4) DCBA: E 5) No replacement required: E
90. the Maoists are now considerably weaker (A) / than a decade ago, with several
senior (B) / insurgent force in south Bastar remain intact (C) / leaders either
dead or incarcerated, but their core (D) / NO ERROR (E)
1) ABDC: C 2) BCDA: C 3) ABCD: B
4) DCBA: E 5) No replacement required: E

13
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (91 – 92): In the given series (A), one number is wrong and another
number denoted by ‘?’ is missing and the value of ‘Z’ is 20, based on the series
and answer the given question:
Series (A): 1.35Z, ?, Z + 42 – 4, 52 + 42, 3Z – 3, 2Z + 72, 6Z – 2
91. Which of the following numbers is the closest to the wrong number in the given
series?
1) 90 2) 25 3) 34 4) 60 5) 115

r’s
92. In another Series B, the first number equals the correct number that should be
in Series A. If each of the succeeding number in Series B, add a multiple of 4 to
the preceding number, what will be the value of the 4th term in Series B?
1) 94 2) 98 3) 106 4) 102 5) 110
93.
ha
Roman invested Rs. X in scheme P offering compound interest (compounded
annually) at R% p.a. At the end of 2 years, he received the amount of Rs. 2116.
How much interest would he have earned, if he had invested Rs.1.25X for 3

E
years in scheme Q offering compound interest (compounded annually) at Rs. 20%
p.a.? (In Rs)
d
Note: ‘R’ is the half of an integer value of the given roots ‘|a|’: a2 + 27.5a – 75=0
1) 1365 2) 2912 3) 3456 4) 1001 5) 1456
ee

94. A change-making printing machine contains Rs. 1/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 5/- coins.
Pushpa Raj changes Rs. 900 and gets ‘P’ coins, ‘Q’ coins, and ‘R’ coins of Rs. 1/-,
C
Rs. 2/- and Rs. 5/- respectively. Shikawat Singh change Rs. 1050, and gets ‘R’
coins, ‘P’ coins, and ‘Q’ coins of Rs. 1/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 5/- respectively. Mangalam
Seenu change Rs. 850, and gets ‘Q’ coins, ‘R’ coins, and ‘P’ coins of Rs. 1/-, Rs. 2/
Sr

- and Rs. 5/- respectively.

Which of the following options is/are satisfies?
1) P = Q 2) P = R < Q 3) P > Q> R 4) Q < R 5) P  R > Q
Direction (95 – 98): What approximate value will come in place of the question
C
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)

95. (32.13  42.19  24.19)  3125 =?

1) 32 2) 28 3) 16 4) 24 5) 20

96. 9.25% of 299.85 + 17.9 × 44.98 =?2 - 17

1) 29 2) 27 3) 32 4) 21 5) 36

97. 23.83 × 15.10 + 11.90 ×19.02 =? × 2490

1) 16 2) 20 3) 24 4) 8 5) 12
98. 36.13 × 15.18 – 42.9 × 9.79 =? -10.98
1) 90 2) 132 3) 121 4) 110 5) 100

14
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

Direction (99 – 104): Refer to the pie chart carefully and answer the given
question:
The first pie chart shows data regarding the total number of students (Boys +
Girls) in four cities (A, B, C, and D) is 14000.
The second pie chart shows data regarding the total number of boys in four cities
(A, B, C, and D) is 8000.

D, y%

r’s
D, 20%
A, 35% A, P%

C, 30% C, Q%

B, x%
ha B, 15%

Note:

E
d
(i). Value of y – x = 5
(ii). P = ab, Q = bc, where HCF of P and Q is 5 and a > c > b and LCM of P and Q is
1050.
ee

99. Out of the total number of boys in A, C, and D together, 40% were below the age of
10 years. What is the total number of boys in A, C, and D together whose age was
above 10 years?
C
1) 4080 2) None of those given options
3) 3920 4) Can’t be determined 5) 3840
Sr

100. In each city A and C, every student plays either chess or carrom. What is the
difference between the maximum possible number of students from city A who
play both chess and carrom and the minimum possible number of students from
city C who play only carrom?
(Note: In each city, A and C, the minimum number of students who play either or
both games is a multiple of 5.5, greater than 0, and students are considered to be
C
only boys)
1) 2778 2) 2767 3) Can’t be determined 4) 1389 5) 2463
101. What percentage of the number of boys from city B is the number of girls from city
D?
1) 75% 2) 50% 3) 80% 4) 125% 5) 100%
102. What is the ratio between the number of students from city B and the number of
girls in city C?
1) 9:8 2) 5:3 3) 7:6 4) 7:5 5) 3:2
103. What is the total number of girls in cities A, B and D?
1) 4200 2) 4900 3) 4800 4) 5600 5) 5400
x+y
104. What is the value of ‘ ’?
P -Q
Q P
1) y + x 2) P-y 3) 4) 5) None of those given options
X 5

15
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

Direction (105 – 107): In this question two equations numbered I and II are
given. Based on the given two equations answer the given questions.
Note: In here, ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ are three consecutive natural numbers. Such that
‘b’ <10; a > c, c < b, a < b. ‘b’ is a perfect square number. Any of the equation has no
imaginary roots.
Equation I: x b c  abx   (a  b)(a  c )

Equation II: y a  c 3  bcy  a (b  c  1)  0

105. What will be the sum of the largest root of equation I and equation II?

r’s
1) 8 2) 12 3) 10 4) 15
5) None of those given options
106. Based on the roots of the given quadratic equation, which of the following is true?
1) Relationship between x and y cannot be established
2) x  y 3) x > y
ha
4) x < y 5) x  y
107. Had the sum of the roots of equation I is 0.5 times more than m3. What is the
value of ‘m’, if m  0?
1) 3 2) 4

E 3) 2 4) 5 5) 1
d
Direction (108 – 112): Study the data carefully and answer the question:
Mixture ‘X’ contains milk and water in a ratio of 9:7 and Mixture ‘Y’ contains
milk and water in a ratio of 3:2, respectively. Had ‘A’ litres of mixture ‘X’ and ‘B’
ee

litres of mixture ‘Y’ been taken out in an empty container ‘Z’ and then a% of that
mixture from container ‘Z’ was taken out and replaced with the same quantity of
juice, the ratio of milk, water, and juice in the container becomes 45:33:26.
C
Note: ‘A’ is highest two digit cube value. ‘A’ = mn, ‘B’ = (n+1)(2m+2), where ‘m’ and
‘n’ are two consecutive numbers (m > n).
Sr

108. What is the value of a + 24?

1) 49 2) 50 3) 74 4) 54 5) 39
109. What is the quadratic equation whose roots are ‘A’ and ‘B’?
1) x2 + 104x – 2640 = 0 2) x2 – 80x + 1200 = 0 3) x2 – 64x + 880 = 0
4) x2 – 104x + 2560 = 0 5) Either 1 or 4
C
110. Had 'A' litres been taken from mixture X, equal to 40% of the total mixture, then
what was the initial quantity of milk in mixture X?
1) 135 2) 90 3) 162 4) 180 5) 108

A
111. What is the value of ‘ ’?
a

5
1) 8 2) 5 3) 4) 1.6 5) 0.8
8
112. Had 'B' litres been taken from mixture Y, equal to 20% of the total mixture, and
'A' litres been taken from mixture X, equal to (a+15)% of the total mixture, then
what is the respective difference between the initial quantity of mixture ‘Y’ and
the initial quantity of mixture ‘X’?
1) 50 2) 40 3) 60 4) 20 5) 45

16
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

Direction (113 – 115): In the given question two quantities are given, one as
Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between
two quantities and choose the appropriate option.
113. Quantity I: What is the value of [((a4 × b3 × c) ÷ (ab + 1)) + 10], where both ‘a’ and
‘b’ are less than zero and more than (-1) and ‘c’ is the positive number.
Quantity II: Three positive integers a, b, and c (c < a < b) such that the respective
difference between ‘b’ and ‘a’ is 2 less than that of ‘b’ and ‘c’ and
(a × b × c): (a + b - c) = 9:4. What is the value of a + b + c?
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II

r’s
5) Quantity I =Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
MN
114. Had =12 and N – O = 1, then 12  M > N > 7 and 8  N > O > 5.
6
Quantity I: Value of expression M O .
ha
Quantity II: Value of expression
N O3
.
M
1) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I > Quantity II

E 2) Quantity I  Quantity II
d
4) Quantity I =Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
5) Quantity I  Quantity II
115. The ratio of digits of a two – digit number is 1:4. One digit is 6 more than other
ee

digit.
Quantity I: 4 × (ten’s digit) – unit digit.
Quantity II: Multiply 1.5 with the product of digits of the number obtained by
C
taking the positive difference between the actual number and reversed number.
1) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Sr

2) Quantity I <Quantity II 3) Quantity I  Quantity II

4) Quantity I > Quantity II 5) Quantity I  Quantity II
116. Had A alone can do the work in ‘m + x’ days, B can do the same work in ‘x’ days;
while C can do it in ‘m+2’ days. Had A and B can complete whole work in same
time would be equal to C alone do the whole work. The value of x is 16  4 625 .
What is the sum of ‘m’ and ‘x’?
C
xm
1) None of those given options 2) 1.5m 3)
4
5x
4) 5) 40
2
117. Two sports persons P and Q cover a certain track in clockwise and anticlockwise
directions respectively from starting point ‘Z’ simultaneously. They meet for the
first time at 5:54 am when P has covered i% of the track. Had P returns to ‘Z’ at
6:00 am, Q returns to ‘Z’ at which time. (i = 75)
1) 06:45 am 2) 07:18 am 3) 06:48 am 4) 06:36 am 5) 07:00 am
A B
118. Had and are integers and 72  A < B  105, 17A > 1360 and 19B < 1824,
8 6
then what is the unit place value of AB×BA?
1) 1 2) Can’t be determined 3) 2 4) 4 5) 0

17
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

Direction (119 – 122): Refer to the bar graph carefully and answer the question:
The bar graph shows data regarding the percentage of people between different
age groups having normal, low, and high risk of seasonal diseases.

Above 60 15 50 35
low risk

r’s
normal
high risk
30-60 20 55 25

Below 30 30 48 22
ha
0% 20% 40% 60% 80% 100% 120%

E
119. The majority of people are in which category, had we assumed that there is an
equal number of people in every age group?
d
1) Low risk 2) Normal 3) High risk
4) Both normal and high 5) Both normal and low
120. The number of low-risk people in the age group Above 60 years is approximately
ee

what percentage of the total number of low-risk people?

1) 15% 2) 30% 3) 20% 4) Cannot be determined
5) 23%
C
121. Had the number of people Above 60 years and Below 30 years will be equal. What
is the ratio between the low-risk people at Above 60 years and normal people at
Sr

Below 30 years?
1) 5:16 2) 25:24 3) 7:6 4) 10:11 5) 6:11
122. Had the number of people whose ages are between 30 – 60 is 1.5 times of the
number of people whose ages are Below 30. The Low risk in ages 30 – 60 is what
percent that of Below 30?
1) 125 2) 60 3) 100 4) 75 5) 50
Direction (123 – 125): Each question below is followed by two statements I and II.
C
You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for
answering the question.
123. What is the positive value of ‘Z’?
Statement I: Value of expression
7(a – 2) × 343(a – 5) = 49(a + 6.5)
Statement II: Value of expression
3Z2 + (a – 7) Z – (–5) is equal to 0.
1) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
3) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.
4) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.
5) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.

18
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

124. Had A alone, B alone, and C alone can complete a work in ‘m’ days, ‘n’ days, and
m
‘2m’ days respectively. What will be the value of ‘ ’?
mn
Statement I: The time taken by A and B to complete work together is ‘X’ days
Statement II: The time taken by B and C to complete a work together is ‘1.25X’
days.
1) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
2) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.

r’s
3) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.
4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
5) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.
ha
125. A bag contains a certain number of green balls, x blue balls, and 8 red balls. A ball
1
was taken out from the bag and the probability of it being a blue ball is ‘ ’. What

E
is the probability of picking up 2 balls together (without replacement) and both
being blue?
3
d
2
Statement I: The probability of picking up a green ball is .
9
ee

4
Statement II: The probability of picking up a red ball is .
9
C
1) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
Sr

2) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.

3) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
4) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.
5) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.
C
126. The time a boat takes to cover approximate 350.09 km upstream is approximate
24.98% more than the time a boat takes to cover approximate 299.9 km
downstream. The total time taken to cover both these distances was 4 hours 30
minutes. What is the distance covered downstream in 1 hr 40 minutes?
1) 250 2) Can’t be determined 3) 300 4) 275
5) None of those given options
127. A boy rides a bicycle at an actual speed of 15 km/hr, but he encounters a wind
speed of 3 km/hr and travels against the wind. Initially, he has a wooden box
1
attached, which decreases the bicycle's speed by 33 %. After detaching the box,
3
the box returns to the starting point in 14 hours. If the total distance traveled is
70 km, what is the total time (in hours) for the bicycle to reach the other point?
23 20 25 17 19
1) hrs 2) hrs 3) hrs 4) hrs 5) hrs
3 3 3 3 3

19
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

Direction (128 – 132): Refer to the graphs carefully and answer the question:
The given line graph depicts the difference between the number of shares
sold by five entities A, B, C, D and E on Monday and Tuesday. The table shows the
ratio of the shares sold on Monday to Tuesday - A, B, C, D, and E order-wise.

The respective difference between the number of shares

sold on Monday and Tuesday

35

r’s
30
25
20
15
10
ha
5
0

E
d
A B C D E
ee

The ratio of the

C
shares sold on
Monday to Tuesday
Sr

5:3

2:1

8:5
C
3:1

9:7

Note:
1) The value of each share sold by entities A, B, C, D, and E is Rs. 10, Rs. 20, Rs.
30, Rs. 40, and Rs. 50 respectively.
2) The value of each share sold by all the entities on Monday and Tuesday is
equal.
128. What is the value of the total shares sold by B on Monday and Tuesday together?
(in Rs.)
1) 600 2) 2400 3) 1200 4) 900 5) 1500

20
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

129. What is the average number of shares sold by A, C, and E on Tuesday?

1) 15 2) 25 3) 45 4) 50 5) 30
130. Sai invested Rs. 1000 to buy 'x' shares out of the total shares sold by A and B on
Monday. If he bought 80% of the shares sold by A, what percentage of the shares
bought by Sai were sold by B?
1) 82% 2) 75% 3) 50% 4) 90% 5) 65%
131. The number of shares sold by F on Monday is twice more than the number of
shares sold by A on Tuesday, then the value of each share sold by F on Monday is
Rs. 15. What is the value of all the shares sold by F on Monday? (in Rs.)

r’s
1) 1500 2) 1200 3) 1170 4) 1350 5) 1800
132. What is the respective ratio between the values of all the shares sold by C on
Monday and D on Tuesday?
1) 8:3 2) 2:1 3) 5:4 4) 1:2 5) 5:3
ha
Direction (133 – 135): Study the data carefully and answer the question:
There are three different movies: P, Q, and R. They won a different number
of awards in events held over three consecutive years: 2021, 2022, and 2023. The

E
ratio of the total number of awards won by P, Q, and R in all three events is 3:5:4
respectively. The total number of awards won by all three movies in the events is
d
120. Total number of awards won by movie P in 2021 is 40%. Total number of
awards won by movie P in 2022 is 2 awards more than the total number of awards
won by movie P in 2023. The number of awards won by movie Q in the events 2022
ee

and 2023 is 15 and 20 respectively. The ratio of total number of awards won by
movie R in the events 2021, 2022 and 2023 is 1:3:4.
133. The number of awards received in 2022 by movie Q is what percent of the number
C
of awards received in 2023 by movie R?
1) 80% 2) 120% 3) 100% 4) 75% 5) 150%
Sr

134. What is the ratio between the number of awards received in 2021 and 2023 by
movie P and the number of awards received in 2022 and 2023 by movie R
respectively?
1) 7:4 2) 5:3 3) 7:5 4) 4:5 5) 4:7
135. What is the difference between the total number of awards in 2021 to the total
C
number of awards in 2023?
1) 16 2) 13 3) 15 4) 12 5) 21
136. (p + 64) number of chocolates is to be distributed among 56 students in a class
p
such that each boy gets four chocolates and each girl gets chocolates. If the
20
ratio of the number of boys to girls in the class is 5:2, then how many chocolates
given to each girl?
1) 30 2) 12 3) 16 4) 24 5) 32
137. Six years ago at the time of the marriage, the average age of a man and his wife
was 27 years. At present they have two children. Their daughter is one year older
than their son. One year after the birth of the daughter, the average age of the
man, wife and their daughter was 21 years. What is the present age of the son?
1) 4 years 2) 2 years 3) 1 year 4) 3 years 5) None of those given options

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

138. There are three cars. If car A and car B is moving in the same direction while car
C is approaching them from the opposite direction. If the relative speed of car A
and car B is 40 kmph and that of car A and car C is 125 kmph, what is the time
taken by car B and car C to meet from an instant where both were 510 km apart?
(Note: speed of car A is greater than the speed of car B)
1) 10 hrs 2) 8 hrs 3) 6 hrs 4) 4 hrs 5) Cannot be determined
139. The smaller base of the trapezium is equal to the side of the square whose area is
1369 cm2. The distance between the two parallel sides is 24 cm. If the perimeter
of the rectangle is 176 cm and the difference between the length and breadth of
the rectangle is 42 cm. And bigger base of the trapezium is 16 cm more than the

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smaller side of the rectangle. What will be the difference between the area of the
trapezium and the area of the rectangle?
1) 583 cm2 2) 613 cm2 3) 481 cm2 4) 593 cm2
5) None of those given options
140. Cost price of A is (X+150) and cost price of B is (X-150). A sold at a loss of 20% and
ha
B sold at a profit of 25%. If the selling price of B is 750 more than that of A, What
is the cost Price of B? (in Rs.)
1) 2160 2) 2500

E 3) 2700
REASONING
4) 2100 5) 2200
d
Direction(141-144): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
questions:
Twelve people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M were born in the months
ee

of JANUARY, FEBRUARY, JUNE and SEPTEMBER in 1988, 1989, 1990 but no two
people were born on same month in a same year.
F was born in the month having odd number of days in one of the even
C
numbered years. As many people were born after H as before F. The number of
people were born between F and C is one less than the number of people were
Sr

born between C and H. Only two people were born between C and E. E was not
born immediate to F. G was born immediately after B but both were not born in
same year. Only three people were born between K and J where K is elder to J.
Neither K nor J was born in 1990. As many people were born between A and L as
between L and D, where D is younger than L. M was born in the month having 31
days but not born with E in same year.
C
141. As many people were born before G as after _____.
1) E 2) J 3) C 4) A 5) L
142. How many people were born between K and E with respect to the given
arrangement?
1) One 2) three 3) five 4) six 5) more than seven
143. Who amongst the following people were born in 1990 with respect to the given
arrangement?
1) GEMF 2) ELHD 3) EFMK 4) ELHF 5) MFKB
144. Which of the following statement is true as per the given information?
1) C was born in the month of June
2) Both M and F were born in same year
3) No one was born before D
4) Only two people were born between M and G
5) L was born immediately after A

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

145. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the
given four words in the each statement by applying given conditions then those
statements are your answer.
Condition 1: Taking first consonant from left end of the first word.
Condition 2: Taking nearest vowel of consonant (which is from condition-1) in
second word.
Condition 3: Taking second consonant from right end in third word.
Condition 4: Taking least numerical value of the letter as per the English
alphabetical order in fourth word.
(Note: Words are counted from the left end)
Statement I: BEST RARE POEM COMB

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Statement II: DONE GEAR POND WORK
Statement III: KING DINE NEAR SOFT
Statement IV: EARN MERE MOST TRIM
1) Only I and II 2) Only IV 3) Only II and III
4) Only III and IV 5) Only I and IV
ha
146. The given information is followed by two statements. Read carefully and answer
the given question: The notice board of College XYZ had the following new notice
put up on Saturday.

E
“With effect from the coming Monday, anybody found bringing mobile phones,
tablets, laptops, i-pods or cameras inside the college premises will be fined Rs.
1000. If any student is found repeating the same next time, he/she will be expelled
d
for the semester. The teachers and proctors of all departments are requested to
take proper care of the matter.”
(A) The college has a well-maintained library and recreation room which can be
ee

used by all the students in their free time. There is no need for such gadgets as
they are a distraction for students during their lectures.
(B) The fine for bringing gadgets inside the campus in other colleges ranges from
C
Rs. 800 to Rs. 1200.
1) Statement B weakens but Statement A strengthens the argument.
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2) Both Statement A and Statement B weaken the argument.

3) Statement A weakens but Statement B strengthens the argument.
4) Statement A strengthens the argument but Statement B is a neutral statement.
5) Both Statement A and Statement B strengthen the argument.
147. Read the following information and the sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) are
given below carefully and answer the question :
A retail store manager - “The government should work towards saving the
C
environment. There is an easy solution - undertaking recycling is a major step
towards it. For the same, there should be a complete ban on the use of plastic
bags and paper bags should be promoted because paper bags can be recycled.”
(A) Other factors such as smoke, water toxicity, etc. also contribute to
environmental degradation.
(B) As the government has been promoting ‘carry your own bag’ it has made it
mandatory to charge for the bags if bought from the store.
(C) Plastic cannot be recycled.
(D) Paper is made from wood and is damaging to the environment as it leads to
20-50% deforestation.
(E) Paper is bio-degradable, whereas plastic takes millions of years to degrade.
(F) Paper production emits 70 percent more greenhouse gases than the production
of plastic bags.
Which of the following statements supports the manager’s argument to some
extent?
1) D 2) B 3) A 4) F 5) E

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

Direction (148-151): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
Seven boxes - A, B, C, D, E, F and G are arranged one above the other in a
stack but not necessarily in the same order. The bottom most boxes is numbered
one and the box immediately above to it is numbered two and so on the till top
most box is numbered seven. Different number of books kept in each box. Each
box height is 15inches. Each book height is 2 inches. No two boxes having the
same number of books.
Box A is kept immediately above the box having least number of books. Box G

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is kept immediately below the box having maximum space (after kept the books).
Box G is kept two boxes above the box having only 3 books. Box G has odd number
of books. Box C is kept immediately above the box having second highest number
of books. The boxes having least space and the box having maximum space (after
kept the books in boxes) is kept one above the other immediately. Box B having
the books, which is equal to alphanumerical value of the box kept immediately
ha
below box B. The height of the books in box B is not less than 10cm. Box F is kept
at one of the positions above box B. The difference between the books in the boxes
of B and A is 1. Box F has more number of books than box D. Box F has neither 2
books nor 4 books.

E
148. What is the height of the books kept in box E (in cm)?
d
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6 5) 7
149. What is the sum of the books kept in box G and 7th box in the stack?
ee

1) 13 2) 12 3) 11 4) 10 5) 9
150. How many boxes kept between the box having 4 books and box having 10 cm
C
height of books?
1) One 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) five
Sr

151. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the boxes positions
as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
1) G-2cm 2) A-12cm 3) B-6cm 4) F-4cm 5) E-10cm
Direction (152-153): In the following questions, the symbols !, @, #, $, and &
C
used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
A!B - means A is not greater than B
A@B - means A is not smaller than B
A#B - means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B
A$B - means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
A&B - means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B
Note: In each of the following questions assuming the given statement to be true,
find which of the three conclusions I, II and III is/are definitely true and give your
answer accordingly.
152. If the given expression ’A # F @ K, W # G @ M & X $ K, W ! N & P ! Y’ is definitely
true then which of the following conclusions definitely holds true?
1) K # G 2) W $ Y 3) X & G 4) P # M 5) G $ A

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

153. In which of the following expressions does the expression 'H @ N' definitely holds
true?
1) M ! N ! F & Y; Y $ B ! C; C ! K & P ! H
2) Y @ H & B @ G; G # F @ V; V @ K & N
3) D ! F $ G ! H; H $ J ! K; K & M $ N ! B
4) N ! S & X ! D; D ! R ! G; G & J ! H
5) X # C & N @ V; V @ J @ U; U @ G & B @ H
Direction (154-157): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
The houses are numbered one to seven from West to East. Twelve people live

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in seven different houses of the given lane with minimum one and maximum
three people in each house. No house is vacant. (Note: Number of people living
between two people does not necessarily indicate the number of houses between
them. For example, it is said that only two people live between A’s house and B’s
house, then those two people may live in the same house or in different houses,
ha
and those two people do not live in the same house in which A and B live. No one
lives between the houses of X and Y’s house mean no other person lives between
their house and both X and Y do not live in same house). Alphabetically no two

E
people live in same house (e.g.: B doesn’t live with either A or C).
E lives on an even numbered house and only two people live between E and
d
H, where E lives west of H. The number of people live extreme left end is more
than the number of people live extreme right end of the house. Only five people
live between the house of H and F. No one lives between the houses of F and J. J
ee

lives neither with nor adjacent house of E. Only three people live west of L’s
house. As many houses are west of C’s house as east of K’s house. K lives adjacent
house of D and D lives adjacent house of F. Not more than two people sit between
C
K and C’s house. F and K do not live in same house. Not more than two people live
in odd numbered houses. Only two people live with A. B lives with only I to the
Sr

west of G’s house. G doesn’t live east of A’s house.

154. In which of the following houses three people live?
1) second 2) third 3) fourth 4) fifth 5) sixth
155. In how many houses only two people live?
1) one 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) five
156. Who amongst the following people live on fifth house?
C
1) ADK 2) JAD 3) HF 4) KG 5) GC
157. Which of the following statement/s is/are true with respect to the given
arrangement?
(i) Only four people live west of H’s house
(ii) No one lives with E in same house
(iii) As many people live between the houses of B and L as between C and K
1) only (i) 2) only (ii) 3) only (iii)
4) only (i) & (ii) 5) only (ii) & (iii)
158. If all the vowels of the word 'DIPLOMATIC' are substituted with next letter of the
English alphabetical series and each consonant is substituted with the letter
preceding it. Then delete all the letters appears more than once and arrange the
remaining letters in alphabetical order. How many letters are there between
second letter from the left-end of the word and third letter from the right-end of
the word?
1) one 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) five

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

159. Read the following information and the statements (A),(B),(C), (D),(E) and (F)
given below it carefully and answer the question :
The high Nitrogen content of the fertilizer Endosulfan must combine with
the bacteria present only in the Gabania soil type to yield results. It has worked
wonders in State A where the yield has doubled in a span of merely three
years.
The government of State B is confident that if Endosulfan is used in
State B as well, its agricultural productivity will definitely improve in 2 to 3
years.
(A) State A was struggling with poor agricultural productivity 3 years ago.

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(B) The soil type Gabania is present only in State A in the whole country.
(C) All other factors required for agriculture e.g. climate, water for irrigation etc
are already favorable and adequate in State B.
(D) The only manufacturing plant of Endosulfan is located in State B.
(E) Endosulfan’s high chemical content renders the soil infertile after 5-6 years
of continuous use.
ha
(F) As in other States agriculture in State A and State B is not dependent on the
amount of monsoon rains.

E
Which of the given statements is implicit in the opinion of the government of
State B?
d
1) B 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) E
160. Read the following information and the statements (A),(B),(C), (D),(E) and (F)
given below carefully and answer the question :
ee

On Earth, CO2 levels have reached 0.047% thus leading to global warming.
According to an expert, if industrialization stops, global warming will also end
automatically.
C
(A) At present global warming has reached unprecedented levels.
(B) As at present, Earth undergoes a warming period after every 90,000 years.
Sr

(C) Except industrialization, no other factor is responsible for global warming.

(D) Depletion of the ozone layer is one of the worst consequences of global warming.
(E) The C02 level on earth was 0.051% around 10,000 years ago.
(F) In countries where industrialization has not gained much momentum the
temperature is at least 3° lower than in other countries where industrialization
is rampant.
C
Which of the given statements is implicit in the expert’s belief ?
1) D 2) A 3) E 4) B 5) C
Direction (161-163): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
Point B is 15km East of X and Point A is 15 km West of Point X. Point C is
30km North of Point D which is 15km South of Point X. Two cars are parking at
each Point of A, B, C and D. Here X is midpoint of four roads.
Conditions:
In every point two cars are start at same time and in same (left/right)turn/
opposite (east, west, north, south) direction to each other and travel the same
distance (E.g.: If A takes left turn then B takes left turn, if A takes right turn then
B taken right turn vice versa. If A goes North direction then B goes South direction
and if A goes east direction then B goes west direction vice versa). Cars G and H
parked at point A, cars M and N parked at point B, cars P and Q parked at point C
and cars U and V parked at point D.

26
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

Car G travels 10km South direction and takes right turn and travel 5km and
taken 10 km left turn and stop. Car M travels 15km towards South direction and
took 5km right turn and travels 5km south and stop. Car P travels 10km East
direction and took 10km left turn and stops. Car U travels 5km South direction
and took 10km right turn and stops.
161. What is the direction of car ‘H’ with respect to car ‘N’ as per cars final positions?
1) East 2) West 3) South 4) North 5) South-west
162. What is the distance between car ‘U’ and car ‘G’ as per the final positions?
1) 10km 2) 15km 3) 20km 4) 25km 5) 30km
163. What is the direction and distance from car ‘P’ with respect to car ‘M’?

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1) South, 40km 2) North, 45km 3) South, 45km

4) North, 50km 5) South, 50km

164. Read the given information to answer the given question:
Company X, one of the leaders of the domestic aviation industry of Country
ha
A has started an online survey in which the customers are being asked about
different aspects of the services that the company provides. As per the feedback
obtained to date, problems regarding rescheduling of flights and refunding of

E
deducted amount have been the only two negative responses. On the other hand,
the highest number of positive responses were received related to the affordability
of flight tickets.
d
Which of the following may be assumed based on the feedback obtained from the
customers?
1) Company X may have a customer service team dedicated to promptly addressing
ee

issues related to rescheduling flights and refunding deducted amounts, thereby

aiming to improve the overall customer experience.
2) Company X may be taking the help of a third-party application to make the
C
refunds for the canceled tickets.
3) All those given as options may be assumed.
Sr

4) Company X may need to improve its system for rescheduling flights to enhance
customer satisfaction.
5) Company X may have effective cost management strategies in place to maintain
affordability of flight tickets.
Direction (165-169): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
questions:
C
A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words rearranges
them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.
Input: DOT SIR RAY KAB BAE ZIP ICH NOW GAP MA T
Step-I: BAE DOT SIR KAB ZIP ICH NOW GAP MAT RAY
Step-II: DOT RAY SIR KAB ZIP ICH GAP MAT BAE NOW
Step-III: GAP NOW RAY SIR KAB ZIP ICH BAE DOT MAT
Step-IV: ICH MAT NOW RAY KAB ZIP BAE DOT GAP SIR
Step-V: KAB SIR MAT NOW RAY BAE DOT GAP ICH ZIP
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement
is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate
steps for the given input.
Input: HUM VAX MAC ZOO BET TIN CAB RAY LAN PUS
165. What is the position of ‘pus’ in third step of the given input?
1) Third from the right-end 2) Second from the right end
3) Extreme right-end 4) Third from the left end 5) Extreme left-end

27
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

166. How many words are there, between second word from the left-end in last step
and third word from the right-end in last but one step, in third step of the given
input?
1) one 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) five
167. As many words to the left of ____ in fourth step as right of ____ in third step?
1) VAX, PUS 2) CAB, VAX 3) PUS, BET 4) VAX, BET 5) RAY, TIN
168. In how many steps of the given input do the element “TIN” appeared in the same
position?
1) One 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) five

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169. Which of the following word appeared third to the left of fourth to the right of
‘VAX’ in last but one step?
1) ZOO 2) HUM 3) RAY 4) MAC 5) CAB
Direction (170-172): In the given question the symbols @, #, $, %, &, *, and ^

A@B – A is father of B
ha
have been used with the following notations:
A#B – A is son of B
A$B – A is son-in-law of B A%B – A is married to B
A&B – A is sister of B

E
A*B – A and B are same genders
A(2) – A have two children
A^B – A and B are not same genders
d
Note: The digit in the closed bracket represents the number of children of the
first person (e.g.: A(2)@B – A is father of B and have two children).
ee

Statement: X@B%O, E&B, K$N(2)%X, K(2)@S&Q,B*Q^S

170. If ‘U’ is sister of ‘K’, how is ’B’ related to ‘U’?
1) Brother 2) Brother in law 3) Sister
C
4) Sister in law 5) Father in law
171. How is ‘O’ related to ‘S’?
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1) Uncle 2) Father 3) Aunt 4) Mother 5) Sister

172. If each couple has one son, how is B’s child related to ‘E’?
1) Aunt 2) Uncle 3) Niece 4) Nephew 5) Sister
173. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
As more and more NRIs invest in property in City A, more than 10,000 flats are
C
lying vacant even as a large number of people struggle to get good accommodation
in the city.
Which of the following statements represents the best possible course of action
to deal with the situation?
1) Purchase of property should not be allowed unless it is used for self-residential
purposes.
2) No NRI should be allowed to invest in property anywhere in India in order to
protect the interests of the residents.
3) Residents of City A should be advised to reside in neighboring cities where the
population density is comparatively lower.
4) Property prices should be decreased considerably by the government in order
to allow everyone to buy as many properties as possible.
5) A vacancy tax should be introduced in order to compel the owners to at least
rent out the property.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

174. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
It has been recently reported that the country’s low-cost domestic airline lost as
many as 40 commanders or senior pilots mainly to Gulf airlines in the last year.
“Gulf airlines, have hired many pilots in big numbers in recent months and most
of the senior pilots have opted for these airlines as they have been unhappy with
the domestic airline for quite some time.” sources said.
Which of the following statements represents an appropriate course of action to
be taken by the airline in order to curtail this problem?
1) The airline should examine the reason for the high rate of attrition among
senior employees and should focus on dealing with the concerns of the employees.

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2) The airline should improve its recruitment policies and should test the loyalty
and integrity of the employees before they decide to hire them.
3) The airline should increase the salary of all the employees and the increment
of the employees should be as per their grade.
4) The airline should recruit only those pilots, who are willing to sign a bond of 5
years.
ha
5) The airline should focus on recruiting younger pilots and providing them with
good training rather than focusing on retaining senior pilots.

given questions:

E
Direction (175-179): Study the following information carefully and answer the

Eight people live in fifteen storeyed building. Only one person lives on each
d
floor and some of the floors are vacant. Some of the people are men and some of
the people are women. After completion of their living arrangement they are
ee

rolling the dice. Each member rolling the dice twice (all people rolling the dice
once then after all the people rolling the dice on second time) and they are rolling
the dice according to alphabetical order. Men moving upward and women moving
C
downwards based on the number on dice (e.g.: if men got number 3 on dice then
he moves 3 floors above from his current position, it means if he lives on sixth
floor then he will move to ninth floor of the building. If women got number 3 on
Sr

dice then she moves 3 floors below from her current position, it means if she lives
on sixth floor she will move to third floor of the building). Each person has different
age and their ages are only in between 15 to 35 years.
S lives on even numbered floor above the tenth floor of the building and she
has more than 25 years. S and E are not same genders. Only four floors are there
between S and R. R is three years elder than S and both are not same gender. R
C
lives two floors above Y. Only the one who has 24 years lives above S and both do
not live on adjacent floors. The number of floors above one who has 24 years is
one less than the number of floors below K. D and K are not same genders. K
lives two floors below the one who has 33 years and both are not same gender. E
and H live above R but not above S. Both E and H are not same genders. E and H
both live on odd numbered floors, where E lives above H. The ages of both E and K
are two consecutive prime numbers. E lives above K but neither of them has more
than 20 years. V lives on either top or ground floor of the building and he has 25
years. D lives on one of the even numbered floors and lives above the one who has
26. The sum of the ages of S and one who lives immediately below to her is 50.
Rolling the dice on first time they got- 4, 3, 5, 5, 2, 1, 6 and 2.
Rolling the dice on second time they got- 4, 1, 3, 4, 4, 6, 4 and 1.
175. What is the difference between the floor numbers of D on first and second rolling
of the dice?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) more than 4

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

176. What is the sum of the ages of one who lives on twelfth and sixth floors of the
building after rolling the dice on second time?
1) 41 2) 31 3) 44 4) 38 5) 39
177. How many people live above S after completing the first rolling only?
1) one 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) more than four
178. Which of the following statement/s is/are true with respect to the given
arrangement?
(i) S and K are same genders
(ii) The sum of the ages of R and Y is 77
(iii) As many floors above R as below one who has 25 years (only first rolling

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completed)
1) only (i) 2) only (i) and (ii) 3) only (ii) and (iii)
4) only (iii) 5) only (i) and (iii)
179. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does

2) V-Y
ha
not belong to that group (before rolling the dice)?
1) D-E 3) E-R 4) K-R 5) H-Y
180. In the given number “8345196267” first five digits are written in ascending

E
order from the left end and remaining digits are written in descending order.
Find the sum of the values of the digits remaining at same place after done the
said operation.
d
1) 20 2) 19 3) 22 4) 24 5) 27
Direction (181-183): In this question a phrase is to be coded differently in each
of the four steps following a set pattern. Study the following examples to identify
ee

the pattern required to code the given phrase:

C
Phrase Step I Step II Step III Step IV
Mark Satisfy
Akmr ytssifa mk3 ay2 lj4 bx3
Sr

brand lb6 xp2

rndba enoprs ar1 po4 bq2 op5
person
Anything Aghinnty
ni6 es2 so3 mj7 fr3
happens cost sppnhee cost jr4 rc6
dw1 rp4 cv2
world wrold
C
Fost
Soft behaviour
vuroiheba so3 av5 ev2 rp4 bu6 rb10
gives
vsige sr4 fu3 rq5 uq2
result
elrstu
181. How many consonants will be there in Step II of the phrase ‘perfect category
bring result’?
1) four 2) three 3) five 4) seven 5) six
182. Which of the following will be the Step IV of the phrase ‘tentative calendar process
mobile’?
1) bb2 cj10 2) uf2 rk10 3) ur2 fk10 4) uk10 rf2 5) ur8 fk2
183. Which of the following will be the Step III of the phrase ‘gain selection required
special’?
1) fj4 sb5 jp5 rb4 2) jf3 bs5 pj5 br4 3) jf5 bs4 pj4 br5
4) hh4 du5 pj5 br4 5) jf4 bs5 rh5 zt4

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

184. The Censor board of country M has banned television channels from showing
violence on television as a result many movies that are shown on television are
edited to fit the requirement. Sometimes the action sequence is an integral and
the most important part of the movie but then it is edited due to this ban. Which
of the following may be a reason for the decision by the censor board of the
country?
1) Most television channels in country M earn a huge amount of money by showing
violent films and this may be the only way to limit the amount earned by these
channels.
2) Many international critics have criticized the action sequences and violence

r’s
shown in the movies which are produced and distributed in country M.
3) Children are most exposed to television and research suggests that exposure
to violence at a young age can lead to extremely aggressive behavior in adults.
4) Most of the action sequences in any movie are not linked to the main theme of
the movie and thus reducing that part from the movie and increasing the number
ha
of advertisements helps in generating more revenue.
5) Watching action sequences in a movie increases the level of adrenaline in the
body and thus helps in reducing stress and tension.

E
185. Read the given information and answer the question:
“Traditional methods of planning urban landscapes should not be ignored by
the government while developing ‘smart cities’ in the country”, architects said at
d
an event. They also emphasized the importance of using renewable materials
while executing such projects. Which of the following may be a reason for the
architects to emphasise the importance of such material?
ee

1) Using renewable materials focuses on using such material that do not harm
the environment and in turn help in preserving it.
2) As the cities for which this material would be used are termed as “Smart
C
Cities” there should be something different in them as compared to other cities.
3) For using renewable material an architect has to be very creative and this is
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the best way for an architect to show his creativity.

4) Renewable material is as easily available as the other material used by architects
making it a good substitute.
5) Using renewable material artistically may pose a challenge for architects and
hence they may choose it to deal with the monotony of their regular work.
Direction (186-190): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
C
questions:
Condition-I: Ten people are sitting in a circular table among them some of them
are facing towards the centre and some of them are facing away from the centre.
Not more than two people face same direction sitting each other. V sits third to
the right of F and both are not facing same direction (e.g.: if one of them face
centre other on face opposite to the centre and vice versa). Only three people sit
between F and X and both face same direction (e.g.: if one person faces centre
other person also face centre and vice versa). V is not an immediate neighbour of
X. Both P and H are not an immediate neighbour of either F or V. H sits immediate
right of P and both not face same direction. H is not an immediate neighbour of
either T or Z. Only one person sits between K and R. The immediate neighbours
of K face opposite directions but the immediate neighbours of R not face opposite
directions. Atleast two people sit between K and X (either sides). Only three
people sit between T and A (left of A). Z sits second to the left of T and both are not
facing same direction. K and T face opposite direction to H. H is not an immediate
neighbour of T. A faces towards the centre.

31
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 52

Condition-II: Each person (except A and R) interchanges his position with the
person who sits second to the right of him.
Condition-III: Each person has different number of books with them. Each one
has 5 multiple books. The person having the least number of books is 10 and the
person having highest number of books is 55. The sum of the books having by the
people sitting opposite to each other is 65. People having 35 and 45 books are
sitting immediate right to each other, according to alphabetical order person
having highest alphanumeric value in both of them having more books than the
other. The immediate neighbours of people having 35 and 45 books are facing
same direction. T has 10 books less than P and 5 books less than H. Z having

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more books than X.
186. What is the sum of the books having by A, Z and P?
1) 105 2) 110 3) 115 4) 120 5) 125
187. What is the position of F with respect to the one having 20 books?
1) Second to the left 2) third to the left

188.
3) Second to the right
ha 4) third to the right 5) fourth to the right
What is the difference between the books having by the people sit adjacent to X?

189.
1) 5 2) 10

E 3) 15 4) 20 5) 25
Which of the following statement/s is/are true with respect to the given
arrangement?
d
(i) H has 10 books more than V
(ii) X and A are sitting adjacent to one having 15 books
ee

(iii) No one sits between K (left of K) and one having 20 books

1) Only (i) 2) Only (i) and (ii) 3) Only (ii) and (iii)
4) Only (ii) 5) Only (iii)
C
190. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions
(before interchanged their positions) as per the given arrangement and thus form
Sr

a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
1) K 2) R 3) T 4) A 5) P

KEY
1.2 2.1 3.2 4.1 5.5 6.5 7.1 8.2 9.5 10.3
11.4 12.5 13.4 14.1 15.5 16.4 17.1 18.5 19.1 20.3
21.1 22.4 23.5 24.3 25.2 26.1 27.4 28.2 29.5 30.2
C
31.1 32.2 33.2 34.5 35.3 36.1 37.4 38.1 39.5 40.3
41.4 42.2 43.5 44.1 45.4 46.5 47.1 48.5 49.2 50.1 SCAN QR FOR
51.4 52.2 53.3 54.4 55.1 56.5 57.4 58.2 59.5 60.5 OUR RESULTS
61.2 62.1 63.3 64.5 65.4 66.5 67.4 68.3 69.3 70.2
71.1 72.3 73.1 74.1 75.4 76.3 77.2 78.1 79.5 80.2
81.1 82.3 83.5 84.2 85.1 86.1 87.3 88.2 89.1 90.1
91.1 92.3 93.5 94.2 95.4 96.1 97.5 98.3 99.4 100.2
101.5 102.3 103.1 104.4 105.2 106.5 107.3 108.1 109.4 110.2
111.4 112.2 113.1 114.3 115.5 116.1 117.3 118.5 119.2 120.4
121.1 122.3 123.5 124.2 125.4 126.1 127.3 128.3 129.5 130.2
131.4 132.2 133.3 134.5 135.1 136.4 137.2 138.3 139.1 140.5
141.4 142.3 143.2 144.2 145.4 146.4 147.5 148.4 149.5 150.2
151.3 152.4 153.4 154.5 155.3 156.4 157.5 158.1 159.2 160.5
161.2 162.1 163.2 164.5 165.3 166.3 167.4 168.4 169.3 170.2
171.3 172.4 173.5 174.1 175.4 176.1 177.1 178.4 179.1 180.5
181.4 182.3 183.2 184.3 185.1 186.3 187.2 188.1 189.5 190.2

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