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Kapsabet Boys Exams

The document contains mock examination papers for Kapsabet Boys School, specifically for the KCSE 2024 candidates, covering various subjects including Biology. It includes a series of questions prepared by top KNEC examiners to aid students in their preparation for national exams. Additionally, it provides contact information for obtaining marking schemes and online ordering options.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

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Kapsabet Boys Exams

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Kapsabet BOYS - Exams

physics form 2 klb (Mang'U High School)

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KAPSABET BOYS KCSE PREMOCKS

ALL SUBJECTS
CLASS OF KCSE 2024 NOVEMBER
This PDF Comprises of a Series of Mock/Prediction Questions
Prepared by Top KNEC Examiners From Top Schools.

All KCSE 2024 Candidates are advised to take the questions in

this Mock Exams Serious as they prepare for the National Exams

FOR MARKING SCHEMES

CONTACT

0724333200/ 0795491185/ 0768321553

OR
ORDER ONLINE AT:

www.kenyaeducators.co.ke
KENYA EDUCATORS CONSULTANCY

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231/1 - BIOLOGY - Paper 1

2HRS

PRE MOCK 2024

NAME ADM NO
DATE CLASS
INDEX NUMBER:

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

231/1
BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2HRS
INSTRUCTIONS:

(a) Write your name, class, admission number and index number on the space provided.

(b) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided

(c) Candidates should check to ensure that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions
are missing.
(d) This paper consists of 10 pages.

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1. (a) Define the following terms as used in Biology.

(i) Chemosynthesis (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………….

………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Mutualism (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………….

………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) State the importance of photosynthesis in nature. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

2. What is the importance of the stroma in the chloroplast? (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..

………………………………………………………………………………………………
….

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3. Name two cell structures that synthesize the following cell organelles.
(a) Ribosomes (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Lysosomes (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. Name three plant leaf excretory products. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..

………………………………………………………………………………………………
….

5. A student mixed a sample of urine from a patient with Benedict’s solution and boiled the
mixture.
The colour changed to orange.

(a) What was present in the urine sample? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) What did the student conclude about the health status of the patient?(2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

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…………………………………………………………………………………………..
6. Name two types of values in the heart. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..

………………………………………………………………………………………………
….

7. Sometimes when one stands up very quickly after a long period of sitting, she may feel
faint or dizzy. Explain. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..

………………………………………………………………………………………………
….

8. The cardiac muscles are said to be myogenic. What is the meaning of the term myogenic.
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..

………………………………………………………………………………………………
….

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9. A Form 3 student carried out an experimental set up as shown below.

Bromothymol blue is sensitive to pH change (bromothymol is yellow in low pH)

(a) What was the aim of the experiment? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Why was set up B included in this experiment? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

(c) Why was aluminium foil used in this experiment? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

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(d) Explain why bromothymol changed its colour from blue to yellow in tube A after
30 minutes. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

10. Differentiate between the cell wall found in fungi and the one in plants. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..

………………………………………………………………………………………………
….

11. State three adaptations that enable prey to evade predators. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..

………………………………………………………………………………………………
….

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12. The diagram below represents a simplified trend of nitrogen circulation in an ecosystem.

(a) What is the descriptive term applied to each of the organisms A and D.
A ……………………………………………………………………………..

D ……………………………………………………………………………..

(b) Name each of the processes. (3 marks)

(i) Marked B
………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Facilitated by organisms D

……………………………………………………..

(iii) One group of organisms that can act as saprophytes

…………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Name the chemicals C, F and E.

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C
…………………………………………………………………………………
F
………………………………………………………………………………..
E
…………………………………………………………………………………

13. The diagram below is a summary of the sequence of blood flow through the heart and
associated blood vessels.
E Heart

D A

C B

(a) Name the blood vessels labelled A and E. (2 marks)

A
………………………………………………………………………………………

E
………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State two differences between blood vessel B and D. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

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………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) State two adaptations of the blood vessel labeled C to its functions.(2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

14. How does light as a biotic factor influence the distribution of plants in an ecosystem?
(3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
....

………………………………………………………………………………………………
…

………………………………………………………………………………………………
….
15. Seed germination is affected by certain plant growth regulators.
Describe two actions of gibberellins during seed germination. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
..

………………………………………………………………………………………………
..

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16. The diagram below shows a foetus in the uterus.

(a) Name two substances that will be at a higher concentration at Y that at X.

(2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) State two observable adaptations of the placenta to its functions. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

17. (a) Name the genetic disorder in humans that is characterized by inability of blood to
clot.
(1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

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………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) A female human was found to have an extra sex chromosome in her cells.
(i) Give the total number of chromosomes in the male individual’s cells.
(1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………...
(ii) Explain the possible causes of this condition. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

(iii) State two physical characteristics observed in the female individual with
such a condition. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………..

18. (a) Explain why fossil records as evidence of organic evolution are usually
incomplete.
(3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

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…………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Name the evidence of organic evolution exhibited by occurrence of similar amino
acid molecules in a range of organisms. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

19. Bumble bees are insects that live in the arctic tundra. They have adaptations to keep their
body temperature above that of the environment. One adaptation is shivering which
involves rapid muscle contraction. A second adaptation is a very hairy body.
Explain how those adaptations help to keep the body temperature above that of the
environment. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
.

………………………………………………………………………………………………
..

………………………………………………………………………………………………
…

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20. The photograph below shows a bone from an animal.

(a) (i) Identify the bone shown. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) Give one reason for your answer. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Name the body region from which the bone was obtained. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

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………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

21. The photograph below shows a potted plant in horizontal position.

(a) Name the type of response shown. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) State the biological significance of the response above to the plant. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

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(c) Explain the mechanisms of the response. (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

(d) (i) State the class to which the plant belongs. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Give one reason for your answer. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………….

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231/2 - BIOLOGY - Paper 2

2HRS

PRE MOCK 2024

Name………………………………………………Index No. …………………….

Date ………………………………………………...Sign…………………………….

BIOLOGY 2023

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

• Write your name, index number and the name of the school in the space provided.
• This paper consists of 2 sections A, and B
• Answer ALL the questions in section A.
• In section B, answer question 6 (Compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided
after question 8.

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FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Score Candidates Score

1 8

2 8

A 3 8

4 8

5 8

6 20

B 7 20

8 20

TOTAL SCORE 80

This paper consists of 10 printed pages

SECTION A.

1. (a) Viable seed may not germinate even when provided with favorable condition. State the
importance of the above phenomena.
(2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Monocotyledonous plants do not undergo secondary growth. Explain. (2mks)

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(i) Explain what you would expect to observe after 48 hours if the clinostat was not
rotating.
(2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Explain what you would expect to observe after 48 hours if the clinostat was rotating
slowly. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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2. (i) Explain the concept of the negative feedback mechanism. (3mks)

(ii) Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows.

On the organ above, draw a small circle and label it X to show where the adrenal gland is

located.
(1mk)

(i) Explain the effect of the hormone secreted by the adrenal gland in blood sugar
regulation.
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………
(ii) Name two diseases that affect organ labeled A. (2mks)

(a) Identify and explain one piece of evidence from this family tree to show that the allele for
phenylketonuria is a recessive to allele for the normal condition. (2mks)

(b) If individual 10 married a man who is the heterozygous for the gene, what is the probability that their
first child will be affected?
(2mks)

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(c) A garden pea plant was crossed with a dwarf garden pea plant and all the offspring’s were tall. Using
later T to represent the gene for tallness, determine the genotype of the F2 if the F1 were test crossed.

(4mks)

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4. (i) Distinguish between dentition and dental formula. (2mks)

(a) Name the mode of nutrition of mammal whose jaw is shown.

(1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………
(b) State one structural and one functional difference between the teeth labeled R and T.

(2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(c) ((i) Name the tooth labelled S.

(1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………

(ii) State how the tooth named in C (i) above is adapted to its function. (2mks)

(a) Identify the retinol cells labeled P and R. (2mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………

(b) Label each of the parts marked A, B, C and D.

(2mks)

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Lit room to a dark room. (3mks)

(d) State structural difference between cell P and cell R. (1mk)

SECTION B.

6. The pressure in the flow of blood in a mammal was determined at two different vessels; X and Y.
The data was taken within a period of 1 minute and was presented as follows.

Time in seconds Blood pressure in

Vessel X Vessel Y
0 160 320
10 165 360
20 170 320
30 180 400
40 170 360
50 160 320
60 160 360

(a) Plot the graph of blood pressure in both vessels against time in the same axis. (7mks)

(b) Describe the trend of each curve.

(2mks)

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(c) From the graph, suggest the possible identity for:

(i) Blood vessel X.

(1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………

(ii) Blood vessel Y.

(1mk)

(d) Give reason for your answer in (c) (i) and (ii) above.
(2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) Explain a factor that would result in to an increase in blood pressure in both the blood vessels
above.
(2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………
(f) State two structural differences between the two vessels mentioned in C above. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(g) Name two diseases of the circulatory system in humans.
(2mks)

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(h) Other than, transport of substances state one other function of blood.
(1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. (a) Discuss the economic importance of bacteria.
(10mks)
(b) Discuss the adaptation of Schistosoma mansoni to its survival. (10mks)

8. (a) Describe the photosynthetic theory.

(10mks)
(b) Describe gaseous exchange in terrestrial plant.
(10mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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INSTRUCTIONS

REQUIREMENTS

Each candidate will require the following:

❖ One spatula of substance labelled L (Fortified Exe

wheat flour)

❖ 2cm3 Copper sulphate solution

❖ 2cm3Sodium hydroxide solution

❖ 2cm3 DCPIP solution

❖ 2cm3 Benedict’s solution

❖ Source of heat

❖ 3 test tubes

❖ 3 droppers

❖ 2oml of distilled water in a beak

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231/3 - BIOLOGY - Paper 3

1 3/4 Hours

PRE MOCK 2024

Name………………………………………Adm No…….............

Index Number.......…………….......... Date………………........

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

Instructions to Candidates

❖ Write your name, Admission number and your other details in the spaces provided
above.
❖ Spend the first 15 minutes of the time allocated to read through the question paper
before commencing your work
❖ Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
❖ Additional pages must not be inserted

• For Examiner's Use Only

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Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 13

2 16

3 11

Total Score 40

1. You are provided with the following materials;

Substance labelled L

2cm3 Copper sulphate solution

2cm3Sodium hydroxide solution

2cm3 DCPIP solution

2cm3 Benedict’s solution

Source of heat

3 test tubes

3 droppers

You are provided with a substance labeled L. Make a solution of substance L by adding 20 ml of
distilled water and stir thoroughly. Design an experiment to investigate the food materials
present in L.
(9 marks)

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Substance Chemical test Procedure Observations Conclusion

(a) State the importance of the food substances present in L to the human body.
(2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Describe how the body deals with the substances mentioned in (a) above when they are
in excess. (2
marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Study the photographs below and answer the questions that follow.

(a) (i) Identify the type of response exhibited by specimen A. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii) What is the survival value of the response you have identified in (a)(i) above(1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) (i) Identify the phenomenon exhibited by specimen B. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State the significance of the phenomenon in (b) (i) above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Study the photograph below showing a certain trait in man.

(i) Identify the trait exhibited in the photograph above. (1 mark)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) The trait you have identified in (d)(i) above is sex linked. In which chromosome is

it contained. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Name any other sex linked trait in man. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) The man in the photograph married a woman. Use a genetic cross to predict the
offspring of the above marriage. Let YH represent the gene for the trait above.
(4 marks)

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(e) The photographs below show certain chromosomal mutations.

(i) Identify them

P........................................................................................ (1 mark)

Q ....................................................................................... (1 mark)

3. Study the photographs below and answer the questions that follow.

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(a) Give two visible survival adaptive features for the organism in photograph X. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Identify the dentitions exhibited in photograph Y and Z (2 marks)

Y ……………………………………………………………………………………………

Z ……………………………………………………………………………………………

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man.

(i) Label any three parts of the tooth in photograph S. (3 marks)

(ii) Give two adaptations of the tooth to its function. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Write the dental formula for the teeth arrangement in photograph T. (1 mark)

This is the last printed page

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565/1 BUSINESS STUDIES Paper 1

PRE MOCK 2024

Name ………………………................................................Index number………………………………..

Candidate’s Sign………………………………Date……………………………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

565/1
BUSINESS STUDIES
2 HOURS
Instructions
• Write your NAME, and INDEX NUMBER in the spaces provided.
• Answer ALL questions provided in the spaces provided.
• This paper consists of 10 printed pages and 25 questions.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

TOTAL

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1. Giving an example in each case, outline the difference between renewable and non-renewable
resources. (4 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State four reasons why diagonal communication needs to be encouraged in an organization.

(4 marks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

......

b) ………………………………………………………………………………………………….....

.....

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

....

d) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

.....

3. Mention four benefits enjoyed by a member of a producer cooperative society. (4 marks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………….............

.....

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b) ………………………………………………………………………………………………….....

.....

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

......

d) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. State four measures that the government can use to encourage increase in the country’s volume
of exports. (4 marks)

a) ………………………………………………………………………….................................................

b)………………………………………………………………………………………………….....

.....

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

.....

d) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

....

5. Highlight four positive impacts of the physical environment on the operations of a business.
(4 marks)

a) ………………………………………………………………………….................................................

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………………............

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….........

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d) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….........

6. Highlight four problems associated with monopoly market structure. (4 marks)

a) ………………………………………………………………………….................................................

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………………............

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….........

d) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….........

7. Outline four roles of the mass media in promoting consumer protection. (4 marks)

a) ………………………………………………………………………….................................................

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………………............

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….........

d) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….........

8. Outline four services offered in agency banking as a trend in the banking sector. (4 marks)

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a) ………………………………………………………………………….................................................

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………………............

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….........

d) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….........

9. State the best type of machine one would use to perform the following tasks. (4 marks)

Functions Name of machine

i) Used to trim papers into desired sizes

ii) To post information to ledgers and to prepare

payrolls
iii) To transmit printed messages such as letters,
maps, diagrams and photographs

iv) To destroy sensitive but unwanted

documents

10. The following balance sheet belongs to Nyakwar Atiyo during the period ended 30th June 2000.
(4 marks)

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Nyakwar Atiyo Traders

Balance sheet
As at 30.06.2000

Assets Kshs Capital + Liabilities Ksh

Machinery 45,000 Capital 65,000
Current assets Creditors 45,000
Stock 7,750 Short term liability
Debtors 1,375 Bank loan 10,000
Bank 25,375
79,500 79,500

The following transactions took place on July 1 2000.

(i) Paid creditors Sh 2000 by cheque.
(ii) Nyakwar Atiyo took stock worth Shs 7500 from the business for his son’s birthday.
(iii) Motor vehicle previously owned by Nyakwar Atiyo values at sh 200,000 was
converted into business vehicles.

Required: Prepare the balance sheet of Nyakwar Atiyo traders as at 2nd July 2000.

11. Highlight four roles of advertising agencies in product promotion. (4 marks)

a) ………………………………………………………………………….................................................

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………………............

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….........

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d) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….........

12. Distinguish between the following categories of government expenditure. (4 marks)

a) Recurrent expenditure

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………….

b) Capital expenditure

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………..

13. Highlight four differences between hypermarkets and departmental stores. (4 marks)

a) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………………....

c)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

d)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. The information below was extracted from the books of Lemayian Traders for the year ended.
31. 12. 2015
Opening stock 45,000
Closing stock 15,000
Turnover 340,000
Margin 25%
Required:
(i) Gross profit (2 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………

………

(ii) Purchases (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

……..

15. Distinguish between the following terms as used in National Income. (3 marks)
a) Gross Domestic Product
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………….

b) Gross National Product

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………

c) Per capita Income

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………

16. Highlight four ways in which the government of Kenya promotes entrepreneurial development.
(4 marks)

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a) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………………....

c)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

d)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. State four channels of distribution for importation of agricultural produce. (4 marks)

a) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………………....

c)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

d)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. Outline four trends in transport sector. (4 marks)

a)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………………....

c)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

d)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Outline four benefits of indirect production. (4 marks)

a) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………………....

c)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

d)……………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. Enter the following transactions in the relevant ledger accounts. (4 marks)

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2015
April 1 Janet Cosmetics started a business with Ksh. 150,000 cash
,, 3 Bought stock of goods for Sh. 40,000 and paid in cash
,, 6 Opened a bank account and deposited Sh. 60,000 from the cash till
,, 9 Purchased an office machine for Sh. 25,000 and paid by cheque

21. Give four reasons why a producer may need to have their own warehouse. (4 marks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

........

b) ………………………………………………………………………………………………….....

........

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

........

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d) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

........

22. State the name of the source document used to record the following transactions. (4 marks)

Transaction Source Document

a) Received goods returned by a buyer who

bought them earlier on credit

b) Making of payment to a casual worker at

the end of the week

c) Bought goods for sale from Gilanis

Supermarkets on credit

d) A customer, Adhiambo, send a cheque for

goods she bought earlier on credit

23. Define the following terms as used in business studies. (4 marks)

(i) Annuity
………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………

(ii) Proposer
………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………

(iii) Speculative risk

………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………

……..

(iv) Grace period

………………………………………………………………………………………………

……..

24. In the table below fill in the missing figures S, T, U and V. (4 marks)

Business Assets(shs) Capital(shs) Liabilities(shs)

A 20,000 S 5,000
B 42,000 32,000 T
C U 17,000 53,000
D 18,000 V 6,000

S……………………………………………………………………………………………
T……………………………………………………………………………………………
U……………………………………………………………………………………………
V……………………………………………………………………………………………
25. Compute the consumer price index (CPI) from the following data giving explanation of your
outcome.
(4 marks)
Year Price
2010 300
2011 375

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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565/2 BUSINESS STUDIES Paper 2

2HRS 3OMINS

PRE MOCK 2024

NAME: ……………………………………..ADM NO.:………CLASS ………

SIGNATURE:…………………...DATE:………………TEACHER…………..

Instructions to candidates.
1. Write your name, index number and signature in the spaces given above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above
3. This paper consists of 6 questions. Answer any five questions.
4. All answers should be written in the answer booklet provided.
5. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the questions are printed.
6. All questions should be answered in English.

For official use only.

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6

Marks

TOTA L

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1. a) Explain five reasons for the popularity of using internet in product promotion. (10mks)

b) Explain five services that the central bank of Kenya may offer to commercial banks.
(10mks)

2. a) Explain five trends in business ownership. (10mks)

b) On 1st April 2020, Kifaru traders had the following balances:

Bank 15,000 (CR)
Cash 25,000 (DR)
April: 3rd Paid wages in cash Ksh. 15,000
5th Bought goods worth Ksh. 750 in cash.
6th Received cheques from the following debtors after allowing a
2% discount in each Case, Roiki Sh. 980, Kombo Sh. 1960.
8th Chebe paid Kifaru by a cheque of Sh. 1,000.
11th Bought machinery by cheque for Sh. 5,000.
13th Cash sales paid directly to the bank Sh. 4000.
15th Withdrew Sh. 1,000 for private use.
20th Cash sales Sh. 20,000.
21st Banked cash amounting to Sh. 1,000.
24th A cheque received from Chebe 0n 8th April was dishonoured.
27th Received Sh. 3,000 by cheque from Kiko, a debtor.
30th Banked all the available cash except Sh. 1,000.
Prepare Kifaru Traders three column cash book for the month of April, 2020. (10mks)

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3. a) Explain five monetary policies that the Kenyan government may use to control inflation.
(10mks)

b) Explain five factors to consider when choosing an office layout. (10mks)

4. a) Explain five factors that may limit entrepreneurial development in a country. (10mks)

b) Explain five negative effects of unemployment. (10mks)

5. a) Describe four chains of distribution that a Kenyan producer would use to sell his/her
goods to South Africa. (8mks)

b) The following Trial balance was prepared from the books of Nerea traders as at 31st
December 2015.

Nerea Traders
Trial Balance.
As at 31st December 2015.
Particulars Dr. Cr.
Sh. Sh.
Sales 900,000
Purchases 600,000
Returns 80,000 20,000
Carriage Inwards 40,000
Carriage Outwards 3,000
Stock (January 2015) 100,000
Rent. 60,000
Creditors 170,000
Debtors 120,000
Interest on loan 18,000
General expenses 7,000
Capital 178.000
Fixed assets 240,000

1,268,000 1,268,000

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Additional Information.
Stock as at 31st December was Ksh. 100,000

Required:
i) Prepare a Trading profit and loss account for the period ended 31st December 2015.
ii) Calculate:
a) Return on capital employed.
b) Current ratio.
c) Rate of stock turnover.(12mks)
6. a) Explain five circumstances under which a country may restrict international trade.
(10mks)
c) Explain five types of direct taxes. (10mks)

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233/1 - CHEMISTRY - Paper 1

PRE MOCK 2024

Name ………………………..………………………… Index No. ..……………..…….…….

Candidates Sign: ……..…..………. Date: ………………………………
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
233/1

CHEMISTRY

Paper 1

THEORY

Time: 2 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
• Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
• All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 – 28 80

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1. a) A hydrocarbon consists of 92.3% carbon. Its molecular mass is 26. Calculate it’s
Molecular formula. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) Draw the structure of the hydrocarbon. (1 mark)

2. a) Explain why melting point of chlorine gas is greater than that of Argon. (l mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) Using dot(•) and cross (×) to represent electrons draw a diagram to show bonding in
carbon (iv) oxide. (l mark)

c) In terms of structure and bonding. Explain why Graphite is used as a lubricant.

(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

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3. a) What is observed when a few drops of phenolphthalein indicator is added to a solution

whose pH value is 3.0? (l mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………..
b) Write an equation for the reaction between Lead (ii) oxide and dilute Nitric acid.
(l mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

4. State and explain the observation that would be made when zinc powder is heated with
copper (II) oxide. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. Why is it dangerous to run a motor car engine in a closed garage? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

6. 2 grams of sodium hydroxide is added to 30 cm3 of IM sulphuric (VI) acid. What volume
of 0. 1M potassium hydroxide solution will be needed to neutralize the excess acid.
(Na23,016,H1) (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………….......
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

7. An aqueous solution of hydrogen chloride gas reacts with manganese (IV) oxide to form chlorine
gas while a solution of hydrogen chloride gas in methylbenzene does not react with manganese
(iv) oxide. Explain (2 marks)

.……………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..

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8. A small piece of potassium Manganate (VII) was placed in a glass of water and was left

standing for 6 hrs without shaking. State and explain the observations made. (2 marks)

.…………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..…………………………………………………………………………………………
………..

9. Magnessium reacts with both dilute and concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid. Write a

balanced equation for the two reactions. (2 marks)

.……………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……….
………………………………………………………………………………………………
….
10. The table below gives the atomic numbers of elements W, X, Y and Z.

Element W X y Z
Atomic number 14 17 16 19

a) Name the type of bonding that exists in the compound formed when X and Z reacts.

(1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………
…
b) Select the letter representing the strongest reducing agent. Give a reason for your
answer. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………
.…………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Ethyne reacts with hydrogen as shown below

H H

H C≡ C H+ H H C =

H H

Use the bond energies below to calculate the enthalpy changes for the above reaction.

(3 marks)

BOND ENERGY
H-H 435
C-H 413
C≡C 835
C=C 611
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. a) Explain the role of common salt in defrosting ice on roads in ice cold countries.

(1 mark)

.……………………………………………………………………………………
……
………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………
…

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b) Explain why the long term effects of use of common salt is costly to motorists.
(1 mark)

.……………………………………………………………………………………
……
………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………
…
13. Given the equation below

NH3(aq) + H2O(l) NH4 +(aq) + OH-(aq)

Identify the species that acts as;

i) A base. Explain (1 mark)

.……………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………….
ii) An acid. ( ½ mark)

.……………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………...……………………………………………………………………………………
……………..
14. a) State Grahams law of diffusion. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………
… …………………………………………………………………………..
b) The rate of diffusion of sulphur(IV)oxide gas through a porous material is 40cm3s -1.

Calculate the rate of diffusion of carbon(IV)oxide gas through the same porous

material (S=32,O=16,C=12) (2 marks)

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reagents : dilute nitric acid, dilute hydrochloric acid and lead carbonate (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

16. The production of ammonia is given by the equation

(i) State and explain the effect of addition of dilute hydrochloride acid on equilibrium.

(2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………...
(ii) Explain the effect of increase in temperature on the yield of ammonia. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

17. Cr2O72- + 14 H+ (aq) + 6Fe2+ Cr23+ + 7H2O(l) + 6Fe3+.

The above equation show a redox reaction

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(a) Calculate the oxidation state of chromium in Cr2O72- (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What is the role of H+ in the above reaction. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. a) Define the standard heat of formation. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……

b) Draw energy cycle diagram to show how the standard heat of formation of ethanol

(C2H5OH) can be determined from standard heats of combustion of its elements. (2 marks)

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c) Given that ∆HC(C) = - 393kJmole-1, ∆HC(H2) = -286kJmole-1 and ∆HC(C2H5OH) = - 1368kJmole-1.

Calculate the enthalpy of formation of C2H5OH. (2 marks)

19. 3.78g of a hydrated salt of iron (II) sulphate, FeSO4, in H2O were heated until all the water
of crystallization was driven off. The anhydrous salt left had a mass of 1.52g. Determine the
formula of the hydrated salt. (Fe = 56, S = 32, H = 1, O = 16) (3 marks)
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................

20. A steady current of 0.2 Amperes was passed through molten silver bromide for 80 minutes.
a) Calculate the quantity of electricity that passed through the set up. (1 mark)
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................

b) Calculate the mass of product deposited at the cathode. (1F = 96500C; Ag = 108,
Br = 80) (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) If a sample of cobalt has an activity of 1000 counts per minute, determine the time it would take
for its activity to decrease to 62.50 if the half-life of the element is 30 minutes. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………….

21. The apparatus set up below was used to prepare an anhydrous solid P

a) Write an equation for formation of solid P (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................

b) Suppose the gas used in the set up was dry hydrogen chloride gas; what would be the product
obtained after the reaction? Give a reason for your answer. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

22. Aluminium is obtained from the ore with the formula Al2O3. 2H2O. The ore is first heated and
refined to obtain pure aluminium oxide (Al2O3). The oxide is then electrolysed to get Aluminium
and oxygen gas using carbon anodes and carbon as cathode.
a) Give the common name of the ore from where aluminium is extracted from. (½ mark)

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………

b) What would be the importance of heating the ore first before refining it? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) The refined ore has to be dissolved in cryolite first before electrolysis. Why is this necessary?
(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Why are the carbon anodes replaced every now and then in the cell for electrolysing
aluminium oxide? (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Use the cell representation below to answer the questions that follow
V(s) / V3+ (aq) //Fe2+ (aq) /Fe(s)

i. Write the equation for the cell reaction (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii. If the E.M.F of the cell is 0.30 volts and the Eθ value for V3+aq / V (s) is -0.74V, calculate
the Eθ of Fe2+(aq)/ Fe(s) (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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24. When 50cm3 1M potassium hydroxide was reacted with 50cm3 of 1M hydrochloric acid,
the temperature rose by 80C. When the same volume of Potassium hydroxide was reacted
with 50cm3 of 1M Pentanoic acid, the temperature rose by 30C.
i) Give reasons for the above difference in temperature. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…….…………………………………………………………………………………………
………….…….……………………………………………………………………………

ii) Write an equation to show dissociation of pentanoic acid? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
…………

25. The following is structural formula of polyester.

O O

O CH2 CH2 O C CH2 C

a) Draw the structural formula and name the alkanoic acid and alkanol that react to form
the polymer. (2 marks)

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b) Give one use of polyester. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

26. A heavy metal P was dissolved in dilute nitric acid to form a solution of compound
P(NO3)2. Portions of the resulting solution were treated as follows:
a) To the first portion a solution of dilute hydrochloric acid is added, where a white precipitate
(S) is formed, which dissolves on warming.
b) The second portion is treated with two drops of 2M Sodium hydroxide solution where a white
precipitate T is formed. The white precipitate dissolved in excess sodium hydroxide to form a
colourless solution.
c) A solution of potassium iodide is added to the third portion where a yellow precipitate (U) is
formed.
d) When the resulting solution is evaporated to dryness and heated strongly a yellow solid (V) is
formed and a brown gas (W) and a colourless gas (X) are formed.

i. Identify the substances P, S, T, U, V, W. (3 marks)

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27. The graphs below were drawn when 15g of marble chips in different physical states were reacted
with 50cm3 of 2M Hydrochloric acid. They are drawn by measuring the volume of carbon (iv) oxide
produced with time.

Cm3
50

40
Volume of Co2

Curve A
Curve B

20
Curve C

10 20 30 40 50

Time
a) Which curves corresponds to the reactions involving powdered calcium carbonate and
large sized marble chips with the dilute acid?
(i) Powdered calcium carbonate (½ mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) Large sized calcium carbonate (½ mark)

.........................................................................................................................................

b) All the graphs eventually flatten out at the same level but at different time. Why do the
graphs flatten out at the same level? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………….…………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) Why is curve A very steep at any given point compared to the other curves. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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28. Sodium thiosulphate was reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid in a round bottomed flask as
shown below. The gas evolved was collected by downward delivery in a gas jar.
Dilute hydrochloric acid

Cardboard cover

moisty filter paper

soaked in acidified
potassium chromium
(vi) solution

sodium thiosulphate

a) Write an equation to show the reaction going on in the reaction in vessel. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………...........

b) State the observation noted on the filter paper. Give a reason for your answer.
(1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Give a reason why the filter paper soaked in the acidified potassium chromium (VI) is
used at the top of the flask (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………….

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233/2 - CHEMISTRY - Paper 2

PRE MOCK 2024

Name …………………………….………...………………Index No………….….……….……

School ……………………………………………............Candidate’s Signature ……...………
Date ……………..........................

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

CHEMISTRY
PAPER 2
(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS
a) Write your name and the Index Number in the spaces provided above.
b) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided after each question.
c) Use of Mathematical sets and silent calculators may be used.
d) All working should be clearly shown.

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
1 13
2 11
3 12
4 12
5 10
6 12
7 10
TOTAL 80

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1. a) The grid below represents part of a periodic table. Study it and answer the questions
that follow. The letters do not represent the actual symbols of elements.

i) Identify the most reactive non-metal

(1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……….

ii) Which of the metal is the most reactive? Explain.

(1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………

iii) What name is given to the family of elements to which X and T belong?
(1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……….
iv) Give reasons for the following
Ionic radius of Q is smaller than that of M 1mark
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………

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Atomic radius of Q is greater than that of S

(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………

v) Give an element that does not form compounds under ideal conditions.
Explain.
(2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………

vi) Give formula of compound formed between E and Z

(1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……...
b) Study the table below and answer the questions that follow.
Substance A B C D E F
Melting point (°C) 801 113 -39 5 -101 1356
119

Boiling point(°C) 1410 445 457 54 -36 2860

Electrical Poor Poor Good Poor Poor poor
Conductivity (Solid)

Electrical Good Poor Good Poor Poor Poor

Conductivity (Liquid)

i) Identify a substance with:

a) Giant metallic structure
(1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) Has a molecular structure and exists in gaseous state at room temperature?

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and pressure
(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Suggest a reason why substance B has two melting points.
(1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……..
iii) Substances A and C conduct electric current in the liquid state. State how the two
substances differ as conductors of electric current.
(2marks)

2. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

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a) Name ore N
(1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
.
b) Explain why the ore is first dissolved in excess sodium hydroxide solution.
(1mark)

c) Name the major compound present in the residue.

(1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
d) Give the formula of the aluminium compound present in solution
(1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
e) i) Explain how to obtain aluminium hydroxide from solution X
(1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
ii) Write equation for reaction that takes place in (e) above
(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………
iii) What is the role of cryolite in the extraction of aluminium.
(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………

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f) Aluminium is a good conductor of electricity. State two uses of aluminium

based
on this property.
(2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……….
g) If sodium carbonate is added to aluminium nitrate solution, effervescence
occurs. Explain.
(2marks)

3. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that

follow.

a) Give the names of the following

i) Compound K (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Substance Y (1mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Product obtained in step 4 (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Identify the type of reaction that takes place in step 1 and give one other condition
necessary for the reaction other than the temperature indicated.

Type of reaction……………………………………………………………………. (1mark)

Condition… .......................................................................................................................(1mark)
c) Draw the structural formula of the following

i) Polymer M (1mark)

ii) Acid Q (1mark)

d) Give the industrial application for the reaction in step 3 (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
e) Write chemical equations for the reactions in step 6 and step 7 . (2marks)
Step 6
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……
Step 7
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
f) The following are structures of two cleansing agents.
O
R C O Na+
R SO−𝟑 Na+

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In the table below, give one advantage and one disadvantage of each of them. (2marks)

Cleansing Agent Advantage Disadvantage

R-COO-Na+

R-OSO3-Na+

4. The standard reduction potentials for five half cells are shown in the table below. Study it and
answer the questions that follow. (The letters do not represent the actual symbol of elements).
Elements E (Volts)
(i) A + 2e− → 2A− + 1.09
2(aq ) (aq )

(ii) Q 2+ + 2e− → Q − 0.13

(aq ) (S )

(iii) R2+ + 2e− → R − 2.37

(aq ) (S )

(iv) Y(2+ + 2e− → Y + 0.34

aq ) (S )

+
(v) 2S (aq ) + 2e− → S 2(S ) 0.00

I (a) With a reason, identify the strongest reducing agent.

(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..
(b) Which half-cell is likely to be hydrogen?
(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…….

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(c) Write an equation for the reaction between two half cells in (ii) and (IV).
(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…….
(d) Calculate the e.m.f of the cell in (c) above.
(2mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…….

II The diagram below represents a mercury cell that can be used in the industrial
manufacture of sodium hydroxide. Study it and answer the questions that follow:-

(a) Name:
(i)Raw material introduced at 2. (½ mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
ii)Another substance that can be used in the cell instead of graphite. (½ mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
(b) Identify the by-product that comes out at I. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
(c) Write an equation for the reaction: -

(i) That occurred at the anode. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………..
(ii) In which sodium hydroxide was produced. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……….
(d) Give two reasons why mercury is recycled. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……….
( e) State one use of sodium hydroxide ( 1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………..

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5. The flow chart below illustrates two industrial processes. Harber process and the contact
process.

Haber B D
Air Nitrogen
process

Oxygen Hydrogen water

H2S04 (I)

A Sulphur Contact C Sulphur (VI)

(IV) oxide process acid

(a). Name the process of obtaining nitrogen from atmospheric air.

(1mark)
..........................................................................................................................................................
(b). List TWO sources of obtaining large volumes of hydrogen for industrial use.
(i) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(1mark)
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………….
(1mark)
(c) Write equation for Haber process.
(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………
(d) Name the catalysts for:
(1mark)
(i) Haber process
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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(ii) Contact process

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) Identify substances: (1mark )

(i) D……………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) C …………………………………………………………………………………….
(f) Give ONE major use of compound D (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
(g) Write an equation for dilution of C with water. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
h) A farmer has three plots each measuring 0.25 acres. He applied nitrogenous fertilizers as
follows.
-plot A 250 kg of ammonium phosphate
-plot B 250 kg of urea CO(NH2)2
- Plot C 250kg of ammonium nitrate
Which plot received the highest nitrogen content? (3marks)
H = 1, N = 14, 0 = 16. P = 31, C = 12.

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6. Study the diagram below and answer the questions which follow.

Lead II Oxide

Ice cold water

Flame
Liquid M L

(i) State two observations made when hydrogen gas pass over hot Lead (II) oxide.
(2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..….
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..…..
(ii) Write the equation for the reaction which occurs in the combustion tube. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..…..
(iii) What property of hydrogen is shown in the experiment above. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..…..
(iv) Identify liquid M and describe the test for its purity (2marks)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..…..
(v) What would be observed if MgO was used instead of Lead II Oxide: Explain (2marks)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………
………….

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………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..…..
(vi) What is the colour of the flame (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..…..
(vii) Write a chemical equation of the reaction producing the flame. (1mark)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
(vii) Apart from hydrogen peroxide, state two other reagents that can be used to prepare
oxygen gas. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..….
(viii) Write an equation to show how hydrogen gas is formed from the reagents chosen in
(vii) above. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…..…..
7. I. Use the data below to calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction below
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H20 (l)
(3marks)
Bond Energy (KJ)
C–H 314
O=O 296
C=O 149
H–O 283

II. Given the following Standard Molar enthalpies of combustion. Calculate the standard heat of
formation of butane (C4H8).
(3marks)

ΔH𝜃𝑐 Carbon (Graphite) = -393.5KJ/mol

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ΔH𝜃𝑐 Hydrogen = 285.8KJ/mol

ΔH𝜃𝑐 butene = -2877KJ/mol

III. Use the following information to answer the questions that follow
H lattice Mgcl2 = -2489 kJ/ mol-1
H hydration Mg2+ = - 1891 kJ/ mol
H hydrationCl - = -384 kJ/ mol
b) Using energy level diagram calculate the molar heat of solution of magnesium chloride.
(4marks)

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233/2 - CHEMISTRY - Paper 2

PRE MOCK 2024

Name: …………………………………………………………… Adm No: ………………………………

Class: …………………………………………………………. Candidate’s Sign: …………………….

Date: ………………………………………………………….

233/3

CHEMISTRY

PAPER 3

TIME: 2 ¼ HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)

Chemistry

Practical

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:-

• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided

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• Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided

• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
• Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
• All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
• Use the first 15minutes of the 2 ¼ hours to ascertain you have all the chemicals and apparatus tha
you may need.
For Examiners use Only

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 15
2 11
3 14
TOTAL 40

QUESTION 1
▪ You are provided with solution K and L
▪ Solution K is 1M H2SO4
▪ Solution L contains 8.7g of the hydroxide of metal M {with formulae MOH] in 600cm3 of the
solution
▪ You are required to carry out the experiment to determine;
i. Concentration of solution L
ii. R.A.M of metal M
Procedure
1. Measure 75cm3 of solution K and put into a clean 250cm3 volumetric flask and add distilled water up
to the mark
-label this solution W
2. Fill a clean burette with solution W
3. Pipette 25cm3 of solution L into a clean conical flask and add 2 drops of phenolphthalein indicator
4. Titrate the solution W in the burette against solution L in the conical flask and record the results in
the table below
5. Repeat {3} and {4} above as you fill the table below.

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TABLE 1

I II III
Final burette reading {cm3}
Initial burette reading {cm3}
Volume of solution W used {cm3}

[4mks]
{a} Calculate the;
{i} Average volume of solution W used
[1mk]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
{ii} Concentration of solution W
[1mk]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
{iii} Number of moles of solution W that reacted with each 25cm3 portion of solution
L {2mks]

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
{b}Calculate the;
{i} Number of moles of the metal hydroxide {MOH} in solution L that reacted with
each portion of solution W
[2mks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
{ii} Concentration of solution L
[1mk]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
{iii} Number of moles of the metal hydroxide [MOH]in 600cm3 of solution L
[2mks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
{iv} R.A.M of metal M
[2mks]
[0=16, H=1]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
QUESTION 2

You are provided with solution N and P

▪ Solution N is 2M HCl
▪ Solution P is 0.16M sodium thiosulphate
▪ You are required to carry out the experiment below to determine how concentration affects
the rate of reaction between HCl and sodium thiosulphate solutions

PROCEDURE

1. Fill a clean burette with solution P.

Measure 25cm3 of the solution P from the burette into a clean 100cm3 glass beaker and place
on a white piece of paper with a cross[x] marked on it
2. Add 10cm3 of solution N into it and immediately start a stop watch and note the time taken
for the cross beneath the mixture to become invisible
3. Clean the 100cm3 beaker and measure into it 20cm3 of solution P form the burette, and add
5cm3 of distilled water into the solution solution
4. Repeat step [2] above and note the time taken for the cross to become invisible
5. Repeat the experiment using volumes indicated on the table below and as you record the
results

TABLE 2

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Expt
1 2 3 4 5
3
Volume of solution p(cm ) 25 20 15 10 5
Volume of water added to solution p{cm3} 0 5 10 15 20
Volume of solution N 10 10 10 10 10
Time taken for the cross to become
invisible [in seconds]
1
S-1
𝑡

(4mks)
1
[a] plot a graph of against volume of solution P on the grid provided
[3mk]

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{b}From the graph

{i} Determine the time taken for the cross to become invisible when 12.5cm3 of
solution P is used
[2mks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
{ii}
Explain the effect of concentration on the rate of reaction between HCl and
sodium thiosulphate solution
[2mks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
QUESTION 3
▪ You are provided with solids Q and R
▪ You are required to carry out the tests below as you record your observations and inferences
(i) SOLID Q
-Add about 5cm3 of distilled water to solid Q, shake the mixture thoroughly for a while
and then filter it
NOTE: Retain both the filtrate and the residue for the tests below

TEST OBSERVATIONS INFERENCES

(a){i} Divide the filtrate into 4
portion
-To the first portion, add 4
drops of NaOH
1 (1𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
2
{ii} Scoop the 2nd portion on a
metallic spatula
and ignite on a non-luminous
flame

1 1
( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘) ( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
2 2

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{iii} To the 3rd portion, add 2

drops of Pb{NO3}[aq]

1 (1𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
2
{iv} To the 4th portion ,add
acidified KmnO4

1
( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘) 1
2
( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
2
b{i} Put the residue in a test tube
and add about 2cm3 of HNO3

(1𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
1
( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
2
{ii} To the mixture in b{i} above,
add 2 drops of KI solution

1 1
( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘) ( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
2 2

{ii}SOLID R

TEST OBSERVATIONS INFERENCES

(a) Scoop a portion of solid R on a
Metallic spatula and burn on a
Non-luminous flame

(1𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘) (1𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)

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(b){i] Put the remaining portion of

solid R into a clean test tube
and add about 3cm3of distilled
water, shake and divide into 2
portions
(1𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘) 1
( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
2

{ii} To the 1st portion, add 2 drops

of acidified KMnO4 and warm

1 (1𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
2
{iii} To the 2nd portion add NaCO3

1 (1𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
2

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3
CONFIDENTIAL
(a) Each student should be supplied with the following
1. Burette
2. Pipette
3. Pipette filler
4. Filter funnel
5. White tile
6. Clamp and stand
7. 2 conical flask
8. 100 cm3glass Beaker (empty)
9. Stop watch
10. 100cm3 measuring cylinder
11. 10cm3measuring cylinder
12. 250 cm3volumetric flask
13. Metallic spatula
14. 6 clean test tubes
15. Test tube holder
16. 500ml distilled water
17. White piece of paper or filter paper
18. 1 filter paper

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19. 1 labelling paper

20. Phenolphthalein indicator
21. About 90cm3 solution K
22. About 100cm3 solution L
23. About 70cm3 solution N
24. About 90cm3 solution P
25. About 0.5gNaHCO3
26. About 1.0g solid Q
27. About 0.5g solid R

(b) Each student should have access to the following solutions:

1. Mean of heating
2. 2M NaOH
3. 2M HNO3
4. Pb(NO3)
5. Acidified KMNO4
6. Potassium iodide solution
NB: the above solutions should be supplied with a dropper each.

(c) SOLUTIONS PREPARATION AND SOLID MEASUREMENTS

1. SOLUTION K IS 1M H2SO4
2. SOLUTION L IS 0.36 M NaOH CONTAINING 14.4g OF NAOH IN 1 LITRE OF THE
SOLUTION
3. SOLUTION N IS 2M HCl
4. SOLUTION P IS 0.16 M Na2S2O3(SODIUM THIOSULPHATE)
5. SOLID Q IS A MIXTURE OF SODIUM SULPHITE(Na2SO3) AND LEAD (II)
CARBONATE (PbCO3) MIXED IN THE RATIO 1:1 (should be thoroughly mixed)
6. SOLID R IS MALEIC ACID

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313/1 - ENGLISH - Paper 1

PRE MOCK 2024

NAME: .................................................................................. Index No: .......................................

Candidate’s Signature: ...................................... Date: ..............................................

ENGLISH
Paper 1
(Functional Skills)
Time: 2 Hours
Instructions

1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer all the questions in this paper.
4. All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper.
5. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
6. Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For Official use only

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
e) Functional skills 20
f) Cloze test 10
g) Oral skills 30

60
TOTAL
This paper consists of 7 printed pages. Students should check the question paper to ensure that
all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

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1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 marks)

You passed very well in your KCSE. Your former school is holding a prize-giving ceremony. You
have been invited through a letter as one of those receiving the awards. However, you have lost a
neighbour and he will be laid to rest on the same day and so you will not attend the prize giving
ceremony.
a) Reply to the letter declining the invitation. (12 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) Write a condolence note to your neighbour’s parents. (8 marks)

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2. CLOZE TEST(10 marks)

Read the passage and fill the blanks with an appropriate word
Olive oil is good for the bones, a two-year (1)...................... has found. People who consume
olive oil have higher amounts of osteocalcin, a special (2)… .......................... that is found in
bones which helps keep(3). ............................... strong. They also found that osteocalcin lowers
the risk of osteoporosis a (4) ..................... in which bones lose density and become fragile and
more likely to fracture.

In addition, osteocalcin was found to (5)…………….......in metabolic regulation. These

findings help explain (6) ................................ people from the Mediterranean area of Europe are
the least (7) ................................ to developing osteoporosis. These people consume a lot of
olives and olive oil, along with (8).................... and vegetables.

Other (9). ................................ of olive oils include reduced stroke and breast
(10) ........................... risk and liver protection.

3. ORAL SKILLS(30 marks)

a) Read the following oral poem and answer questions that follow (8 marks)

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One hand cannot manage work

A threshing stick cannot thresh millet with one hand
Some hands breed hatred at the eating time
Nobody hates being assisted

Let millet be threshed

Let it be threshed, let it be threshed
Cut a threshing stick for me
A lazy wife
Is taken back to her parents
When the rain fails
It blames the wind
And a lazy woman
Blames the threshing stick

Cut a threshing stick for me ii

My co-wife cut me a threshing stick

You woman, owner of this occasion

Remember that work is the stomach
Take care not to starve us
The threshing sticks are sounding
Let the millet leave the threshing ground
(Adapted from Oral Literature of the Embu and Mbeere by Ciarunji Chesaina)

Questions
26. Identify and illustrate two mnemonic effects (sound devices) in the poem. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
27. You have been asked to perform the above poem. Explain how you will prepare for it.
(2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
28. What non-verbal aspects would you use in the performance of the poem and where?(2 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
29. While performing the above poem you notice that members of the audience are murmuring
what could the problem be? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Provide another word that is identical in pronunciation with underlined words in the sentence
below. (4 marks)
The maid offered the guest some juice squeezed from a berry from the farm.
d) ………………………………………………………………….
e) ………………………………………………………………….
f) …………………………………………………………………
g) ……………………………………………………………………
c) Identify the silent letter in the following words ( 4 marks)
(iv)Debut …………………………………..

(v) Patois …………………………………

(vi) Lesson …………………………………

(vii) Heaven …………………………………

d) You attend a prize-giving ceremony in your school. When the chief guest is speaking. You
notice that he is sweating profusely, he is inaudible, and he stammers a lot and avoids eye
contact with his audience. What could be the cause of such behaviour? (4 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) The underlined indicates the stressed word in the sentence below. Briefly explain what each
sentence means. (3 marks)

(i) Tom visited Mary yesterday

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Tom visited Mary yesterday

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii)Tom visited Mary yesterday
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
f) Read the following conversation and answer the questions that follow. (7 marks)
Becky: (Shouting) What does she have to do to be punished - commit murder?
Vera: Go easy on her.
Becky: (Irritably) But you know he does anything she asks him to do. It is not fair.
Vera: Grow up! ...
Becky: (Screaming) You hate me! You never liked me! You only came to my school to
spy on me because you are jealous of me you ugly witch, you pretender.
Vera: (Tears welling) I sacrificed my golden chance to be with you stupid girl and you
return it with nothing but insults!

(i) Highlight Becky’s shortcomings in her conversation to Vera. (4 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) What good conversational skills should they have employed to enhance communication?
(4 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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101/2 - ENGLISH - Paper 2

PRE MOCK 2024

NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM……………….:……

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE………………………

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE…………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

• Write your name, index number and the name of your school in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• Answer all the questions in this question paper.
• All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

Comprehension
20
Excerpt
25
Poetry
20
Grammar
15
TOTAL SCORE 80

This paper consists of 10 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated.
And that no questions are missing.

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1. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow (20 marks)

Certainly, national examinations are the most objective instrument for evaluating
the quality of instructions learners get in a school over a given period of time.
They help to determine, in the short term, how well schools have exposed learners
to the prescribed curriculum.

An exam is a monitoring and evaluation tool of some sort; it helps the policy
makers to determine how schools are implementing the curriculum.

There is, however, a big danger here. Over time, the public come to view
examinations, tests, as indicators of how well schools are teaching. The better the
results, the more the public believe that there is quality education a school is
giving to its learners.

When society comes to idolize examinations and all that they can do- secure
qualification for admission into competitive courses in universities or training- it
makes the school and the teaching fraternity to narrow their perspective to
nothing but examinations.

Some schools discard the professional integrity that has long defined the teaching
profession over the years. Lest we have forgotten, education is the instrument by
which the knowledge, skills and habits of the society is transmitted or transferred
from generation to the next through teaching and research. Included in this is the
knowledge, beliefs, art, law, morals, customs and other capabilities and habits
mankind has acquired as a member of the society, to paraphrase a definition of
culture by English anthropologist E.B. Tylor.

Pressed to produce excellent results, schools face the temptation of developing

methods that can deliver those results with or without imparting the knowledge,

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skills and habits.

The core curriculum has been designed in such a way that it is sequentially covered
within a period of eight years for primary and four years for secondary education.
Build into the scope and sequential implementation of the curriculum are leading
ideas of education psychologists on the nature of knowledge, how children learn,
and how best they can learn the prescribed curriculum without stress.

The series of guidelines the Ministry of Education, Science and Technology has
developed pre-scribing normal teaching and learning hours are informed by
knowledge of educational psychology.

They seek to ensure that schools actually implement the curriculum as designed
to allow children time to rest, to do their own reading after formal teaching hours
during weekdays and over the weekends. The Kenya Institute of Curriculum
Development (KICD) has sequenced the curriculum in such a way that students
painstakingly build on previous concepts and ideas to reinforce their
understandings and appreciation of the things they are learning.

This is the principle that underlies the ban against holiday tuition, and teaching
outside official teaching hours including Saturday and Sundays. The Government
wants quality curriculum delivery and control. It is not after getting sterling grades
through hook or crook.

A highly valued method of imparting prescribed knowledge, skills and habits is

through the development of and promotion of the use of effective learner- centred
pedagogies, curriculum models/ resources and assessment mode to enhance
learning in the cognitive, affective, physical and aesthetic domains.
(Adapted from Education Mews: April, 2014)

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a) According to the writer, why is an exam important to policy makers? (1 mark)

b) What misconceptions does the public have towards examinations? (2 marks)

c) In not more than 40 words. Write a summary on the effects of idolizing examinations by
the society. (3 marks)

d) According to E.B. Tyloy, what is culture? (2 marks)

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e) According to the passage, what has influenced the designing and implementation of
the curriculum? (2 marks)

f) Why has he Ministry of Education, Science and Technology come up with guidelines
on normal teaching and learning hours. (2 marks)

g) "It is not after getting sterling grades through hook or crook'. What is the meaning of
the underlined statement? (1 mark)

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h) The government wants quality curriculum delivery and control.

Change above statement to an interrogative sentence. (1 mark)

i) Provide a suitable title to the passage. (1 mark)

j) Give the meaning of the following words as used in the passage. (5 marks)
a) Prescribed
b) Implementing
c) ldolize
d) Anthropologist
e) Sequenced

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Question 2: EXCERPT- FATHERS OF NATIONS

Read the excerpt below and answer the questions that follow (25 marks)
The door to the bathroom opened. Fiona emerged and started walking but stopped. Her eyes had
not adjusted to the darkness in the living room. "Where are you?" she asked.

"Over here" he said. "I have taken a couch in the living room. Go take the bed in the bedroom."
"You're acting as if you might have a wife," she said, "Do you?" "No, she divorced me last year."
"Did she?"
"Yes"
"Let's see now. You studied in America at a marriageable age."

"So let me guess." "Go ahead. "She is American."

"Who? Pamela?"
"Yes, it is. And, yes, she is American. Enough about me now. Let's turn to you. Shouldn't your
name still be Fiona McKenzie?"

"Who told you it might hye changed?" She started walking to khe bedroom. Her eyes had
adjusted to the only light.

"Why was the Liberian Mauler calling you Joy instead?" "It's local slang for a streetwalker."
"He was calling you a streetwalker?"
"Yes. Do you want me to draw a picture for you? Where are you from anyway? Mars? "No:
Nigeria.
Married?" "Me?"
The phone rang. He rose and answered the landline by the couch. When he ended the call, his
mood had darkened.

"What's the matter?" she asked him. "You seem upset all of a sudden. Who was on the phone?"
"One Chineke Chiamaka," he said. "The man was claiming that I chided him for being
drunk,when all he had had was a"Péisi." He wriggled in his improvised bed to protest his

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innocence against that claim. "It beats me how he got my suite phone number in the first
place," he added. "Anyway, I did not chide him. Why do people like to tell lies?"

QUESTIONS
(a) Place the excerpt to its immediate context. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….

(b) Discuss two-character traits of Abiola and one character trait of Fiona McKenzie. (6 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….

(c) (i) Why do people like to tell lies? (Report) (1 mark)

(e) Highlight two themes raised in the excerpt. (4 marks)

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(f) Identify and illustrate two features of style used in the excerpt. (4 marks)

(g) Explain the meaning of the following words and phrase as used in the excerpt. (3 marks)

i. Improvised………………………………………………………………………………
…………….

ii.
darkened……………………………………………………………………………………
…………

iii.
Chided………………………………………………………………………………………
…………

3: ORAL LITERATURE
(20marks)

Read the narrative below and then answer the questions that follow.

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Once upon a time, all animals in the jungle were of the same plain colour but when they were
invited by king lion for his son’s wedding, they decided to decorate themselves for the occasion.
The tortoise was given the task of making the dye to be used. Though he was slow, he was the
most intelligent.

The big day was fast approaching but the tortoise had only managed to make one big pot of black
dye. He called a meeting and they all decided to use the available dye to make various patterns in
their skins.
The leopard was allocated the job of painting the rest of the animals. The zebra was the first on
queue followed by the giraffe, then the donkey and all the other animals were to follow. The
giraffe and the zebra were painted and they looked very beautiful.

Then the donkey’s turn came but he was undecided on the pattern to choose. The leopard
decided to paint him like a zebra and got down to work. He had a long line along the donkey’s
spine from head towards the tail. On reaching the tail, the donkey started giggling. The leopard
continued and the donkey jumped and threw him his hind legs saying the brush was tickling and
he could not contain himself any longer.

He had thrown his hind legs so hard that he hit the pot containing the dye. The dye spattered all
over the animals on the queue. The cheetah got speckles all over his body, the leopard got
spotted and the crow who happened to be passing by with an urgent letter for the king hanging
on its neck was splashed by the dye which covered him the whole body apart from the neck
where the letter was. On seeing this, the hyena started laughing but got a large splotch on his
mouth.
All the animals rushed to the stream to try and wash out the dye but it was already dried and had
become permanent. Nobody could get off the spots, streaks, speckles and splotches. And that is
how the donkey was responsible for the various patterns we see on animal’s bodies today.

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a) Classify the narrative above. (2marks)

b) Identify and illustrate any two social aspects of society from which this narrative is taken
(4 marks)

c) Identify and illustrate any three features peculiar to oral narratives evident in this narrative.
(6marks)

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d) Identify and illustrate any two character traits of the Leopard.

(4 marks)

e) Who would be the target audience of such a narrative

(2marks)

f) If you were to collect this narrative from the field, what preparations would you make before
the actual field work
(2marks)

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4. GRAMMAR
(15 marks)
(a) Rewrite each of the following sentences according to the instructions given after
each. (3 marks)
(i) We did not know that he was a thief. (Rewrite beginning: Little……)

(ii) My father would not allow us to go out at night under any circumstances.
(Begin: Under .................... )

(iii) She does not like either of them. (Rewrite to end.............................. by her)

(b) Fill in the blank spaces with the correct preposition.

(3 marks)
(i) The doctor put me these drugs.
(ii) Wife beaters have scant regard women.
(iii) During the match between the national team and the visiting team, the field was filled
capacity.
(c) Use the correct form of the word in brackets to fill in the blank spaces.

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(3 marks)
(i) Her (deceive) cost her two million US dollars.
(ii) The minister was impressed by the (keen) with which the
students carried the experiment. (iii) The teacher punished the student for
(spell) the word.
(d) Give two possible meanings for the following sentence.
(2 marks)
Flying planes can be dangerous.

(e) Rewrite the following sentences in direct speech.

(2 marks)
(i) The girls exclaimed that Miss Kenya was a beautiful lady.

(ii) The teacher told Juma to go where she was.

(f) Fill in the blanks with the correct alternative from the choices given.
(2 marks)
(i) The girl her clothes yesterday. (hung/hanged)
(ii) The Chef the mats on the table before serving the food. (lay/laid)

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101/1 - ENGLISH - Paper 3

PRE MOCK 2024

NAME…………………………………………….………..INDEX NO………….….....................………
SCHOOL………………………………………………..CANDIDATES SIGN…………....................….
CLASS………………………………………………… DATE…………………......................………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the space provided.
3. Answer three questions only
4. Questions 1 and 2 are compulsory
5. In question 3 choose only one of the optional set texts you have prepared on.
6. Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional set text, only the first one to
appear will be marked.
7. Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words
8. All your answers must be written on the answer sheet provided.
9. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and
no questions are missing.
10. Candidates must answer the questions in English.

For examiners use only.

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 20

2 20

3 20

Total 60

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Answer three questions only.

1. Imaginative composition(compulsory)
Either
(a) Write a story beginning with: (20 marks)
“As he walked in through the door, I noticed he was not one of the usual customers…”
OR

(b) Write a composition explaining why students cheat in National Exams.

(20marks)

2. The compulsory set text: (20marks)

The Samaritan

Discuss the theme of Justice, Fairness and Integrity as depicted in the play, The
Samaritan, by John Lara

3. OPTIONAL SET BOOKS

either

a) Play: Parliament of Owls

Nothing good comes easy. With close reference to Adipo Sidang'"parliament of Owls."
discuss.

Or
(b) Short story: A Silent Song and Other Stories by Godwin Siundu (20 marks)
People with admirable traits stand out. Basing your illustrations on Vrenika Pather's Ninema,
write an essay to validate this assertion.
Or
(c) An Artist of the floating world by Kazuo Ishiguro.
Discuss the use of Noriko’s marriage negotiation as a means to drive this novel’s plot
forward while revealing Ono’s past.

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Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

GEOGRAPHY PAPER ONE

PRE MOCK 2024

NAME…………………………………………….………..ADM NO………….……...........……

SIGN……........................

CLASS.................................................................................. DATE……………………….......…

312/1
GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
TIME: 23/4 HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.(K.C.S.E)

For Examiners Use Only

Section Questions Maximum Score Candidates Score
A 1–5 25
B 6 25
25
25
TOTAL SCORE 100

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SECTION A
ANSWER ALL THE QEUSTIONS IN THIS SECTION
1a) Define the term Environment.
(3mks)
b.) List any three major areas coved in physical Geography.
(3mks)
2a) The diagram below represents the structure of the atmosphere use it to answer question (a)

a) Name

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i) The parts marked P and Q.

(2mks)
ii) The layer of discontinuity marked R.
(1mk)
b.) State two characteristics of weather conditions in the troposphere.
(2mks)
3. a) What is an earthquake?
(2mks)
b) Identify the scale used to measure
i) The intensity of earthquakes.
(1mk)
ii) The magnitude of earthquakes.
(1mk)

c) Name one major region where earthquakes are likely to occur.

(1mk)
4. a) Distinguish between River Capture and river rejuvenation.
(2mks)
b) State three characteristics of a river at youthful stage.
(3mks)
5. a) Explain two reasons why wind is the dominant agent of erosion in arid area.
(4mks)
b) Identify any one feature formed as a result of wind deposition in arid areas.
(1mk)
6. Use the map PROVIDED KISUMU EAST I:50,000 (SHEET 116/2) and answer the
following questions .
a.) i) What is the sheet title of the map
(1mk)

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ii). What is the magnetic declination of the map extract

(1mk)
b. i) Convert the ratio scale of the map extract into statement scale.
(2mks)
c.) What is the bearing of trigonometrical station at grid reference 081980 from the
Air photo Principals point at grit square 0997.
(2mks)
d) Give three types of natural Vegetation found in the area covered by map.
(3mks)
e) Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map.
(5mks)
f) Draw a rectangle 12cm by 10cm to represent the area enclosed by Easting 03 and
09 and Northing 80 and 85. On the rectangle, mark and name the following
features. (5mks)
i) Trigonometrical station 1154.
ii) All weather road B 25/3
iii) Seasonal swamp.
iv) Ombeyi river.
g. Citing evidence from the map ,explain three social factions of Ksumu town .
(6mks)
7. a) i) What is folding ?
(2mks)
ii) State three factors that influence folding .
(3mks)
b) i) Apart from over thrust fold ,name four other types of folds.
(4mks)
ii) With the aid of well labelled diagrams ,describe the formation of an over
thrust fold.
(8mks)
c) Explain four significance of fold maintains to human activities.
(8mks)

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8. The map below shows some vegetation regions of the world.

Use it to answer questions (a) to (c)

a.) Name the temperate grass lands marked H ,J and K.

(3mks)
b.) Describe the characteristics of the natural vegetation found in the shaded area
marked N.
(5mks)
c.) Explain four ways in which the vegetation found in the area marked M adapts to
the environment conditions of the region.
(8mks)
d.) You are required to carry out a field study of the vegetation which the local
environment.

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i) Apart from identifying the different types of plants, state four other
activities you will carry out during the field study.
(4mks)
ii.) How will you identify the different types of plants.
(2mks)
iii.) Give three reasons for visiting the area before study.
(3mks)

9. a) i) Differentiate between a waterfall and a gorge.

(2mks)
ii.) State two factors that influence the rate of erosion by a river in its upper
course.
(2mks)
b.) i) Describe the processes by which a river transport its load.
(6mks)
ii) Name three river depositional features.
(3mks)
c.) Describe each of the following drainage pattern using diagrams.
i) Centripetal.
(2mks)
ii) Radial.
(2mks)
iii) Fault-guided.
(2mks)

d) Your class is planning to carry out a field study of a river in its mature stage
i.) Give three methods you would use to record the information collected.
(3mks)
ii.) State three characteristics of a river at the mature stage that you are likely
to observe during the study.
(3mks)
10 a.) i) State three conditions necessary for the development of Karst scenery.
(3mks)
ii.) Give three sources of underground water. (3mks)

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b) i) Differentiate between Artesian basin and Artesian well (2mks)

ii.) A part from stalagmites, name three other underground features formed in
limestone areas. (3mks)
iii) With the aid of a diagram, describe how a stalagmite is formed. (8mks)
c.) Explain three positive significance of resultant features in Karst scenery. (6mks)
............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
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Kenya Certificate of Secondary

Education
312/2
Paper 2
GEOGRAPHY

NAME---------------------------------------------------- Index No
Candidate’s Signature----------------------- CLASS-------------------------
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
Time: 2 ¾ HRS
Instructions to candidates.
a) Write your name and Index numbers in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examinations in the spaces provided above
c) Candidates should check the question paper has two sections A Question 1 to 5 and B
Question 6 to 10.
d) Answer question 6 and any other 2 questions in section B.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION MARKS
SECTION A 1-5
SECTION B 6
7
8
9
10
TOTAL SCORE. (100 %)

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SECTION A: (25 marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

1. a) Give three reasons why it is important to study Geography. (3 marks)

b) State two factors that may influence occurrence of minerals. (2 marks)

2. a) List two problems facing dairy farming in Kenya. (2 marks)

b) State three factors that have encouraged dairy farming in Denmark. (3 marks)

3. a) State three differences between natural forests and manmade forests. (3 marks)

b) Name any four industries associated with forestry. (2 marks)

4. Use the sketch map of Lake Victoria below to answer question (a)

a) Name the lake ports marked P, Q and R. (3 marks)

b) Outline two advantages of using containers while handling goods at the port of
Kisumu. (2 marks)

5. a) Apart from water and air pollution, name two other types of pollution. (2 marks)

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b) Identify three ways through which water is polluted. (3 marks)

SECTION B. (75 marks)

Answer question 6 and ANY OTHER TWO questions.

6. The table below shows the percentage of exports of country Y by Commodity.

COMMODITY. %.
Tea 47.3

Horticulture 21.6

Coffee. 18.1

Beef Products 13

a) Draw a divided rectangle with a length of 10 cm to represent the above data. (7

marks)

b) Give five characteristics of Horticultural Farming. (5 marks)

c) Explain four factors that favour beef farming in Argentina. (8 marks)

d) Explain three disadvantages of Plantation Farming. (6 marks)

7. a) i) Apart from draining swamps give two other methods through which land

Has been reclaimed in Kenya. (2 marks)

ii) Give two methods that are used to reclaim swamps in Kenya.(2 marks)

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b) i) Name two rivers that supply water to the Mwea Tebere Irrigation scheme.(2
marks)

ii) Explain how the following factors influenced the establishment of the Mwea
Tebere Irrigation scheme.

• Topography. (2 marks)
• Soils. (2 marks)
• Population Density. (2 marks)
• Government Policy (2 marks)

c) i) Name three areas which make up the Zuider Zee reclamation project in the
Netherlands. (3 marks)

ii) Give four differences between Land Reclamation in Kenya and the
Netherlands. (8 marks
8. a) i) Define the term energy. (1 mark)

ii) Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable sources of energy.

(2 marks)

iii) Give three renewable sources of energy. (3 marks)

b) Explain three ways in which Kenya has benefited from the development of hydro-
electric power station. (6 marks)

c) Use the sketch map of the seven folk’s scheme in Kenya below to answer the
questions that follow.

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i) Name the river marked J and K. (2 marks)

ii) Identify the dams marked L, M, N and P. (4 marks)

iii) Name the proposed hydroelectric power stations labeled R and S. (2 marks)

d) i) Give two reasons why geothermal power has not been fully exploited in
Kenya. (2 marks)

ii) State three causes of Energy Crisis in the world. (3 marks)

9. a) i) Distinguish between Industry and Industrial Inertia. (2 marks)

b) Use the map below to answer the questions that follow.

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i) Name the towns P, Q and R. (3 marks)

ii) Name rivers marked L and M. (2 marks)

c) i) Apart from Iron and Steel Industries name three industries in the Ruhr
Industrial region. (3 marks)

ii) State five reasons why the use of coal as a source of energy in the Ruhr

region declined. (5 marks)

d) i) State two significance of Car and Electronic Industries in Japan. (2 marks)

ii) Explain three factors which have favoured the development of car
manufacturing industry in Japan. (6 marks)

iii) Name two towns in Kenya where Motor Vehicle Assembling Plants are
located. (2 marks)

10. a) i) Differentiate between Internal and Regional trade. (2 marks)

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ii) List three major exports from Kenya to European countries. (3 marks)

b) Give four reasons why the southern African development cooperation (SADC)
was formed. (4 marks)

c) Explain four problems facing trade in Kenya. (8 marks)

d) Explain how the future of International trade in Kenya can be improved.(8 marks)

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102/1 - KISWAHILI - KARATASI YA 1

LUGHA

PTR MOCK 2024

JINA:………………………………………………………..
NAMBARI:……….........................

NAMBARI YA USAJILI:…………………………………………...SAHIHI:…………………

102/1
KISWAHILI
INSHA
KARATASI YA 1
MUDA: 1 ¾
Maagizo
(a) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
(b) Kisha chagua insha nyingine kutoka tatu zilizobakia.
(c) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
(d) Kila insha ina alama 20.
(e) Watahiniwa lazima waangalie kama kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa
chapa sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

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MASWALI
1. Wewe ni mhariri wa gazeti la Msemakweli. Andika tahariri kuhusu athari za
baa la njaa na hatua zinazochukuliwa na serikali katika kukabiliana na tatizo
hili.
2. Matumizi ya afyuni katika taasisi za masomo nchini ni suala muhali
kutatuliwa. Jadili.
3. Andika kisa kinachothibitisha ukweli wa methali: Mtaka yote hukosa yote.
4. Tunga kisa kinachoanza kwa maneno haya:
Ilinichukua muda mrefu kusadiki niliyoyapata...

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102/2 -KISWAHILI -KARATASI YA 2

PRE MOCK 2024
JINA........................................................DARASA............................................

NAMBARI YA USAJILI.........................TAREHE.....................SAHIHI...........
MUDA: SAA 2 ½
MAAGIZO KWA MTAHINIWA
• Jibu maswali yote.
• Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi zilizoachwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
• Karatasi hii ina kurasa kumi. Watahiniwa ni lazima waangalie kama kurasa zote za
karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA

15
1. UFAHAMU
15
2. UFUPISHO
40
3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA

4. ISIMUJAMII 10

JUMLA 80

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1. UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)

Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.
Ushauri na uelekezaji ni mojawapo ya mikakati ambayo inatumiwa na taasisi na mashirika
mengi katika kurekebisha tabia. Msimamo wa kijadi kuwa adhabu kali ndiyo njia mufti ya
kumshinikiza binadamu kuacha mienendo hasi unaendelea kufifia na mahali pake
kutwaliwa na nasaha na ushawishi. Hata katika mazingira magumu kama gerezani, ushauri
na uelekezaji umeonekana kuzaa matunda kwa kuwasaidia wafungwa kubadili mienendo
hasi na kukabiliana na makali ya matendo yao.
Kila mwanajamii, wazee kwa vijana, wake kwa waume, wenye furaha kwa wenye majonzi
huhitaji nasaha. Nasaha humwezesha mtu kustahimili hali ngumu katika maisha.
Wanaougua magonjwa sugu kama vile iri huhitaji ushauri ili kuishi kwa mitazamo chanya
na kupunguza makali ya unyanyapaa na hali ya kujihurumia inayotokana na maradhi hayo.
Halikadhalika, binadamu huhitaji mawaidha wakati anapovuka kutoka daraja moja la
maisha hadi jingine. Kila awamu katika maisha ya binadamu huwa na changamoto,
majukumu na matarajio yake. Maarusi, kwa mfano, huhitaji nasaha ya kuwawezesha
kukabiliana na changamoto za ndoa. Aidha vijana wanaotiwa jandoni hihitaji ushauri wa
kuwasaidia kuyamudu majukumu ya utuuzima. Si ajabu kuwa tangu jadi manyakanga
wamekuwa wakiwausia wanaotiwa jandoni kuhusu kunga za utuuzima.
Ingawa kila mwanajamii anahitaji ushauri na uelekezaji, vijana ndio wanaouhitaji zaidi
kwa sababu hawana uzoefu mpana wa maisha. Vijana wanaohitimu masomo ya shule za
upili, kwa mfano, wanahitaji kuelekezwa kuhusu taaluma katika vyuo vikuu, umuhima na
mahitaji ya taaluma hizo. Isitoshe, wakati wa kukfanya mitihani vijana huhitaji nasaha.
Mazingira ya binadamu hubadilika, nayo maisha yake hutwaa mabadiliko yanayotokana
na hali mpya. Baadhi ya watu wanapojipata katika mazingira mageni wasiyoyaweza,
hupatwa na woga au unyonge Fulani ambao huenda ukawaathiri. Wengine, pengine kwa
sababu ya maisha duni ya awali, huweza kuathiriwa na kujiona kuwa wenye thamani ya
chini wakijilinganisha na wenzao. Kuna wanafunzi au hata wafanyikazi ambao kwa sababu
ya kutofikia malengo yao shuleni au kazini, hufa moyo na hata kutaka kuiacha shule au kazi
hiyo. Watu kama hawa huhitaji nasaha ili wajikubali jinsi walivyo na hata waweze kutumia
udhaifu wao kuboresha maisha yao ya usoni.
Wengi hudhani kuwa wanaohitaji nasaha ni wale wenye matatizo tu. Ukweli ni kwamba,
hata wale ambao wanaonekana kuwa na furaha na vyeo wanahitaji ushauri wa aina Fulani.
Wenye mali, kwa mfano, wanaweza kushauriwa kuhusu namna ya kuwekeza ili

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wasifilisike. Viongozi nao wanahitaji nasaha ili waandame sera bora za uongozi pamoja
na jinsi ya kuishi kwa mwamana na wanajamii wenzao.
Ushauri na uelekezaji, kwa hakika, unahitajika katika nyanja zote za maisha. Ni muhimu
kukumbuka kuwa ushauri huanzia nyumbani. Mzazi au mlezi ndiye mshauri wa kwanza.
Haifai wazazi kuchelea kuwashauri watoto wao mapema, kwa maana mchelea mwana
kulia hulia mwenyewe.
Maswali
a) Ipe taarifa hii anwani mwafaka. (alama 1)
………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Tofautisha urekebishaji tabia wa kijadi na wa kisasa. (alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) Taja mazingira yoyote manne ambapo binadamu huhitaji nasaha na uelekezaji.

(alama 4
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d) Eleza umuhimu wa kushauri watu wafuatao: (alama 2)

(i) Viongozi.
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....................................................................................................................................

(ii) Wenye mali.

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e) Wazazi wasiowausia watoto wao wataathirika vipi hatimaye? (alama 2)

................................................................................................................................................

...............................................................................................................................................

f) Andika methali yoyote inayohusiana na nasaha. (alama 1)

................................................................................................................................................

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g) Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yalivyotumiwa katika taarifa: (alama 3)

(i) Unyanyapaa.
........................................................................................................................

(ii) Manyakanga

........................................................................................................................

(iii) Mitazamo chanya.

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2. UFUPISHO (ALAMA 15)

Soma makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali:

Kila jambo tufanyalo kuhusiana na lugha husitawisha ufahamu wetu wa mambo

tusomayo. Mazoezi katika kuandika husitawisha ufahamu katika kusoma kwa sababu katika
kuandika ni lazima tujaribu kuyatumia maneno vizuri na kufahamu ugumu wa usemi. Twajifunza
matumizi ya kugha katika kuzungumza na kuwasikiliza wengine wakizungumza. Lugha
tusomayo ikiwa imeandikwa hasa huwa ni aina ya lugha ya mazungumzo vile vile. Kuna ujuzi
mwingi katika kuzungumza upatikanao katika shule – kama vile michezo ya kuigiza, hotuba,

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majadiliano na mazungumzo katika darasa na haya yote husaidia katika uhodari wa matumizi ya
lugha.

Ujuzi wa kila siku hutasaidia katika maendeleo ya kusoma na usitawi wa msamiati. Ikiwa
mwanafunzi amemwona ndovu hasa, atakuwa amejua maana ya neno ndovu vizuri zaidi kuliko
mwanafunzi ambaye hajapata kumwona ndovu bali ameelezwa tu vile alivyo. Vile vile ujuzi wa
kujionea sinema au michoro husaidia sana katika kusoma. Kwa hivyo kwa njia fulani mambo
yote juu ya ujuzi wa kila siku husaidia kufahamu mambo yaliyoandikwa. Ikiwa mwanafunzi ana
huzuni au ana furaha, akiwa mgonjwa au amechoka au amesifiwa, haya yote ni ujuzi. Wakati
ujao mwanafunzi asomapo juu ya mtu ambaye amepatikana na mambo kama hayo hana budi
kufahamu vizuri zaidi.

Karibu elimu yote ulimwenguni huwa imeandikwa vitabu lakini lugha zote hazina
usitawi sawa kuhusu fasihi. Kwa bahati mbaya lugha nyingine hazijastawi sana na hazina vitabu
vingi lakini katika lugha nyingine karibu mambo yote yanayohusiana na elimu huweza
kupatikana katika vitabu. Inambidi mwanafunzi anayejifunza asome vitabu au majarida juu ya
sayansi au siasa au historia, lakini haimbidi kusoma tu juu ya taaluma fulani anayojifunza. Inafaa
asome juu ya michezo, mambo ya shani, na juu ya mahali pageni ili kupata ujuzi wa mambo
mengi mbali mbali.

Maswali
a) Fupisha aya za kwanza mbili kwa kutumia maneno 65. (alama10,2 za utiririko)

Nakala chafu
…….………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

Jibu:

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Kwa kuzingatia habari zote muhimu na bila kupoteza maana asilia, fupisha aya ya mwisho.
(Maneno 30, alama 5, 1 ya utiririko).

Maandalizi:

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Jibu:

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

a) Andika maneno yenye sifa zifuatazo za sauti:
i) Kilainisho ghuna cha midomo, irabu ya mbele-juu, kipua ghuna cha midomo, kizuiwa
ghuna na irabu ya nyuma-wastani. (alama 1)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Kikwaruzo hafifu cha ufizi, irabu ya chini-kati, kikwamizo cha mdomo-meno hafifu,
irabu ya mbele-juu. (alama 1)

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b) Tunga sentensi ukitumia nomino ya ngeli ya KU pamoja na kirai husishi cha uhusiano.
(alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Ainisha uamilifu wa kisarufi wa mofimu katika kitenzi hiki. (alama 3)

Kilivijisha.
………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Yakinisha kwa udogo ukitumia kiambishi cha masharti ya uwezekano. (alama 2)

Mtoto aliyeiba kitabu hajakamatwa.

………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Andika upya sentensi kulingana na maagizo. (alama 1)

Kiroboto huyo alituuma.Kiroboto aliuawa.(Tumia kivumishi kirejeshi cha kati
kuunganisha sentensi hizi.)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

f) Eleza Matumizi ya viambishi vilivyopigiwa mstari katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)

Mola atakukirimu ukimtolea sadaka.
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g) Andika upya sentensi hii kwa wakati ujao hali katavu. (alama 2)
Mwanariadha alishiriki mbio za Tokyo.
………………………………………………………………………………………………

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.…………………………………………………………….................................................

h) Tunga sentensi moja kutofautisha vitate mji na mchi. (alama 2)

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i) Unda kitenzi kutokana na nomino maskani, kisha ukitungie sentensi. (alama 2)

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j) Bainisha kiima na yambwa katika sentensi hii. (alama 2)

Omari alipewa vipuli na fundi stadi kwa bahasha.
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j) Tunga sentensi katika hali ya wastani ukitumia kihusishi cha hali. (alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

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k) Ainisha aina za vishazi katika sentensi hii. (alama 2)

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Marekebisho ya katiba ya BBI yatapita iwapo wananchi watahusishwa.

………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………..………………………………………………………………

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l) Changanua sentensi hii kwa kielelezo cha mstari. (alama 2)

Zohali na Zuhura ni majina ya sayari.
………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

m) Tunga sentensi moja ya kuonyesha Matumizi mawili ya vielezi vya silabi moja. (alama2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

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n) Andika kinyume cha maneno yafuatayo. (alama 2)

Dhahiri……………………………………………………………………………………...

..............................................................................................................................................

Kavu………………………………………………………………………………………...

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o) Tambua hali katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 1)

Ukulima wa sampuli hii wasumbua wengi.
………………………………………………………………………………………………

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p) Eleza maana ya msemo shika sikio. (alama 1)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

q) Tumia kibadala cha kiasi cha kuonyesha nafasi katika orodha kwenye sentensi. (alama 2)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………

r) Andika kwa wingi sentensi hii. (alama 2)

Ukwato wa mnyama huyo aliufikisha ufuoni.
………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

s) i) Tunasema baraza la wazee……………………wa wagomaji na .............................. la

nafaka. (alama 2)

ii) Audhubilahi ni tunapoapa………………….tunapokana na …………………………...

tunapohimiza. (alama 2)

4. ISIMU JAMII ( ALAMA 10)

Mtu 1: Je, familia ya mahabusu huyo imetoa bond?
Mtu 2 : Idont think so. Na wakiendelea kuchelewa huyo atapandishwa...
a ) Tambua sajili ya kifungu hiki. ( alama 2)
.........................................................................................................................................
b) Bainisha sifa nane za sajili hii. ( alama 8)
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JINA.................................................................................................................NAMABARI...........

SHULE............................................................................................................TAREHE.................

DARASA.....................................................................................................SAHIHI.......................

102/3

KISWAHILI

MUDA: SAA 2½

KARATASI YA TATU (FASIHI)

KAPSABET BOYS PRE MOCK 2024

Hati ya kihitimu Elimu ya Sekondari Nchini Kenya (K.C.S.E)

KIDATO CHA NNE

MAAGIZO

a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu

b) Jibu maswali manne pekee

c) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima

d) Maswali hayo mengine yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobakia yaani : Riwaya, hadithi fupi,ushairi
na fasihi simulizi

e) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja

f) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili

g) Majibu yote sharti yaandikwe kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.

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KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA

USHAIRI 20
TAMTHILIA 20
RIWAYA 20
HADITHI FUPI 20
FASIHI SIMULIZI 20
JUMLA

SEHEMU A : USHAIRI

g) Lazima

Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali.

Lipi la kutenda, kwa walimwengu, liwe jema?
Liwe ni kupenda, bila uchungu, na lawana,
Niwe kama punda, pasipo fungu, wala kima.

Lipi liso inda, kwa walimwengu, na lazima?

Liwe la kuonda, kukupa Mungu, lisokwama,
Laiti si winda, enyi nduzangu, lau kama.

Kipi cha kupanda, kwa walimwengu, cha salama?

Kiwe kama tunda, au furungu, la mtama,
Hata zao nyonda, siunge zangu, na kuvama.
Ni wapi pa kwenda, kwa walimwengu, pa huruma?
Niwe ni kupanda, daraja yangu, pasi vuma,

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Pasiwe ba chonda, ajae kwangu, kwa dawama.

Upi wa kudanda, kwa walimwengu, pasi kwima?

Na kuvuta nyanda, ziso wezangu, ‘pite wima,
Kwa kurandaranda, niwape dungu, wawe nyuma.

Lipi la kushinda, kwa walimwengu, kiwe chuma?

Bila ya kuponda, kwa kilimwengu, na hikima,
Ni lau wadunda, weshe mizungu, ni kizima.

Kipi kisovunda, kwa walimwengu, cha daima?

Pasi na kukonda, kwa malimwengu, yaso wema,
Angawa ni nunda, huja kiwingu, cha nakama.

MASWALI
(a) Taja hoja zozote nne ambazo mwandishi anazishughulikia katika shairi. (alama 4)
(b) Eleza sifa za kiarudhi katika ubeti wa pili. (alama 6)
(c) Andika ubeti wa nne kwa lugha ya nathari. (alama 3)
(d) Kwa nini mshairi anatumia maneno; “nduzangu” na “yaso” (alama 2)
(e) Kwa nini mwandishi anauliza swali katika mwanzo wa kila ubeti? (alama 2)
(f) Eleza maana ya maneno yanayofuata kama yanavyotumika katika shairi: (alama 3)
(i) Inda
(ii) Nyonda
(iii) Mizungu

SEHEMU B: RIWAYA

NGUU ZA JADI

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Jibu swali la 2 au 3

h) Eleza umuhimu wa mandhari ya majaani ukirejelea riwaya ya nguu za jadi (al. 20)

i) Fafanua jinsi wahusika mbalimbali wamedhihirisha mapenzi katika riwaya ya

Nguu za Jadi. (al.20)
SEHEMU C. TAMTHILIA
T. Arege: Bembea ya Maisha
Jibu swali la 4 au la 5
4. Bembea ya Maisha ni tamthilia inayohimiza mshikamano wa kijamii. Jadili. (alama 20)

5. Soma dondoo hili na ujibu maswali.

"Mtu anaishi na wanawe ambao wiki nzima anawaona wakiwa usingizini; wamelala fofofo.. .Nyumba ni
ya yaya."

(i) Weka maneno haya kwenye muktadha wake. (alama 4)

(ii) Fafanua maudhui yanayojitokeza kwenye dondoo. (alama 2)
(iii) Fafanua manufaa saba ya mazingira ya dondoo hili. (alama 14)

SEHEMU YA D

Hadithi Fupi – Mapambazuko Ya Machweo Na Hadithi Nyingine – Dw Lutomia

Jibu swali la 6 au la 7
6. Huku ukitolea mifano mwafaka ,eleza jinsi amabavyo Haki Za Watoto/Vijana zimekiukwa katika
hadithi ya mapambazuko ya machweo (alama 20 )

7. "...iwapo penzi hili litatia doa, basi nirudishie mfuko huu kama ishara ya kulitupa penzi langu kama
)ongoo na mti wake...

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a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)

b) Fafanua mbinu mbili ambazo zimetumika katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)

c) Eleza sifa sita za msemaji wa maneno haya. (alama 6)

d) EIeza umuhimu wa msemewa wa hadithi hii katika kujenga ploti. (alam 6)

Sehemu ya E
Fasihi simulizi

8. Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali

“Mwanangu, dunia haitaki papara. Ikiwa unataka kufanikiwa katika mustakabali wako kuwa
mtoto mtiifu na mwongofu. Kumbuka kuwa asiyefunzwa na mamaye hufunzwa na ulimwengu…”
a) Tambua na ueleze kipera hiki cha fasihi (alama 2)
b) Eleza sifa tatu za kipera hiki. (alama 3)
c) Fafanua dhima tano za kipera hiki katika jamii. (alama5)
ii) Fanani anawezaje kuihusisha hadhira katika usimulizi wake? (alama 4)

iii) Eleza utaratibu unaofuatwa wakati wa kutega na kutegua vitendawili. (alama 6)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…..

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………….

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE………………..

121/1
MATHEMATICS
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
KAPSABET BOYS HIGH PRE MOCK 2024
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

MATHEMATICS
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, index number and date in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
b) Write name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper contains TWO sections: section I and section II
d) Answer ALL the questions in Section I and only five questions from section II.
e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the
spaces provided below each question.
f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be
used except where stated otherwise.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Section I

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

Section II GRAND TOTAL

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

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SECTION I (50 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided

1. Without using mathematical table or a calculator, evaluate: (3 mks)

36 – 8x -4 – 15 ÷ -3

3x -3 + -8 (6 - (-2))

1
27 3
 24
2. Simplify 1
leaving your answer as a simple fraction (3 mks)
−

5
32

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3. Solve the inequality -3x + 2 < x + 6  17 – 2x and write down the integral values satisfying the
inequality. (3 mks)

4. A triangle whose area is 16cm2 has its shortest side as 12cm. Find the length of the

shortest side of a similar triangle whose area is 36cm2 (3mks)

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5. Solve for x given that 5 2x+ 2 – 20 x 5 2x = 625 (3mks)

6. The line y = mx + 6 makes an angle of 780 581 with the x – axis. Find the co-ordinates

of the point where the line cuts the X – axis.

(3mks)

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7. 3g of metal A of density 2.7g/cm3 is mixed with 1.6cm3 of metal B of density 3.2g/cm3

Determine the density of the mixture

(3mks)

8. A two digit number is such that when the digits are reversed, the value of the number increases by

36. If the sum of the unit digit and twice the tens digit is 16, find the number. (3mks)

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9. On Monday the currency exchange rate was

1 Euro (E) = Kshs.95.65

1 US dollar($) = Ksh.76.50

A gentle man Tourist decided to exchange half of his 2400E into Dollars.

Calculate to 2 decimal places the number of dollars he received. (3 marks)

10. In the figure given below, AC is an arc of a circle centre B. Angle ABD = 60o, AB = BC = 7cm and CD= 5
cm. A

7cm

60o
B D
7cm C 5cm

Calculate (3 d.p)

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a) The area of triangle ADB (2mks)

b) The area of the shaded region. (2mks

− 40
11. If cos A = and A is obtuse, find without using tables or calculators
41

a) Sin A
(2mks)

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b) Tan A (1mk)

12. A matatu left town X at 9.37a.m. towards town Y at an average speed of 78km/h. At 9.47a.m. a

Car left the same venue at an average speed of 84.5km/h. Determine the time when

The car caught up with the matatu . (3mks)

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13 Using a set square, a ruler and a pair of compasses, divide the given line into five equal
parts. Measure the length of one part.
(3 marks)

14. Simplify the expression. x2 + 14x + 49

(3mks)

x2 - 49

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15. The acceleration of a particle in ms-2 is given by the expression Acc=3t –4

Given that t=0 sec V=3m/s and S=0 metres

Find:

(i) an expression for velocity Vms-1 (2 mark)

(ii) An expression for distance S metres from a fixed point O. (2 marks)

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16. A salesman earns a basic salary of Kshs.19, 000 per month. In addition, he earns a commission of
5% for all sales above ksh.20,000. In February 2023, he sold goods worth 115,000. Calculate his total
earnings that month . (3mks)

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SECTION II (50 MARKS)

Answer only five questions

17. A triangle with A(-4, 2), B(-6, 6) and C(-6, 2) is enlarged by a scale factor -1 and centre

(-2, 6) to produce triangle A1 B1 C1. Triangle A1 B1 C1 is then reflected in the line

y = x to give triangle A11 B11 C11

a) Draw triangle ABC, A1 B1 C1 and A11 B11 C11 and state the co-ordinates of

A1 B1 C1 and A11 B11 C11 (6mks)

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b) If triangle A11 B11 C11 is mapped onto A111 B111 C111 whose co-ordinates are

A111(0, -2), B111(4, -4) and C111 (0, -4) by a rotation. Find the centre and angle

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of rotation (4mks)

18. A cylindrical water tank of diameter 5m and height 1.8m is supplied with water by pipe P of

internal radius 2.5cm. Water flows through this pipe at the rate of 50m per minute. A drainage

pipe Q can empty the full tank in 8 hours.

a) Calculate the time in hours that pipe P alone would take to fill the empty tank (4mks)

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b) The tank is initially half full. Water flows through pipe P into the tank for 2 hours.

The drainage pipe Q is then opened and both pipes left running.

Determine how long it will take to fill the tank (6 mks)

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19. Ken and Jane cycle to school 20km away. Jane cycles at 2km/h faster than Ken and reaches there
half an hour earlier. Given that the speed of Ken is xkm/hr. Find in terms of x

a). The time taken by Ken. (1 mk)

b) The time taken by Jane. (1 mk)

c) Form an equation in x. (1 mk)

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d) Solve the equation in (a) above and find the speed of Ken and Jane. (7 mks)

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20. The table below shows some paired values of X and Y for a known curve.

X 0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0

Y 0.0 0.4 1.6 3.6 6.4 10.0

By establishing how x and y relates.

Estimate the area under the curve for the interval 0 < X< 1 using

a).The mid – ordinate rule with five mid – ordinates. (4mks)

b).The trapezium rule with five Trapezia. (2mks)

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c) If the exact area is 10/3 square units.

Calculate the percentage error in the two estimates.
(4mks)

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21 The following are speeds in m/s of the first 50 vehicles at a police check point.

Speed No. of

in m/s vehicles

x f f(x)

10 - 19 3

20 – 29 1

30 - 39 2

40 - 49 5

50 - 59 6

60- 69 11

70 – 79 9

80 - 89 8

90- 99 3

100 -109 2

a) Calculate the mean speed (4mks)

b) Draw on the same axes using this information

i) The Histogram (3 mks) ii)The Frequency polygon (1 mk)

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c) Calculate the median speed. (2mks)

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22. A trader sold an article at sh.4800 after allowing his customer a 12% discount on the marked price of
the article. In so doing he made a profit of 45%.

a) Calculate
(i) The marked price of the article. (2 marks)

(ii) The price at which the trader had bought the article (2 mks)

b) If the trader had sold the same article without giving a discount. Calculate the percentage profit he
would have made. (3 mks)

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c) To clear his stock, the trader decided to sell the remaining articles at a loss of 12.5%. Calculate the
price at which he sold each article. (3 mks)

23. The diagram below shows a parallelogram OPQR. Point M divides line PQ in the ration 2:3

PR and OM intersect at N. Given that OP = pand OR = r

~ ~ ~ ~

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a) Express the following vectors in terms of P and r

~ ~

i) PR
~

(1mk)

ii) OM
~~

(1mk)

b) Given that ON = kOM and ON = OP + hPR

~ ~ ~ ~ ~

By Expressing ON in two different ways find the ratio in which N divides PR. (8 mks)

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24. The diagram below shows the graph of a moving matatu from Nakuru to Naivasha.

Velocity

10 20 30 40 50 60 Time in sec

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a) Find the acceleration of the matatu. (2mks)

b) Find the deceleration of the matatu (2mks)

c) Calculate the distance the matatu travelled while accelerating.

(2mks)

d) Calculate the distance the matatu covered while traveling at an acceleration of 0m/s2 (2mks)

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e) Find the distance between the two Towns. (2 mks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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121/2 - MATHS - Paper 2

PRE MOCK 2024

Name: ………………………………………………………….. Class: …….

Date: …………………………………………………………… Adm No: …………………………..

121/2
MATHEMATICS
PAPER 2

TIME: 2 HOURS 30 MINUTES

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• Write your name, admission number , Signature and write date of examination in the
spaces provided
• The paper contains two sections. Section I and Section II.
• Answer ALL the questions in section I and any five questions in section II.
• Answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
• Show all steps in your calculations below each question.
• Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
• Non programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical table may be used,
except where stated otherwise.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION I
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

Marks

SECTION II
GRAND TOTAL
Question 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

Marks

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SECTION I (50 MARKS)

Answer all the questions from this section
1. Use Logarithms correct to four significant figures to evaluate.
(4marks)

324.36 × 0.066547
√
1.482

2. Find the percentage error in the total length of four rods measuring 12.5cm, 24.5cm,
12.9cm and 10.1cm all the nearest 0.1cm. (3
marks)

3. In the figure below QT is a tangent to the circle at Q. PXRT and QXS are straight lines.
PX = 6cm, RT = 8cm, QX = 4.8cm and XS = 5cm.

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Find the length of QT (3 marks)

4. Use the trapezium rule with seven ordinates to find the area bounded by the curve 𝑦 =
𝑥2 + 1 lines x = -2, x = 4 and x – axis (3 marks)

𝑡𝑝
5. Given that 𝑥 =√ make 𝑝 the subject of the formula (3 marks)
2 𝜇+𝑝

6. Solve for x in the equation below:

Log 3(x + 3) = 3 log 3 + 2 (3 marks)

7. The points (5, 5) and (-3, -1) are ends of a diameter of a circle centre A. Determine:
a) The coordinates of A. (1 mark)

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b) The equation of a circle expressing it in form x2 + y2 + ax + by + c = 0 (2

marks)

1 3
8. A transformation is represented by the matrix [ ] . This transformation maps a triangle
4 2
ABC of the area 12.5cm2 onto another triangle A′B′C′. Find the area of triangle
A′B′C′.
(3marks)

9. Two taps A and B can fill a water bath in 8 minutes and 10 minutes respectively. Tap A is
opened for 2 minutes then closed. Tap B is later opened for one minute then closed. How
long will the two taps take running together to fill the remaining part of the water bath?
(3 marks)

10. i) Expand and simplify (1-3x)5 up to the term in x3 (2 marks)

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ii) Hence use your expansion to estimate (0.97)5 correct to 4d.p. (2 marks)

11. Solve for x in the equation:

2𝑐𝑜𝑠4𝑥 = −1 for 00 < x < 1800 (3 marks)

12. Wanjiku pays for a car on hire purchase in 15 monthly instalments. The cash price of the
car is Ksh.300, 000 and the interest rate is 15%p.a. A deposit of Ksh.75, 000 is made.
Calculate her monthly repayments. (3 marks)

𝑑𝑦
13. The gradient function of a curve is given = 3x2 – 8x + 2. If the curve passes through
𝑑𝑥

the point, (2, –2), find its equation. (3 marks)

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14. Rationalize the denominator and simplify (3 marks)

2 5

15. The sum of two numbers is 24. The difference of their squares is 144. What are the two
numbers?
(3marks)

16. The data below represents the marks scored by 15 form 4 students in an exam:
58, 61, 40, 37, 39, 40, 41, 43, 44, 37, 70, 44, 47, 36 and 52
Calculate the interquartile range of the above data (3 marks)

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SECTION II (50 MARKS)

Answer five questions only from this section
17. The following table shows the rate at which income tax was charged during a certain year.
Monthly taxable income in Ksh. Tax rate %
0 - 9860 10
9861 - 19720 15
19721 - 29580 20
29581 - 39440 25
39441 - 49300 30
49301 - 59160 35
over 59160 40
A civil servant earns a basic salary of Ksh.35750 and a monthly house allowance
of sh.12500. The civil servant is entitled to a personal relief of sh.1062 per month.
Calculate:
a) Taxable income (2 marks)

b) Calculate his net monthly tax (5 marks)

c) Apart from the salary the following deduction are also made from his monthly
income.
WCPS at 2% of the basic salary
Loan repayment Ksh.1325

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NHIF sh.480
Calculate his net monthly earning. (3 marks)

18. The diagram below represents a cuboid ABCDEFGH in which FG= 4.5 cm, GH=8cm and
HC=6 cm

Calculate:
a) The length of FC (2 marks)

b) (i) The size of the angle between the lines FC and FH (2 marks)

(ii) The size of the angle between the lines AB and FH (3 marks)

c) The size of the angle between the planes ABHE and the plane FGHE (3 marks)

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19. A plane S flies from a point P (400N, 450W) to a point Q (350N, 450W) and then to another
point T (350N, 1350E).
a) Given that the radius of the earth is 6370km find the distance from P to Q in Km.
22
(Take = ) (2 marks)
7

b) Find in nm
(i) The shortest distance between Q and T. (2 marks)

(ii) The longest distance between Q and T (to the nearest tens) (2 marks)

c) Find the difference in time taken when S flies along the shortest and longest routes
if its speed is 420 knots (4 marks)

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2 1
20. The probability that a pupil goes to school by a boda-boda is and by a matatu is . If
2 3 4

he uses a boda-boda the probability that he is late is 5 and if he uses matatu the
3

probability of being late is 10. If he uses other means of transport the probability of
3

being late is .
20
a) Draw a tree diagram to represent this information. (3marks)

b) Find the probability that he will be late for school. (3marks)

c) Find the probability that he will be late for school if he does not use a matatu.

(2marks)

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d) What is the probability that he will not be late to school? (2marks)

21. A farmer has 50 acres of land. He has a capital Shs. 2,400 to grow carrots and potatoes as
cash crops. The cost of growing carrots is Shs.40 per acre and that of growing potatoes is
Shs.60 per acre. He estimates that the respective profits per acre are Shs.30 (on carrots)
and Shs. 40 (on potatoes). By letting x and y to represent carrots and potatoes respectively:-
a) Form suitable inequalities to represent this information. (4marks)

b) b) By representing this information on a graph, determine on how many acres

he should grow each crop for maximum profit. (4marks)

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c) Find the maximum profit. (2 marks)

22. An arithmetic progession is such that the first term is –5, the last term is 135 and the
sum of the progression is 975.
(a) Calculate
(i) The number of terms in the series (4 marks)

(ii) The common difference of the progression (2 marks)

(c) The sum of the first three terms of a geometric progression is 27 and first
term is 36.
Determine the common ration and the value of the fourth term (4 marks)

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23. In the figure below E is the midpoint of BC. AD: DC 3:2 and F is the meeting point of BD
and AE.

a) If AB = b and AC = c, find:
i) BD
(2marks)

ii) AE
(2marks)

b) If BF = t BD and AF = n AE. Find the value of t and n. (5marks)

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c) State the ratio of BD to BF.

(1mark)
24. Given that y = 2sin 2x and y = 3cos (x + 45o)
(a) Complete the table below.
(2mks)
x 00 200 400 600 800 1000 1200 1400 1600 1800

2sin x 0 1.97 0.68 -0.68 -1.73 -1.28 0.00

3cos (x+ 450) 2.12 1.27 -0.78 -2.46 -2.72 -2.12

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(b) Use the data to draw the graphs of y = 2 sin 2x and y = 3 cos (x + 45o) for 0o x 
180o on the same axes.
(4marks)

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(c) State the amplitude and period of each curve.

(2marks)

(d) Use the graph to solve the equation 2 sin 2x – 3cos (x + 450) = 0 for 00 x  1800

(2marks)

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232/1 - PHYSICS - Paper 1

PRE MOCK 2024

Name:................................................................................ Index Number ....................................

Class....................................................................................Signature..............................................

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

232/1
PHYSICS
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your Name, Index number and Class in the spaces provided above.
• This paper consists of two sections: A and B
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided
• All working must be clearly shown.
• Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used
•
Take g=10ms-2
• Density of mercury = 13600 kg/m3

For Examiner’s Use

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S
SCORE SCORE
A 1-12 25
B 13 12
14 10
15 10
16 12
17 11
TOTAL 80

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)

Answer all the questions in the spaces provide

1. The figure below shows a body resting on an inclined plane. Indicate the normal reaction
(1
mark)

2. The figure below shows two identical bulbs A and B painted white and black respectively
connected with a pipe containing water at the same level at the room temperature.

State and explain the observation made when ice cold water is poured on the bulbs
(2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
3. A boy blows through the mouth of a hollow vuvuzela as shown below. A light cork is
suspended freely by a string as shown. Giving reason indicate the path taken by the cork
(2 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…

4. The figure below shows a hollow metal cylindrical tin. A student used a vernier caliper
and a micrometer screw gauge to determine the external and internal diameter of the tin
respectively. The readings of the instruments are as shown below

Determine the thickness of the metal used to make the tin in SI unit leaving your
answer in standard form (3 marks)

5. The figure below shows the level of mercury and water in a beaker.

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Explain the difference in the shape of the meniscus (1 mark)

6. When an inflated balloon is placed in a refrigerator, it is noted that its volume reduces. Use
kinetic theory to explain this observation (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
7. The figure below shows a solid just before being released into a liquid of the same density
as the solid. On the same diagram draw the observation made when the solid is released
(1 mark)

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8. The figure below shows a glass tumbler partly filled with water at room temperature.

Briefly explain what happens to the stability of the tumbler when the water is heated
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…

9. The figure below shows some air trapped in a glass tube, the tube is inverted in a dish
containing mercury.

Given that the atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg and the height of mercury column in
the glass is 550 mm determine the pressure of the air trapped in the tube in mm Hg.
(2 marks)

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10. The figure below shows a hydraulic machine in equilibrium while supporting a load when
a force of 100N is applied one of the pistons. The cross section area of the pistons are as
shown. Determine the weight of the load
(3 marks)

11. A metal ball suspended vertically with a light string of length 4m is displaced through an
angle  as shown in the diagram below. The body is released from A and swings past the
lowest point B. Given that its velocity at point B is 4 m/s, determine angle ϴ
(3 marks)

12. The figure below shows a uniform bar balanced by forces F1 and F2. Determine the
value of F1 (3 marks)

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SECTION B (55 MARKS)

Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided

13. (a) An object of mass 50g is dropped from a height of 80m to hit the ground below

(i) For the motion, on the same axes, sketch and label the graphs of : (3 marks)

I. Kinetic energy against time

II. Potential energy against time

(ii) Determine how long it takes to reach the ground (2 marks)

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(iii) Determine the momentum as it hits the ground (3 marks)

(b) Engine oil licks on the ground from a lorry as it decelerates uphill. The oil drops are shown below
as black dots. The time between any two drops is constant at 2sec

i. On the same diagram indicate the direction of the lorry with an arrow (1 mark)

ii. Determine the acceleration of the deceleration of the lorry (3 marks)

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14. The figure below shows a system used to lift a septic slab of weight 150N by applying a
force of 50N on a light bar as shown. The radii of the pulley belt wheels are as indicated
in the diagram

Determine
a. Tension T of the vertical string (3 marks)

b. MA of the system (2 marks)

c. VR of the system ( 3 marks)

d. Efficiency of the system ( 2 marks)

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15. a) State three factors that affect the toughness of a spring (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
b) When a mass of 120g is applied to a spring the pointer reads 6cm. A pan, in which a
mass
of 210g is placed, is now suspended from the spring and the pointer reads 14cm.
When
the 210g mass is removed from the pan the pointer reads 4cm.
i. Draw a diagram or diagrams to represent the information above (1 mark)

ii. Determine the mass of the pan. (3 marks)

c) The figure below shows a mass 200g placed on a frictionless surface and attached to a
spring.

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The spring is compressed and released. Given that the elastic potential energy of the
compressors spring is 2.7x10-2J. Determine the maximum speed with which the blocks
moves
after released. (3 marks)

16. The sphere below has a volume of 0.1 litres. It is held with a tight string at the base with ¼
of its volume in liquid A of density 380kg/m3 while the rest is in Liquid B of density
700kg/m3. The tension of the string is 0.32N

Find
a. Mass of liquid A displaced (2 marks)

b. Mass of liquid B displaced (2 marks)

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c. Upthrust experienced by the sphere (2 marks)

d. Mass of the sphere (3 marks)

e. Density of the sphere (3 marks)

17. A girl joins two 20g masses A and B on a string and whirls them in a vertical circle Centre
O of radius 50cm as shown below. The bodies maintained an angular velocity of 10 Rad-s

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Determine:
a. The linear velocity of body A (2 marks)

b. Centripetal acceleration of Body B (2 marks)

c. The tension of the string

i. T1 (2 marks)

ii. T2 (2 marks)

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iii. T3 (3 marks)

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232/2 - PHYSICS - Paper 2

PRE MOCK 2024

Name ………………………..………………………` Index No. ………………..……

Candidates Sign: ……....…..…
Date: …………………………..
Time: 2 Hours
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
Instruction to Candidates
(a) Write your name, index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in sections A and B in the spaces provided.
(e) All working must be clearly shown.
(f) Silent non-programmable electronic calculators may be used.
(g) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For Examiners Use Only

Maximum Candidate’s
Section Question
Score Score
A 1 – 12 25
13 12
14 12
B 15 12
16 9
17 10

Total Score 80

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SECTION A 25 MARKS
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
1. The figure below shows a ray of light incident on a mirror at an angle of 45o. Another mirror is
placed at an angle of 45o to the first one as shown. Sketch the path of the ray until it emerges.
(2 marks)

2. The figure below shows a transverse stationary wave along a string.

Name P and Q and explain how each is formed. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The diagrams below show a positively charged acetate strip and a negatively charged polythene
strip freely suspended and isolated.

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Two rods X and Y are brought up in turn to these strips. X attracts the acetate strip but repels the
polythene strip. Rod Y does not repel either the acetate or the polythene. State the type of charge
on
each rod.
X.................................................................................................................................(1 mark)
Y.................................................................................................................................(1 mark)
4. The figure below shows how magnets are stored in pairs with keepers at the end. Explain how
this method of storing helps in retaining magnetism longer (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
5. The diagram below shows waves generated from a tuning fork. If the wave takes 0.1 second to
move from point A to B. determine the frequency of the wave. (3 marks)

6. In the figure 9 and 10 below, sketch a graph for each to show the variation of voltage with time as
displayed on a CRO screen. (2 marks)

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7. Other than current state two other factors that affect the magnitude of force on a current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
8. Concave mirrors are used by dentists to examine teeth. By use of a ray diagram show how this is
achieved. (2 marks)

9. A student connected the set up below in the laboratory. Explain the observation made on the bulb
when the set-up below is taken to a dark room (2 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………….
10. The figure below shows a fully charged capacitor

(i) State the observation made on the voltmeter when the switch is closed. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State the function of resistor R (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Calculate the maximum number of 100W bulbs that can be safely connected to 240V in a circuit
fitted with 13A fuse. (2 marks)

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12. The figure below part of electromagnetic spectrum.

Identify radiation A and state its source. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

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SECTION B 55 MARKS
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
13. (a) The figure below shows a X-ray tube.

(i) Name the part labelled C (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) State the property of the material labelled B on the diagram which makes it suitable for
use in the X-ray tube. (1 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Why is C inclined at an angle of 45o? (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) State the adjustment that can be made to vary
I. The quality of X-rays (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………….
II. The quantity of the X-rays. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………….
(v) An x-ray tube has an accelerating potential of 100KV. Determine the maximum
frequency of the x-rays produced.

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(Plank’s constant = 6.63 × 10 -34 Js, e = 1.6 × 10-19C) (3 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

(b) In a CRO, waveform given below was displayed on the screen when the sensitivity at the Y
plate was10V/cm and time base set at 20 milliseconds/cm.

Determine:
(i) peak voltage (2 marks)

(ii) frequency of the signal (2 marks)

88 𝑅
14. a) 226 𝑎 86 𝑅𝑛 by emission of an alpha particle. Write a nuclear equation
decays into 222

for the decay (1 marks)

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b)
i) What do you understand by the term half-life of a radioactive substance? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) A G.M tube registers 20 counts. When a radioactive source is brought close to it, it
registers 3220 counts and 120 counts 30 hours later. What is the half-life of this
substance? (3 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

c) The figure below shows a G.M tube.

Anode Aluminium casing

Mica window

Argon gas mixed

with little bromine

Scalar or ratemeter

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i) What is the purpose of the mica window? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Explain the purpose of the bromine (2 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Why should argon gas be kept at low pressure (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) What is meant by the term “dead time” as used in GM tube (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

v) Briefly explain how GM tube works. (2 marks)

15. (a) State the Ohms Law (1 mark)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) You are provided a rheostat, 2 cell, a voltmeter, an ammeter, a switch and a fixed resistor.
i) Draw a circuit diagram that can be used to verify Ohms law. (2 marks)

ii) Describe how the above set up can be used to determine Ohms law. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………

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Calculate
(i) Determine the total resistance in the circuit. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) The current through the 4Ω resistor (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

16. a) State Snell’s law (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) A ray of light travelling from water to glass makes an angle of incident of 300. Find the angle
of refraction in the glass. Refractive index of water = 4⁄3. Refractive index of glass = 3⁄2
(3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State the necessary and sufficient conditions for total internal reflection to occur.
(2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) The figure below shows a human eye defect.

(i) State one possible cause of this defect. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) On the diagram, show how the defect is corrected. (2 mark)

17. (a) State the Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) A bar magnet is moved into a coil of an insulated copper wire connected to a zero
centre galvanometer as shown below

N S

(i) Show on the figure above the direction of the induced current in the coil
(1 mark)

(ii) State and explain what is observed on the galvanometer when the south pole of the
magnet is moved into and then withdrawn from the coil. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) A transformer has 800 turns in the primary and 40 turns in the secondary winding.
The alternating voltage connected to the primary is 240V and current of 0.5.A. If 10% of
the power is dissipated as heat within the transformer, ddetermine the current in the
secondary coil.
(3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………

(d) The diagram below shows a three-pin plug.

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(i) Name the colour of conductors P and Q (2 marks)

P……………………………………………………………………………………………
Q……………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)
Why is the earth pin longer than the rest in the three-pin plug shown above?
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………

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PRE MOCK 2024

PHYSICS PAPER 3 PRACTICAL CONFIDENTIAL
Please provide the following for the physics practical paper.
QUESTION 1
• 2 dry cells
• A cell holder
• A switch
• An ammeter (with a scale range of 0-1A)
• Six connecting wires
• Wire mounted on the metre rule labelled X (SWG 28 or 0.37mm in diameter)
• A micrometer screw gauge (to be shared)
• A Voltmeter
QUESTION 2
- a metre rule
- knife edge raised at least 20 cm above bench
- one 50 g mass and one 100 g mass
- a beaker or any container
- 2 pieces of thread (around 15 cm each)
- some water in a beaker
- Liquid L in a beaker (Paraffin)
- Some tissue paper.
- A triangular glass prism
- A piece of soft board
- Four optical pins
- Four office pins
- A sheet of plain paper

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232/3 - PHYSICS - Paper 3

PRE MOCK 2024

Name ………………………..………………………` Index No. ………………..……

Candidates Sign: ……....…..…
Date: …………………………
Time: 2 ¼ Hours
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
• You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hours allowed for this paper
reading the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
• Marks are given for a clear record of the observation actually made, their suitability,
accuracy and the use made of them.
• Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made
• Non-programmable silent electronic calculators may be used.
• Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed and
that no questions are missing.
For Examiner’s Use Only.

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1 20

2 20

Total 40

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QUESTION 1
You are provided with the following: -
• 2 dry cells
• A cell holder
• A switch
• An ammeter
• Five connecting wires
• Wire mounted on the metre rule labelled x
• A micrometer screw gauge [ to be shared
• A Voltmeter

Proceed as follows
(a) Measure the diameter of the wire three times and determine the average diameter,

(b) D ………………. m (2 marks)

(c) Determine the cross-section area of the wire, A………………. m2 (1 marks)

(d) Connect the circuit as shown in the figure below.

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(e) Measure the voltage E from the Voltmeter, before closing the switch.

E = ................................ (1 mark)
(f) Adjust the length, ℓ of the wire to 0.2m, close the switch, S and read the value of current and
record in the table below.

Length, ℓ (m) 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7

Current, I (A)

1
(A−1)
I

(g) Repeat the procedure in (c) above for the values of lengths given. (5 marks)
(h) Calculate the value of 1⁄𝐼 and record in the table above. (1 mark)
1
(i) On the grid provided plot a graph of (y- axis) against l (5 marks)
I

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(j) Determine the gradient of the graph. (2 marks)

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𝛿 𝑟
(k) Given that, 1 = 𝑙 + , determine the value of 𝛿 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑟. (3 marks)
𝐼 𝐸𝐴 𝐸

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………….

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QUESTION 2

You are provided with the following:

- a metre rule
- knife edge raised 20 cm above bench
- one 50 g mass and one 100 g mass
- a beaker or any container
- some thread
- some water in a beaker
- Liquid L in a beaker
- tissue paper
- A triangular glass prism
- A piece of soft board
- Four optical pins
- Four office pins
- A sheet of plain paper

PART A
Proceed as follows:
(a) Balance the metre rule edge and record the reading at this point

𝐵𝑎𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑝𝑜𝑖𝑛𝑡 =........................................................ cm (1 mark)

For the rest of this experiment the knife edge must be placed at this position

(b) Set up the apparatus as shown in the figure below.

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(c) Use the thread provided to hang the masses such that the positions of support can be adjusted.
The balance is attained by adjusting the position of the 100g mass.

Note that the distances X is measured form the knife edge and the 50g mass is fully
submerged in the water.

(d) Record the value of X .

𝑋 = .................................................... cm (1 mark)

(e) Apply the principle of moments to determine the weight Ww of the 50 g mass in water and
hence determine the up thrust Uw in water

Ww .................................................N (2 marks)

Uw .................................................. N (1 mark)

(f) Remove the 50 g mass from the water and dry it using tissue paper.

(g) Maintaining the distance of 30cm in step (d), now balance the metre rule when the 50 g mass
is fully submerged in the liquid L Record the value of the distance X.

𝑋 =.................................................. cm (1 mark)
(h) Apply the principle of moments to determine the weight WL of the 50 g mass in the liquid L and hence
determine the upthrust UL in the liquid

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(i) WL= (2 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) UL= (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………….
(iii)RD of liquid L (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
PART B

Proceed as follows:

(a) Place the plain sheet of paper on the soft board and pin it using the office pins at the
comers. Trace the triangular prism outline of the prism on the sheet of paper (use the
upper part to leave space for two other outlines on the same page). Label the vertices
of the outline at A, B and C. Remove the prism from the paper.

(b) On the outline at a point O near the centre of side AB draw a normal ON.

(d) Replace the prism accurately on the outline. Fix two optical pins vertically on line
PO at different points (see the figure below).

(e) View the images of the two pins through side AC of the outline. Fix a third and fourth
pin vertically such that they are in line with the images of the first and second pin.
Remove the prism and the pins. Draw a line joining the marks made by the third and
fourth pins and extend it to join line PO (also extended) as shown below.

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Measure F, the angle of deviation of the emergent ray. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………

(f) Repeat part (e) for other angles of incidence shown in the table below. (Draw a fresh outline
of the prism for each angle of incidence)

Complete table 1 (3 marks)

Angle of incidence 30° 50° 70°

Angle of deviation

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(g) Determine:

(i) E the angle of emergence (between the emergent ray and the normal at the point of
emergence) at the least angle of deviation. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………
𝐹
𝑜
(ii) K given that 𝐾 = 2 sin (30 + 2 ) (where F0 is the least angle of deviation)

(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………….

(Attach the plain sheet of paper to your question paper and hand them in).

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