Test Booklet Code & Serial No.

D
Paper-I
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)
(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
JUN - 00125 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 1 Hour] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of Fifty (50) multiple-choice type of questions.
Each question will carry two marks. All questions of Paper I 2.
will be compulsory.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will 3.
be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept (i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in (ii)
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to any other or any other
discrepancy should not be accepted and correct booklet
should be obtained from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. The
same may please be noted. (iii)
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (B) is the correct response. (B)
A B C D A B C D
Following wrong methods should not be used as they are not (Digitized)
recognised by scanning machine in digitized assessment.
Candidate using such method will be responsible for their loss.
CORRECT METHOD WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD WRONG METHODS
C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR 5.
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 6.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. 7.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 8.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the 9.
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination. 10.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.
 JUN - 00125/I—D

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Paper I
I
Time Allowed : 60 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions, each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
(50) (2)

Directions : Question numbers 1 and 2

are based on the following information :

Out of 20 villages in a certain state, 20 14

salesman A visited 14 villages, salesman A 12 B
B visited 12 villages. None of them
visited 2 villages.

1. How many villages were visited by 1.

both the salesmen ?
(A) 26
(A) 26
(B) 6
(B) 6
(C) 4
(C) 4

(D) 8 (D) 8

2. How many villages were visited by 2.

at least one salesman ?

(A) 26 (A) 26
(B) 18 (B) 18
(C) 20 (C) 20
(D) 8 (D) 8
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Directions :
Question numbers 3 and 4 are based on 3 4
the following information :
Number of working days annually :

Employee

Year A B C D E A B C D E

2018 280 310 315 315 320 2018 280 310 315 315 320

2019 300 290 310 315 325 2019 300 290 310 315 325

2020 310 300 315 310 320 2020 310 300 315 310 320

2021 315 310 315 310 330 2021 315 310 315 310 330

2022 295 300 300 305 310 2022 295 300 300 305 310
3. Which employee has maximum 3. 2018-2022
working days during the years
2018-2022 ?
(A) B
(A) B
(B) C (B) C

(C) D (C) D
(D) E (D) E
4. Which employees have equal 4. 2018 2022
number of total working days during
2018-2022 ?

(A) A and B (A) A B

(B) C and D
(B) C D
(C) A, B and C
(C) A, B C
(D) B and D
(D) B D
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5. Birth rates and Death rates per 5.

thousand :

Year Birth rate Death rate

1961 90 20
1961 90 20
1971 88 18
1971 88 18
1981 82 17
1981 82 17
1991 78 16
1991 78 16

2001 75 14 2001 75 14

2011 70 12 2011 70 12

2021 60 10 2021 60 10

From the above table in which years

do you see the difference between Birth
rate and Death rate the same ?

(A) 2011, 2021 (A) 2011, 2021

(B) 2001, 2011 (B) 2001, 2011

(C) 1971, 1981 (C) 1971, 1981

(D) 1961, 1971 (D) 1961, 1971

6. Identify the incorrect pair of file 6.

format and the corresponding file
form :

(A) JPEG – Image file (A) JPEG –

(B) PPTX – Presentation file (B) PPTX –
(C) FLV – Video file (C) FLV –
(D) WPT – Audio file (D) WPT –
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7. In the context of information 7.

technology, what is cloud computing ?

(A) It is a computing power (A)

measurement unit
(B)
(B) It is high end computing power
applied for weather forecasting
(C)
(C) It is internet based computing
which provides shared computer
processing and data to digital
devices on demand

(D) It is an international standard (D)

protocol of video file transfers

on World Wide Web.

8. What is the name of the 8.

international encoding standard for
use with different languages and
scripts by which each letter, digit or
symbol is assigned a unique numeric
value that applies across different
platform, device or language ?

(A) Multicode (A) Multicode

(B) Unicode (B) Unicode

(C) Hypercode (C) Hypercode

(D) Metacode (D) Metacode

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9. Which of the following options shows 9.

the correct chronological order of
communication technologies ?
(A)
(A) Telegraph, Movie Camera,
Television, Radio
(B)
(B) Telegraph, Movie Camera,
Radio, Television
(C)
(C) Movie Camera, Telegraph,
Television, Radio

(D) Movie Camera, Radio, (D)

Telegraph, Television

10. Which of the following is not the 10. 2.0

typical feature of Web 2.0
environment ?
(A)
(A) Users remain as simply passive
consumers of content
(B)
(B) Websites work with other digital
systems, products and devices

(C) Higher interactivity and (C)

collaboration amongst users

(D) User generated content (D)

proliferates

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11. International Solar Alliance 11.
headquarters is located at :

(A) Haryana, India (A)

(B) Karnataka, India (B)

(C) Dubai, UAE (C)

(D) Colombo, Sri Lanka (D)

12. Which city hosted the United 12.

Nations Climate Change (COP21)
Conference (COP21) where the Paris
Agreement was negotiated and
adopted ?
(A)
(A) Geneva

(B) New York (B)

(C) Paris (C)

(D) Kyoto (D)

13. Which schedule of the Environment 13.

Protection Act, (1986) lists industries
that require mandatory
environment clearance ?
(A) I
(A) Schedule-I
(B) II
(B) Schedule-II

(C) Schedule-III (C) III

(D) Schedule-IV (D) IV

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14. How does nutrient pollution affect 14.
marine ecosystem ?
(A) Enhances biodiversity (A)
(B)
(B) Promotes coral reef growth
(C)
(C) Triggers harmful algal blooms
(D) Improves water quality (D)
15. Which of the following is the effect 15.
of air pollution on leaves that causes
the killing or collapse of tissues ?
(A) Necrosis
(A)
(B) Chlorosis (B)
(C) Abscission (C)
(D) Epinasty (D)
16. During British period in India Lord 16.
Curzon had organized .................. for
development of Indian Education.
(A) Bombay Educational Committee (A)
(B) Calcutta Educational Meeting (B)
(C) Simla Educational Conference (C)
(D) Delhi Educational Conference (D)
17. The Sadler Commission was a
17.
Commission set-up to inquire
into ......................
(A) The conditions and problems of
(A)
the University of Calcutta
(B) Problems of all universities in
India
(B)
(C) Issues in evaluation of higher
education (C)
(D) Issues in curriculum of higher
education (D)

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18. In Buddhist educational tradition, in

18.
order to become a ‘Guru’, the person
had to undergo through following
series :
(A)
(A) Shishya, Pravin, Pandit

(B) Brahmachari, Pandit, (B)

Upadhyaya
(C)
(C) Shraman, Shravak, Pandit

(D) Shraman, Bhikkhu, Upadhyaya (D)

19. In Vedic educational tradition the 19.

word ‘Upanishad’ literally means
.................
(A)
(A) Learning by heart all mantras
(B)
(B) Sitting near Guru to learn

(C) Sub-parts of Vedas (C)

(D) Stories of masters and disciples (D)

20. According to Jainism education 20.

tradition the first method of learning
is ......................

(A) Prarthana or prayer (A)

(B) Deshana Shravan or careful (B)

listening of advice

(C) Amnaya or concentrated

(C)
reading

(D) Anutprekshya or deep thinking (D)

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21. If taught on reflective level of 21. (reflective)

teaching, the students get

tremendous power for acquisition

of ..............................
(i)
(i) Factual information
(ii)
(ii) Generalized insight
(iii)
(iii) Problem solving abilities

(A) (i) and (ii) (A) (i) (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) (iii)

(C) (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii) (iii)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) (ii) (iii)

22. The session is planned with the aim 22.

to explore a number of ideas related

to solution of a problem without

passing any judgement. For this,

the teacher will use ............ strategy.

(A) Dramatization and role playing (A)

(B) Project (B)

(C) Supervised study (C)

(D) Brainstorming (D)

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23. (i) ‘SWAYAMPRABHA’ is a name 23. (i) ‘SWAYAMPRABHA’

given to a group of DTH
channels devoted to telecasting DTH
educational content.
(ii) ‘SWAYAM’ MOOC
(ii) ‘SWAYAM’ provides online
MOOC courses with a provision
of certificate/credit-transfer.

Related to these statements :

(A) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong (A) (i) (ii)

(B) (i) is wrong but (ii) is correct (B) (i) (ii)

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (C) (i) (ii)

(D) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong (D) (i) (ii)

24. Summative evaluation is .............. in 24.

nature.

(A) Judgemental (A)

(B) Developmental (B)

(C) Diagnostic (C)

(D) Placemental (D)

25. CAI stands for .............................. . 25. CAI

(A) Computer Assisted Imitation (A)

(B) Computer Arranged Installation (B)

(C) Computer Arranged Induction (C)

(D) Computer Assisted Instruction (D)

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26. ......................... is not a type of 26.
research.
(A)
(A) Descriptive research
(B)
(B) Exploratory research
(C) Causal research (C)

(D) Subjective research (D)

27. ................. is the role of simulation 27.
software.
(A) Collecting primary data
(A)
(B) Creating virtual models for
(B)
experimentation
(C)
(C) Conducting surveys
(D) Writing research papers (D)

28. ..................... is a common goal of both 28.

positivistic and post-positivistic
approaches to research.
(A) To eliminate subjectivity
entirely from the research (A)
process
(B) To discover new knowledge and
(B)
contribute to the understanding
of phenomena.
(C) To prioritize personal opinions (C)
and beliefs over empirical
evidence
(D)
(D) To avoid using any form of data
in the research process

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29. The term ‘‘DOI’’ stands for ............. 29. ‘DOI’

in academic writing and referencing.

(A) Document of interest (A)

(B) Directory of information (B)

(C) Digital object identifier (C)

(D) Database of integration (D)

30. ................... term refers to the ethical 30.
obligation of researcher to give
credit to the ideas, words or work of
others.
(A) Acknowledgement (A)

(B) Plagiarism (B)

(C) Authorship (C)
(D) Attribution (D)
Directions :

Answer Question Nos. 31 to 35 31 35

based on either English passage
or Marathi passage :

Despite its extraordinary name

‘ergonomics’ is not just something
which has been dreamed up by
boffins to confuse busy businessmen.
It is a practical science which can
make and is making a valuable
contribution to industry. Research
being carried out in this field can

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 JUN - 00125/I—D

increase efficiency, improve product

design and make employees more
contented.

Broadly, ergonomics is the study of

the relationship between man and
his working environment. It involves
designing or redesigning machines
and equipments so that due regard
is given to the capabilities and
limitations — physical and
psychological — of the human beings
who have to use or operate them.
It contrast to the more common,
traditional policy of ‘fitting the man
to the machine’ by selecting and
training the best man for each
particular job, the ergonomist
endeavours to fit the machine to the
man-any man.

He accepts people, in fact, as he finds

them with all their quirks and
idiosyncracies, and tries to establish
their capabilities as machine
operators. He then attempts to
allocate to the human operator the
functions each can perform best. His
object is to enable a person of
ordinary abilities to carry out his

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tasks safely and efficiently, with a

minimum of instruction.

The ergonomist himself needs a

knowledge of a number of sciences
and techniques in order to carry out
his work.

31. The object of an ergonomist is ............ 31.

(A) To make employees more
contented.
(A)
(B) To have a knowledge of a
number of sciences and (B)
techniques
(C)
(C) To find people with all their
quirks and idiosyncracies (D)

(D) To enable a person of ordinary 32.

abilities to carry out his tasks
safely and efficiently
(A)
32. What is the more common or
traditional policy ?

(A) Making valuable contribution to (B)

industry

(B) Fitting the man to the machine

(C)
(C) Designing and redesigning
machines and equipments (D)

(D) Confusing busy businessmen

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33. What do you understand by 33.

‘boffins’ ?
(A)
(A) Employees
(B)
(B) Businessmen
(C)
(C) Engineers or scientists

(D) Labourers
(D)
34. Ergonomics is the study of ..............
34.
(A) Quirks and idiosyncracies of the
workers
(A)
(B) Capabilities and limitations of
human beings
(B)
(C) Relationship between man and
his working environment (C)

(D) Research being carried out in

the field of industry (D)

35. An ergonomist himself needs a 35.

knowledge of ........................
(A)
(A) A number of sciences and
techniques (B)

(B) Only one discipline (C)

(C) His own self
(D)
(D) His colleagues
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36. If communication is defined as 36.
‘‘effective or successful transmission
of a message from the sender to the
other person’, then which of the
following becomes the fundamental
criteria to decide the extent of
effectiveness of the communication ?
(A) Noise level of the medium used
for communication (A)

(B) Generic form of the content of

the communication (B)
(C) Simplicity of the message of the (C)
communication
(D) Meaning and intent as put in (D)
by the sender in communication
37. Instance 1 : A teacher is giving a 37.
lecture in a class of 10 students.
Instance 2 : A teacher is giving a
lecture in a class of 100 students.
Assuming all the intervening
variables to be the same in both the
instances, which of the following is
the most likely possibility from the
perspective of communication ?
(A)
(A) Interactivity of students with
teacher will be higher in
Instance 2 than Instance 1
(B) Interactivity of students with (B)
teacher will be higher in
Instance 1 than Instance 2.
(C) Interactivity of students with (C)
teacher will be the same in both
the instances
(D) Interactivity of students with (D)
teacher remains unaffected

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38. Which criterion produces ‘Intra’, 38.

‘Inter’, ‘Group’ and ‘Mass’ as four

types of communication ?

(A) Effectiveness of communication

(B) Medium used in communication

(A)

(C) Number of participants in

(B)
communication
(C)
(D) Nature of message of

communication (D)

39. In the context of Indian television, 39.

which of the following did not take

place in the decade of 1980 ?

(A) Separation of Doordarshan (DD) (A) (DD)

from Aakashwani (AIR)
(AIR)

(B) Television becomes colour

(B)
(C) Rapid spread of television
(C)
network across India
(D)
(D) Launch of Ramayan,

Mahabharat serials

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40. Which of the following is an incorrect 40.

statement with respect to online
meeting ?
(A) It does not incorporate non- (A)
verbal clues
(B) It does not recognize space (B)
barriers
(C)
(C) It can become multi-media
communication
(D)
(D) It can incorporate various
means of interactivity
41. In a company, shares of Shanta, 41.
Kanta and Bhranta are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 1
3 : 5 : 1. Profit of the company in
3,33,333/-
a certain year is Rs. 3,33,333/-. How
much is the profit of Kanta in
rupees ?
(A) 1,80,180
(A) 1,80,180
(B) 1,85,185
(B) 1,85,185
(C) 1,05,105
(C) 1,05,105
(D) 1,11,111 (D) 1,11,111

42. A watch at a particular time 42.

indicates that it is Monday 1 pm. 1 pm
What will be indication in the watch
101
after completing 101 hours ?
(A) 1 am
(A) Monday, 1 am
(B) Tuesday, 4 am (B) 4 am

(C) Thursday, 5 pm (C) 5 pm

(D) Friday, 6 pm (D) 6 pm
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43. Suppose 5 numbers are selected at 43. {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,7,

random from the set of numbers 8 5
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 . Then which ofof
the following statements is necessarily
true about the selected numbers ?

(A) At least two of them are even (A)

numbers (B)
(B) There are at most two pairs
having sum of each pair 9. 9

(C) There is at least one pair having (C)

sum 9.

(D) At most three of them are even (D)

numbers.

44. A bank is offering following choices 44.

to a customer for interest on fixed
deposits. Which will be the most
beneficial to the customer ?

(A) 10% per annum compounded (A) 10%

yearly
(B) 9%
(B) 9% per annum compounded six
monthly
(C) 8%
(C) 8% per annum compounded
quarterly

(D) 7% per annum compounded (D) 7%

monthly

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45. In a right-angled triangle, we have

45. H cm,
three sides of lengths namely
hypotenuse H cm, base B cm and B cm T cm
height T cm. Then which of the
following ratios is the largest ?

H H
(A) (A)
T T

B B
(B) (B)
T T

T T
(C) (C)
H H

B B
(D) (D)
H H
46. Which of the following conclusion/s 46.
is/are valid based on the statements
given below ?
Statement I : All tax payers are I :
honest.
II :
Statement II : All students are
honest. 1 :
Conclusion 1 : Some tax payers are
not honest. 2 :
Conclusion 2 : Some students are
tax payers.
Code : (A) 1

(A) 1 only (B) 2

(B) 2 only
(C) 1 2
(C) 1 and 2 both
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (D) 1 2

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47. In the ranking of a competitive 47.
examination Vishal was above Vijay
but below Shyam. Mohan was above
Shyam but below Rohan. Vijay was
between Vishal and Ashok. Who is
third from the top ? (A)
(A) Vishal (B)
(B) Mohan (C)
(C) Vijay
(D)
(D) Shyam
48. In a code language if ‘MUMBAI’ is 48. ‘MUMBAI’
coded as LVLCZJ, then how LVLCZJ
‘SANGLI’ will be coded in the same ‘SANGLI’
language ? (A) RZOFMJ
(A) RZOFMJ (B) TZMHKJ
(B) TZMHKJ
(C) RBMHKJ
(C) RBMHKJ
(D) RZMFKJ (D) RZMFKJ
49. Ragini facing East walks 10 meter, 49.
then she turns to her left and walks
12 meter. Then she turns to her 45º
right in 45º and walks 15 meter.
Then, how much distance she has
walked from the starting point and
which direction is she facing now ? (A) 37
(A) 37 meter, North-East (B) 27
(B) 27 meter, North
(C) 37
(C) 37 meter, East
(D) 22 meter, South-East (D) 22
50. Which of the following alternatives 50.
will complete the numerical series
given below ?
11, 14, 25, __, 133
11, 14, 25, __, 133
(A) 75
(A) 75
(B) 52 (B) 52
(C) 39 (C) 39
(D) 123 (D) 123
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ROUGH WORK

24