| DIVINE DALE INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, SHERPUR

Distt.Gurugram (HR) Mob: 9416475628, 8053461143

HOME ASSIGNMENT
Class-XII SUBJECT-English
English Flamingo – Poetry Assignment:
Answer all questions
Provide detailed explanations where required.
Use examples from the poems to support your answers.
Poem 1: My Mother at Sixty-Six – Kamala Das
1. What does the poet observe about her mother during the journey?
2. How does the poet describe her mother's appearance?
3. What is the significance of the comparison to a corpse?
4. How does the poet react to the realization of her mother's old age?
5. What does the poet do to distract herself from the thought of her mother's aging?
6. How are the young trees described in the poem?
7. What do the "merry children spilling out of their homes" symbolize?
8. How does the poet's observation of the outside world contrast with her feelings about her mother?
9. What does the poet mean by "the old familiar ache"?
10. How does the poet bid farewell to her mother at the airport?
11. What is the significance of the poet's smile during the farewell?
12. How does the poem convey the theme of aging and mortality?
13. What role does memory play in the poem?
14. How does the poet's childhood fear resurface in the poem?
15. What is the emotional tone of the poem?
16. How does the setting contribute to the poem's theme?
17. What literary devices are used in the description of the mother?
18. How does the poem reflect the universal experience of dealing with aging parents?
19. What is the significance of the mother's "ashen" face?
20. How does the poet's internal conflict enhance the poem's emotional depth?
Poem 2: Keeping Quiet – Pablo Neruda
21. What does the poet suggest by "keeping quiet"?
22. How does the poet view silence in the context of human activity?
23. What is the significance of the phrase "without rush, without engines"?
24. How does the poet describe the fishermen and the whales?
25. What does the poet mean by "no truck with death"?
26. How does the poet use the metaphor of "clean clothes"?
27. What is the "sadness" the poet refers to?
28. How does the poet view the relationship between man and nature?
29. What does the poet hope to achieve by "counting up to twelve"?
30. How does the poem advocate for introspection and peace?
31. What role does the Earth play in the poem's message?
32. How does the poet use imagery to convey the theme of stillness?
33. What is the significance of the "face of the Earth" in the poem?
34. How does the poet contrast activity and inactivity?
35. What does the poet mean by "the sudden strangeness"?
36. How does the poem address the concept of war and violence?
37. What is the significance of the "hurt hands" mentioned in the poem?
38. How does the poet use repetition to emphasize his message?
39. What is the role of "brothers" in the poem's theme?
40. How does the poem promote the idea of unity and peace?
Poem 3: A Thing of Beauty – John Keats
41. What is the central theme of the poem?
42. How does the poet describe beautiful things?
43. What does the poet mean by "a thing of beauty is a joy forever"?
44. How does the poet relate beauty to human happiness?
45. What role does nature play in the poem?
46. How does the poet describe the impact of beautiful things on the human soul?
47. What is the significance of "cooling shade" in the poem?
48. How does the poet view the relationship between beauty and death?
49. What does the poet mean by "the pall of despondence"?
50. How does the poem address the concept of eternal beauty?
51. What is the significance of "garlands" in the poem?
52. How does the poet describe the effect of beauty on human suffering?
53. What does the poet mean by "the endless fountain of immortal drink"?
54. How does the poet use imagery to convey the theme of beauty?
55. What is the significance of "the daffodils" in the poem?
56. How does the poet describe the effect of beauty on the human mind?
57. What role does imagination play in the poem?
58. How does the poet view the relationship between beauty and truth?
59. What is the significance of "the musk-rose" in the poem?
60. How does the poem promote the idea of appreciating beauty in life?
Poem 4: A Roadside Stand – Robert Frost
61. What is the central theme of the poem?
62. How does the poet describe the roadside stand?
63. What does the poet mean by "the greedy good-doers"?
64. How does the poet view the relationship between the city and the countryside?
65. What is the significance of the "painted signs" in the poem?
66. How does the poet describe the attitude of the city people towards the stand?
67. What does the poet mean by "the moneyed" in the poem?
68. How does the poet use irony to convey his message?
69. What is the significance of the "unpainted" signs in the poem?
70. How does the poet describe the hopes of the people at the stand?
71. What does the poet mean by "the city folk" in the poem?
72. How does the poet view the relationship between wealth and happiness?
73. What is the significance of the "greedy good-doers" in the poem?
74. How does the poet describe the impact of the city on the countryside?
75. What does the poet mean by "the moneyed" in the poem?
76. How does the poet use symbolism to convey his message?
77. What is the significance of the "unpainted" signs in the poem?
78. How does the poet describe the hopes of the people at the stand?
79. What does the poet mean by "the city folk" in the poem?
80. How does the poet view the relationship between wealth and happiness?
Poem 5: Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers – Adrienne Rich
81. What is the central theme of the poem?
82. How does the poet describe Aunt Jennifer's tigers?
83. What does the poet mean by "the massive weight of Uncle's wedding band"?
84. How does the poet describe Aunt Jennifer's fingers?
85. What is the significance of the "ivory needle" in the poem?
86. How does the poet view the relationship between Aunt Jennifer and her husband?
87. What is the significance of the "ordeals" mentioned in the poem?
88. How does the poet describe the impact of marriage on Aunt Jennifer?
89. What does the poet mean by "the terrified hands"?
90. How does the poet use symbolism to convey her message?
91. What is the significance of the "tigers" in the poem?
92. How do Aunt Jennifer’s tigers reflect her inner desires and emotions?
93. What contrast does the poet draw between Aunt Jennifer and the tigers she embroiders?
94. How does the poem highlight the theme of gender roles and oppression?
95. In what ways do the tigers symbolize strength and freedom?
96. How is the imagery of the “prancing tigers” different from the image of Aunt Jennifer?
97. What does the phrase “prancing, proud and unafraid” reveal about the tigers’ nature?
98. How does the poet use alliteration and other sound devices in the poem?
99. What does the poem suggest about the lasting impact of societal expectations on women?
100. How does Aunt Jennifer achieve a form of liberation through her art?
📖 Chapter 1: The Last Lesson (Alphonse Daudet)
Extract 1:
>"I had often wondered how it was that the French language had become so important in the school. It was a
mystery to me."
1. What is the significance of the French language in the story?
2. Why does the narrator find the importance of the French language mysterious?
3. What does this extract reveal about the narrator's attitude towards the French language?
4. How does this perspective change by the end of the story?
5. What literary device is used in the phrase "a mystery to me"?
6. Explain the emotional tone of the narrator in this extract.
7. How does this extract set the stage for the central theme of the story?
Extract 2:
>"I had always been a poor student, but that day I felt a strange sense of pride in my language."
8. What causes the narrator's sudden pride in the French language?
9. How does this moment reflect a deeper connection to one's heritage?
10. What does this change in attitude signify about the narrator's character development?
11. Discuss the role of education in shaping the narrator's identity.
12. How does this extract highlight the theme of language and identity?
13. What is the significance of the teacher's role in this transformation?
14. How does the setting contribute to the narrator's feelings?
📖 Chapter 2: Lost Spring (Anees Jung)
Extract 1:
>"They have lived here for more than thirty years without an identity, without permits but with ration cards that
get their names on voters’ lists and enable them to buy grain."
15. What does the term 'without an identity' imply about the living conditions of the people?
16. How does the mention of ration cards highlight the paradox of their situation?
17. Discuss the significance of the phrase 'without permits but with ration cards'.
18. What does this extract reveal about the socio-economic status of the inhabitants?
19. How does this situation reflect broader societal issues?
20. What role do government policies play in the lives of these individuals?
21. How does the author use irony to convey the hardships faced by the people?
Extract 2:
>"Food is more important for survival than an identity."
22. What does this statement suggest about the priorities of the people?
23. How does this reflect the harsh realities of their lives?
24. Discuss the significance of survival in the context of the story.
25. How does this perspective challenge conventional views on identity?
26. What does this reveal about the human spirit and resilience?
27. How does the author use this statement to evoke empathy from the reader?
28. What implications does this have for understanding human rights?
📖 Chapter 3: Deep Water (William Douglas)
Extract 1:
>"I had been taught to swim by my father, but the fear of water remained."
29. What does this reveal about the narrator's relationship with water?
30. How does the fear of water symbolize deeper psychological issues?
31. Discuss the impact of early experiences on the narrator's fears.
32. How does the narrator's perception of water change throughout the story?
33. What role does the instructor play in overcoming the narrator's fear?
34. How does this story illustrate the process of confronting and overcoming fears?
35. What does the narrator's journey signify in terms of personal growth?
Extract 2:
>"The instructor was a strong swimmer, and he threw me into the deep end of the pool."
36. What was the instructor's intention behind this action?
37. How does this moment serve as a turning point for the narrator?
38. Discuss the symbolism of being thrown into the deep end.
39. How does this experience contribute to the narrator's development?
40. What does this reveal about the methods used to overcome fear?
41. How does this event challenge the narrator's previous understanding of swimming?
42. What lessons can be drawn from the instructor's approach?
📖 Chapter 4: The Rattrap (Selma Lagerlöf)
Extract 1:
>"He had been a peddler of rattraps, going from door to door."
43. What does this occupation suggest about the peddler's lifestyle?
44. How does this profession reflect the socio-economic conditions of the time?
45. Discuss the significance of the peddler's choice of occupation.
46. What does this reveal about his character and circumstances?
47. How does the peddler's profession relate to the central theme of the story?
48. What does this occupation symbolize in the broader context of the narrative?
49. How does the author use this detail to set the tone of the story?
Extract 2
>"He had stolen thirty kronor from the crofter's leather pouch."
50. What motivated the peddler to commit theft?
51. How does this act reflect his desperation or moral conflict?
52. Discuss the implications of this action on the peddler's character development.
53. How does this incident drive the plot forward?
54. What does this reveal about the peddler's ethical boundaries?
55. How does the author use this event to introduce themes of temptation and morality?
56. What role does this theft play in the unfolding of the narrative?
📚 Additional Questions (57–66)
57. Compare and contrast the themes of identity in 'The Last Lesson' and 'Lost Spring'.
58. Discuss the role of education in shaping the characters' lives in 'The Last Lesson'.
59. Analyze the symbolism of the French language in 'The Last Lesson'.
60. What does the story 'Lost Spring' reveal about child labor in India?
61. How does the author use the setting to enhance the themes in 'Lost Spring'?
62. Discuss the significance of dreams in 'Lost Spring'.
63. Analyze the character of Saeib in 'Lost Spring'.
64. How does 'Deep Water' explore the theme of fear and courage?
65. Discuss the psychological aspects of fear as presented in 'Deep Water'.
66. **What role does the instructor play in 'Deep Water
 | DIVINE DALE INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, SHERPUR
Distt.Gurugram (HR) Mob: 9416475628, 8053461143
HOME ASSIGNMENT
Class-XII SUBJECT: Economics
Chapter 1: Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence
Comprehensive Question Bank
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (40 Questions)
1. Which of the following was a positive contribution of the British in India?
a) Development of infrastructure b) Decline of handicraft industries
c) Commercialization of agriculture d) Economic drain
2. The main objective of the British colonial rule in India was:
a) To modernize the Indian economy
b) To improve the living standards of Indians
c) To generate a surplus for Britain
d) To develop industrial base in India
3. The concept of 'Economic Drain' was propounded by:
a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) DadabhaiNaoroji d) R.C. Dutt
4. India was transformed into an agricultural colony during British rule to:
a) Increase food production
b) Serve as a market for British manufactured goods
c) Improve agricultural techniques
d) Create employment opportunities
5. The life expectancy at birth in India at the time of independence was approximately:
a) 32 years b) 42 years c) 52 years d) 62 years
6. Which industry suffered the most under the British colonial rule?
a) Jute industry b) Cotton textile industry
c) Steel industry d) Tea industry
7. India's national income grew at an annual rate of _______ during the first half of the 20th century:
a) 0.5% b) 1% c) 2% d) 3%
8. The literacy rate in India at the time of independence was approximately:
a) 17% b) 27% c) 37% d) 47%
9. The demographic condition that prevailed in India during British rule can be classified as:
a) High birth rate and high death rate
b) High birth rate and low death rate
c) Low birth rate and high death rate
d) Low birth rate and low death rate
10. Which system of land revenue was introduced by Lord Cornwallis?
a) Ryotwari system b) Permanent settlement
c) Mahalwari system d) Zamindari system
11. The main aim of the partition of Bengal in 1905 was:
a) Administrative convenience b) Divide and rule policy
c) Economic development d) Social reform
12. What was the infant mortality rate in India at the time of independence?
a) 118 per thousand b) 180 per thousand
c) 218 per thousand d) 280 per thousand
13. Which of the following sectors contributed the largest share to India's GDP at the time of independence?
a) Manufacturing b) Agriculture
c) Services d) Foreign trade
14. The occupational structure of India during the British rule was characterized by:
a) High concentration in agriculture
b) Equal distribution across sectors
c) High concentration in industry
d) High concentration in services
15. The first cotton mill in India was established in:
a) Calcutta b) Bombay c) Madras d) Ahmedabad
16. The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) was set up in:
a) 1902 b) 1907 c) 1912 d) 1922
17. The railway system in India was introduced primarily to:
a) Facilitate the movement of Indian people
b) Transport raw materials from interior to ports
c) Promote industrial development
d) Improve communication system
18. Which of the following was NOT a feature of Indian agriculture during the British period?
a) Subsistence farming b) High productivity
c) Forced commercialization d) Outdated techniques
19. The primary reason for poverty in colonial India was:
a) High population growth
b) British economic policies
c) Low agricultural productivity
d) Lack of industrialization
20. The main purpose of introducing Western education in India was to:
a) Create an educated Indian population
b) Create a class of Indians who would work for the British
c) Promote scientific temperament
d) Improve the quality of education
21. During the colonial period, India's foreign trade was characterized by:
a) Export of manufactured goods
b) Import of raw materials
c) Export of raw materials and import of finished goods
d) Balanced trade
22. Who described the British rule in India as a "systematic plunder"?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) R.C. Duttd) DadabhaiNaoroji
23. The term "de-industrialization" in colonial India refers to:
a) Decline of handicraft industries
b) Setting up of modern industries
c) Transfer of industries from urban to rural areas
d) Reduction in industrial output
24. India's per capita income at the time of independence was approximately:
a) Rs. 255 b) Rs. 355 c) Rs. 455 d) Rs. 555
25. Which of the following was NOT one of the infrastructure developments during British rule?
a) Railways b) Posts and telegraph
c) Nuclear power plants d) Irrigation systems
26. The main purpose of commercialization of agriculture during British rule was to:
a) Increase food production
b) Obtain raw materials for British industries
c) Improve farmers' income
d) Modernize agricultural techniques
 27. The major foreign exchange earner for India during British rule was:
a) Cotton textiles b) Jute c) Tea d) Iron and steel
28. The main feature of India's foreign trade until 1947 was:
a) Favorable balance of trade b) Unfavorable balance of trade
c) Equal imports and exports d) No foreign trade
29. What percentage of India's population was living below the poverty line at the time of independence?
a) Around 40% b) Around 50% c) Around 60% d) Around 70%
30. Which one of the following statements regarding the Indian economy on the eve of independence is
true?
a) India was industrially advanced
b) Agriculture was commercialized for the benefit of farmers
c) Indian handicraft industries were globally competitive
d) Indian economy was serving colonial interests
31. The 'Home Charges' in colonial India referred to:
a) Expenses on maintaining British officials in India
b) Expenses on welfare programs for Indians
c) Expenses incurred in Britain but charged to Indian revenues
d) Expenses on maintaining Indian officials in Britain
32. The main cause for stagnation in the agricultural sector during British rule was:
a) Lack of irrigation facilities b) Land revenue system
c) Natural calamities d) Lack of agricultural education
33. Which industry witnessed growth during the British period in India?
a) Handloom b) Handicrafts c) Jute d) Silk
34. The main purpose of introducing English education in India was to:
a) Make Indians culturally advanced
b) Create clerks for British administration
c) Promote scientific knowledge
d) Develop industrial skills
35. What was the annual growth rate of India's population during 1921-1951?
a) 1.22% b) 2.22% c) 3.22% d) 4.22%
36. The primary source of irrigation in colonial India was:
a) Tube wells b) Canals c) Tanks d) Wells
37. The age composition of India's population at the time of independence was:
a) Predominantly young b) Predominantly old
c) Balanced between young and old d) Predominantly middle-aged
38. Which of the following was the most significant impact of colonialism on Indian agriculture?
a) Increase in productivity b) Diversification of crops
c) Impoverishment of peasantry d) Modernization of techniques
39. The infrastructure development during British rule was primarily aimed at:
a) Improving the standard of living of Indians
b) Administrative convenience and economic exploitation
c) Industrial development of India
d) Creating employment opportunities
40. Which of the following best describes India's status in the global economy at the time of independence?
a) Developed economy b) Developing economy
c) Underdeveloped economy d) Mixed economy
SECTION B: FILL IN THE BLANKS (40 Questions)
1. India had an agricultural economy with approximately __________ of its population engaged in
agricultural activities at the time of independence.
2. The policy of __________ was adopted by the British to cripple Indian handicraft industries.
3. The share of India in world income declined from 22.6% in 1700 to __________ in 1952.
 4. The __________ system of land revenue collection was introduced in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.
5. The __________ system of land revenue was introduced in Madras and Bombay Presidencies.
6. The life expectancy at birth in India at the time of independence was just __________ years.
7. The literacy rate at the time of independence was just about __________ percent.
8. The annual growth rate of GNP during the colonial period was less than __________ percent.
9. The infant mortality rate was as high as __________ per thousand live births.
10. __________ propounded the 'Drain Theory' to explain British exploitation of India.
11. The British transformed India from a country of __________ to an exporter of raw materials and
importer of finished goods.
12. The first census in India was conducted in the year __________.
13. The first cotton textile mill in India was established in __________ in 1853.
14. The first jute mill in India was set up in __________ in 1855.
15. The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) was established in __________ in 1907.
16. Under the British rule, India's economy was characterized by __________-industrialization.
17. The railways in India were introduced in the year __________.
18. At the time of independence, the contribution of the agricultural sector to India's GDP was
approximately __________ percent.
19. The __________ was the most important commercial crop introduced by the British in India.
20. The demographic condition that prevailed in India during British rule is termed as the stage of
__________ demographic transition.
21. The system of land revenue where the state collected taxes directly from the cultivators was known as
the __________ system.
22. The partition of Bengal was announced by Lord __________ in 1905.
23. The process of __________ of agriculture refers to the production of crops for sale in the market rather
than for self-consumption.
24. The First World War led to the expansion of __________ industries in India.
25. The __________ system of land revenue was introduced in parts of North India.
26. The __________ Commission (1901) was appointed to investigate the causes of famines in India.
27. The British policies led to the __________ of rural artisans and handicraftsmen.
28. The __________ policy of the British encouraged the cultivation of crops like indigo, cotton, and jute.
29. The average annual per capita income in British India was approximately __________ rupees.
30. __________ was the first Indian economist to systematically analyze the economic impact of British
rule.
31. The British established __________ as trading posts which later became major cities.
32. The condition of Indian peasants during British rule can be characterized as one of __________.
33. At the time of independence, India had only __________ percent of the world's income but __________
percent of its population.
34. The __________ was used by the British to transfer wealth from India to Britain.
35. The __________ was the main agency for financing foreign trade during the British rule.
36. The British introduced the __________ system to replace the barter system in India.
37. The tax structure during the British period was __________ in nature.
38. The process of land alienation led to the emergence of __________ who were mostly moneylenders or
traders.
39. The main objective of British colonial rule in India was __________ exploitation.
40. The major changes in the occupational structure during the British period was characterized by
__________ in the manufacturing sector.
SECTION C: ONE WORD ANSWERS (40 Questions)
1. What was the main occupation of Indian population at the time of independence?
2. Name the economist who propounded the 'Drain of Wealth' theory.
3. What type of economy was India at the time of independence?
4. Name the land revenue system where tax was collected from zamindars.
 5. What was the status of India's literacy rate at the time of independence?
6. Which sector contributed the most to India's GDP at the time of independence?
7. What was the state of India's industrial sector at the time of independence?
8. Name the first cotton textile mill established in India.
9. In which city was the first jute mill established?
10. What was the primary purpose of railways in colonial India?
11. Which crop's cultivation was forcibly promoted by the British for export?
12. What is the term used for the decline of handicraft industries during British rule?
13. What was the main feature of India's foreign trade during British rule?
14. Which country was India's largest trading partner during British rule?
15. What was the average life expectancy in India at the time of independence?
16. What system was introduced by the British to replace the traditional barter system?
17. What was the main reason for recurrent famines during British rule?
18. Which industry was most adversely affected by British policies?
19. What was the main aim of the British education system in India?
20. Who authored the book "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India"?
21. What type of demographic transition stage was India in at the time of independence?
22. Which city became the center of cotton textile industry during British rule?
23. What was the state of infrastructure in India at the time of independence?
24. What term is used for the practice of growing crops for market rather than for self-consumption?
25. Which Indian industrialist established the first iron and steel plant?
26. What was the main characteristic of the occupational structure at the time of independence?
27. What was the state of public health in India at the time of independence?
28. What was the predominant form of farming at the time of independence?
29. What was the system of revenue collection directly from cultivators called?
30. Which crop was introduced by the British primarily for export?
31. What was the primary cause of rural indebtedness during British rule?
32. Which class benefited most from British land revenue policies?
33. What was the nature of India's balance of trade during British rule?
34. What was the status of female literacy at the time of independence?
35. What term describes the economic relationship between Britain and India?
36. What was the annual growth rate of India's population during 1921-1951?
37. What was the main source of irrigation in colonial India?
38. What system of land revenue was introduced in the United Provinces?
39. What was the condition of rural industries at the time of independence?
40. What was the most important avenue of British investment in India?
SECTION D: DETAILED QUESTIONS (200 Questions)
1. Discuss the 'Drain of Wealth' theory propounded by DadabhaiNaoroji. How did it affect the Indian
economy?
2. Analyze the impact of British colonial rule on India's traditional handicraft industries.
3. Evaluate the land revenue systems introduced by the British in India and their impact on agricultural
productivity.
4. Discuss the process of commercialization of agriculture during British rule. How did it affect the Indian
farmers?
5. Examine the state of Indian agriculture at the time of independence. What were the major problems
faced by this sector?
6. Critically analyze the British trade policy and its impact on India's foreign trade pattern.
7. Explain the concept of de-industrialization in the context of colonial India. What were its causes and
consequences?
8. Discuss the development of modern industry in India during the British period. What factors hindered
industrial growth?
9. Examine the demographic profile of India at the time of independence. What were its main features?
10. Analyze the occupational structure of India at the time of independence and explain the reasons for its
skewed nature.
11. Discuss the state of infrastructure development in India during the British period. Was it beneficial for
India's economic development?
12. Explain the monetary and fiscal policies adopted by the British in India. How did they serve colonial
interests?
13. Analyze the impact of the two World Wars on the Indian economy.
14. Discuss the state of foreign trade of India at the time of independence. How was it structured to benefit
Britain?
15. Evaluate the British education policy in India. Did it contribute to human capital formation?
16. Examine the condition of public health and nutrition in India at the time of independence.
17. Discuss the growth and pattern of urbanization during the British period.
18. Analyze the role of indigenous entrepreneurs in the industrialization of India during the colonial period.
19. Discuss the development of the railway system in India during British rule. How did it serve colonial
interests?
20. Examine the impact of British rule on the caste-based occupational structure in India.
21. Discuss the state of poverty and inequality in India at the time of independence.
22. Analyze the growth and development of the banking system in India during the British period.
23. Discuss the famines during British rule and the policies adopted to tackle them.
24. Evaluate the impact of British rule on India's forest resources and environment.
25. Discuss the condition of Indian peasants at the time of independence. What were the major problems
faced by them?
26. Analyze the impact of colonial rule on the traditional water management systems in India.
27. Discuss the growth of plantation industries in India during the British period.
28. Examine the nature and impact of British fiscal policies on the Indian economy.
29. Discuss the state of rural indebtedness in India at the time of independence. What were its causes?
30. Analyze the pattern of British investments in India and their impact on the Indian economy.
31. Discuss the emergence of economic nationalism in India as a response to British economic policies.
32. Examine the impact of colonial rule on India's traditional craft industries with special reference to
textile industry.
33. Discuss the state of industrial relations in India at the time of independence.
34. Analyze the regional disparities in economic development that existed at the time of independence.
35. Discuss the impact of colonial rule on India's traditional trading networks and markets.
36. Examine the condition of women workers in different sectors of the Indian economy at the time of
independence.
37. Discuss the state of technical education and skill development in India during the British period.
38. Analyze the impact of colonial rule on India's technological development and innovation.
39. Discuss the state of rural and cottage industries in India at the time of independence.
40. Examine the impact of colonial rule on India's traditional arts and crafts.
41. Discuss the major features of the Permanent Settlement introduced by Lord Cornwallis. How did it
affect the agrarian structure?
42. Analyze the impact of the Ryotwari system on the condition of peasants in South India.
43. Examine the features of the Mahalwari system. How was it different from other land revenue systems?
44. Discuss the process of commercialization of agriculture during British rule and its impact on food
security.
45. Analyze the impact of colonial land revenue policies on agricultural productivity and rural income.
46. Discuss the condition of agricultural laborers in colonial India. How did their status change over time?
47. Examine the pattern of land ownership and tenancy relations in India at the time of independence.
48. Discuss the impact of colonial agricultural policies on cropping patterns and agricultural diversification.
49. Analyze the role of money lenders and rural credit during the British period. How did they contribute to
rural indebtedness?
50. Discuss the state of agricultural technology and practices in India at the time of independence.
51. Examine the impact of colonial rule on traditional farming communities and tribal agricultural practices.
52. Discuss the development of irrigation systems during British rule and their impact on agriculture.
53. Analyze the relationship between land revenue demands and agricultural productivity during the British
period.
54. Discuss the impact of colonial forest policies on tribal communities and their agricultural practices.
55. Examine the nature and extent of peasant movements during the late colonial period. What were their
economic demands?
56. Discuss the impact of colonial rule on traditional systems of land tenure and community rights.
57. Analyze the role of intermediaries in the land revenue system during British rule.
58. Discuss the impact of colonial agricultural policies on food crops versus cash crops production.
59. Examine the regional variations in agricultural development during the British period.
60. Discuss the impact of global economic forces on Indian agriculture during the colonial period.
61. Discuss the process of de-industrialization in India during British rule. What were its main causes?
62. Analyze the growth of modern industries in India during the colonial period. What factors facilitated or
hindered this growth?
63. Examine the condition of traditional handicraft industries at the time of independence.
64. Discuss the role of tariff and trade policies in the industrial development of colonial India.
65. Analyze the pattern of industrial ownership in India at the time of independence.
66. Discuss the development of the cotton textile industry in India during the British period.
67. Examine the growth and development of the jute industry in colonial India.
68. Discuss the state of iron and steel industry in India at the time of independence.
69. Analyze the impact of the two World Wars on India's industrial development.
70. Discuss the condition of industrial labor in colonial India. What were the major problems faced by
them?
71. Examine the role of indigenous entrepreneurship in India's industrial development during the colonial
period.
72. Discuss the state of technological innovation and adaptation in Indian industries during the British
period.
73. Analyze the pattern of industrial location and regional industrial development in colonial India.
74. Discuss the impact of colonial policies on small-scale and cottage industries in India.
75. Examine the development of mining industries in India during the British period.
76. Discuss the state of chemical and pharmaceutical industries in India at the time of independence.
77. Analyze the impact of imperial preference system on India's industrial development.
78. Discuss the role of foreign capital in India's industrial development during the colonial period.
79. Examine the relationship between agriculture and industry in colonial India.
80. Discuss the state of industrial finance and banking in India at the time of independence.
81. Discuss the changing pattern of India's foreign trade during the British period. How did it reflect
colonial interests?
82. Analyze India's balance of payments position during the late colonial period.
83. Examine the concept of 'Home Charges' and its impact on India's balance of payments.
84. Discuss the role of India in Britain's global economic network during the colonial period.
85. Analyze the impact of the Great Depression on India's foreign trade and economy.
86. Discuss India's trade relations with countries other than Britain during the colonial period.
87. Examine the pattern of India's exports and imports at the time of independence.
88. Discuss the role of the Exchange Rate policy in serving colonial interests.
89. Analyze the impact of World War II on India's foreign trade pattern.
90. Discuss the state of India's shipping and maritime trade during the British period.
 91. Examine the relationship between India's foreign trade and domestic economic structure during the
colonial period.
92. Discuss the role of trading companies in India's foreign trade during the British period.
93. Analyze the impact of British trade policies on traditional Indian exports.
94. Discuss the development of port cities in India during the British period and their role in foreign trade.
95. Examine the nature and extent of India's trade deficit during the colonial period. How was it financed?
96. Discuss the impact of colonial trade policies on regional specialization and market integration in India.
97. Analyze the role of foreign exchange earnings in financing British investments in India.
98. Discuss the state of customs administration and tariff policies in India at the time of independence.
99. Examine the impact of colonial trade policies on India's terms of trade.
100. Discuss the emergence of India as a market for British manufactured goods during the colonial
period.
Demographic Conditions and Human Development
1. Discuss the demographic profile of India at the time of independence. What were its main features?
2. Analyze the trends in population growth during the colonial period. What factors influenced these
trends?
3. Examine the state of public health and medical facilities in India at the time of independence.
4. Discuss the condition of education and literacy in India during the British period.
5. Analyze the nutritional status and food security situation in India at the time of independence.
6. Discuss the state of gender disparity in various social and economic indicators at the time of
independence.
7. Examine the occupational structure of India at the time of independence and explain the reasons for its
skewed nature.
8. Discuss the impact of colonial policies on urbanization and rural-urban migration in India.
9. Analyze the state of housing and sanitation facilities in rural and urban India at the time of
independence.
10. Discuss the condition of tribal populations and their integration into the mainstream economy during the
British period.
11. Examine the impact of famines on India's demographic profile during the colonial period.
12. Discuss the state of maternal and child health in India at the time of independence.
13. Analyze the regional variations in demographic indicators across different parts of India during the
colonial period.
14. Discuss the impact of colonial economic policies on income distribution and poverty in India.
15. Examine the class structure that emerged in India during the British period.
16. Discuss the state of technical education and skill development in India during the colonial period.
17. Analyze the impact of colonial rule on traditional knowledge systems and indigenous practices.
18. Discuss the state of social security and welfare measures in India at the time of independence.
19. Examine the condition of urban labor and the development of labor movements during the colonial
period.
20. Discuss the impact of colonial policies on caste-based occupational structure and social mobility.
Infrastructure Development
1. Discuss the development of the railway system in India during British rule. How did it serve colonial
interests?
2. Analyze the state of road transport in India at the time of independence.
3. Examine the development of ports and shipping in India during the British period.
4. Discuss the state of postal and telecommunication services in India at the time of independence.
5. Analyze the development of irrigation infrastructure during the colonial period and its impact on
agriculture.
6. Discuss the state of power generation and distribution in India at the time of independence.
7. Examine the pattern of urban development and town planning during the British period.
8. Discuss the development of banking and financial infrastructure in colonial India.
 9. Analyze the state of educational infrastructure in India at the time of independence.
10. Discuss the development of healthcare infrastructure during the British period.
11. Examine the impact of infrastructure development on regional economic disparities during the colonial
period.
12. Discuss the financing of infrastructure projects during the British period.
13. Analyze the role of public works departments in infrastructure development during the colonial period.
14. Discuss the state of water management systems and their transformation during British rule.
15. Examine the development of industrial infrastructure in India during the colonial period.
16. Discuss the impact of colonial infrastructure development on India's traditional economy and society.
17. Analyze the state of storage and warehousing facilities in India at the time of independence.
18. Discuss the development of scientific and research infrastructure during the British period.
19. Examine the role of municipal governance in infrastructure development during the colonial period.
20. Discuss the state of rural infrastructure in India at the time of independence.
Economic Thought and Policy Perspectives
1. Discuss the economic ideas of DadabhaiNaoroji and their influence on nationalist economic thinking.
2. Analyze R.C. Dutt's critique of British economic policies in India.
3. Examine the economic ideas of Mahatma Gandhi and their relevance to colonial India.
4. Discuss the economic perspective of Jawaharlal Nehru regarding India's development strategy.
5. Analyze the debate on industrialization versus traditional economic systems among Indian nationalists.
6. Discuss the economic aspects of the Swadeshi movement during the freedom struggle.
7. Examine the contributions of early Indian economists to understanding colonial exploitation.
8. Discuss the evolution of economic planning ideas in India before independence.
9. Analyze the economic vision outlined in the Bombay Plan of 1944.
10. Discuss the economic objectives of the Indian National Congress during the freedom movement.
11. Examine the economic dimensions of the "Quit India" movement.
12. Discuss the impact of Fabian socialism on Indian economic thought during the late colonial period.
13. Analyze the economic aspects of the Cabinet Mission Plan and its implications for independent India.
14. Discuss the economic considerations in the partition of India.
15. Examine the influence of Western economic thought on Indian economists during the colonial period.
16. Discuss the emergence of labor economics and industrial relations as disciplines in colonial India.
17. Analyze the economic implications of the Government of India Act, 1935.
18. Discuss the role of economic issues in mobilizing public opinion against colonial rule.
19. Examine the economic policies recommended by the National Planning Committee established by the
Indian National Congress.
20. Discuss the economic vision of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar for independent India.
Regional Economic Conditions
1. Discuss the economic conditions of Punjab at the time of independence. What were its distinctive
features?
2. Analyze the economic structure of Bengal during the colonial period and the impact of the partition.
3. Examine the economic conditions in the Princely States at the time of independence.
4. Discuss the economic development of the Madras Presidency during the colonial period.
5. Analyze the pattern of regional disparities in economic development at the time of independence.
6. Discuss the economic conditions of the tribal regions in India during the British period.
7. Examine the economic impact of the partition of Bengal in 1905 and its reversal in 1911.
8. Discuss the economic conditions of the United Provinces (modern Uttar Pradesh) during the colonial
period.
9. Analyze the economic development of Western India with special reference to Bombay Presidency.
10. Discuss the economic conditions of coastal regions and their role in India's colonial economy.
11. Examine the economic structure of Hyderabad State at the time of independence.
12. Discuss the economic conditions of the North-Eastern regions during the British period.
13. Analyze the economic development of Travancore and Cochin states during the colonial period.
 14. Discuss the economic conditions of Central Provinces and Berar (modern Madhya Pradesh) at the time
of independence.
15. Examine the pattern of agricultural development across different regions of India during the colonial
period.
16. Discuss the impact of colonial policies on the economic conditions of Bihar and Orissa.
17. Analyze the pattern of industrial development across different regions of India during the British period.
18. Discuss the economic conditions of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands during the colonial period.
19. Examine the impact of the colonial forest policies on the economic conditions of forest-dwelling
communities across different regions.
20. Discuss the economic conditions of the border regions at the time of independence.
Comparative and Global Context
1. Compare the economic condition of India with other British colonies at the time of independence.
2. Analyze India's economic position in the global economy at the time of independence.
3. Examine the impact of the Great Depression of the 1930s on the Indian economy.
4. Discuss the economic impact of World War I on colonial India.
5. Analyze the economic consequences of World War II on India's economy and independence movement.
6. Discuss India's economic relations with neighboring countries at the time of independence.
7. Examine the comparative economic development of India and China during the colonial period.
8. Discuss the impact of global economic trends on India's colonial economy.
9. Analyze the economic aspects of India's participation in international organizations during the colonial
period.
10. Discuss the economic relationship between India and Japan during the pre-independence period.
11. Examine the economic implications of the Cold War beginning for newly independent India.
12. Discuss the economic impact of the end of colonial rule in various parts of Asia on India's economic
outlook.
13. Analyze the economic aspects of India's relations with the Soviet Union at the time of independence.
14. Discuss the comparative analysis of land revenue systems in different British colonies.
15. Examine the economic linkages between India and South East Asian countries during the colonial
period.
16. Discuss the economic impact of the Bretton Woods system on colonial and newly independent India.
17. Analyze the comparative industrialization process in India and other colonial economies.
18. Discuss the economic aspects of India's participation in Commonwealth after independence.
19. Examine the economic challenges faced by newly independent countries in Asia and Africa in
comparison to India.
20. Discuss the legacy of colonial economic policies on post-independence economic development
strategies of India.
Chapter: National Income
1. Which of the following is not a part of national income?
a) Wages
b) Rent
c) Transfer payments
d) Profit
2. National income at constant prices is also known as:
a) Nominal income
b) Real income
c) Disposable income
d) Personal income
3. Which is the correct formula for calculating Net National Product at factor cost (NNPFC)?
a) NDPFC + NFIA
b) GDPMP – Depreciation
 c) GNPMP – Indirect taxes
d) GDPFC + NFIA
4. What does GDP stand for?
a) Gross Development Price
b) General Domestic Product
c) Gross Domestic Product
d) Government Domestic Price
5. Which of the following is not included in Gross Domestic Product?
a) Final goods
b) Intermediate goods
c) Services
d) Capital goods
6. Depreciation is also known as:
a) Net loss
b) Capital consumption allowance
c) Investment return
d) Obsolescence
7. Net factor income from abroad includes:
a) Remittances
b) Gifts from abroad
c) Interest, wages, and rent from abroad
d) Export receipts
8. Which of the following best defines GDP at factor cost?
a) GDP at market price – Indirect taxes + Subsidies
b) GDP at market price + Indirect taxes – Subsidies
c) GDP at constant price
d) GNP at factor cost – Depreciation
9. Which of the following is not included in national income?
a) Services of a teacher
b) Services of a doctor
c) Services of a housewife
d) Services of a lawyer
10. The value of output includes:
a) Intermediate consumption
b) Wages
c) Depreciation
d) Change in stock
11. What is added to NDP at factor cost to arrive at national income?
a) Net indirect tax
b) NFIA
c) Depreciation
d) Consumption
12. Real national income refers to:
a) GDP at current prices
b) GDP at market prices
c) GDP at constant prices
d) None of these
13. Which of the following is a stock concept?
a) Income
b) Wages
 c) Wealth
d) Production
14. Factor income includes:
a) Wages, rent, interest, profit
b) Scholarship
c) Lottery income
d) Subsidy
15. Per capita income is:
a) Total income of the population
b) Total GDP divided by working population
c) National income divided by total population
d) GNP divided by adult population
16. Which method uses the formula: National Income = Compensation of Employees + Rent + Interest +
Profit?
a) Product method
b) Income method
c) Expenditure method
d) Output method
17. Final consumption expenditure includes:
a) Intermediate consumption
b) Government expenditure
c) Taxes
d) Purchase of raw materials
18. Intermediate goods are:
a) Used in final consumption
b) Used for investment
c) Purchased for resale or further production
d) Included in GDP
19. Which of the following is a transfer payment?
a) Rent
b) Subsidy
c) Wages
d) Interest
20. Which of the following is included in gross investment?
a) Depreciation
b) Savings
c) Net exports
d) Income tax
21. Which method includes final consumption, investment, government expenditure, and net exports?
a) Output method
b) Income method
c) Expenditure method
d) GDP deflator method
22. Operating surplus is calculated in:
a) Income method
b) Expenditure method
c) Product method
d) None
23. Change in stock = Closing stock – _______?
a) Opening stock
b) Inventory
 c) Production
d) Purchases
24. Government final consumption expenditure includes:
a) Government savings
b) Purchase of goods/services for public services
c) Transfer payments
d) Defence exports
25. In the value-added method, we subtract:
a) Depreciation
b) Indirect taxes
c) Intermediate consumption
d) Imports
26. Which of the following is excluded from income method?
a) Rent
b) Interest
c) Transfer payments
d) Profit
27. GDP deflator =
a) (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) × 100
b) Real GDP – Nominal GDP
c) Nominal GDP + Inflation
d) Real GDP × 100
28. Income from abroad is part of:
a) Domestic income
b) NDP
c) NFIA
d) Government income
29. Consumption of fixed capital refers to:
a) Capital formation
b) Investment
c) Depreciation
d) Imports
30. Value added = Value of output – _______?
a) Wages
b) Rent
c) Intermediate consumption
d) Net exports
31. Personal income includes:
a) Factor income only
b) Transfer payments only
c) Both factor income and transfers
d) Disposable income only
32. Disposable income is:
a) Income available after taxes
b) Income before taxes
c) National income + Subsidies
d) Transfer income only
33. Which of the following is not a feature of national income?
a) Measured over a period of time
b) Flow concept
 c) Includes all goods and services
d) Includes illegal activities
34. Rent received from subletting is:
a) Transfer income
b) Factor income
c) Non-economic activity
d) None
35. Indirect taxes lead to:
a) Decrease in factor cost
b) Increase in market price
c) Increase in subsidies
d) None of the above
36. Gross National Disposable Income =
a) GNP + Net transfers from rest of the world
b) NNP + NFIA
c) NDP + NFIA
d) GDP + Net indirect tax
37. Subsidies are:
a) Direct taxes
b) Added to market price
c) Deducted to get factor cost
d) Ignored in national income
38. Compensation of employees does NOT include:
a) Wages and salaries
b) Pension after retirement
c) Employers’ contribution to social security
d) Bonus
39. Which of the following does not affect national income directly?
a) Government expenditure
b) Household consumption
c) Imports
d) Pollution
40. National income data is published in India by:
a) NSSO
b) CSO (now NSO)
c) RBI
d) NITI Aayog
41. The base year for calculating constant prices should be:
a) A year of war
b) A normal year
c) A drought year
d) A high-inflation year
42. Real income increases only when:
a) Nominal income increases
b) Price level remains the same
c) Output increases
d) Tax decreases
43. Which is a non-monetary transaction?
a) Housewife services
b) Doctor services
 c) Bank payments
d) Government spending
44. What does the circular flow of income represent?
a) Flow of goods
b) Flow of services only
c) Continuous flow of income and expenditure
d) Flow of taxes
45. Imputed rent of owner-occupied house is:
a) Excluded
b) Included
c) Transfer income
d) Notional income
46. Which income concept is used for international comparison?
a) GDP
b) NDP
c) GNP
d) Per capita income
47. Depreciation is deducted from:
a) GNP to get GDP
b) GDP to get NDP
c) NDP to get NNP
d) GNP to get NNP
48. Which component of GDP is the largest in India?
a) Government expenditure
b) Net exports
c) Private final consumption
d) Investment
49. Which one is an example of investment expenditure?
a) Buying a car for personal use
b) Buying a house by a company
c) Government salaries
d) Household electricity bill
50. If national income rises, standard of living:
a) Always decreases
b) May increase
c) Always remains the same
d) Does not affect
51. Which of the following is not a part of national income?
a) Wages
b) Rent
c) Transfer payments
d) Profit
52. Which of the following is included in domestic income?
a) Income earned by Indians working abroad
b) Income from illegal activities
c) Net factor income from abroad
d) Salaries to Indian residents by foreign embassies in India
53. National income at constant prices means:
a) Income adjusted for inflation
b) Current income without taxes
 c) Real income
d) Both a and c
54. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is measured at:
a) Market price
b) Factor cost
c) Subsidy cost
d) Selling price
55. Which of the following is not a method of measuring national income?
a) Product method
b) Income method
c) Expenditure method
d) Distribution method
56. Which method calculates national income by adding up all final goods and services?
a) Income method
b) Product method
c) Expenditure method
d) Output method
57. In income method, which of the following is not included?
a) Wages and salaries
b) Rent
c) Purchase of machinery
d) Interest and profit
58. National income by expenditure method includes:
a) Intermediate goods
b) Final consumption expenditure
c) Capital goods
d) Depreciation
59. Net Domestic Product at factor cost is equal to:
a) NNP – NFIA
b) GDP – Depreciation – Net indirect taxes
c) GDP + Depreciation
d) NDP + Net indirect taxes
60. Which component is subtracted from GDP to calculate Net National Product?
a) Subsidy
b) Depreciation
c) Indirect tax
d) Direct tax
61. Which of the following best defines ‘Net Factor Income from Abroad’?
a) Income from exports
b) Income received from foreigners minus income paid to foreigners
c) Import payments
d) None of these
62. The term "Domestic" in GDP refers to:
a) Only Indian citizens
b) Territory within the economic boundary
c) All income earned abroad
d) Public sector only
63. Which of the following is a part of factor income?
a) Old age pension
b) Scholarship
 c) Salary
d) Lottery winnings
64. Operating surplus includes:
a) Wages
b) Rent, interest, and profit
c) Subsidies
d) Bonus
65. The national income calculated at current prices is called:
a) Real national income
b) Nominal national income
c) Domestic income
d) Per capita income

Fill in the blanks with the correct formula component:

1. GDP at Market Price (GDPMP) = ________ + Net Indirect Taxes (NIT)
2. GNP at Market Price (GNPMP) = GDPMP + ________
3. Net National Product at Market Price (NNPMP) = GNPMP – ________
4. Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDPFC) = ________ – Net Indirect Taxes
5. NNP at Factor Cost (NNPFC) = NNPMP – ________
6. Personal Income = National Income – ________ + Transfer Payments
7. Disposable Income = ________ – Direct Taxes
8. National Income (NNPFC) = Compensation of Employees + ________ + Operating Surplus + Net
Factor Income from Abroad
9. GDPFC = ________ + Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus + Mixed Income
10. GDPMP = GDPFC + ________
11. GDP at Market Price (GDPMP) = GDP at Factor Cost (GDPFC) + __________
12. GNP at Market Price (GNPMP) = GDPMP + __________
13. Net National Product at Market Price (NNPMP) = GNPMP – __________
14. Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDPFC) = NDPMP – __________
15. NNP at Factor Cost (NNPFC) = NNPMP – _________
16. National Income = NNP at __________
17. Personal Income = National Income – Corporate Tax – __________ + Transfer Payments
18. Disposable Income = Personal Income – __________
19. GDPFC = Compensation of Employees + Rent + __________ + Mixed Income
20. Operating Surplus = Rent + Interest + __________
21. NDPMP = GDPMP – __________
22. GNPFC = GDPFC + __________
23. Private Income = National Income + __________ + Transfer Income
24. Net Domestic Product at Market Price (NDPMP) = Domestic Income + __________
25. National Income at Factor Cost = Domestic Income + _________
26. Domestic Income = __________ + Operating Surplus + Mixed Income
27. Mixed Income is earned by __________ sector
28. Net Indirect Taxes = Indirect Taxes – __________
29. Factor Income from Abroad – Factor Income to Abroad = _________
30. National Disposable Income = Personal Disposable Income + __________
 | DIVINE DALE INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, SHERPUR
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HOME ASSIGNMENT
Class-XII SUBJECT: Economics
Chapter 2: Indian Economy 1950-1990
Section A: Multiple Choice Questions (40 MCQs, 1 Mark Each)
1. Which type of economy was adopted by India after independence?
a) Capitalist
b) Socialist
c) Mixed
d) Global
2. What was the main objective of economic planning in India?
a) Profit maximization
b) Public welfare
c) Competition
d) Equality
3. When was the National Development Council (NDC) established?
a) 1950
b) 1952
c) 1969
d) 1979
4. How many industries were reserved for the public sector under the Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956?
a) 15
b) 17
c) 21
d) 2
5. Which measure was NOT a part of tenancy reforms?
a) Fixation of land ceiling
b) Regulation of rent
c) Ownership rights for tenants
d) Green Revolution
6. What was the primary focus of the First Five-Year Plan?
a) Industry
b) Agriculture
c) Infrastructure
d) Education
7. The Green Revolution primarily aimed to increase the production of:
a) Cotton
b) Wheat and Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Pulses
8. Which committee was set up for the development of small-scale industries?
a) Mahalanobis
b) Karve
c) Tapas Majumdar
d) TRYSEM
9. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 categorized industries into how many groups?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
 d) Five
10. What was the main reason for adopting a planned economy in India?
a) To follow global trends
b) To ensure equitable distribution
c) To maximize profits
d) To reduce exports
11. Which sector was given priority in the Second Five-Year Plan?
a) Agriculture
b) Industry
c) Services
d) Education
12. Who was regarded as the architect of Indian planning?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Sardar Patel
d) Ambedkar
13. The Planning Commission was set up in which year?
a) 1947
b) 1950
c) 1952
d) 1956
14. Land reforms aimed to:
a) Increase industrial output
b) Make tillers the owners of land
c) Promote exports
d) Reduce population
15. The Green Revolution resulted in:
a) Reduced agricultural output
b) Marketable surplus
c) Increased imports
d) Decreased employment
16. Which of the following was a goal of the Five-Year Plans?
a) Full employment
b) Profit maximization
c) Foreign investment
d) Privatization
17. The public sector’s primary motive was:
a) Profit-making
b) Social welfare
c) Competition
d) Export promotion
18. Which industry was NOT reserved for the government under IPR 1956?
a) Atomic energy
b) Railways
c) Iron and steel
d) Transport
19. The Green Revolution was most successful in which region?
a) Rajasthan
b) Punjab
c) Bihar
d) Odisha
20. Which policy aimed to protect domestic industries from foreign competition?
a) Export promotion
b) Import substitution
c) Liberalization
d) Privatization
21. The Mixed Economy model in India included:
a) Only public sector
b) Only private sector
c) Both public and private sectors
d) Foreign sector only
22. The Karve Committee was related to:
a) Land reforms
b) Small-scale industries
c) Banking reforms
d) Education
23. The Second Five-Year Plan was based on which model?
a) Harrod-Domar
b) Mahalanobis
c) Keynesian
d) Solow
24. What was a major drawback of the Green Revolution?
a) Increased food production
b) Regional disparities
c) Reduced imports
d) Full employment
25. The Industrial Licensing Policy was introduced to:
a) Promote foreign investment
b) Regulate industrial growth
c) Increase imports
d) Reduce public sector
26. Which crop benefited the most from the Green Revolution?
a) Millets
b) Wheat
c) Cotton
d) Sugarcane
27. The public sector was dominant in which industry under IPR 1956?
a) Textiles
b) Atomic energy
c) Automobiles
d) Agriculture
28. The First Five-Year Plan aimed to address:
a) Industrial stagnation
b) Agricultural backwardness
c) Unemployment
d) All of the above
29. The term ‘socialist pattern of society’ was associated with:
a) First Five-Year Plan
b) Second Five-Year Plan
c) Third Five-Year Plan
d) Fourth Five-Year Plan
30. Which of the following was a feature of the Mixed Economy?
 a) Complete state control
b) Coexistence of public and private sectors
c) No planning
d) Profit as the sole motive
31. The Green Revolution was introduced in which decade?
a) 1940s
b) 1950s
c) 1960s
d) 1970s
32. What was the purpose of land ceiling reforms?
a) Increase land holdings
b) Redistribute land to landless farmers
c) Promote large-scale farming
d) Reduce agricultural output
33. The Mahalanobis model emphasized:
a) Agriculture
b) Heavy industries
c) Services
d) Exports
34. Which of the following was a challenge faced by the Indian economy in the 1950-1990 period?
a) Lack of planning
b) Low agricultural productivity
c) Excessive privatization
d) High exports
35. The Planning Commission was replaced by which body in 2014?
a) NITI Aayog
b) Finance Commission
c) RBI
d) SEBI
36. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 aimed to:
a) Promote private sector dominance
b) Strengthen public sector
c) Eliminate planning
d) Reduce industrial growth
37. Which of the following was NOT an objective of Indian planning?
a) Economic growth
b) Social justice
c) Profit maximization
d) Self-reliance
38. The Green Revolution relied heavily on:
a) Traditional seeds
b) High-yielding variety (HYV) seeds
c) Manual labor
d) Rain-fed agriculture
39. Which sector was the largest employer during 1950-1990?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Public
40. The term ‘licence raj’ refers to:
a) Agricultural reforms
 b) Industrial licensing controls
c) Export promotion
d) Banking reforms
Section B: Fill in the Blanks (40 Questions, 1 Mark Each)
1. _______ planning includes all spheres of economic and social activities.
2. The _______ is the Chairman of the Planning Commission.
3. The percentage of the population below the poverty line has _______ in India since independence.
4. _______ economy is the framework of planning in India.
5. Full employment and equitable distribution are _______ period objectives of planning.
6. The Green Revolution led to a _______ surplus of agricultural produce.
7. Land reforms aimed to make _______ the owners of the land.
8. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 reserved _______ industries for the public sector.
9. The _______ Committee was set up for small-scale industries.
10. The Second Five-Year Plan was based on the _______ model.
11. The _______ sector was the largest employer in India during 1950-1990.
12. The Green Revolution was introduced in the _______ decade.
13. _______ is needed to protect against natural calamities like floods and droughts.
14. The _______ Plan focused on agriculture.
15. The public sector aims at _______ welfare.
16. The _______ Policy Resolution of 1956 categorized industries into three groups.
17. The _______ sector was prioritized in the Second Five-Year Plan.
18. The _______ Revolution increased food grain production.
19. _______ was the architect of Indian planning.
20. The National Development Council was set up in _______.
21. _______ seeds were crucial for the Green Revolution.
22. The _______ Plan aimed at self-reliance.
23. The _______ sector includes industries owned by the government.
24. The _______ Policy aimed to protect domestic industries.
25. The _______ Plan was launched in 1951.
26. The _______ sector was dominant in atomic energy.
27. The _______ model emphasized heavy industries.
28. The _______ ceiling was part of land reforms.
29. The _______ sector includes agriculture and allied activities.
30. The _______ Plan focused on industrial growth.
31. _______ is a challenge faced by the Green Revolution.
32. The _______ Commission was set up in 1950.
33. The _______ sector was the focus of the First Five-Year Plan.
34. The _______ Policy Resolution of 1956 aimed to strengthen the public sector.
35. The _______ economy allows both public and private sectors.
36. The _______ Plan aimed to address unemployment.
37. The _______ sector was the largest contributor to GDP by 1990.
38. The _______ Aayog replaced the Planning Commission.
39. The _______ Policy controlled industrial growth.
40. The _______ sector was least developed during 1950-1990.
Section C: One-Word Questions (40 Questions, 1 Mark Each)
1. Name the economy type adopted by India post-independence.
2. Who was the architect of Indian planning?
3. In which year was the Planning Commission established?
4. How many industries were reserved for the public sector in 1956?
5. Name the committee for small-scale industries.
6. Which sector was prioritized in the First Five-Year Plan?
7. Which crop benefited most from the Green Revolution?
8. What is the other name for the service sector?
9. What was the main objective of planning in India?
10. In which decade was the Green Revolution introduced?
11. Name the model used in the Second Five-Year Plan.
12. What was the primary motive of the public sector?
13. Which policy aimed to protect domestic industries?
14. Name the body that replaced the Planning Commission.
15. What was the focus of the Second Five-Year Plan?
16. Name the sector largest employer during 1950-1990.
17. What was the term for industrial licensing controls?
18. Which sector was dominant in atomic energy?
19. Name the Chairman of the Planning Commission.
20. What was the main drawback of the Green Revolution?
21. Which plan aimed at self-reliance?
22. Name the policy resolution of 1956.
23. What type of seeds were used in the Green Revolution?
24. Which sector includes agriculture?
25. Name the economy with both public and private sectors.
26. Which plan addressed agricultural backwardness?
27. What was the surplus created by the Green Revolution?
28. Name the sector least developed during 1950-1990.
29. What was the goal of land ceiling reforms?
30. Which plan was launched in 1951?
31. Name the sector focused in the Mahalanobis model.
32. What was the socialist pattern associated with?
33. Which policy regulated industrial growth?
34. Name the council set up in 1952.
35. What was the primary sector’s main activity?
36. Which revolution increased food production?
37. Name the plan that focused on heavy industries.
38. What was the main challenge of the 1950-1990 economy?
39. Which sector was the largest GDP contributor by 1990?
40. Name the body set up for planning in 1950.
Section D: Detailed Answer Questions (200 Questions, 4 Marks Each)
1. Explain the concept of a mixed economy as adopted by India post-independence.
2. Discuss the role of the Planning Commission in India’s economic development from 1950 to 1990.
3. What were the objectives of the First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956)?
4. Analyze the impact of the Green Revolution on Indian agriculture.
5. Describe the features of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956.
6. What were the key features of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961)?
7. Explain the significance of land reforms in India during 1950-1990.
8. How did the Green Revolution contribute to food security in India?
9. Discuss the role of the public sector in India’s economy during 1950-1990.
10. What were the challenges faced by the Indian economy during 1950-1990?
11. Explain the Mahalanobis model and its role in the Second Five-Year Plan.
12. Discuss the importance of import substitution in India’s economic policy.
13. What were the objectives of the Five-Year Plans in India?
14. Analyze the role of small-scale industries in India’s economic development.
15. Describe the socialist pattern of society as envisioned in Indian planning.
16. How did the First Five-Year Plan address agricultural backwardness?
17. Discuss the impact of industrial licensing on India’s economic growth.
18. What were the key components of land reforms in India?
19. Explain the role of the National Development Council in economic planning.
20. How did the public sector contribute to self-reliance in India?
21. Discuss the limitations of the Green Revolution in India.
22. What were the achievements of the Second Five-Year Plan?
23. Explain the concept of ‘licence raj’ and its impact on industries.
24. How did the Karve Committee contribute to small-scale industries?
25. Discuss the role of agriculture in India’s economy during 1950-1990.
26. What were the goals of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?
27. Analyze the impact of the Five-Year Plans on employment generation.
28. How did the Green Revolution affect regional disparities in India?
29. Discuss the role of the private sector in India’s mixed economy.
30. What were the key challenges in implementing land reforms in India?
31. Explain the significance of the First Five-Year Plan in infrastructure development.
32. How did the Second Five-Year Plan promote industrial growth?
33. Discuss the role of the public sector in reducing regional imbalances.
34. What were the environmental impacts of the Green Revolution?
35. Explain the concept of self-reliance in Indian economic planning.
36. How did the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 regulate private industries?
37. Discuss the role of irrigation in the success of the Green Revolution.
38. What were the social objectives of Indian economic planning?
39. Analyze the impact of the public sector on India’s industrial growth.
40. How did the Five-Year Plans address poverty alleviation?
41. Discuss the role of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds in the Green Revolution.
42. What were the key features of the Mahalanobis model?
43. Explain the importance of the primary sector in India’s economy during 1950-1990.
44. How did the Second Five-Year Plan differ from the First Five-Year Plan?
45. Discuss the challenges faced by small-scale industries during 1950-1990.
46. What was the role of the Planning Commission in resource allocation?
47. Analyze the impact of import substitution on India’s industrial sector.
48. How did land reforms aim to promote social justice in India?
49. Discuss the achievements of the Green Revolution in India.
50. What were the objectives of the Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966)?
51. Explain the role of the public sector in strategic industries.
52. How did the Green Revolution affect the rural economy in India?
53. Discuss the impact of industrial licensing on private sector growth.
54. What were the key features of the Mixed Economy model in India?
55. Analyze the role of the Five-Year Plans in achieving economic growth.
56. How did the Green Revolution contribute to marketable surplus?
57. Discuss the challenges of implementing a socialist pattern of society.
58. What was the role of the Karve Committee in village industries?
59. Explain the significance of the Second Five-Year Plan in heavy industries.
60. How did the First Five-Year Plan address unemployment?
61. Discuss the role of the public sector in employment generation.
62. What were the economic impacts of the Green Revolution?
63. Analyze the impact of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 on industrial growth.
64. How did land reforms affect agricultural productivity in India?
65. Discuss the role of the National Development Council in plan approval.
66. What were the key challenges of the Second Five-Year Plan?
67. Explain the concept of a planned economy in the Indian context.
68. How did the Green Revolution affect food grain production?
69. Discuss the role of the private sector in agriculture during 1950-1990.
70. What were the objectives of the Industrial Licensing Policy?
71. Analyze the impact of the Five-Year Plans on social justice.
72. How did the Green Revolution affect the use of chemical fertilizers?
73. Discuss the role of the public sector in infrastructure development.
74. What were the limitations of the Mahalanobis model?
75. Explain the significance of the primary sector in employment during 1950-1990.
76. How did the Second Five-Year Plan address foreign exchange shortages?
77. Discuss the role of small-scale industries in rural development.
78. What were the key features of the First Five-Year Plan?
79. Analyze the impact of the Green Revolution on agricultural exports.
80. How did the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 promote public sector dominance?
81. Discuss the role of land reforms in reducing rural inequalities.
82. What were the achievements of the Planning Commission during 1950-1990?
83. Explain the role of the Green Revolution in reducing food imports.
84. How did the Second Five-Year Plan contribute to self-reliance?
85. Discuss the challenges faced by the public sector during 1950-1990.
86. What were the social impacts of the Green Revolution?
87. Analyze the impact of the Five-Year Plans on balanced regional development.
88. How did the Industrial Licensing Policy affect industrial efficiency?
89. Discuss the role of the private sector in industrial growth during 1950-1990.
90. What were the key components of tenancy reforms in India?
91. Explain the significance of the Green Revolution in Punjab and Haryana.
92. How did the First Five-Year Plan promote community development?
93. Discuss the role of the public sector in reducing poverty.
94. What were the objectives of the Karve Committee?
95. Analyze the impact of the Mahalanobis model on industrial development.
96. How did the Green Revolution affect irrigation practices in India?
97. Discuss the role of the Planning Commission in policy formulation.
98. What were the key challenges of the Green Revolution in dry regions?
99. Explain the concept of import substitution in the Indian context.
100. How did the Second Five-Year Plan address infrastructure development?
101. Discuss the role of small-scale industries in employment generation.
102. What were the economic objectives of the Five-Year Plans?
103. Analyze the impact of land reforms on landless farmers.
104. How did the Green Revolution affect agricultural mechanization?
105. Discuss the role of the public sector in balanced economic growth.
106. What were the key features of the Third Five-Year Plan?
107. Explain the significance of the Green Revolution in achieving self-sufficiency.
108. How did the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 regulate industrial growth?
109. Discuss the challenges of implementing land ceiling reforms.
110. What were the achievements of the First Five-Year Plan?
111. Analyze the impact of the Green Revolution on rural employment.
112. How did the Second Five-Year Plan promote public sector enterprises?
113. Discuss the role of the private sector in small-scale industries.
114. What were the social objectives of the Planning Commission?
115. Explain the role of the Green Revolution in increasing agricultural productivity.
116. How did the Mahalanobis model prioritize capital goods industries?
117. Discuss the impact of the Five-Year Plans on rural development.
118. What were the key challenges of the Industrial Licensing Policy?
119. Analyze the role of the public sector in strategic sectors like atomic energy.
120. How did land reforms aim to abolish intermediaries?
121. Discuss the role of the Green Revolution in improving farmer incomes.
122. What were the objectives of the National Development Council?
123. Explain the significance of the Second Five-Year Plan in industrial policy.
124. How did the First Five-Year Plan address food shortages?
125. Discuss the role of small-scale industries in export promotion.
126. What were the environmental challenges of the Green Revolution?
127. Analyze the impact of the Five-Year Plans on economic self-reliance.
128. How did the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 categorize industries?
129. Discuss the role of the private sector in agricultural development.
130. What were the key components of the Green Revolution?
131. Explain the significance of the Planning Commission in economic coordination.
132. How did the Second Five-Year Plan address unemployment?
133. Discuss the role of the public sector in reducing economic inequalities.
134. What were the achievements of the Green Revolution in food production?
135. Analyze the impact of land reforms on agricultural efficiency.
136. How did the Mahalanobis model affect resource allocation?
137. Discuss the role of the Five-Year Plans in poverty reduction.
138. What were the key challenges of the First Five-Year Plan?
139. Explain the significance of the Green Revolution in reducing hunger.
140. How did the Industrial Licensing Policy affect private investment?
141. Discuss the role of the private sector in employment generation.
142. What were the social impacts of land reforms in India?
143. Analyze the impact of the Green Revolution on agricultural sustainability.
144. How did the Second Five-Year Plan promote heavy industries?
145. Discuss the role of the Planning Commission in plan implementation.
146. What were the objectives of the Green Revolution?
147. Explain the significance of the public sector in industrial development.
148. How did the First Five-Year Plan address rural development?
149. Discuss the role of small-scale industries in economic diversification.
150. What were the economic impacts of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?
151. Analyze the impact of the Green Revolution on crop diversification.
152. How did land reforms affect rural power structures?
153. Discuss the role of the Five-Year Plans in infrastructure growth.
154. What were the key challenges of the Mahalanobis model?
155. Explain the significance of the Green Revolution in export growth.
156. How did the Second Five-Year Plan address social justice?
157. Discuss the role of the public sector in technological development.
158. What were the achievements of the Planning Commission in economic planning?
159. Analyze the impact of the Green Revolution on agricultural innovation.
160. How did the Industrial Licensing Policy affect industrial competition?
161. Discuss the role of the private sector in rural industries.
162. What were the objectives of land ceiling reforms?
163. Explain the significance of the First Five-Year Plan in agricultural growth.
164. How did the Green Revolution affect agricultural labor?
165. Discuss the role of the Five-Year Plans in economic stability.
166. What were the key features of the Green Revolution in India?
167. Analyze the impact of the Mahalanobis model on economic growth.
168. How did the Second Five-Year Plan address industrial inefficiencies?
169. Discuss the role of the public sector in reducing unemployment.
170. What were the social challenges of the Green Revolution?
171. Explain the significance of the Planning Commission in sectoral development.
172. How did the First Five-Year Plan promote irrigation projects?
173. Discuss the role of small-scale industries in poverty alleviation.
174. What were the economic impacts of land reforms in India?
175. Analyze the impact of the Green Revolution on food prices.
176. How did the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 promote balanced growth?
177. Discuss the role of the private sector in economic modernization.
178. What were the objectives of the Second Five-Year Plan?
179. Explain the significance of the Green Revolution in rural transformation.
180. How did the Five-Year Plans address regional disparities?
181. Discuss the role of the public sector in social welfare.
182. What were the key challenges of the Green Revolution in India?
183. Analyze the impact of the Mahalanobis model on industrial policy.
184. How did the First Five-Year Plan address poverty?
185. Discuss the role of small-scale industries in industrial growth.
186. What were the social impacts of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?
187. Explain the significance of the Green Revolution in agricultural modernization.
188. How did the Second Five-Year Plan promote economic self-reliance?
189. Discuss the role of the Planning Commission in economic reforms.
190. What were the economic challenges of land reforms in India?
191. Analyze the impact of the Green Revolution on agricultural trade.
192. How did the Industrial Licensing Policy affect industrial innovation?
193. Discuss the role of the private sector in sectoral development.
194. What were the objectives of the Green Revolution in India?
195. Explain the significance of the First Five-Year Plan in economic planning.
196. How did the Five-Year Plans promote industrial development?
197. Discuss the role of the public sector in economic diversification.
198. What were the environmental impacts of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?
199. Analyze the impact of the Green Revolution on rural infrastructure.
200. How did the Second Five-Year Plan address economic challenges?
 | DIVINE DALE INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, SHERPUR
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HOME ASSIGNMENT
Class-XII SUBJECT-Hindi

निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए:-

1. लेखक ने 'अतीत के दबे पाँव' शीर्षक क्यों चुना होगा? क्या यह शीर्षक पाठ की
विषयवस्तु के साथ न्याय करता है?
2. मोहनजोदड़ो के खंडहरों को देखकर लेखक के मन में कौन-कौन से विचार और भावनाएँ
उत्पन्न हुईं?
3. मोहनजोदड़ो की नगर योजना की प्रमुख विशेषताओं का वर्णन कीजिए। यह तत्कालीन
सभ्यता के किस पहलू को दर्शाता है?
4. मोहनजोदड़ो की जल निकासी व्यवस्था आधुनिक शहरों की जल निकासी व्यवस्था से किस
प्रकार भिन्न थी और यह क्या संदेश देती है?
5. 'विशाल स्नानागार' का वर्णन कीजिए और बताइए कि पुरातत्वविदों ने इसके संभावित
उपयोग के बारे में क्या अनुमान लगाए हैं?
6. मोहनजोदड़ो में मिले अनाज के कोठार का क्या महत्व था?
7. मोहनजोदड़ो से प्राप्त विभिन्न कलाकृतियाँ (जैसे नर्तकी की मूर्ति, मिट्टी के
बर्तन) तत्कालीन लोगों की कला और संस्कृति के बारे में क्या जानकारी देती हैं?
8. मोहनजोदड़ो में सड़कों और गलियों का विन्यास कैसा था? क्या यह किसी विशेष
योजना के तहत बनाया गया था?
9. मोहनजोदड़ो के घरों की बनावट कैसी थी? क्या उनमें व्यक्तिगत गोपनीयता का ध्यान
रखा गया था?
10. लेखक ने मोहनजोदड़ो की तुलना वर्तमान के किन शहरों से की है और क्यों? इस तुलना
का क्या उद्देश्य है?
11. पाठ में लेखक ने सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता के लोगों के सौंदर्यबोध और रुचि के बारे में
क्या बताया है?
12. मोहनजोदड़ो में मिले कुंओं का क्या महत्व था? क्या वे व्यक्तिगत उपयोग के लिए
थे या सार्वजनिक ?
13. लेखक ने मोहनजोदड़ो के खंडहरों की चुप्पी को क्या कहकर संबोधित किया है? यह
चुप्पी क्या व्यक्त करती है?
कारण हैं?
15. 'अतीत के दबे पाँव' पाठ हमें मानव सभ्यता के विकास और पतन के बारे में क्या सीख
देता है?
16. लेखक ने इस यात्रा वृत्तांत में किस प्रकार की भाषा और शैली का प्रयोग किया है?
क्या यह पाठकों को अतीत से जोड़ने में सफल है?
17. मोहनजोदड़ो के खंडहरों में लेखक ने किन मानवीय गतिविधियों की कल्पना की होगी?
18. क्या मोहनजोदड़ो की सभ्यता को एक 'सुनियोजित' सभ्यता कहा जा सकता है? अपने
उत्तर के पक्ष में तर्क दीजिए।
19. लेखक ने पाठ में किन पर्यावरणीय चिंताओं को अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से उठाया है?
20. 'अतीत के दबे पाँव' पाठ पढ़ने के बाद आपके मन में मोहनजोदड़ो की सभ्यता की कैसी
छवि बनती है?
बारे में जानकारी मिलती है?
गद्यांश :यहाँ तांबे और पत्थर के औजार और हथियार भी मिले हैं। लेकिन लोहे का कोई
औजार नहीं मिला है। इससे अनुमान लगाया जाता है कि इस सभ्यता के लोग लोहे से परिचित नहीं
थे।

प्रश्नः1. मोहनजोदड़ो से किस धातु के औजार और हथियार मिले हैं?

2. यहाँ किस धातु का औजार नहीं मिला है?
3. लोहे के औजार न मिलने से इस सभ्यता के बारे में क्या अनुमान लगाया जाता है?
4. इस गद्यांश से तत्कालीन तकनीकी ज्ञान के बारे में क्या पता चलता है?
1. लेखक आनंद यादव का बचपन कैसा था? पाठ के आधार पर वर्णन कीजिए।
2. लेखक के पिता का स्वभाव कैसा था और उनका व्यवहार लेखक के प्रति कैसा था?
3. लेखक की पढ़ाई में क्या-क्या बाधाएँ आईं?
4. लेखक की माँ का चरित्र-चित्रण कीजिए। उन्होंने लेखक की पढ़ाई के लिए क्या
प्रयास किए?
5. दत्ताजी राव देसाई कौन थे और उन्होंने लेखक की पढ़ाई के लिए क्या भूमिका निभाई?
 6. लेखक के गाँव के स्कूल का वातावरण कैसा था?
7. लेखक को पाठशाला जाने के लिए किन मुश्किलों का सामना करना पड़ा?
8. लेखक को गणित से क्यों डर लगता था और किसने उस डर को दूर करने में मदद की?
9. लेखक को मराठी के अध्यापक एन. वी. सौंदलगेकर से क्या प्रेरणा मिली?
10. लेखक को कविता लिखने की प्रेरणा कैसे मिली?
11. लेखक और उनके सहपाठियों के बीच कैसा संबंध था?
12. लेखक के जीवन में वसंत पाटिल का क्या महत्व था?
13. लेखक ने खेतों में काम करते हुए पढ़ाई को कैसे जारी रखा?
14. लेखक के पिता ने उसे पाठशाला जाने से क्यों रोका था?
15. लेखक की पढ़ाई के लिए उसकी माँ ने दत्ताजी राव से क्या विनती की?
16. दत्ताजी राव ने लेखक के पिता को कैसे समझाया और पाठशाला भेजने के लिए राजी
किया?
17. लेखक के मन में पढ़ाई के प्रति रुचि कैसे जागृत हुई?
18. 'जूझ' पाठ के शीर्षक की सार्थकता पर विचार कीजिए।
19. यह पाठ हमें शिक्षा के महत्व के बारे में क्या संदेश देता है?
20. लेखक आनंद यादव ने अपने जीवन के इस संघर्षपूर्ण दौर को इतने प्रभावी ढंग से
क्यों प्रस्तुत किया है?
गद्यांश:-मोहनजोदड़ो में अनाज रखने के लिए एक बड़ा कोठार भी मिला है। यह कोठार
दुर्ग के पश्चिमी भाग में स्थित है। पुरातत्वविदों का मानना है कि यहाँ अनाज कर के रूप
में जमा किया जाता होगा।

प्रश्नः1. मोहनजोदड़ो में अनाज रखने के लिए क्या मिला है और यह कहाँ स्थित है?
2. पुरातत्वविदों का कोठार के बारे में क्या मानना है?
3. इस कोठार का तत्कालीन अर्थव्यवस्था में क्या महत्व रहा होगा?
4. इस गद्यांश से हमें सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता की किस व्यवस्था के बारे में जानकारी
मिलती है?
*आरोहभाग-2 परआधारितप्रश्न:-
1. कवि आलोक धन्वा ने 'पतंग' कविता में किस ऋतु का सुंदर चित्रण किया है? उस ऋतु की
कुछ विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
2. कविता में 'खरगोश की आँखों जैसा लाल सवेरा' कहकर कवि ने सुबह के दृश्य की किस
विशेषता को उजागर किया है?
3. 'शरद आया पुलों को लाँघते हुए' इस पंक्ति में 'पुलों' को लाँघने से कवि का क्या
तात्पर्य है? शरद ऋतु के आगमन का प्रकृति पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है?
4. बच्चे पतंग उड़ाते समय किन-किन शारीरिक गतिविधियों और भावनाओं से गुजरते हैं?
कविता के आधार पर वर्णन कीजिए।
5. 'दिशाओं को मृदंग की तरह बजाते हुए' इस पंक्ति का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए। बच्चों की
तुलना 'डालों की तरह लचीले वेग' से क्यों की गई है?
6. पतंग उड़ाते समय बच्चों के लिए छतों के किनारे खतरनाक क्यों हो जाते हैं? कविता
में इसका क्या परिणाम बताया गया है?
7. 'कभी-कभी वे इतने ऊपर उड़ जाते हैं कि उनसे / पतंग की डोरियाँ थामना मुश्किल हो
जाता है।' इन पंक्तियों में बच्चों की किस मनोदशा का वर्णन किया गया है?
8. छत से गिरने के बाद बचने वाले बच्चों की मनोदशा कैसी होती है? कविता के आधार पर
स्पष्ट कीजिए।
9. कविता में आए बिंबों (जैसे- खरगोश की आँखें, पुलों को लाँघता शरद, मृदंग की तरह
बजती दिशाएँ) का सौंदर्य स्पष्ट कीजिए। ये बिंब कविता को किस प्रकार अधिक प्रभावशाली
बनाते हैं?
10. 'पतंग' कविता बच्चों की किस दुनिया और उनकी किन इच्छाओं को चित्रित करती है? यह
कविता किस प्रकार बाल मनोविज्ञान को समझने में सहायक है?
पद्यांश:
बौछारें गईं भादों गया सवेरा हुआ खरगोश की आँखों जैसा लाल सवेरा शरद आया पुलों को
लाँघते हुए अपनी नई चमकीली साइकिल तेज़ चलाते हुए घंटी बजाते हुए ज़ोर-ज़ोर से चमकीले
इशारों से बुलाते हुए, और आकाश को इतना मुलायम बनाते हुए कि पतंग ऊपर उठ सके।
प्रश्नः1. कविता की इन पंक्तियों में किस ऋतु का वर्णन किया गया है और उसकी क्या
विशेषता बताई गई है?
2. 'खरगोश की आँखों जैसा लाल सवेरा' से क्या तात्पर्य है?
3. 'शरद आया पुलों को लाँघते हुए' में 'पुलों' को लाँघने से कवि का क्या आशय है?
4. शरद ऋतु किस प्रकार आकाश को पतंग उड़ाने के लिए अनुकूल बनाती है?
 निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए:-
1. कवि ने कविता को फूलों के खिलने के समान क्यों बताया है? फूल और कविता के खिलने
में क्या समानता है?
2- 'बिना मुरझाए महकने के माने' इस पंक्ति का आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए। कविता किस प्रकार
शाश्वत बनी रहती है?
3-. कविता की तुलना बच्चों के खेल से क्यों की गई है? बच्चों के खेल और कविता में
कौन-कौन सी समानताएँ हैं?
4-. 'शब्दों का यह खेल' से कवि का क्या तात्पर्य है? कविता में शब्दों की भूमिका को
स्पष्ट कीजिए।
5-. 'सीमाओं के बंधन से परे' कहकर कवि कविता की किस शक्ति की ओर संकेत करते हैं?
6- कविता बच्चों के लिए 'कभी खिलौना है, कभी निशाना है' इस कथन को विस्तार से
समझाइए। यह कविता के किस बहुआयामी स्वरूप को दर्शाती है।
.7 'कविता के बहाने' कविता का मूल भाव क्या है? यह कविता कविता की किस अपार और शाश्वत
क्षमता को उजागर करती है?
8‘पर्यावरण दिवस’ पर रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए।

| DIVINE DALE INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, SHERPUR

Distt.Gurugram (HR) Mob: 9416475628, 8053461143
HOME ASSIGNMENT
Class-XII SUBJECT-Geography

Human Geography -Nature and Scope

Section A: Multiple Choice Questions
1. Who defined Human Geography as the "synthetic study of the relationship between human societies and
earth’s surface"?
(a) Ellen C. Semple
(b) Vidal de la Blache
(c) Ratzel
(d) Griffith Taylor
2. The concept of 'Possibilism' was primarily advocated by:
(a) German geographers
(b) American geographers
(c) French geographers
(d) British geographers
3. "Man is a passive agent, largely dictated by the environment." This statement best describes:
(a) Possibilism
(b) Neo-determinism
(c) Environmental Determinism
(d) Humanism
4. Which of the following is NOT a sub-field of Economic Geography?
(a) Geography of Marketing
(b) Geography of Tourism
(c) Medical Geography
(d) Geography of International Trade
5. The approach that emphasizes description of regions and their unique characteristics is:
(a) Nomothetic
(b) Idiographic
(c) Systematic
(d) Behavioural
6. Who introduced the concept of 'Neo-determinism' or 'Stop and Go Determinism'?
(a) Ratzel
(b) Vidal de la Blache
(c) Griffith Taylor
(d) Ellen C. Semple
7. The statement "Human geography is the study of the changing relationship between the unresting man and
the unstable earth" was given by:
(a) Ratzel
(b) Paul Vidal de la Blache
(c) Ellen C. Semple
(d) Hartshorne
8. Which school of thought in human geography laid great emphasis on human agency?
(a) Environmental Determinism
(b) Possibilism
(c) Behavioural School
(d) Radical School
9. The 'Humanization of Nature' implies:
(a) Nature controlling human activities
(b) Humans adapting completely to nature
(c) Humans modifying nature using technology
(d) Nature and humans existing in complete separation
10. Which of the following is an example of the interaction between humans and the physical environment?
(a) Formation of mountains
(b) Development of agriculture
(c) Occurrence of earthquakes
(d) Rotation of the Earth
11. The core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand:
(a) Only the physical features of the earth
(b) Only human societies and their cultures
(c) The earth as the home of human beings and to study all those elements which have sustained them
(d) The political systems of different countries
12. 'Livelihood dependent on nature' is a characteristic of which stage of human-environment interaction?
(a) State of absolute freedom (Possibilism)
(b) State of necessity (Environmental Determinism)
(c) State of Neo-determinism
(d) State of advanced technology
13. Which period in the history of human geography saw the emergence of quantitative revolution?
(a) Early colonial period
(b) Later colonial period
(c) 1930s through the inter-War period
(d) Late 1950s to the late 1960s
14. Behavioural school of thought in human geography primarily focused on:
(a) Social inequalities
(b) Lived experience and perception of space by social categories
(c) Universal theories of human behaviour
(d) Marxist theories
15. Which of the following is a sister discipline to Political Geography?
(a) Sociology
 (b) Psephology
(c) Anthropology
(d) Economics
16. The concept "Nature provides opportunities and man makes use of these and slowly nature gets humanized
and starts bearing the imprints of human endeavour" relates to:
(a) Environmental Determinism
(b) Possibilism
(c) Neo-determinism
(d) Naturalization of Humans
17. The study of 'habitats' falls under which broad aspect of human geography?
(a) Cultural features
(b) Economic activities
(c) Settlements
(d) Political aspects
18. The term 'areal differentiation' was emphasized during which period of human geography's development?
(a) Early colonial period
(b) 1930s through the inter-War period
(c) 1970s
(d) 1990s
19. Which of the following best describes the 'Nature' of Human Geography?
(a) It is purely a physical science.
(b) It studies the inter-relationship between the physical environment and socio-cultural environment.
(c) It focuses solely on economic activities.
(d) It is concerned only with mapping.
20. The "naturalization of humans" means:
(a) Humans conquering nature
(b) Humans living in harmony with and adapting to the dictates of nature
(c) Humans destroying nature for development
(d) Nature becoming artificial
21. Which approach in geography seeks to make universal laws?
(a) Idiographic
(b) Regional
(c) Nomothetic
(d) Behavioural
22. The subject matter of human geography attempts to answer the 'where' and 'why' of:
(a) Only physical phenomena
(b) Only natural resource distribution
(c) Human phenomena on the earth's surface
(d) Only geological formations
23. The concept of 'cultural landscape' is most closely associated with:
(a) Environmental Determinism
(b) Possibilism
(c) Neo-determinism
(d) Quantitative revolution
24. Geography of Leisure is a sub-field of:
(a) Social Geography
(b) Economic Geography
(c) Political Geography
(d) Population Geography
25. The Radical school of thought, influenced by Marxist theories, mainly focused on:
(a) Perception of space
(b) Man-environment relationship
(c) Basic cause of poverty, deprivation, and social inequality
(d) Regional synthesis
26. "Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society." This implies:
(a) Technology is independent of cultural development.
(b) Societies with low technology have high cultural development.
 (c) Higher levels of technology allow humans to overcome environmental constraints more easily.
(d) Culture has no relation to technological advancement.
27. The study of the relationship between humans and their environment, as approached by different schools
of thought, highlights the _____ nature of human geography.
(a) static
(b) dynamic and evolving
(c) purely physical
(d) strictly economic
28. Which of these is an example of 'humanizing nature'?
(a) A tribal community worshipping a sacred grove.
(b) Building a dam across a river for irrigation.
(c) Experiencing a heatwave in a desert.
(d) Observing the migration patterns of birds.
29. The debate between 'determinism' and 'possibilism' is a key aspect of understanding the:
(a) Scope of physical geography
(b) Nature of human-environment interaction
(c) Methods of cartography
(d) Classification of climates
30. The geographical approach that focuses on the uniqueness of a region is:
(a) Systematic approach
(b) Regional approach
(c) Quantitative approach
(d) Behavioural approach
Section B: Assertion & Reason
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason1 (R).
Mark the correct choice.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
31. Assertion (A): Human geography is a highly interdisciplinary science.
Reason (R): It studies human phenomena which are closely related to various social sciences like
sociology, economics, and political science.
32. Assertion (A): Environmental determinism suggests that human beings are passive agents.
Reason (R): Possibilism argues that the physical environment provides opportunities, and humans choose
from these possibilities.
33. Assertion (A): Neo-determinism offers a middle path between environmental determinism and
possibilism.
Reason (R): It emphasizes that humans can conquer nature without any limitations or consequences.
34. Assertion (A): The nature of human geography is dynamic.
Reason (R): The relationship between humans and their environment has changed over time with
technological advancements.
35. Assertion (A): Early colonial period focused on exploration and description of new territories.
Reason (R): This was primarily to aid imperial powers in understanding and controlling their colonies.
36. Assertion (A): Technology plays a crucial role in the interaction between humans and the environment.
Reason (R): With advanced technology, humans have become completely independent of the physical
environment.
37. Assertion (A): The quantitative revolution in geography was criticized for its lack of focus on humanistic
aspects.
Reason (R): This led to the emergence of behavioural, humanistic, and radical schools of thought.
38. Assertion (A): Vidal de la Blache was a strong proponent of environmental determinism.
Reason (R): He emphasized the concept of 'pays' (small regions) and the choices people make.
39. Assertion (A): The scope of human geography is very wide.
Reason (R): It encompasses the study of human populations, settlements, economic activities, and cultural
patterns in relation to their environment.
40. Assertion (A): Naturalization of humans occurs when technology levels are very low.
Reason (R): In such conditions, humans are forced to adapt to the dictates of nature.
Section C: Very Short Answer Questions
 41. Define Human Geography in the words of Ratzel.
42. What is meant by 'Possibilism'?
43. Name any two sub-fields of Social Geography.
44. What do you understand by the 'dualism' of nomothetic and idiographic approaches in geography?
45. Mention two characteristics of Environmental Determinism.
46. What is the core idea of Neo-determinism?
47. Give two examples of how technology has helped humans overcome the constraints imposed by nature.
48. What was the main thrust of geographical studies during the later colonial period?
49. List two main components of the socio-cultural environment.
50. How does human geography establish a relationship with history?
51. What does 'humanization of nature' refer to?
52. Name the three schools of thought that emerged in the 1970s as a reaction to the quantitative revolution.
53. State two examples of 'naturalization of humans'.
54. What is the basic difference between the systematic and regional approaches in geography?
55. Identify two key aspects studied under the scope of Political Geography.
Section D: Short Answer Questions
56. Explain the concept of 'Environmental Determinism' with suitable examples.
57. Differentiate between Environmental Determinism and Possibilism. (3 points)
58. "Human beings are active agents who modify their environment." Justify this statement with examples.
59. Describe the contribution of Ellen C. Semple to the field of Human Geography.
60. How is Human Geography an interdisciplinary subject? Explain with examples of its linkage with other
social sciences.
61. Explain the concept of 'Neo-determinism' as proposed by Griffith Taylor.
62. Briefly describe the main features of human geography during the period 1930s through the inter-War
period.
63. "The nature of human geography is dynamic, not static." Elaborate on this statement.
64. What are the broad stages and thrust of Human Geography through the corridors of time? (List any three
stages and their thrust).
65. Explain the scope of Human Geography by outlining three of its major fields.
66. How does technology mediate the relationship between human beings and the environment?
67. Discuss the relevance of the Humanistic school of thought in Human Geography.
68. "Man and environment share a reciprocal relationship." Explain this statement in the context of Human
Geography.
69. What is meant by ‘areal differentiation’? Which period in the development of human geography
emphasized this?
70. Why did the quantitative revolution face criticism, leading to the development of new schools of thought
in human geography?
Section E: Long Answer Questions
71. Discuss the nature and scope of Human Geography in detail.
72. Explain the different approaches to studying Human Geography, focusing on Environmental Determinism,
Possibilism, and Neo-determinism. Provide relevant examples for each.
73. Trace the historical development of Human Geography through different periods, highlighting the main
focus and approaches in each period.
74. "Human Geography is concerned with the study of the interrelationship between the physical environment
and the socio-cultural environment created by human beings through mutual interaction with each other." 2
Elaborate on this statement.
75. Describe the major fields and sub-fields of Human Geography and explain their links with other
disciplines in social sciences.
76. Critically evaluate the concept of Environmental Determinism. Why was it criticized, and what alternative
perspectives emerged?
77. Explain the concept of "Humanization of Nature" and "Naturalization of Humans" with suitable examples.
How do these concepts reflect different stages of human development?
78. "The dichotomies and dualisms that existed in geography are not contradictory but complementary."
Justify this statement with reference to concepts studied in human geography.
Section F: Source-Based Questions
Source 1:
"Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important
what human beings produce and create but it is extremely important3 ‘with the help of what tools and
techniques do they produce and create’. Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society.
Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed4 better understanding of natural laws. For
example, the understanding of concepts of friction and heat helped us discover fire.5 Similarly, understanding
of the secrets of DNA and genetics enabled us to conquer many diseases. We use the laws of aerodynamics to
develop faster planes. You can see that knowledge about Nature is extremely important to develop technology
and technology loosens the shackles6 of environment on human beings."7 (Adapted from NCERT)
Questions based on Source 1:
79. What is the primary factor that enables human beings to interact with their physical environment
according to the passage? (1 Mark)
80. How does technology indicate the level of cultural development of a society? (2 Marks)
81. Explain with an example from the passage how understanding natural laws helps in developing
technology. (2 Marks)
Source 2:
"A geographer, Griffith Taylor introduced another concept which reflects a middle path (Madhyam
Marg) between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism.8 He termed it as Neodeterminism
or stop and go determinism. Those of you who live in cities and those who have visited a city might have seen
that traffic is regulated by lights on the cross-roads. Red light means ‘stop’, amber light provides a gap between
red and green lights ‘to get set’ and green light means9 ‘go’. The concept shows that neither is there a situation
of absolute necessity (environmental determinism) nor is there a condition of absolute freedom (possibilism). It
means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying10 it." (Adapted from NCERT)
Questions based on Source 2:
82. What is the 'middle path' concept introduced by Griffith Taylor called? (1 Mark)
83. Explain the analogy of traffic lights used to describe Neo-determinism. (2 Marks)
84. What does the statement "human beings can conquer nature by obeying it" imply in the context of
Neo-determinism? (2 Marks)
Source 3:
"Paul Vidal de la Blache, a prominent French geographer, advocated the perspective of possibilism. He
emphasized that nature provides a range of possibilities, and human beings, through their culture, choices, and
technological abilities, select from these possibilities to shape their way of life and create distinct cultural
landscapes. He argued against the simplistic view that environment dictates human action, instead focusing on
the dynamic interplay where humans actively participate in creating their own worlds within the framework set
by nature."
Questions based on Source 3:
85. What perspective did Paul Vidal de la Blache advocate? (1 Mark)
86. According to Vidal de la Blache, what role does nature play in human life? (2 Marks)
87. How do human beings shape their way of life according to this perspective? (2 Marks)

Additional Higher Order Thinking/Application Based Questions

88. How can the study of Human Geography help in understanding and solving contemporary global issues
like climate change and resource scarcity?
89. Imagine a newly discovered, isolated human community with very basic technology. Which of the major
approaches (Determinism, Possibilism, Neo-determinism) would best describe their relationship with their
environment initially? Justify.
90. "The lines of inquiry in Human Geography are ever-evolving." Do you agree? Give reasons.
91. How does the concept of 'region' help in the study of human geography?
92. Explain the difference between ‘space’ and ‘place’ from a human geography perspective.
93. Discuss the ethical considerations involved when geographers study different cultures and their
relationship with the environment.
94. Provide examples of how cultural values can influence human perception and use of the environment.
95. Why is it important for human geographers to understand historical processes?
96. How has globalization impacted the nature and scope of Human Geography?
97. "Every human activity has a spatial dimension." Elaborate on this statement with examples.
98. Explain how studying the sub-fields of human geography like population geography or settlement
geography contributes to overall regional planning and development.
99. Can the principles of 'Stop and Go Determinism' be applied to sustainable development goals? Explain
how.
100. "The core of Human Geography lies in understanding the 'dialogue' between humans and their
environment." Discuss this statement, highlighting the changing nature of this dialogue over time.
 The world Population Distribution Density and Growth
1. Which continent has the highest population density?
(a) Africa (b) Asia (c) Europe (d) North America

2. The term 'population distribution' refers to:

(a) The number of people living in a particular area.
(b) The way people are spaced over the earth’s surface.
(c) The change in population over time.
(d) The number of live births per thousand persons.

3. Which of the following is a sparsely populated region of the world?

(a) East Asia (b) South Asia
(c) The Amazon Basin (d) North-West Europe

4. The number of people living per unit area of land is known as:
(a) Population growth (b) Population distribution
(c) Population density (d) Population composition

5. Which of the following is an example of a push factor for migration?

(a) Better job opportunities (b) Political turmoil
(c) Pleasant climate (d) Better educational facilities

6. The difference between birth rate and death rate is called:

(a) Actual growth of population (b) Natural growth of population (c) Negative
growth of population (d) Positive growth of population

7. In which stage of the Demographic Transition Theory is the population growth typically explosive?
(a) Stage 1 (b) Stage 2 (c) Stage 3 (d) Stage 4

8. Which of the following is NOT a geographical factor influencing population distribution?

(a) Availability of water (b) Landforms
(c) Climate (d) Industrialization

9. The main reason for high population density in river valleys is:
(a) Availability of minerals (b) Fertile soil and water for agriculture (c) Pleasant
climate (d) Industrial development

10. About 90% of the world's population lives in about what percentage of its land area?
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 50%

11. Which of the following Asian countries has one of the highest population densities in the world?
(a) China (b) India (c) Bangladesh (d) Japan

12. The term "Megalopolis" was coined by:

(a) Jean Gottman (b) Griffith Taylor (c) Ratzel (d) Vidal de la Blache

13. What is the formula for calculating arithmetic population density?

(a) Total Population / Total Agricultural Land Area
(b) Total Population / Total Land Area
(c) Total Agricultural Population / Total Agricultural Land Area
(d) Total Population / Total Habitable Land Area

14. The stage of Demographic Transition characterized by low birth rates and low death rates is:
(a) Stage 1 (b) Stage 2 (c) Stage 3 (d) Stage 4/5

15. Which of the following is an economic factor influencing population distribution?

(a) Soil fertility (b) Religious places
 (c) Availability of minerals (d) Government policies

16. A country is said to have negative population growth when:

(a) Birth rate is higher than death rate
(b) Death rate is higher than birth rate, or people migrate out
(c) Birth rate and death rate are equal
(d) People migrate into the country in large numbers

17. "Ecumene" refers to:

(a) Uninhabited areas of the world
(b) Densely populated areas of the world
(c) Permanently inhabited areas of the world
(d) Areas suitable for future habitation

18. The period of population explosion in the world occurred mainly after the:
(a) Agricultural Revolution
(b) Industrial Revolution
(c) Information Revolution
(d) Scientific Revolution of the 17th Century

19. Which component of population change involves movement of people from one place to another?
(a) Fertility (b) Mortality (c) Migration (d) Natural Growth

20. The number of live births in a year per thousand of population is termed as:
(a) Crude Death Rate (CDR) (b) Crude Birth Rate (CBR)
(c) Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) (d) Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

21. Which of these regions is NOT one of the world's major population clusters?
(a) South Asia (b) East Asia
(c) Sub-Saharan Africa (as a single dense cluster like East Asia)
(d) Western Europe

22. 'Population doubling time' refers to:

(a) The time taken for birth rates to double.
(b) The time taken for the existing population to double at its current growth rate.
(c) The time taken for death rates to halve.
(d) The time taken for migration to double.

23. The most populous country in the world is:

(a) USA (b) India (c) China (d) Indonesia
(Note: This can change; as of mid-2023, India surpassed China. For exams, usually, the most
established fact or NCERT data is considered. Assuming latest data)

24. What is the primary characteristic of Stage 1 of the Demographic Transition Theory?
(a) High birth rate, low death rate (b) Low birth rate, low death rate
(c) High birth rate, high death rate (d) Low birth rate, high death rate

25. An area having less than 1 person per sq. km is considered:

(a) Densely populated (b) Moderately populated
(c) Sparsely populated (d) Uninhabited

26. Which type of migration involves movement within a country?

(a) International migration (b) Internal migration
(c) External migration (d) Forced migration

27. The main social/cultural factor attracting people to an area is:

 (a) Job opportunities (b) Places of religious or cultural significance (c) Availability of water
(d) Government stability

28. The continent with the highest population growth rate is generally:
(a) Asia (b) Africa (c) Europe (d) South America

29. The concept of 'population momentum' helps to explain:

(a) Why population continues to grow even after fertility rates decline.
(b) Why migration rates suddenly increase.
(c) Why death rates fall rapidly.
(d) Why population density varies.

30. Which one of the following is a pull factor for migration?

(a) Natural disasters (b) Unemployment
(c) Political stability and peace (d) Epidemics

Section B: Assertion & Reason

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A
and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.
31. Assertion (A): River valleys are among the most densely populated areas of the world. Reason (R):
River valleys offer fertile soils, fresh water for irrigation, and a flat terrain suitable for agriculture and
settlement.

32. Assertion (A): The population growth in Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Theory is very high.
Reason (R): In Stage 2, both birth rates and death rates decline rapidly.

33. Assertion (A): Migration is a key component of population change. Reason (R): Migration affects both
the area of departure and the area of arrival by changing the demographic structure.

34. Assertion (A): High latitude regions like the Arctic and Antarctic are sparsely populated. Reason (R):
These regions have extremely cold climates and limited resources, making human survival difficult.

35. Assertion (A): Urban areas generally have higher population densities than rural areas. Reason (R):
Urban areas offer better employment opportunities, educational and health facilities, which attract
people.

36. Assertion (A): Crude Birth Rate (CBR) is a refined measure of fertility. Reason (R): CBR does not
take into account the age and sex structure of the population.

37. Assertion (A): The Demographic Transition Theory can be used to describe and predict the future
population of any country. Reason (R): The theory is based on the historical population trends of
developed Western European countries and may not apply universally.

38. Assertion (A): Availability of minerals leads to dense population in mining areas. Reason (R): Mining
and industrial activities provide job opportunities, attracting skilled and semi-skilled workers.

39. Assertion (A): Population density is a better measure of population distribution than absolute
population. Reason (R): Population density relates population to the size of the area, providing a
measure of concentration.

40. Assertion (A): Countries in Stage 4 and 5 of Demographic Transition may experience negative
population growth. Reason (R): In these stages, birth rates can fall below death rates, or emigration
might exceed immigration.

Section C: Very Short Answer Questions

41. Define 'population density'.
42. Name the three components of population change.
 43. What is meant by 'natural growth of population'?
44. Give two examples of geographical factors influencing population distribution.
45. What are 'push factors' of migration? Give one example.
46. List any two characteristics of Stage 1 of the Demographic Transition Theory.
47. What is the difference between 'place of origin' and 'place of destination' in migration?
48. Name two regions in the world with high population density.
49. Define Crude Birth Rate (CBR).
50. What is meant by 'population doubling time'?
51. Mention two economic factors affecting population distribution.
52. What are 'pull factors' of migration? Give one example.
53. Name two regions in the world with sparse population.
54. Define Crude Death Rate (CDR).
55. What is 'actual growth of population'?
Section D: Short Answer Questions
56. Explain any three geographical factors that influence the distribution of population in the world.
57. Differentiate between 'push factors' and 'pull factors' of migration with examples.
58. Describe the characteristics of population in the second stage of Demographic Transition. Why is
population growth high in this stage?
59. What are the economic consequences (any three) of migration?
60. "Asia has many places where people are few and few places where people are very many." Explain this
statement with examples.
61. How do social and cultural factors influence population distribution? Explain with three points.
62. What are the three main sources of population data? Briefly describe any one.
63. Explain the concept of 'population growth'. What are its two types: positive and negative growth?
64. Why are plains generally more densely populated than mountain regions? Give three reasons.
65. Describe any three measures that can be adopted for population control.
66. Explain the relationship between population density and the level of economic development.
67. What is the significance of 'age-sex structure' in understanding population dynamics?
68. Describe the trends in world population growth from the agricultural revolution to the present.
69. How does climate act as a major factor in influencing population distribution? Explain with examples.
70. What are the social consequences (any three) of migration?
Section E: Long Answer Questions
71. Discuss the geographical, economic, and social & cultural factors that influence the distribution of
population in the world with suitable examples.
72. Explain the Demographic Transition Theory with its different stages. Illustrate with a diagram.
73. What is migration? Describe the different types of migration and explain the push and pull factors
responsible for it.
74. Describe the patterns of population distribution in the world. Identify and explain the reasons for high
and low population density in different regions.
75. "Population growth is a double-edged sword." Elaborate on the positive and negative impacts of
population growth on the resources and development of a region.
76. What are the components of population change? Explain how each component affects the population of
a region.
77. Discuss the major trends in world population growth since the Industrial Revolution. What are the
projections for the future?
78. Explain how factors like urbanization, industrialization, and government policies influence population
distribution and density.
Section F: Source-Based Questions
Source 1: "The Demographic Transition Model describes population change over time. It is based on an
interpretation begun in 1929 by the American demographer Warren Thompson, of the observed changes, or
transitions, in birth and death rates in industrialized societies over the past two hundred years or so. Most
developed countries are beyond Stage 3 of the model; the vast majority of developing countries are in Stage 2
or Stage 3. The model was based on the experience of European countries, especially England and Wales."
Questions based on Source 1: 79. Who first interpreted the changes in birth and death rates that led to
the Demographic Transition Model? (1 Mark) 80. Which types of countries are generally in Stage 2 or Stage 3
of this model? (1 Mark) 81. On the experience of which countries was the Demographic Transition Model
primarily based? (1 Mark) 82. Why might the universal applicability of this model be questioned? (2 Marks)
 Source 2: "Population density is usually measured in persons per sq. km. The densely populated parts
of the world include East Asia (China, Japan, Korea), South Asia (India, Pakistan, Bangladesh), North-Western
Europe, and the North-Eastern USA. Medium density areas include Southern Europe, parts of Russia, and
central USA. Low-density areas are often characterized by harsh physical environments like hot deserts,
extremely cold polar regions, high mountains, and dense equatorial forests."
Questions based on Source 2: 83. How is population density usually measured? (1 Mark) 84. Name
two regions of the world that are densely populated as per the passage. (1 Mark) 85. What kind of physical
environments often characterize low-density population areas? Give two examples from the passage. (2 Marks)
86. Why do you think North-Eastern USA is densely populated? (Relate to economic factors not explicitly in
the passage but implied by such regions). (1 Mark)
Section G: Map-Based Questions
(Assume a standard outline map of the World is provided in the exam for these questions.)
87. On the given outline map of the World, identify and mark:
(a) One densely populated region in Asia.
(b) One sparsely populated region in South America.

88. On the outline map of the World, shade and label:

(a) A country in Africa experiencing a high rate of population growth (typically in Stage 2 or early
Stage 3 of DTT).
(b) A country in Europe experiencing very low or negative population growth (typically in Stage 4 or 5
of DTT).

89. Locate and label the following on the given outline map of the World:
(a) The most populous country in the world.
(b) The region known as the "Ruhr industrial complex" (a densely populated area due to economic
factors).

90. On an outline map of the World, show two major areas of international out-migration and two major
areas of international in-migration. Use different symbols/shading.

91. Identify and label on the world map:

(a) The Atacama Desert (a sparsely populated region due to aridity).
(b) The Ganges River Delta (a densely populated region due to fertile plains).

Additional Higher Order Thinking/Application Based Questions

92. "The world is currently facing a 'greying population' in many developed countries." What does this
mean and what are its socio-economic implications?
93. How can government policies influence population distribution and growth within a country? Give
examples.
94. Discuss the relationship between population, resources, and development. Is a large population always a
hindrance to development?
95. "Migration can lead to both demographic dividends and social challenges in the destination areas."
Explain this statement.
96. How has technology influenced world population distribution and growth patterns over time?
97. Analyze the reasons for varying population densities found within a single large country like India or
China.
98. If a country has a very young population (large proportion of children), what are the challenges and
opportunities it might face?
99. Explain how war and political instability can be powerful 'push factors' for migration and lead to
significant demographic changes.
100. Critically examine the role of women's education and empowerment in influencing fertility rates
and population growth.

World Development
I. MCQs

1. Who introduced the concept of Human Development?

a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Amartya Sen
c) Mahbub ul Haq
d) Nelson Mandela

2. Which of the following is not a component of the Human Development Index (HDI)?
a) Life expectancy
b) Per capita income
c) Literacy rate
d) Industrial output

3. Which of the following is not a pillar of human development?

a) Equity
b) Sustainability
c) Productivity
d) Trade

4. Which country introduced the concept of Gross National Happiness (GNH)?

a) Bhutan
b) India
c) Sri Lanka
d) Japan

5. Which of the following is not considered a dimension of HDI by UNDP?

a) Health
b) Education
c) Political freedom
d) Income

Application-Based MCQs

6. If a region has high income but poor literacy and life expectancy, its HDI would be:
a) High
b) Moderate
c) Low
d) Cannot be determined

7. The term 'empowerment' in human development implies:

a) Military strength
b) Economic independence
c) Increased participation in decision-making
d) Technological development

8. Which state in India ranks highest in terms of Human Development Index? (based on past trends)
a) Bihar
b) Kerala
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Odisha

9. Which of the following best reflects the 'productivity' pillar of human development?
a) Number of factories
b) Skilled human resource development
c) GDP growth
d) Exports

10. Sustainability in human development ensures:

a) Fast industrial growth
b) Consumption of all natural resources
c) Use of resources for future generations
 d) Increased foreign investment
11.Which of the following best describes 'development' according to the chapter? a) An increase in size
or quantity b) A positive and qualitative change
c) A constant state of economic prosperity d) Growth in national income only
12.Which one of the following is NOT a pillar of human development?
a) Equity b) Sustainability c) Productivity d) Inequality
13.The Human Development Index (HDI) primarily ranks countries based on their performance in key
areas of______________
a) Industrial output, agricultural production, and exports
b) Health, education, and access to resources
c) Military strength, political stability, and technological advancement
d) Population density, urbanization, and transport infrastructure
14.Which of the following is an indicator of 'access to resources' in the HDI?
a) Life expectancy at birth b) Adult literacy rate
c) Gross National Income per capita d) Gross Enrolment Ratio

15.'Equity' as a pillar of human development refers to

a) Equal access to opportunities for everyone
b) Ensuring resources are available for future generations
c) Increasing human labor productivity
d) Empowering people to make their own choices

16.The 'Capability Approach' to human development is associated with

a) Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq b) International Labour Organization (ILO)
c) Prof. Amartya Sen d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

17.Which approach to human development views humans as passive recipients of development

activities?
a) Income Approach b) Welfare Approach
c) Basic Needs Approach d) Capability Approach

18.Which South Asian country has consistently ranked high in HDI compared to its economic size?
a) India b) Pakistan c) Sri Lanka d) Bangladesh

19."Growth is quantitative and value-neutral, while development is qualitative and value-positive." This
statement implies
a) Growth and development are the same.
b) Growth can be negative, but development is always positive.
c) Development is solely about economic increase.
d) Growth focuses only on social aspects.

20.Which of the following is an example of 'productivity' as a pillar of human development?

a) Conserving forests for future generations
b) Ensuring all children attend school regardless of gender
c) Investing in health and education to improve workforce skills
d) Giving people the power to make political choices

21.The 'Basic Needs Approach' to human development was initially proposed by: a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
c) International Labour Organization d) World Health Organization (WHO)

22.Which of these is a dimension of the Human Poverty Index (HPI)?

a) Probability at birth of not surviving to age 40
b) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita
c) Number of internet users
d) Foreign Direct Investment

23.The term 'empowerment' as a pillar of human development means.

 a) Increasing national income
b) Providing people with the power to make choices
c) Focusing on the welfare of the elderly
d) Distributing resources equally among all states

24.Which country is known for proclaiming 'Gross National Happiness' as a measure of progress?
a) Nepal b) Bhutan c) Switzerland d) Finland

25.A high level of human development is often characterized by:

a) High investment in the social sector b) Significant political instability c) Low literacy
rates d) Limited access to healthcare

26.Which of the following factors is a major reason for low levels of human development in some
countries?
a) High levels of social and political stability
b) Equitable distribution of resources
c) Frequent civil wars and social unrest
d) Strong focus on education and health by the government

27.The Human Development Report is published annually by:

a) UNICEF b) UNESCO c) UNDP d) WHO

28.What does 'sustainability' in the context of human development primarily emphasize?

a) Rapid economic growth at all costs
b) Continuity in the availability of opportunities for future generations
c) Maximizing current resource consumption
d) Focusing only on present needs

29.Which of the following is a health indicator used in HDI?

a) Mean years of schooling b) Life expectancy at birth
c) Infant mortality rate d) Maternal mortality rate

30.The income approach to human development links development to:

a) Social justice b) Human capabilities c) Income
levels d) Basic needs fulfillment

31.What is the range of scores for the Human Development Index?

a) 0 to 100 b) -1 to +1 c) 0 to 1 d) 1 to 10

32."Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education, and access to resources is key to
enlarging human choices." This statement aligns with which approach?
a) Income Approach b) Welfare Approach
c) Capability Approach d) Basic Needs Approach

33.Countries with very high human development typically have an HDI score above:
a) 0.500 b) 0.600 c) 0.700 d) 0.800

34.Which pillar of human development is concerned with ensuring that all human beings have equal
access to opportunities, irrespective of their gender, race, income, or caste?
a) Sustainability b) Productivity c) Empowerment d) Equity

35.The oldest approach to human development is the:

a) Welfare approach b) Income approach
c) Basic needs approach d) Capability approach

36.Which of the following is NOT one of the six basic needs identified by the ILO in the Basic Needs
Approach?
 a) Health b) Education c) Employment d) Sanitation

37.The Human Poverty Index (HPI) measures:

a) The number of people living below the poverty line b) The shortfall in
human development
c) The income inequality in a country
d) The lack of political freedom

38.Kerala's high HDI in India, despite not being the richest state, is attributed to its performance in:
a) Industrial development b) Agricultural output c) Literacy and
healthcare d) Infrastructure development

39.Development that "enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives" is a definition given by:
a) Amartya Sen b) The World Bank
c) Mahbub-ul-Haq d) The International Labour
Organization
40.Which dimension of human development focuses on people leading a long and healthy life?
a) Access to knowledge b) A decent standard of living
c) Longevity d) Political freedom

41.The concept of human development gives importance to:

a) People b) Economic output c) Infrastructure d) Technology

42.A meaningful life, as per the human development concept, is:

a) Only a long life b) A life with purpose
c) A life of luxury d) A life without challenges

43.Which of the following indicates a low level of human development?

a) High adult literacy rate b) Low infant mortality rate
c) High incidence of diseases and famine d) Good governance and
people-oriented policies

44."Ultimately, it is people who are the real wealth of nations." This statement emphasizes the
importance of:
a) Financial capital b) Natural resources
c) Human capital and productivity d) Physical infrastructure

45.The Human Development Index (HDI) is a:

a) Simple average of selected indicators
b) Weighted average of selected indicators
c) Composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and per capita income
d) Measure of only economic well-being

46.Political freedom and human rights are considered important aspects related to which pillar of human
development?
a) Equity b) Sustainability c) Productivity d) Empowerment

47.If a country focuses heavily on military expenditure at the cost of social sectors like health and
education, its human development level is likely to be:
a) Very high b) High c) Medium d) Low

48.Which of these statements is true regarding human development patterns globally?

a) All large countries have high human development.
b) All small countries have low human development.
c) Levels of human development can vary significantly even within a country.
d) Economic prosperity always guarantees high human development.

49.The indicator ‘Mean years of schooling’ is used to assess:

a) Access to resources b) Health status
c) Access to knowledge d) Standard of living

50.The 'welfare approach' argues that the government is responsible for:

a) Maximizing economic growth only
b) Increasing levels of human development by maximizing expenditure on welfare
c) Ensuring people have the capability to make choices
d) Providing only basic needs

51.An HDI score closer to 1 indicates:

a) Lower level of human development
b) Higher level of human development
c) Medium level of human development
d) No human development

52.Which one of the following is a common characteristic of countries with a low HDI?
a) High government spending on education
b) Political stability and good governance
c) High levels of social discrimination
d) Universal access to clean water and sanitation

53.The concept of 'development' gained prominence especially after:

a) World War I b) The Industrial Revolution
c) World War II d) The Cold War

Assertion-Reason Type

1. Assertion (A): Kerala has a high Human Development Index.

Reason (R): It has high literacy, better health indicators, and gender equality.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation.
c) A is true, R is false.
d) A is false, R is true.

2. Assertion (A): High per capita income always indicates high human development.
Reason (R): Income is the only factor determining human development.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation.
c) A is true, R is false.
d) A is false, R is true.

Higher-Order Thinking (HOTs)

1. A country with high education and health indicators but low income is likely to have:
a) High HDI
b) Medium HDI
c) Low HDI
d) HDI cannot be calculated

2. Which of the following indicators directly reflect the 'education' dimension of HDI?
a) Gross Enrollment Ratio and Mean Years of Schooling
b) Literacy rate and GDP
c) Drop-out rate and Infant Mortality
d) Adult literacy rate and Per Capita Income

3.. Which of the following is the most comprehensive measure of development?

 a) GDP
b) GNP
c) HDI
d) NNP

Short Answer
1. Define human development.
2. What is the Human Development Index (HDI)?
3. Name the four pillars of human development.
4. Which state in India has the highest literacy rate as per the 2011 Census?
5. What does HDI measure?
6. Who introduced the concept of Human Development?
7. What is the rank of India in the Human Development Index (HDI) among the countries of the world
in 2005?
8. Which state of India has the lowest literacy rate?
9. What is the adult literacy rate?
10. Define poverty.
11. What is the rank of India in Human Development Index (HDI) among the countries of the world in
2005?
12. Which state of India has the lowest female literacy rate?
13. What is the meaning of 'sustainability' in human development?
14. What is meant by 'empowerment' in human development?
15. What is the meaning of 'productivity' in human developmen
16. What is the Human Poverty Index (HPI)?
17. What is the significance of education in human development?
20. What is the role of income in human development?

Chapter: Primary Activities

I. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
1. Primary activities are those that are directly dependent on:
a) Manufacturing processes b) Service sector
c) Environment d) Information technology

2. Which of the following is an example of a primary activity?

a) Banking b) Farming c) Software development d) Retail trade

3. The earliest known primary activity practiced by humans is:

a) Mining b) Agriculture c) Hunting and Gathering d) Fishing

4. In which of the following regions is nomadic herding NOT commonly practiced? a) Sahara desert
b) Tundra regions of Eurasia
c) Amazon Basin d) Andes mountains

5. Transhumance is a characteristic feature of:

a) Extensive commercial grain farming b) Plantation agriculture
c) Nomadic herding d) Market gardening

6. Which of the following animals is NOT typically associated with nomadic herding in the Tundra
region? a) Reindeer b) Yak c) Arctic fox (herded) d) Caribou

7. Commercial livestock rearing is characterized by:

a) Low capital investment and traditional methods
b) Organized, scientific, and capital-intensive practices
c) Rearing animals for self-consumption only
 d) Seasonal migration of herders

8. Which type of agriculture is also known as 'slash and burn' agriculture?

a) Intensive subsistence agriculture b) Primitive subsistence agriculture
c) Plantation agriculture ) Dairy farming

9. 'Milpa' and 'Ladang' are local names for which type of agricultural practice?
a) Dairy farming b) Shifting cultivation
c) Extensive commercial grain farming d) Market gardening

10. The type of agriculture predominantly practiced in densely populated monsoon regions of Asia is:
a) Extensive commercial grain farming
b) Intensive subsistence agriculture (dominated by wet paddy)
c) Mediterranean agriculture
d) Nomadic herding

11. Which of the following is a key characteristic of plantation agriculture?

a) Small farm sizes and family labor
b) Large estates, single crop specialization, and capital intensive
c) Production mainly for local consumption
d) Use of primitive tools

12. 'Viticulture' refers to the cultivation of:

a) Vegetables b) Flowers c) Grapes d) Tea

13. Extensive commercial grain farming is best developed in:

a) Tropical rainforests b) Temperate grasslands
c) Mountainous regions d) Coastal areas

14. The Prairies of North America are known for which type of agriculture?
a) Dairy farming b) Plantation agriculture
c) Extensive commercial grain farming d) Mediterranean agriculture

15. Mixed farming involves:

a) Growing only different types of crops
b) Rearing only different types of animals
c) Growing crops and rearing animals simultaneously on the same farm
d) Alternating between crop cultivation and fallow land

16. Which of the following regions is a major area for dairy farming?
a) Sahara Desert b) North-Western Europe
c) Amazon Basin d) Central Australia

17. Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialized in producing:

a) Wheat and corn b) Citrus fruits, olives, and figs
c) Rubber and coffee d) Cotton and jute

18. 'Truck farming' is associated with:

a) Dairy farming b) Market gardening and horticulture
c) Extensive commercial grain farming d) Shifting cultivation

19. Co-operative farming is a system where:

a) The government owns all farms and controls production
b) Individual farmers pool their resources voluntarily for efficient farming
c) Large corporations own and operate farms
d) Farmers work on individually owned plots but market produce collectively

20. Kolkhoz was a form of collective farming practiced in:

 a) USA b) Former Soviet Union (USSR) c) Canada d) India

21. Which of the following factors is most crucial for mining activity?
a) Presence of skilled labor only
b) Richness or grade of the ore and proximity to markets
c) Pleasant climatic conditions
d) Availability of advanced technology only

22. The method of mining used for extracting minerals that occur close to the surface is:
a) Underground mining b) Shaft mining
c) Surface mining (Open-cast mining) d) Solution mining

23. Which primary activity involves extraction of minerals from the earth?
a) Lumbering b) Fishing c) Mining d) Agriculture

24. Gathering is practiced in:

a) High latitude zones like northern Canada and northern Eurasia
b) Low latitude zones such as the Amazon Basin and tropical Africa
c) Temperate deciduous forests
d) Both (a) and (b)

25. Which of these is a characteristic of commercial livestock rearing?

a) Animals move from one place to another with herders
b) It is associated with permanent ranches
c) Emphasis is on subsistence
d) Practiced by pastoral nomads

26. The main crop in intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy is: a) Wheat b) Maize
c) Rice d) Sorghum

27. Plantation agriculture was largely introduced by:

a) Indigenous communities b) Local governments
c) Europeans in their colonies d) Asian traders

28. The Pampas of Argentina are famous for:

a) Tea plantations b) Extensive commercial grain farming and cattle rearing
c) Dairy farming d) Shifting cultivation

29. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of mixed farming?

a) High capital expenditure
b) Crop rotation and intercropping
c) Focus on a single cash crop for export
d) Fodder crops are an important component

30. The most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals is:
a) Nomadic herding b) Commercial livestock rearing for meat
c) Dairy farming d) Pastoral farming

31. Oranges and lemons are predominantly grown in which type of agricultural region?
a) Equatorial b) Monsoon c) Mediterranean d) Temperate grassland

32. 'Factory farming' refers to:

a) Growing crops in factories using hydroponics
b) Intensive livestock rearing, especially poultry and cattle, in stalls and pens fed on manufactured
feedstuff
c) Cultivation of flowers near urban factories
d) Organic farming on a large scale
33. In which type of farming do farmers pool their resources but maintain their individual rights to land?
a) Collective farming b) Co-operative farming
c) Corporate farming d) State farming

34. The underground mining method is also known as:

a) Strip mining b) Open-pit mining
c) Shaft mining d) Quarrying

35. One of the major environmental problems associated with mining is:
a) Soil enrichment b) Increased biodiversity
c) Land subsidence and water pollution d) Reduced air temperature

36. Chewing gum after the flavour is gone is called 'Chicle'. It is made from the milky juice of which tree?
a) Rubber tree b) Cork oak tree c) Zapota tree d) Pine tree

37. The pastoral communities of the Andes mountains primarily rear:

a) Sheep and cattle b) Llamas and alpacas
c) Reindeer and yaks d) Camels and goats

38. Which type of agriculture is highly mechanized and involves large farm sizes, often extending over
hundreds of hectares?
a) Intensive subsistence agriculture b) Shifting cultivation
c) Extensive commercial grain farming d) Market gardening

39. Which of the following is a beverage crop grown under plantation agriculture? a) Wheat b)
Rice c) Tea d) Maize

40. The Velds of South Africa are known for:

a) Plantation of rubber
b) Extensive commercial grain farming and sheep rearing
c) Shifting cultivation
d) Dairy farming

41. Which of the following is an economic factor influencing mining?

a) Depth of the ore b) Grade of the ore
c) Demand for the mineral d) Mode of occurrence of the mineral

42. Which of the following regions is NOT known for Mediterranean agriculture?
a) Southern California b) Central Chile
c) South-western parts of South Africa d) Amazon Basin

43. In which type of farming is the land holding very small due to high density of population?
a) Extensive commercial grain farming b) Intensive subsistence agriculture
c) Nomadic herding d) Commercial livestock rearing

44. 'Polders' in Netherlands are associated with which type of specialized farming? a) Viticulture
b) Dairy farming and horticulture (growing tulips)
c) Olive cultivation d) Rice cultivation

45. The primary activity which involves catching aquatic life is known as:
a) Lumbering b) Mining
c) Fishing d) Quarrying

II. Very Short Answer Questions

1. What are primary activities?
2. Name two activities included in gathering.
3. What is nomadic herding?
4. Define 'transhumance'.
 5. Give one example of a region where commercial livestock rearing is prominent.
6. What is 'shifting cultivation'?
7. Name one crop predominantly grown in intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy.
8. What is plantation agriculture?
9. Name any two plantation crops.
10. What is 'viticulture'?
11. Name one major temperate grassland known for extensive commercial grain farming.
12. What are the two main components of mixed farming?
13. Why is dairy farming usually located near urban and industrial centers?
14. Name one characteristic fruit of Mediterranean agriculture.
15. What is 'truck farming'?
16. What is the basic principle of co-operative farming?
17. What was the basic feature of collective farming like Kolkhoz?
18. Name one method of mining.
19. Give one physical factor that affects mining.
20. What is an 'open-cast' mine?
III. Short Answer Questions
1. Explain any three characteristics of hunting and gathering.
2. Distinguish between nomadic herding and commercial livestock rearing (three points).
3. Describe three main features of primitive subsistence agriculture.
4. Why is intensive subsistence agriculture widely practiced in densely populated regions of monsoon
Asia? Give three reasons.
5. State any three characteristics of plantation agriculture.
6. Write a short note on extensive commercial grain farming. Mention its key features.
7. What is mixed farming? Explain its main characteristics.
8. Describe three features of dairy farming as a primary activity.
9. Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialized. Explain with examples.
10. Discuss three main features of market gardening and horticulture.
11. Differentiate between co-operative farming and collective farming.
12. What are the two main methods of mining? Briefly explain them.
13. Explain any three economic factors that influence mining activity.
14. "Gathering has little chance of becoming important at the global level." Why? Give three reasons.
15. Describe the life of a nomadic herder.
IV. Long Answer Questions
1. Classify primary activities and describe any two in detail.
2. Discuss the main features of pastoralism. Differentiate between nomadic herding and commercial
livestock rearing, highlighting their geographical distribution.
3. What is subsistence agriculture? Explain its two main types – primitive subsistence agriculture and
intensive subsistence agriculture – with their characteristics and regions.
4. "Plantation agriculture is a distinct type of commercial farming." Elaborate on the characteristics, major
crops, and regions of plantation agriculture.
5. Describe extensive commercial grain farming. Discuss its characteristics, major crops, and the
geographical conditions and regions where it is practiced.
6. Explain dairy farming and mixed farming as types of primary activities. Highlight their characteristics,
regions, and significance.
7. What is mining? Discuss the factors (physical and economic) that affect mining activities and describe
the different methods of mining with their suitability.
8. "Primary activities are closely tied to the physical environment, yet they are also influenced by
technology and market demand." Justify this statement with examples from different primary activities.
9. Discuss the different types of commercial farming practiced around the world. Give suitable examples
for each.
10. What are the environmental and social problems associated with mining activities? Suggest some
measures to mitigate these problems.
V. Assertion and Reason Questions
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R
is true.
 1. Assertion (A): Hunting and gathering are the oldest economic activities known. Reason (R): These
activities involve primitive societies who extract resources directly from nature for sustenance.
2. Assertion (A): Nomadic herding is characterized by herders moving with their animals in search of
fodder and water. Reason (R): Nomadic herding is a form of commercial livestock rearing focused on
export.
3. Assertion (A): Shifting cultivation is an environmentally sustainable practice in the long run for large
populations. Reason (R): It involves clearing forest patches by felling and burning trees, leading to
deforestation and soil erosion if the fallow period is too short.
4. Assertion (A): Plantation agriculture is typically characterized by large estates and capital-intensive
operations. Reason (R): It was introduced by Europeans in colonies to grow single crops like tea,
coffee, and rubber for export.
5. Assertion (A): Extensive commercial grain farming is practiced in sparsely populated temperate
grasslands. Reason (R): This type of farming relies heavily on mechanization due to large farm sizes
and labor shortage.
6. Assertion (A): Dairy farming is highly developed in regions far away from urban markets. Reason (R):
Dairy products are perishable and require quick transportation to markets.
7. Assertion (A): Mediterranean agriculture specializes in viticulture. Reason (R): The Mediterranean
climate with its hot, dry summers and mild, moist winters is ideal for grape cultivation.
8. Assertion (A): Co-operative farming involves farmers pooling their land and resources under state
ownership. Reason (R): In co-operative farming, farmers voluntarily form societies to gain benefits of
scale while retaining land ownership.
9. Assertion (A): Surface mining is generally cheaper and safer than underground mining. Reason (R):
Surface mining is used when mineral ores lie deep below the surface.
10. Assertion (A): Market gardening is practiced in areas with high urban density. Reason (R): It supplies
fresh fruits, vegetables, and flowers to nearby urban centers.
VI. Source-Based/Case-Based Question

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
"Pastoral nomadism is a traditional way of life for many communities living in harsh environmental
conditions, such as arid deserts or high mountain ranges. These herders rely on animals like sheep, goats, cattle,
camels, yaks, or reindeer for their livelihood, obtaining milk, meat, wool, and hides. Their movement is
primarily dictated by the availability of pasture and water for their animals. Transhumance, the seasonal
migration of livestock between summer and winter pastures, is a common practice. However, this way of life is
under pressure due to several factors. Political boundaries often restrict their traditional migratory routes.
Governments in many countries are encouraging nomads to settle and adopt other forms of livelihood.
Furthermore, the expansion of agriculture and other economic activities is shrinking the pasturelands available
to them."
Questions:
1. What is pastoral nomadism? (1 mark)
2. Name two types of animals commonly reared by pastoral nomads. (1 mark)
3. Define 'transhumance' as mentioned in the passage. (1 mark)
4. Identify two major challenges faced by pastoral nomads today, according to the passage. (2 marks)
VII. Map-Based Question
On an outline map of the World, mark and label the following:
1. Two major areas of nomadic herding.
2. The Prairies region known for extensive commercial grain farming.
3. A major tea plantation region in Asia.
4. A region known for Mediterranean agriculture in Europe.
5. A major dairy farming region in North America.

Chapter: Secondary Activities

I. Multiple Choice Questions
1. Secondary activities are those which involve:
a) Extraction of raw materials from the earth
b) Processing of raw materials into finished goods
c) Providing services to individuals and businesses
d) Research and development of new technologies
2. Which of the following is NOT a secondary activity?
a) Manufacturing steel b) Weaving cloth
c) Farming d) Food processing

3. The term 'manufacturing' literally means:

a) To sell by hand b) To make by hand
c) To grow by hand d) To extract by hand

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of modern large-scale manufacturing?

a) Simple tools and manual labor
b) Production for local consumption only
c) Mechanization and mass production
d) Limited use of power

5. Industries classified on the basis of size include:

a) Agro-based and mineral-based
b) Public sector and private sector
c) Cottage, small-scale, and large-scale
d) Basic and consumer goods

6. Which of the following is an example of a cottage industry?

a) Iron and steel plant b) Automobile assembly line
c) Pottery making by an artisan at home d) Large textile mill

7. Agro-based industries use raw materials from:

a) Minerals b) Agriculture c) Forests d) Animals

8. Which of the following is an example of a mineral-based industry?

a) Sugar industry b) Cotton textile industry
c) Cement industry d) Paper industry

9. Industries that produce goods which are used to make other goods are called:
a) Consumer goods industries b) Basic industries
c) Forest-based industries d) Small-scale industries

10. An industry owned and managed by individuals or a group of individuals is known as:
a) Public sector industry b) Private sector industry
c) Joint sector industry d) Cooperative sector industry

11. Which of the following factors is a geographical factor influencing industrial location?
a) Capital b) Government policies
c) Access to raw materials d) Market demand

12. The tendency for industries to concentrate in a particular area to share common infrastructure and
services is known as:
a) Industrial inertia b) Deglomeration
c) Agglomeration economies d) Decentralization

13. 'Footloose industries' are those which:

a) Depend heavily on specific raw materials
b) Are located near markets
c) Can be located in a wide variety of places without significant cost implications
d) Are primarily export-oriented

14. Which of the following is NOT a major raw material for the iron and steel industry?
a) Iron ore b) Coking coal c) Bauxite d) Limestone

15. The Ruhr industrial region, famous for iron and steel, is located in:
 a) USA b) Germany c) Japan d) United Kingdom

16. The cotton textile industry is an example of a/an:

a) Mineral-based industry b) Agro-based industry
c) Chemical-based industry d) Forest-based industry

17. High-technology industries are characterized by:

a) Low research and development expenditure
b) Dependence on unskilled labor
c) Intensive research and development, and highly skilled workforce
d) Production of traditional goods

18. 'Technopoles' or technology parks are often located:

a) In remote rural areas
b) Near major metropolitan areas and universities
c) Deep inside mining regions
d) Along coastlines for easy export

19. Silicon Valley in California, USA, is famous for which type of industry?
a) Iron and steel b) Cotton textiles
c) High-technology/IT d) Automobile manufacturing

20. Traditional large-scale industrial regions are often characterized by:

a) Clean environment and modern infrastructure
b) High concentration of heavy industries and pollution problems
c) Focus on service sector activities
d) Low population density

21. The process of changing raw materials into products of more value to people is called:
a) Extraction b) Manufacturing
c) Transportation d) Marketing

22. Which of these is a household industry where artisans use local raw materials and simple tools?
a) Large-scale industry b) Small-scale industry
c) Cottage industry d) Basic industry

23. Industries producing goods like bread, soap, and televisions for direct use by consumers are called:
a) Basic industries b) Key industries
c) Consumer goods industries d) Capital goods industries

24. Which of the following is an example of a forest-based industry?

a) Leather tanning b) Sugar refining
c) Paper manufacturing d) Petrochemicals

25. The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) in Jamshedpur is an example of a:
a) Public sector industry b) Private sector industry
c) Joint sector industry d) Cooperative sector industry

26. The availability of which of the following is crucial for the aluminium industry? a) Coal
b) Petroleum
c) Cheap and abundant electricity (as it's power-intensive) d) Iron ore

27. The concept of "assembly line" for mass production was popularized by:
a) James Watt b) Henry Ford c) Alfred Weber d) Adam Smith

28. A chemical-based industry example is:

a) Cement b) Synthetic fiber production
 c) Jute processing d) Watch making

29. What is the term for industries that process raw materials from animals?
a) Agro-based b) Forest-based
c) Mineral-based d) Animal-based

30. The tendency of an industry to remain at its original location even when the factors that initially
attracted it are no longer important is known as:
a) Agglomeration b) Deglomeration
c) Industrial inertia d) Industrial revolution

31. Mini steel mills typically use what as raw material?

a) Iron ore and coking coal b) Scrap metal and pig iron
c) Bauxite and limestone d) Copper and zinc

32. The powerloom sector in the cotton textile industry uses:

a) Hand-operated looms b) Mechanically operated looms
c) Imported raw cotton exclusively d) Only natural dyes

33. Which of these is a characteristic of high-technology industries?

a) Environmentally polluting
b) Neat, spacious, modern, and dispersed office-plant-lab buildings
c) Located in congested urban areas
d) Employ mainly manual laborers

34. The concept of "Just-in-Time" manufacturing aims to:

a) Increase inventory storage
b) Reduce inventory and increase efficiency
c) Focus on single product manufacturing
d) Maximize production without considering demand

35. The dispersal of industries away from established industrial centers is known as:
a) Industrial concentration b) Industrial decentralization or deglomeration c) Industrial linkage
d) Industrial symbiosis

36. Which of the following is an example of a consumer goods industry?

a) Iron and steel industry b) Machine tools industry
c) Electronics (like TVs, refrigerators) d) Shipbuilding industry

37. The earliest phase of the Industrial Revolution was based on which power source?
a) Electricity b) Petroleum c) Steam d) Solar power

38. The 'Black Country' in the UK was traditionally known for:

a) Cotton textiles b) High-technology industries
c) Heavy industries based on coal and iron d) Dairy products

39. Which scale of manufacturing involves the least capital investment and uses household labor?
a) Large-scale manufacturing b) Small-scale manufacturing
c) Cottage or household industry d) Technopoles

40. The Silicon Forest is a high-tech cluster located in which US state?

a) California b) Texas c) Oregon d) Massachusetts

41. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of small-scale manufacturing?

a) Simple machines and power-driven tools b) Local raw material usage
c) Production of highly specialized, globally marketed goods
d) Provides employment to semi-skilled labor
42. Industries managed by a state government and a private company together fall under:
a) Public Sector b) Private Sector
c) Joint Sector d) Co-operative Sector

II. Very Short Answer Questions

1. What are secondary activities?
2. Define 'manufacturing'.
3. Give one example of a cottage industry.
4. What is a 'large-scale industry'?
5. Name one agro-based industry.
6. Give an example of a mineral-based industry.
7. What are 'basic industries'?
8. What are 'consumer goods industries'?
9. Define 'public sector industry'.
10. What is meant by 'agglomeration economies'?
11. Define 'footloose industry'.
12. Name two major raw materials for the iron and steel industry.
13. Which region in Germany is famous for its iron and steel industry?
14. Give an example of a high-technology industry.
15. What is 'industrial inertia'?
16. Name one characteristic of traditional large-scale industrial regions.
17. What type of raw material is used by chemical-based industries?
18. What is the main output of a 'basic industry'?

III. Short Answer Questions

1. Differentiate between small-scale and large-scale industries (three points).
2. Classify industries based on raw materials, giving one example for each type.
3. Describe any three factors that influence the location of industries.
4. What are footloose industries? Give two examples and explain their characteristics.
5. Why is the iron and steel industry called a basic or key industry? Give three reasons.
6. What are the characteristics of traditional large-scale industrial regions?
7. Distinguish between public sector and private sector industries.
8. Explain the concept of 'agglomeration economies' with an example.
9. Explain any three types of industries based on output/product.
10. "The cotton textile industry has three sub-sectors: handloom, powerloom, and mill sector." Briefly
describe each.
IV. Long Answer Questions
1. What are secondary activities? Classify manufacturing industries on the basis of size, and explain each
category with suitable examples.
2. Discuss the major geographical and non-geographical factors that influence the location of industries.
Provide examples for each factor.
3. "The iron and steel industry is fundamental to the industrial development of any country." Elaborate on
this statement, discussing its raw material requirements, and distribution in any one major region of the
world.
4. What are high-technology industries? Describe their characteristics and explain why they are often
concentrated in specific areas known as technopoles. Give an example of a famous technopole.
5. Compare and contrast traditional large-scale industrial regions with modern high-technology industrial
regions.
6. Classify industries based on raw materials used. Explain each type with at least two examples.
7. Explain the different types of industries based on ownership. Discuss the role of each in a mixed
economy.
8. What are 'footloose industries'? Explain their characteristics and discuss why their numbers are
increasing in the modern globalized economy.
9. Discuss the evolution and significance of the cotton textile industry. What are the major challenges
faced by this industry in developing countries?
 10. "Manufacturing industries are crucial for the economic development of a nation but can also lead to
environmental degradation." Discuss this statement, highlighting both positive contributions and
negative impacts of manufacturing.
V. Assertion and Reason Questions
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (b)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R
is true.
1. Assertion (A): Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into
valuable products. Reason (R): Manufacturing is a key secondary activity that involves processing raw
materials.
2. Assertion (A): Cottage industries require large capital investment and advanced machinery. Reason
(R): Cottage industries are usually household-based and use simple tools with local raw materials.
3. Assertion (A): The iron and steel industry is considered a basic industry. Reason (R): Its products are
used as raw materials by many other industries.
4. Assertion (A): Access to markets is a major factor influencing industrial location. Reason (R):
Industries prefer locations with poor transport links to minimize distribution costs.
5. Assertion (A): Footloose industries are heavily dependent on specific raw material sources. Reason
(R): Footloose industries can be located at any place as their input resources or products are lightweight
and transport costs are insignificant.
6. Assertion (A): High-technology industries are often concentrated in planned business parks called
technopoles. Reason (R): These industries benefit from proximity to research institutions and a skilled
workforce.
7. Assertion (A): Traditional large-scale industrial regions are known for their clean environments and
modern amenities. Reason (R): These regions often developed around heavy, polluting industries in the
past and may suffer from urban decay.
8. Assertion (A): Public sector industries are owned and operated by state agencies. Reason (R): Private
sector industries are owned by individuals or groups of individuals primarily for profit.
9. Assertion (A): Agglomeration economies lead to the dispersal of industries over a wide geographical
area. Reason (R): Agglomeration economies are benefits derived by firms and people when they locate
near each other, leading to concentration.
10. Assertion (A): Chemical-based industries use raw materials obtained from agriculture. Reason (R):
Chemical industries utilize natural chemical minerals (e.g., salt, sulphur, potash) or chemicals obtained
from wood, coal, and petroleum.
VI. Source-Based/Case-Based Question
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
"The Ruhr region in Germany was one of the world's leading traditional large-scale industrial areas,
historically dominated by coal mining and the iron and steel industry. Its development was based on rich
deposits of coal and iron ore. This led to a dense network of industries, transportation lines, and urban
settlements. However, with the decline in demand for coal and the exhaustion of easily accessible iron ore,
coupled with increasing international competition and environmental concerns, the Ruhr region faced
significant economic challenges. It has since undergone a major structural transformation, moving towards
newer industries like technology, services, and tourism. Old industrial sites are being redeveloped into parks,
museums, and cultural centers, symbolizing the shift from a 'black country' to a 'green' and modern economic
landscape."
Questions:
1. Which country is the Ruhr industrial region located in? (1 mark)
2. What were the two primary industries that historically dominated the Ruhr region? (1 mark)
3. Mention two factors that contributed to the decline of traditional industries in the Ruhr region. (1 mark)
4. How is the Ruhr region attempting to transform its economy in recent times? Give two examples. (2
marks)
VII. Map-Based Question
On an outline map of the World, mark and label the following:
1. The Ruhr industrial region.
2. Silicon Valley.
3. The Great Lakes industrial region of North America.
4. A major cotton textile manufacturing center in India.
5. A traditional iron and steel producing area in China (e.g., Anshan).