Anaphy Exams

PRELIM EXAM
1.Jinman has immediately withdrawn his finger when he accidentally touched the lid of the
rice cooker. this action by Jinman depicts which characteristic?
a. responsiveness
b. movement
c. nutrition and metabolism
d. growth
ANSWER: A

2.The rough ER
A) Is involved in hormone synthesis in most cells
B) In some cells, plays an important part in removal of cytoplasmic material
C) Contains a granular , ribosomal portion which is the site of protein sythesis
D) Site of digestive lysosomes
ANSWER:C

· 3.A patient who had a vehicular accident has sustained multiple injuries. the blood volume
becomes increasingly low due to massive bleeding. To compensate, the body activates the
resist the E renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system causing an increase in the blood pressure due to
vasoconstriction and water reabsorption, as well as the activation of clotting factors to
BY somehow seal off wounds. What mechanism is applied in the scenario to maintain
homeostasis?
a. negative feedback
b. positive feedback
c. exogenous feedback
d. endogenous feedback
ANSWER: A

4.It is a form of feedback that-

acts to resist or reverse the process when condition go outside
the range:
a.negative feedback
b.positive feedback
c.both a and b
d.none of the above
ANSWER: A

-
5.The resting potential of a cell may be defined as
A) The inherent ability of the cell to suspend protein synthesis for a time
B) The balance between the activity of active and passive carrier mechanisms
C) The The state resulting from a strong influx of sodium ions trough the cell membrane
D) Selective membrane permeability to potassium , resulting in an electronegative potential
within the cell
ANSWER:D

6. Which of the following is not an organ of the urinary system?

A) Bladder
B) Anus
C) Urethra
D) Ureter
ANSWER:B
 7.Basic unit of life
A) Cell
B) Tissue
C) Organ
D) System
ANSWER:A

8.The liver is located in which quadrant of the abdomen?

-

a. right upper
b. left upper
c. right lower
d. left lower
ANSWER:A
X
9.Functions of the integral proteins except
A. Provide structural channels
B. Acts as carrier proteins
C. Acts as enzyme
D. Support the plasma membrane
ANSWER:C

10.The plane that divides the body into superior and inferior parts is the:
-

a. sagittal plane
b. coronal plane
c. transverse plane
d. frontal plane
ANSWER:C

11.Which of the following statements is correct regarding the location of the spleen and
stomach:
A) both of these organs are located medially
⑧
B) both of these organs are located in the left upper quadrant
C) the spleen is located in the left upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the right
upper quadrant
D) both of these organs are located in the right upper quadrant
E) the spleen is located in the right upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the left
upper quadrant
concentration --
ANSWER:B
-

Facilitated Diffusion
-- Simple Dippusion integral proteins
- needed

12.Passive process in which there is movement of particles in a solution from a higher

concentration to a lower concentration because of the particles kinetic energy .
A) Osmosis
-
B) Diffusion
C) Endocytosis
D) Exocytosis
ANSWER:B

13.Which of the following is not a function of the cytoskeleton ?

A) Generates movement
B) For mechanical support
C) Site for chemical reactions
0
D) Help attach cells to one another
ANSWER:C

14.From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are:

a. chemical, cell, tissue, organ, system, organism
0
b. cell, chemical, tissue, organ, system, organism
c. system, organism, cell, organ, organism, tissue
d. chemical, tissue, cell, organ, organism, system
ANSWER:A

15.Membranous sacs that collect, package and distribute proteins and lipids produced by
the ER .
A) lysosome
O
B) golgi apparatus
C) mithochondria
D) peroxisomes
ANSWER:B
X
16.All of the following are functions of the plasma membrane except:
0
a. control center of the cell nucleus
-

b. selective barrier
c. receptor site for messages
d. self-identification
ANSWER:A

17.The dorsal body cavity houses the:

A) heart and lungs
0
B) spinal cord and brain
C) tongue
D) urinary and reproductive organs
E) digestive and reproductive organs
ANSWER:B

18.a surgeon removing an appendix should know to find in the:

a. left iliac region
0
b. right iliac region
c. right lumbar region
d. hypogastric region
ANSWER:B

19.this is a process in which cells develop their own type and structure based on their given
functions:
0
a. cell differentiation
b. cell restructuring
c. cell formation
d. apoptosis
ANSWER:A

20.the cells in our body prevents most substances from entering into it. this is made possible
-

by which of the following:

Plasma Membrane
-
 a. cytoplasm
0
b. plasma membrane
c. mitochondria
d. nucleus
ANSWER:B

x
21.All of the following are examples of passive transport except:
a. endocytosis
0
b. filtration
c. dialysis
d. osmosis
ANSWER:A

22.Phagocytosis, or “cell eating”, is an example of:

a. exocytosis
b. passive transport
0
c. endocytosis
d. dialysis
ANSWER:C

23.A hypertonic solution is one that:

⑧
a. contains a greater concentration of solute than the cell
b. contains the same concentration of solute as the cell
c. contains a lesser concentration of solute than the cell
d. none of the above
ANSWER:A

24.A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than living red blood cells
would be:
solute -tinutunaw/salt
a. isotonic
b. hypotonic solvent-water/blood
0
c. hypertonic
d. homeostatic
ANSWER:C

25.The following events are part of a negative-feedback mechanism.

4 (1)Blood
N pressure increases.
detect
(2)The control center compares actual blood pressure to the blood pressure set point.
"ntrol a(3)The heart beats faster.
bat paster Yu
(4)Receptors detect a decrease in blood pressure.
↓
Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order they occur.
BP X a.1,2,3,4 c. 3,1,4,2 e. 4,3,2,1
b.1,3,2,4 d.
⑧ 4,2,3,1
ANSWER:D

26.Which of these statements concerning positive feedback is correct?

a.Positive-feedback responses maintain homeostasis.
b.Positive-feedback responses occur continuously in healthy individuals.
0
c.Birth is an example of a normally occurring positive-feedback mechanism.
d.When cardiac muscle receives an inadequate supply of blood, positive-feedback
mechanisms increase blood flow to the heart.
 e.Medical therapy seeks to overcome illness by aiding positive feedback mechanisms.
ANSWER:C

27.Which of the following membrane combinations are found on the superior and inferior
surface of the diaphragm?
-
a.parietal pleura—parietal peritoneum
b.parietal pleura—visceral peritoneum
c.visceral pleura—parietal peritoneum
d. visceral pleura—visceral peritoneum
ANSWER:A

28.Layer of cells that appear cube-like when an organ is relaxed and flattened when the
organ is distended by fluid:
a. pseudostratified columnar skin
-

⑧
b. transitional
c. simple cuboidal -skin
d. stratified columnar skin
ANSWER:B
X
29.All but one is a function of adipose tissue:
a. insulates to conserve bod heat
⑧
b. defends the body from microbes and injurious substances
c. supports and protects the kidneys
d. store excess food
ANSWER:B

30.In which layer of the skin do cells divide by mitosis in order to replace cells lost from the
outermost surface of the body?
a. stratum basale
O
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
ANSWER:A

31.The most superficial layer of the epidermis is?

⑧
a. stratum corneum
b. stratum lucidum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum spinosum
ANSWER:A

32.The lungs are located in the:

⑧
a. thoracic cavity
b. cranial cavity
c. mediastinum
d. abdominal cavity
ANSWER:A

33.Homeostasis is:
a. maintaining a stable internal environment
0
b. integrating the functions of various organ systems
 c. preventing any change in the organism.
d. none of the above
ANSWER:A
X
34.The abdominopelvic cavity contains all of the following except the:
a. gallbladder
b. kidneys
c. urinary bladder
0
d. right lung
ANSWER:D

35.Involves both sides of the body:

⑧
a. bilateral
b. unilateral
c. ipsilateral
d. contralateral
ANSWER:A

36.It is an element of homeostasis that receives input from the receptors and compare the
value against the set point or normal value:
a. stimulus
b. receptors
0
c. control center
d. effector
ANSWER:C

37.Refers to a person standing upright with the face directed forward, the upper limbs
hanging to the sides, and the palm of then hands facing forward:
a. anatomical position
b. upright position
c. supine
d. prone
ANSWER:A
X
38.The following are central regions of the body except:
a. head
b. neck
c. trunk
⑧
d. hair
ANSWER:D

three large cavities of the bodyX

39.All of the following are theI except:
a. thoracic cavity
b. pelvic cavity
c. abdominal cavity
0
d. oral cavity
ANSWER:D

40.Which of the following statements is correct about the epithelial tissue?

-

a. it is highly vascular
⑧
b. all cells rest on the basement membrane
 c. has abundant intercellular substance
d. has regenerative capacity
answer: B

41.It is an element of homeostasis that receives input from the receptors and compare the
value against the set point or normal value:
a. stimulus
b. receptors
0
c. control center
d. effector
ANSWER:C

42.What organ system contains transitional epithelium?

a. cardiovascular system
b. digestive system
c. urinary system
O
d. nervous system
ANSWER:C

43.Which of the following exocrine glands in an example of coiled tubular glands?

a. sweat glands
b. mammary glands
c. salivary glands
d. rectal glands
ANSWER:A

44.Changes in tissues can result in except

-

a. growth
b. development
c. disease or pathology
0
d. none of the above
ANSWER:D

45.Which of the following is not an example of connective tissue?

a. epidermis
0
b. bone
c. blood
d. tendon
ANSWER:A

46.Type of epithelium well-adapted for exchange of substances between two sides

0
a. simple
b. stratified
c. pseudostratified
d. cuboidal
ANSWER:A

47.Elastic cartilage is found in which of the following body structures?

0
a. epiglottis
b. growing long bones
c. tracheal rings
 d. costal cartilage
ANSWER:A

48.Which of the following is not multi-nucleated?

a. cardiac muscle
b. skeletal muscle
c. smooth muscle
0
d. both cardiac and smooth muscle
ANSWER:D

49.What distinguishes⑧ cartilage from most other connective tissues?

a. its extracellular matrix is rich in collagen
b. its predominant cell type is a mesenchymal derivative
0
c. it lacks blood vessels
d. it functions in mechanical support
ANSWER:C

50.A delicate and granular-appearing connective tissue that consists of fibroblasts, collagen,
-

and capillaries.
a. scab
b. scar
c. granulation tissue
0
d. fibrotic tissue
ANSWER:C

51.Effects of aging on tissues except

a. slow healing of injury
b. bones easily break
c. walls of arteries becomes less elastic
0
d. cells divide less slowly
ANSWER:D

52.A phagocytic white blood cell that fights infections by entering tissues and ingesting
- -

bacteria
-

0
a. neutrophil
b. platelets
c. eosinophil
d. basophil
ANSWER:A

53.In the process that repairs tissue damage, which of the following is formed first.
a. scar
b. scab
c. granulation tissue
⑧
d. clot
ANSWER:D

54.Lining epithelium of skin is:

0
a. stratified squamous keratinized
b. stratified squamous nonkeratinized
c. pseudostratified columnar
 d. stratified columnar
ANSWER:A

55.Loose and dense connective tissue is based on the presence of what compound.
a. fluid
0
b. collagen
c. lipid
d. carbohydrates
ANSWER:B

56.Atoms are electrically neutral because the number of protons in atoms equals the
number of electrons.
i

⑧
a.the statement above is true
p e
=

b.the statement above is false

c.both a and b
d.none of the above
ANSWER:A

57.A cell of epidermis that gives the skin its protective properties:
0
a.keratinocytes
b.melanocytes
c.langerhans’ cell
d.merkel cells
ANSWER:A

58.Skin color variation is determined by the following except:

-

a.pigments
b.genetics
c.blood circulation
⑧
d.striae
ANSWER:D

59.An areolar connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers:

a.epidermis
b.stratum corneum
c.papillary layer
0
d.reticular layer
ANSWER:C

60.Primary germ layers are the origin of tissues formed in the human embryo. which of the
following statements is/are correct?
a. epithelial tissues develop from all three primary germ layers
b. all connective tissue and most muscle tissues derive from mesoderm
c. nervous tissue develops from ectoderm
d. all choices are correct
ANSWER:D

61.The skin also known as the cutaneous membrane or integument which covers the
external surface of the body and is the largest organ of the body in both surface area and
weight. which of the following statements is incorrect about the skin?
0
a. the skin consists of a superficial, thick epidermis and a deep, thinner dermis.
 b. it regulates body temperature
c. it has a metabolic function
d. it reduces water loss and dehydration
ANSWER:A

62.The epidermis is composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. it contains four

principal types of cells. which of the epidermal cells is the most abundant ?
a. keratinocytes
0
b. melanocytes
c.langerhans cell
d. merkel cells
ANSWER:A

63.the deepest layer of the epidermis is the stratum basale composed of a single row of
cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes.the following statements are true reading this epidermal
layer- except? mitosis
a.
0 it is characterized by intense meiotic divisions about every 19 days.
b. some cells in this layer are stem cells that undergo cell division to continually produce
new keratinocytes.
c. lowermost layer of epidermis
d. it consists of a single row cuboidal or columnar cells
ANSWER:A

64.The dermis is composed of dense collagenous connective tissue containing fibroblasts,

adipocytes, and macrophages. the dermis also has the ability to stretch and recoil easily.
based on its tissue structure, the dermis can be divided into a papillary region and a
reticular region. which of the following is-correct regarding these dermal layers?
a. the papillary region lacks blood vessels.
b. it is superficial portion of the dermis
0
c. reticular layer is much thinner, consists of dense irregular connective tissue
d. both dermal regions contain a poor network of blood and lymphatic vessels.
ANSWER:B

65.Melanin is the group of pigments primarily responsible for skin, hair, and eye color. most
melanin molecules are brown to black pigments, but some are yellowish or reddish. all
statements are false regarding the melanin except?
0
a. the number of melanocytes is about the same in all people, differences in skin color are
due mainly to the amount of pigment the melanocytes produce
b. synthesis of melanin occurs in mitochondria called a melanosome.
c. melanocytes are regularly shaped cells with many short processes
d. melanin production is determined only by genetic factors and hormones
ANSWER:A

66.Carotene is a yellow-orange pigment that gives egg yolk and carrots their color. this
precursor of vitamin a, which is used to synthesize pigments-
needed for vision , is stored in
the
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
0
c. stratum &
corneum
d. none of the above
ANSWER:C
67.Arrector pili is a muscle that extends from the superficial dermis of the skin to the dermal
root sheath around the side of the hair follicle. under physiological or emotional stress, such
as cold or fright, autonomic nerve endings stimulate the arrector pili muscles to contract
causing “goose bumps” or “gooseflesh”. with of the following statements is true is regarding
this muscle?
a. a small bundle of smooth muscle cells
0
b. its contraction causes the hair to become less perpendicular
c. both are true
d. both are false
ANSWER:A

68.There are two kinds of sweat glands: eccrine and apocrine glands. eccrine sweat glands
are located in almost every part of the skin but most numerous in the palms and soles while
apocrine sweat glands are found in the_____.
invasive parts
a. axilla
b. genitalia
c. around the nipples
⑧
d. all of the above
ANSWER:D

69.Synthesis of vitamin d requires activation of a precursor molecule in the skin by

ultraviolet (uv) rays in sunlight. enzymes in the liver and kidneys then modify the activated
molecule, finally producing the- most active form of vitamin d known as
a. vitamin d2
b. cholecalciferol
O
c. calcitriol
d. none of the above
ANSWER:C
X

-
70.True regarding the factors that determine skin color except
a. pigments of the skin
b. blood circulating through the skin
0
c. thickness of the stratum spinosum
d. none of the above
ANSWER:C

71.The subcutaneous tissue attaches the skin to underlying bone and muscle and supplies it
with blood vessels and nerves. all of the following statements are about this layer except:
a. also known as panniculus
b. consists mainly of adipose tissue
c. thickest layers are found in abdomen and scrotum
0
d. skin rests on the subcutaneous tissue
ANSWER:C

72.Each hair is composed of columns of dead, keratinized epidermal cells bonded together
-
by extracellular proteins. which of the following structures of hair is incorrectly paired:
a. hair shaft: protrudes above the surface of the skin
b. hair root: below the surface
c. hair bulb-: expanded base of the root where hair is produced
0
d. hair papilla-: where hair arises from
 ANSWER:D

73.As the body ages, the skin is more easily damaged because the epidermis thins and the
amount of collagen in the dermis decreases. aging of the skin can result in
a. an increase activity of sweat glands
0
b. a decrease in the activity of sebaceous glands.
c. repair of the skin occurs less slowly
d. melanocytes decreases
ANSWER:B

74.Acne is an inflammation of sebaceous glands that usually begins at puberty, when the
sebaceous glands are stimulated by androgens. four factors are mainly believed to be
responsible except:
a. hormonal imbalances
b. overstimulation of sebaceous glands
c. abnormal production of cells
0
d. diet
ANSWER:D

75.Sebaceous glands are simple, branched acinar glands .most are connected by a duct to
the superficial part of a hair follicle. they produce sebum, an oily, white substance rich in
lipids. where are-sebaceous glands found?
a. in the lips
b. in the glans penis
c. in the face
0
d. all of the above
ANSWER:D

76.The integumentary system is the largest body system and includes the skin, or
integument, and its appendages. the main functions of the skin include:
0
a.support, nourishment, and sensation.
b.fluid transport, sensory perception, and aging regulation.
c.the integumentary system is the largest body system and includes the skin, or integument,
and its appendages.
d. protection, motor response, and filtration
ANSWER:A

77.Sebaceous glands secrete an oily substance called sebum which consists of a mixture of
a. triglycerides, cholesterol, proteins
0
b. collagen and elastin.
c. watery fluid and sodium.
d. protein, water, and electrolytes
ANSWER:A

78.The ovary is part of which of the following two systems:

A. digestive and respiratory systems
0
B. reproductive and endocrine systems
C. digestive and endocrine systems
D. reproductive and respiratory systems
E. endocrine and respiratory systems
ANSWER:B
 79. Elimination of metabolic wastes from the body is the function of the:
A. digestive and urinary systems
B. digestive system
C. urinary system
D. respiratory system
E. digestive and respiratory systems
0
ANSWER:E Y02
80.Which ventral cavity subdivision has-
no bony protection:
A. spinal
B. pelvic
C. abdominal
D. cranial
E. thoracic
ANSWER:C

81.In anatomical position:

0
A. the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms
facing forward
B. the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms
facing forward
C. the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms
facing backward
D. the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms
facing backward
E. the body is lying face down with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms
facing backward
ANSWER:A

82.In describing the relationship between the patellar and popliteal regions:
A. the patellar region is lateral to the popliteal region
0
B. the patellar region is anterior to the popliteal region
C. the patellar region is proximal to the popliteal region
D. the patellar region is superior to the popliteal region
E. the patellar region is distal to the popliteal region
ANSWER:B

83.Which of the following is-

NOT connective tissue:
A. skeletal muscle
B. cartilage
C. bone
D. adipose
E. blood
ANSWER:A

84.A patient arrives in the hospital extremely dehydrated. In order to fill his cells with fluid,
P he should be hooked to a(n) __________ intravenous drip.
↑
A. hypotonic
-

B. isotonic
-

C. hypertonic
 D. either hypertonic or hypotonic
E. either isotonic or hyertonic
ANSWER:A

85.Identify the type of tissue that is found in-

lymph nodes, the spleen, and bone marrow:
A. dense connective tissue
B. areolar tissue
C. osseous tissue
D. adipose tissue
⑧
E. reticular connective tissue ·
L, BM
ANSWER:E

&
86.Cells that are specialized to fight disease are called:
-

A.
0 macrophages
B. epithelial cells
C. oocytes
D. nerve cells
E. fibroblasts
ANSWER:A

--
87.A cell whose job is to detoxify harmful or poisonous substances such as alcohol would
have many:
0
A. peroxisomes
B. lysosomes
C. rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. nuclei
E. flagella
ANSWER:A

88. Epidermal cells that areoo

-
actively mitotic and replace superficial cells that are continually
rubbed off are:
A. stratum granulosum cells
B. stratum lucidum cells
O
C. stratum germinativum cells
D. stratum spinosum cells
E. stratum corneum cells
ANSWER:C

89. The- -
uppermost layer of skin is:
A. fed by a good supply of blood vessels
B. called the dermis
C. composed of dense connective tissue
O
D. full of keratin
E. called the hypodermis
ANSWER:D

-----
90.Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of:
0
A) diffusion
B) evaporation
C) osmosis
D) absorption
 E) filtration
ANSWER:A

91.Theden
only dry membrane is the:
A) synovial membrane
B) mucous membrane
C) serous membrane
D) cutaneous membrane
0
E) basement membrane
ANSWER:D
M ,
2, 3

->
92.The categories of epithelial tissue membranes are:
A. synovial, cutaneous, and serous membranes
B. synovial, mucous, and cutaneous membranes
⑧
C. mucous, cutaneous, and serous membranes
D. synovial, mucous, and serous membranes
E. synovial, cutaneous, and mucous membranes
ANSWER:C

-93.Synovial membranes are found in the:

A. joint cavities
B. lining of the stomach cavity
C. covering of the brain
D. covering of the heart
E. lining of the abdominal cavity wall
ANSWER:A

94.Which of the following& is NOT a true statement about the papillary layer of the dermis:
pest
=

A. it is the deepest layer of the skin basie is a

B. it is highly vascular
C. it contains nerve endings that respond to touch and temperature stimuli
D. it produces the pattern for fingerprints
ANSWER:A

---
95.The secretion of sweat is stimulated:
A. by high temperatures
B. by hormones, especially male sex hormones
C. as a protective coating when one is swimming
D. when the air temperature drops
E. both by high temperatures and by hormones, especially male hormones
ANSWER:A

-
96.Melanocytes are found in the:
A. stratum spinosum
0
B. stratum basale
C. stratum granulosum
D. stratum lucidum
E. stratum corneum
ANSWER:B

-
97. Finger-like upward projections of the dermis into the-
epidermis are called:
-

dermal papillae
 A. hair bulbs
0
B. dermal papillae
C. Pacinian corpuscles
D. hair follicles
E. Meissnerʹs corpuscles
ANSWER:B

98.Although you get wet while swimming, a tough protein within the skin I
prevents it from
--
soaking up moisture like a sponge. This substance is:
A. carotene
B. mucus
0
C. keratin
D. melanin
E. serous fluid
ANSWER:C

-
99.Male pattern baldness has a genetic switch that turns on in response to:
A. weight
B. female hormones
C. age
D. size
0
E. male hormones
ANSWER:E

--
100.A splinter penetrates to the deepest layer of the epidermis on your foot. This layer is:
A. stratum granulosum
B. stratum spinosum
C. stratum corneum
D. stratum lucidum
0
E. stratum basale
ANSWER:E
 MIDTERM EXAMINATION

a. Osteocytes and Osteoclasts

grable
1. Which of the following cells are e
incapable of undergoing mitosis?

b. Osteogenic cells and Osteoclasts

0
c. Osteoblasts and Osteocytes
d. Osteoblasts and Osteoclasts
ANSWER:C

--
2. Which cells DOES NOT originate from osteogenic cells?
a. osteocytes
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoprogenitor cells
d. NOTA
ANSWER:A

-
3. Which of the following are found in compact bone and cancellous bone?
a. Lamellae ~
cancellors
b. Haversian systems
c. Haversian canals
d. Blood vessels
ANSWER:A

-
4. Which of the following are ONLY found in cancellous bone?
a. Calcium salts
&
b. Trabeculae
c. Canaliculi
d. Volkmann's canals
ANSWER:B

-
5. What happens to the H-zone of the sarcomere in a fully contracted muscle?
-

a.Narrows
b.Constant
c.Disappears
-
d.No change
ANSWER:C

6. The muscle is able to shorten to produce motions and

- -
-
movements. This statement
pertains to what specific characteristic of the muscle:
a.Elasticity
b.Excitability
0
c.Contractility
d.NOTA
e.AOTA
ANSWER:C

7. A client goes to the gym in hopes to build his muscle mass. After 2 months of regular
--
training the client noticed an increase in the size of his muscle. This change is referred to as:
a.Muscle Atrophy
0b.Muscle Hypertrophy
c.Muscle Dystrophy
 d.Muscle Hyperplasia
ANSWER:b

-
8. Resting membrane of the skeletal
- muscle tissue
a.- 90 mV
0
b.- 55 mV
c.- 70 mV
d.- 95 mV
ANSWER:A

9. In comparing electron micrographs of a relaxed skeletal muscle fiber and a fully

--
contracted muscle fiber which would be seen only in the relaxed fiber?
a.Z disk
b.Myosin
c.A bands
d.H zone
e.I band
ANSWER:D

10.- e
Acetylcholinesterase n
is an important molecule e
in neuromuscular junction because it
a.Stimulates receptors on presynaptic terminal
b.Synthesizes acetylcholine from acetic acid and choline
c.Stimulates receptors within post synaptic membrane
d.Causes the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
0
e.Breaks down acetylcholine
ANSWER:E

--
11. Stores and releases calcium ions during contractile process
a.Myofilament
b.Tubules
c.Myosin
0
d.Sarcoplasmic reticulum
ANSWER:D

12.-Absolute refractory period:

a.Limits how many action potentials can be produced during a given period.
Ob.Prevents an action potential from starting another action potential at same point.
c.Period of time when a strong stimulus can initiate a second action potential
d.Both A and B
e.All of the above
ANSWER:B

-
13.In muscle contraction, the power stroke begins when the;
-

A.ATP is hydrolyzed by the myosin

B.Actin is attached to the myosin
C.Actin is released by the myosin heads
⑧
D.Inorganic phosphate and ADP are released into the myosin head
ANSWER:D

14.Which of the following is the sequence of events in the excitation-contraction coupling of

skeletal muscle.
 e
E 2. Conformational change of troponin-tropomyosin complex
1 Binding of myosin head with actin

A 3. Depolarization of sarcolemma
3 4. Activation of dihydropyridine receptor
.

2 5. Transmission of action potentials along the transverse tubule

↑ 6. Release of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum
A. 3,5,4,6,1,2
B. 3,4,5,6,2,1
C. 3,5,4, 6,2,1
D. 5,3,4,6,2,1
ANSWER:C

-
15.The -
major contractile proteins in muscle tissues are
0
A.myosin
-
and actin
B.myosin and tropomyosin
C.actin and troponin
D.troponin and tropomyosin
ANSWER:A

16.This is composed of filamentous proteins that passes lengthwise from myofibril to

myofibril, attaching it to another all the way across the muscle fiber.
A. Actin
B. Nebulin
C.Titin
0
D.Z disc
ANSWER:D

-
17.The binding of neurotransmitter at the receptor present in the end-plate initially affects
⑧A. ligand gated Na+channels
B. voltage gated Na+ channels
B. ligand gated K+ channels
D. voltage gated Ca++ channels
ANSWER:A

18.Bone ossification is a process by which the bone forms and it is also known as
osteogenesis. Which of the following statements is true regarding this process?
a. bone formation that occurs within connective tissue membranes is called endochondral
ossification
b. intramembranous ossification occurs when osteoclasts begin to produce bone within
connective tissue
c. the bones at the base of the skull and most of the remaining skeletal system develop
through the process of intramembranous ossification
0d. most bones of the body are formed through endochondral ossification, the process is best
observed in a long bones
ANSWER:D

------
19.When an inhibitory neurotransmitter is released at the pre-synaptic terminal, which
MOST likely take place at the-
event will--
- post synaptic terminal?
A. Opening of the Calcium channel
B.Opening of the Hydrogen channel st
0
C.Opening of the
& post
Potassium channel
 D.Opening of the Sodium channel
ANSWER:C

20.The- correct temporal- -

sequence for events -
at the neuromuscular junction is
A.action potential in the motor nerve; depolarization of the muscle end plate; uptake of Ca
2+ into the presynaptic nerve terminal
⑧
B.uptake of Ca 2+ into the presynaptic terminal; release of acetylcholine (ACh);
depolarization of the muscle end plate
C.release of ACh; action potential in the motor nerve; action potential in the muscle
D.uptake of Ca 2+ into the motor end plate; action potential in the motor end plate; action
potential in the muscle
E.release of ACh; action potential in the muscle end plate; action potential in the muscle
ANSWER:B

21.The upper limb consists of the bones of the arm, forearm, wrist, and hand. Which of the
-
following is the -
longest and largest bone of the upper limb?

⑧a. humerus
b. arm bone
c. femur
d. a&b
ANSWER:D

-00
22.Aggregation of unmyelinated axons and neuron cell bodies will form which of the
following structures?
A.White matter
0
B.Gray matter
C.Ganglia
D.nuclei
ANSWER:B

-23.In the CNS, astrocytes are involve in the…

A.Formation of blood brain barrier
B.Formation of myelin sheath
C.Formation of CSF
D.Formation of meninges
ANSWER:A

&
24.Concerned with detection of movement in visual fields, thus facilitating visual orientation,
searching, and tracking.
A. Inferior colliculus
B. Middle cerebral peduncle
0
C.Superior colliculus
D. None of the above
ANSWER:C

--
25.Consists of crossing corticospinal fibers.
A.Pyramidal decussation
B.Accessory (lateral) cuneate nucleus
C.Pyramids
D.None of the above
ANSWER:A
muscles of the⑤- tongue.
-
26.Gives rise to general somatic efferent -
(GSE)fibers that innervate the intrinsic and extrinsic

A. Inferior salivary nucleus of CN IX

B.Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X
⑧
C. Hypoglossal nucleus of CN XII
D. None of the above
ANSWER:C

-
27.Gives rise to fibers that innervate muscles of mastication
A. Principal sensory nucleus of CN V
B. Motor nucleus of CN V
C. Superior salivatory nucleus of CN VII
C.NOTA
ANSWER:B

28.An auditory relay nucleus that receives binaural input from the lateral lemniscus. Projects
-
to the medial geniculate body via the brachium of the inferior colliculus.
A. Nucleus of the superior colliculus
B.Nucleus of the inferior colliculus
C.Lateral lemniscus
D. None of the above
ANSWER:B

29.The-
Cerebral aqueduct interconnects the third and fourth ventricles.
0
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:A

30.Major neurons type in the CNS

-
A.Bipolar
⑧
B.Multipolar
C.Unipolar
D.B & C
ANSWER:B

-> that act as a scavenger cell in the CNS

31.Neuroglia -

A.Astrocyte
B.Ependymal cell
O & cell
C.Microglial
D.Oligodendrocyte
ANSWER:C
A
32.All of the following stimulus can develop a nerve action potential except:
-

A.Threshold
B.Maximal
C.Supramaximal
⑧
D.Subthreshold
ANSWER:D

33. Which statement about the cartilage is true?

True abt- Cartilage
A. It receives a generous blood supply.
B. It protects body structures.
C. It’s completely flexible.
0
D. It cushions and absorbs shock.
-

ANSWER:D

0
34. The type of joint that permits free movement is classified as:
A. synarthrosis.
B. cartilaginous.
0
C. diarthrosis.
D. fibrous.
ANSWER:C

35. The components of the CNS include:

A. the spinal cord and cranial nerves.
⑧
B. the brain and spinal cord.
C. the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
D. the cranial nerves and spinal nerves.
ANSWER:B

36. The brain is protected from shock and infection by:

A. bones, the meninges, and CSF.
⑧
B. gray matter, bones, and the primitive structures.
C. the blood-brain barrier, CSF, and white matter.
D. axons, neurons, and meninges
ANSWER:A

37. A 52-year-old male patient recently diagnosed with a muscular disorder comes in for a
follow-up consultation. In order to design an appropriate care plan, the nurse believes it’s
essential for the patient to understand the basics of muscular function. She goes over the
main functions of muscles and then tests the patient’s comprehension with a question. “To
assess your understanding, can you tell me which of the following is NOT a recognized
function of muscles?”
A. Facilitate voluntary and involuntary movement
B. Produce heat to maintain body temperature
0
C. Absorb nutrients
D. Maintain posture and stability
ANSWER:C

38. A 65-year-old male patient presents to the ER with episodes of facial numbness and
weakness. Nurse Ann, wanting to assess cranial nerve function and facial muscle integrity,
requests the patient to make various facial expressions. When asked to raise his eyebrows
and produce forehead wrinkles, which of the following muscles is being tested in this
context?
A. Orbicularis oculi
B. Orbicularis oris
0
C. Occipitofrontalis
D. Levator labii superioris
ANSWER:C
 Barrier

&
39. Which of the following structures or processes serves as either physical barriers or
physiological processes (transport system) that primarily function to-separate the circulating
blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS)?
A. Circle of Willis
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Corticobulbar projections
D. Blood-brain-
0 barrier
ANSWER:D

40. Which of the following brain regions, if damaged during the accident, is most likely
responsible for the observed amnestic syndrome?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Thalamus
C. Cerebrum
0
D. Hippocampus
ANSWER:D

41. Term for the gray matter on the deeper part of the brain:
⑧
I. Nuclei
II. Ganglia
III. cortex
IV. Nerve
A. I, II and III only
B. I and II only
C. III and IV only
D. I ONLY
ANSWER:D

42. While most bones of the upper and lower limbs are categorized as long bones, how
would you categorize the sacrum and facial bones?”
A. Irregular bones
B. Flat bones
C. Short bones
D. Sesamoid bones
ANSWER:A

43.Epiphyseal plate
A. a.k.a. growth plate
B. this separates the epiphysis from the diaphysis
C. is where growth in length of long bones occurs at both ends of the diaphysis
D. when ossified it is called epiphyseal line
0
E. all of the above
F. none of the above
ANSWER:E X

a.Receiving sensory input

- >
44.All of the following are the functions of the nervous system, except:

b.Integrating information
c.Controlling muscles and glands
0
d.It does not maintain homeostasis
e.Establishing and maintaining mental activity
 ANSWER:D

45.What are the& two major divisions of the PERIPHERAL nervous system:
a.CNS and PNS sense

⑧
b.Sensory division and motor division Motor
c.Somatic NS and autonomic NS
d.Sympathetic and parasympathetic
ANSWER:b

-
46.This is a type of cell that make up the nervous system that receives stimuli, conduct
action potentials and transmit signals to other neurons and effector organs.
0
a.Nerve cells
b.Glial cells
c.Neuroglia
d.Astrocytes
ANSWER:a

47.This is a glial cells of the CNS that has a star shape structures and have long branches that
support the neurons.
a.Microglia
b.Oligodendrocytes
c.Ependymal cells
-star shape
0
d.Astrocytes A
-

ANSWER:d

48.A neuron has 3 important parts. What do you call the part that contains a single nucleus
that serves as a source of information for gene expression?
⑧
a.Cell body
b.Dendrites
c.Axon
d.Myelin sheath
ANSWER:a

49.____________ gaps in the myelin sheath.

a.Node or Renvier
0
b.Node of Ranvier
c.White matter
d.Gray matter
ANSWER:b

50.White matter: 60% of the human brain; Gray matter: 40% of the human brain.
a.true
O
b.partially true
c.partially false
d.false
ANSWER:a

51.This the most common type of synapse wherein information exchanged unidirectionally
via neurotransmitters (acetylcholine, serotonin, epinephrine and etc.)
-
·
a.Mechanical synapse
b.Chemical synapse
 c.Electrical synapse
d.Thermal synapse
ANSWER:b

52.A reflex arc generally has ______ components?

I. sensory receptors III.interneuron V. effector
organ
II. Sensory neuron IV. Motor neuron VI. Affector
organ
a.I, II, III, IV, V and VI
⑧
b.I, II, III, IV, and V
c.I, II, III and IV
d.I, II and III
e.I and II
ANSWER:b

53.This is a spinal cord reflex that occurs when muscles contract in response to a stretching
force applied to them. This is sometimes called as the patellar reflex.
0
a.Knee-jerk reflex
b.Withdrawal reflex
c.Tendon reflex
d.Flexor reflex
ANSWER:a

54.This is considered the largest nerve in the body that arises from the sacral plexus.
a.Femoral nerve
b.Phrenic nerve
0
c.Sciatic nerve
d.Musculocutaneous nerve
ANSWER:c

55.1st statement: Brain serves as the control center of all body functions. 2nd statement:
Brain consists the Brainstem, Cerebrum, Cerebellum, and Diencephalon.
a.Both statements are false
b.1st statement is true while 2nd is not
⑧
c.Both statements are true
d.2nd statement is true while 1st is not
ANSWER:c

-
56.Damage to small areas of the brain stem can cause death.
a.true
O
b.false
c.partially true
d.partially false
ANSWER:a
X

O
a.Breathing
&
57.All of the following are the important functions of our midbrain except?

b.Vision & hearing

c.Consciousness
d.Motor control
 e.Sleep/wake cycle
ANSWER:a

58.The--
epithalamus consists of the habenular nuclei and the pineal body. Which of the
following is the vital role of the pineal body?
a.Emotions through the sense of smell
0
b.Onset of puberty and the light dark cycle
c.Regulation of food intake and water balance
d.Integrating and processing of information
ANSWER:b

59.A client who has had a- - -

stroke appears to understand words that are spoken but can not
-
verbally respond. The nurse clarifies that this type of aphasia is?
-

0
A. Brocas
B. Global
C. Receptive
D. Wernicke
ANSWER:a

60. Which of the following is- true about the muscle fiber?
I.It is made up of myofibrils
II.They are long cylindrical cell covered by endomysium and sarcolemma
III. It contains sarcoplasm, myofibrils, many peripherally located nuclei, mitochondria,
transverse tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, and terminal cistern
IV.Muscle fibers has striated appearance
0
A.I, II, III and IV only
B.I,II and III only
C.I and II only
D.NOTA
ANSWER:a

61. Ossification
A. a.k.a. Osteogenesis
B. is the formation of bone by osteoblasts
C. occurs by appositional growth on the surface of previously existing bone or cartilage
⑧
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
ANSWER:d

62. The hypothalamus is the "emotional-visceral" center of the brain and, thus, is an
T
important part of the?
A. Wernicke
B. Reticular activating system
&
C. Limbic system
D. Broca's area
ANSWER:c

63. The -
spaces occupied by the osteocyte cell bodies are called______.
-

A. canaliculi
0
B. lacunae
C. matrix vesicle
 D. medullary cavity
ANSWER:b

64. Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the?

A. Cerebrum
B. Hypothalamus
0
C. Cerebellum balance
·

D. Thalamus
ANSWER:c

65. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence from outermost to
innermost layers of the meninges?
-

A. Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater

B. Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
C. Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
0
D. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater DAP -

ANSWER:d

66. Which of the following is favored by the parasympathetic nervous system?

A. Emergency
B. Exercise
O
C. Digestion
D. Embarrassment
ANSWER:c

67. Which of the following effects is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system?
P A. Decreased activity of the digestive system
B. Decreased urine output
C. Decreased secretion
0D. Decreased heart rate
ANSWER:d

68. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the?
A. Central nervous system
B. Middle nervous system
C. Automatic nervous system
O
D. Autonomic nervous system
ANSWER:d

69.True of the ependymal cells:

I. Its basement membrane helps in the formation of the blood brain barrier
II.It helps in the production of the cerebrospinal fluid
III. They are located nearest to the lateral ventricles
IV. It is responsible for the formation of the blood cerebrospinal fluid barrier.
A.I and II 0 C. II, III and IV
B.II and III D. NOTA
ANSWER:c

70.True of the graded potential:

A.These are potential that did not reached the normal resting membrane potential
B.These are potentials that cannot be stimulated further
 irre abt-graded potential
0
C.These are potentials that did not reach the threshold level to stimulate an action potential
D.These are potential that are big enough to create a strong wave of action potential
ANSWER:c

71.Lobe of the brain that is considered the -

seat of intelligence?
⑧
A.Frontal lobe C. temporal lobe
B.Parietal lobe D. occipital lobe
ANSWER:a
X
-
72.True of the neuroglia’s except:
A.They are more numerous than neurons
B.They retain the ability to divide unlike the neurons
0
C.They receive stimuli and transmits action potential
D.They are responsible for the support of the neurons
ANSWER:c

- -
73.True of the axons except:
A.They conduct action potential away from the central nervous system
B.They conduct action potential towards the central nervous system
C.Axons maybe branched or unbranched
0
D.Surrounded by myelin sheath produced by neurolemma cells
E.NOTA
ANSWER:d

--X
74.True of the Nodes of Ranvier except:
A.They can be seen in every millimetre between oligodendrocytes or Schwann cell
B.They are devoid of myelin sheath
C.Current flows through them easily
⑧
D.Current flows through continuous conduction
ANSWER:d

-of the resting membrane potential:

75.True
A.Outside of cell is negative and inside of the cell is positive
B.Cell is said to be unpolarized
⑧
C.Results from differences in concentration of ions across cell membrane and the
permeability characteristics of the cell membrane
D.Concentration of the sodium and potassium is independent from the sodium potassium
exchange pump
ANSWER:c
x
-
3of the midbrain except:
76.True
A.It contains both sensory tracts and motor tracts
B.The midbrain contains nuclei associated with the oculomotor and trochlear nerves
C.The superior colliculi responds to visual stimuli while the inferior colliculi responds to
auditory stimuli that coordinated the movements of the head, eyes and trunk
0
P
D.It contains a cardiovascular center which regulates heart rate and blood vessel diameter.
ANSWER:d midbrain

-
77.Term for the gray matter on the deeper part of the brain:
-

0
A.Nuclei C.cortex
B.Ganglion D. AOTA
 ANSWER:a

78.In the central nervous system, the white mater forms conduction pathway or nerve tracts
&
while in the PNS they form the connective tissues called the_____
-
A.Nerves
0 C. ganglions
B.Tracts D. nuclei
ANSWER:a

79.Almost all bones of the body can be classified into five main types based on shape: long,
-
short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid. -
All are true -
regarding long bones except.
x
a. tubular in shape
0
b. function in movement of appendages
c. most of the bones of the upper and lower limbs are long bones
d. none of the above
ANSWER:b

80.The most significant age-related changes in the skeletal system affect the joints as well as
the -quality and -
quantity of bone
-
matrix. Aging results in
a. increased production of synovial fluid in joints
0
b. joints lose articular cartilage and become less flexible with age
c. decreased bone fractures
d. all are correct
ANSWER:b

81.Bone is the body’s major calcium reservoir, storing 99% of total body calcium. One way to
maintain the level of calcium in the blood is to control the rates of calcium resorption from
bone into blood and of calcium deposition from blood into bone. What hormone operating
via negative feedback stimulates osteoclast to breakdown bone and release calcium into the
blood?
a. parathyroid hormone
⑧
b. calcitonin
c. vitamin d
d. all of the above
ANSWER:a

82. Chondrocytes are mature cartilage cells within the_____ , and they are derived
from______ .
A. perichondrium, fibroblasts
0
B. perichondrium, chondroblasts
C. lacunae, fibroblasts
D. lacunae, chondroblasts
ANSWER:b

83.The brainstem contains at least- X

o
A.CN 1 and II
10 cranial nerves except:
C. CN II and 11
B.CN I and 10 D. CN V and X
ANSWER: A

--
84. Which of these substances makes up the major portion of bone?
A. collagen
⑧
B. hydroxyapatite
 C. proteoglycans aggregates
D. osteocytes
E. osteoblasts
ANSWER:b

85. The- flexible strength-

of bone occurs because of
A. osteoclasts.
B. ligaments.
C. hydroxyapatite.
⑧
D. collagen fibers.
E. periosteum.
ANSWER:d

- -
86.This is a localized mass of blood released from blood vessels but confined
-
within an organ
0
or a-
space.
A. callus
0
B. hematoma
C. woven bone
D. all of the above
ANSWER:b

-
87.Growth in the length of a long bone occurs
-
-

A. at the primary ossification center.

B. beneath the periosteum.
C. at the center of the diaphysis.
O
D. at the epiphyseal plate.
E. at the epiphyseal line.
ANSWER:d

88.The periosteum
⑧
A. is an epithelial tissue membrane.
B. covers the outer and internal surfaces of bone.
C. contains only osteoblasts.
D. becomes continuous with collagen fibers of tendons or ligaments.
E. has a single fibrous layer.
ANSWER:a

89.A fracture in the shaft of a bone is a break in the

A. epiphysis.
B. perichondrium.
0
C. diaphysis.
D. articular cartilage.
ANSWER:c

90.Yellow marrow is
A. found mostly in children’s bones.
B. found in the epiphyseal plate.
C. important for blood cell production.
0
D. mostly adipose tissue.
ANSWER:d
 CNS
-
Brain PNs-cord
91. Central Nervous System: Brain; Peripheral Nervous System:________
⑧
A. Spinal Cord
B. Cerebrum
C. Trochlear
D. Cranial Nerve
ANSWER:a

--
92. The hypoglossal nerve has the function of _________.
0
A. Motor
B. Sensory
C. A and B
D. NOTA
ANSWER:a

93.Which- part of the brain- -

does the cranial nerve I and cranial -
nerve II arises?
A.Pons
B.Midbrain
C.Medulla oblongata
D.Primitive part of the brain
0
ANSWER:d

94. The distorted muscle map of the body in the brain is termed as_____.
o
A. Motor homunculus
B. Sensory homunculus
C. Temporal Lobe
D. Parietal Lobe
answer: A

&
95. Which of the following are the types of synapses:
A. Presynaptic and Postsynaptic -so
0
B. Electrical and Chemical
C. Divergent and Convergent
D. NOTA
ANSWER:b

-
-
96. Which of the following spinal nerve is responsible for hip movement?
A. C1-C8
B. L1-L5
0
C. T11-L2
D. C7-T4
ANSWER:c

---x
97. All of the following are true about Enteric Nervous System, except:
A. Consist of nerve plexuses within the wall of the digestive tract.
⑧
B. It contributes from four sources.
C. It contribute in the ANS motor neurons that connect the CNS to digestive tract
D. All of the above
ANSWER:b

- -
98. It is characterized by paralysis of the muscles that affects only one side of the body.
- -

o
A. Hemiplegia
B. Hemiparesis
C. bilateral paralysis
0
D. Unilateral Paralysis
ANSWER:a/ d

99. What cranial nerve is responsible for facial expression and sensory innervation of 2/3 of
the tongue?
A. CN II
B. CN V
C. CN VIII
O
D. CN VII
ANSWER:d

100. How many cranial nerves attached into our brain stem?
A. 11
B. 12
0
C. 10
D. 15
ANSWER:c
 SEMI FINAL EXAMINATION
-
1. Blood Volume for male is 5-6 liters, how about for female adult?
0
a. 4-5 liters c. 5-6 ML
b. 6-7 liters d. 8-9 liters

process
-
2. What do your call is the process that continuous throughout life, and also this
is vital in order for our formed elements to be produced?
-
a. Stem cells b. Hemocytoblasts c. Hemacytoblast O
d.
Hematopoiesis

3. Formed elements accounts for 45% of the total composition of blood. This
includes all of the following except:
a. Erythrocytes b. WBC c. Platelets Cd. Plasma

Introduction of a fluid other than blood into the blood:0

4. ⑧
-
- INFUSION; Transfer of
blood or blood components
-
from one individual to another: __________
0
-

a. Transfusion b. Blood chemistry c. Blood typing d.

Cross matching

5. Statement 1: Plasma is a pale-yellow fluid that contains dissolved proteins.

Statement 2: It consists of about 91% water, 7% proteins, and 2% accounts for
other components.
0
a. BOTH statements are true
b. BOTH statements are false
c. 1st is true, 2nd is false
d. 1st is false, 2nd is true

6. As a 1st year nursing student, you learned in your anatomy class that red blood
cells have the ability to bend or fold around its center but they are unable to divide.
What do you call is the essential component of your RBC which is responsible for the
- -

cell’s red color?

-

a. Hematocytosis b. Erythropoietin ⑧c. Hemoglobin

d. Heme

-
7. Under the granulocytes we have 3 kinds. What kind is the one that contain
-

cytoplasmic granules that stain bright red with an acidic stain. -

--
-

a. Basophil b. Eosinophil c. Neutrophil d.

Lymphocyte

8. As a new nurse in the ward, you know that blood doping is the intentional process
or artificial way of increasing the circulating RBC. Your patient is an athlete and ask
you how he can increase the RBC in the body. What would be your response?
a. Through transfusion b. Blood substitute
c. Erythropoietin injection 0 d. ALL OF THE ABOVE

9. You are a new nurse in Ronald P. Guzman Medical Center, the doctor orders CBC
to your female patient AMSV. You know the normal values of your hemoglobin. Upon
seeing the result, she only has 10 grams per 100 ml of blood. What condition will
 come into your mind upon knowing that the patient has low measurement of
-

hemoglobin?
⑧
-

A. Leukemia B. Leukopenia C. Anemia D. Erythrocytosis

10. Statement 1: Blood is a type of connective tissue; Statement 2: it consists of

plasma and formed elements
a. Both statements are false
0
b. Both are true
c. The 1st is true while the 2nd is false
d. 2nd statement is true while the 1st one is false

11. You are nurse at Cagayan Valley Medical Center, you know that when the mother
is Rh-NEGATIVE and the fetus is Rh-POSITIVE this could result to Rh incompatibility.
Therefore, you know that this could result to what condition?
a. Erythrocytosis fetalis
b. Hemodynamic Disease of Newborn (HDN)
c. Hemolytic Disorder of Newbie (HDN)
&d. Erythroblastosis Fetalis
12. The smallest white blood cells, which include B cells and T cells, are
a. Eosinophils. b. Neutrophils. &
c. Lymphocytes. d.
Basophils e. Monocytes.

13. Platelets are derived from megakaryocytes.

A. are cell fragments.
B. have surface molecules that attach to collagen.
C. play an important role in clot formation.
D. All of these are correct.

14. What are the-

2 common ways to measure the Blood’s ability to clot.
-

a. CBC and WBC Count 0 c. Platelet count and Prothrombin time

b. PTT and CBC d. ALL OF THE ABOVE

15. When the blood vessel is damaged, loss of blood is minimized by 3 processes.
What are the 3 processes
0
⑧a. Vascular spasm
b. Coagulation
c. Platelet plug formation
d. Platelet adhesion

16. What areen

2 important chemicals that stimulate vascular spasm?
a. Thromboxanes and peptide endothelin
⑧ c. Fibrinogen and
thrombin
b. Prothrombinase and fibrinogen d. Thrombin and
thromboxanes

17. Universal Donor: TYPE O; universal Recipient: _______

a. Type A b. Type B Oc. Type AB d. Type D

-
18. What is considered as the most common type of WBC and their nuclei are
commonly lobed.
0
a. Neutrophil b. Basophil c. Eosinophil d.
Monocytes
 19. What blood type can safely donate to someone with blood type B? SELECT ALL
THAT APPLY.
a. Type A 0 b. Type B c. Type AB 0 d. Type O

20. PLASMA: 45%; FORMED ELEMENTS: 55%.

a. TRUE 0b. FALSE c. PARTIALLY TRUE d.
PARTIALLY FALSE

21. Where is the mitral valve of the heart located? Between the __________.
⑧
A. left atrium and left ventricle C. right ventricle and the pulmonary
trunk
B. left ventricle and the aorta D. right atrium and right ventricle

22. Choose the structure known as the pacemaker of the heart from the following
A. atrio-ventricular node 0
B. sino-atrial node C. atrio-ventricular bundle D.
the bundle of His

23. Where is the aortic valve located?

A. between the right atrium and right ventricle
B. between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
0
C. between the left ventricle and the aorta
D. between the left atrium and left ventricle

24. Which of the following is a difference between -

e
cardiac muscle and skeletal
muscle?

oA. cardiac muscle is not striated (and skeletal muscle is).

B. cardiac muscle fibres are branched (and skeletal muscle fibres are not).
C. skeletal muscle is involuntary and is uni-nucleate (and cardiac nmuscle is neither).
D. skeletal muscle has intercalated discs (and cardiac muscle doesn't).

25. Nurse Chickie would know what layer of the heart that is responsible for the
cardiac contractility.
a. Endocardium b. Myocardium c. Epicardium d.
Pericardium

26. In memorizing the valves of the heart, which one should Nurse AA remembered
paired correctly?
a. Semilunar Valve: mitral on the left c. AV valve: pulmonic on the
right
b. Semilunar valve: tricuspid on the left 0 d. AV valve: tricuspid on the
right

27. Nurse Vin knows that the nodes and the Purkinje fibers can conduct their own
impulse if need arises. If the
SA and AV nodes fail, how many beats per minute can the Purkinje fibers create?
- -

a. 60-100 bpm 0 c. 20-40 bpm

b. 40-60 bpm d. 10-20 bpm

28. Nurse Ky knows that the correct order of the conduction system is:
a. AV node- SA node- Bundles of His- Branches of bundle- Purkinje fibers
b. SA node- AV node- Branches of Bundle- Bundle of His- Purkinje fibers
c. AV node- SA node- Branches of bundle- Bundle of His- Purkinje Fibers
⑧
d. SA node- AV node- Bundle of His- Branches of Bundle of His- Purkinje
Fibers

29. Cardiac output is the amount of blood ejected by the heart each minute. How
should Nurse Jen compute the CO?
a. CO= SV x RR 0c. CO= SV x HR
b. CO= RR x HR d. CO= (DP-SP)/3

30. After the check- up, the clients blood pressure measure 130/90. The nurse
determines that the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is which of the following?
a. 105 mm Hg c. 100 mm Hg
O
b. 103 mm Hg d. 90 mm Hg

31. Laboratory data shows the patient’s stroke volume is around 80 mL. Nurse JL
knows that the patient’s heart rate is 89 bpm. What is the client’s cardiac output?
a. 7650 mL c. 7150 mL
b. 7110 mL 0d. 7120 mL
32. P waves on ECG represent
a. Atria depolarization
⑧ c. ventricle depolarization
b. Atria repolarization d. ventricle repolarization

33. All of the following are function of cardiovascular system except:

a. Regulating Blood Pressure
b. Transporting gases and nutrients
c. Regulating Blood Supply
d. Routing Blood
e. AOTA

34. An ECG is used to:

a. monitor electrical activity of the heart
b. monitor electrical activity of the brain
c. monitor electrical activity of the muscles
d. monitor electrical activity of the lungs

&
35. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood away from
- the body?
a. Capillary b. Vein c. Artery d. Atrium

36. T wave on ECG represents:

a. Atria depolarization c. ventricle depolarization
b. Atria repolarization ⑧d. ventricle repolarization

37. Which of the following best represents the lub-dub sound during the heartbeat?
a. The opening of the atrioventricular valve followed by the closure of the semilunar
valve
b. The opening of the atrioventricular valve followed by the opening of the semilunar
valve
c. The closure of the atrioventricular valve followed by the opening of semilunar
valve
d. The closure of atrioventricular valve followed by the closure of the
semilunar valve
38. Stroke Volume is the
a. product of heart rate and stroke volume
b. the volume of blood pumped out the ventricle of the heart during each
⑧
systolic contraction
c. product of the end-systolic volume and end-diastolic volume
d. it is the average pressure in the ventricle

39. Cardiac Output is the

a. product of heart rate and stroke volume
0
b. the volume of blood pumped out the ventricle of the heart during each systolic
contraction
c. product of the end-systolic volume and end-diastolic volume
d. it is the average pressure in the ventricle

40. Refractory Period is the

a. time during a muscle or neuron is unable to respond to a new stimulus
b. occurs during depolarization phase
c. period which stronger than normal stimulus
⑧
d. brief pauses in heart activity after each heartbeat

41. It is a component of the heart that ensures unidirectional blood flow.

a. atrium b. ventricles c. artery 0d. valve

42. Aging can result into

a. decreased heart rate
⑧ c. hypotrophy of the ventricle
b. decreased arrhythmias d. increased cardiac output

43. It modifies the heart rate and stroke volume through the nervous and hormonal
mechanism.
a. Intrinsic Regulation c. Refractory Period
0 Extrinsic Regulation
b. d. Absolute Period

44. All of the following isI

true about the baroreceptors except:
a. Baroreceptors monitor blood pressure
- -
x
b. Baroreceptors reflexes decrease heart rate and stroke volume when BP increases
c. Baroreceptor reflexes increase heart rate and stroke volume when BP
increases
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

45. It is the---
average blood pressure in the aorta.
a. Mean Arterial Pressure
O b. Cardiac Output c. Blood Pressure
d. Pulse Pressure

46. The---
maximum pressure of the aorta isa called _____.
a. Diastolic Pressure ⑧b. Systolic Pressure c. Aortic Pressure d.
Blood Pressure

47. Conducting system is like an internal electrical wiring in our body. It consists of
specialized cell that that transmit electrical signals to coordinate the heartbeat.
a. Both statements are true.
0
 b. Both statements are false
c. 1st statement is true.
d. 2nd statement is true.

48. Which of these structures returns blood to the right atrium?

a. Coronary Sinus d. Both B and C
b. Inferior Vena Cava e. All of the above
c. Superior Vena Cava

49. During the depolarization phase of the action potential in cardiac muscle the
_________ closes.
a. Voltage-gated Na c. Volatage-gated Ca
b. Voltage-gated K
⑧ d. Voltage-gate O

50. It is the flow of the blood from the heart through the lungs.
a. Systemic Circulation c. Systematic Circulation
b. Pleural Circulation Od. Pulmonic Circulation
*
51. All of the following are the function of the lymphatic system except:
a. Maintain fluid in balance
-

b. Absorbs fats in large intestine

0
c. Defends against microorganism
d. AOTA

52. Lymph is delivered by one of two large trunks, what are those two?
-

a. Left Lymphatic Duct and Thoracic Duct

b. Thoracic Duct and Subclavian Vein
c. Left and Right Lymphatic Duct
0
d. Right Lymphatic Duct and Thoracic Duct

53. It is a reticular connective tissue that contains lymphocytes her cells.

a. Peyer’s Patch b. Lymphatic Node 0c. Lymphatic Tissue
d. B cells

54. It is the isolated clusters of lymphoid tissue and generate memory lymphocyte
for long term immunity?
a. Lymphatic Node b. Peyer’s Patch c. Memory Cell d.
B cells
55. The location of tonsils that lie at the base of the tongue.
a. Palatine Tonsils b. Pharyngeal Tonsil 0c. Lingual Tonsil
d. NOTA

56. Filtration: macrophages destroy microorganisms and debris; Immune system

activation: monitor for antigens and mount an attack against them.
⑧
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. 1st statement is false
d. 2nd statement is false

57. It is a bean shaped and surrounded by a fibrous capsule. It has two histologically
-
-
-

region.
-

Lymph nobes
 a. Lymphatic b. Lymphatic Duct c. Lymphatic Tissue
Od. Lymph Nodes

58. What are the-

a. Red and Blue Pulp
- -
two distinct area of the spleen.
b. Green and Red Pulp c. White and Black Pulp
⑧d. Red and White Pulp

59. All of the following is true about the-

-
size of the thymus,
-

a. In infants, it is found in the inferior neck and extends into the mediastinum where
it partially overlies the heart
b. It increases in size and is most active during childhood
c. It stops growing during adolescence and then gradually atrophies
d. AOTA

60. It is the ability

-
to resist the harmful effect of the microorganism and other
foreign substances.
-

a. Immunity
⑧ b. Adaptive Immunity c. Innate Immunity d.
Artificial Immunity

61. What are theD two types of acquired immunity?

-

a. Active and Natural b. Passive and Artificial c. Artificial and Natural

-

d. Active and Passive

62. It is an antibody made after exposure to an infection

a. Active Artificial Immunity
b. Active Natural Immnunity
⑧
c. Passive Artificial Immunity
d. Passive Natural Immunity

63. It is a protein produced by B cells of the immune system that serves as an

antibody that defends against pathogens.
a. Albumin b. Immunoglobulin c. Globulin d.
Fibrinogen

a. IgA b. IgM c. IgG d. IgD

I
64. It is the most abundant antibody and it binds and neutralizes food allergies.
0

65. It is triggered by interaction among factors B, D, and P and polysaccharide

molecules present on microorganism.
a. Classical Pathway c. Intrinsic Pathway
b. Extrinsic Pathway 0d. Alternative Pathway

66. Macrophages have -specific names, which is- correctly paired?

-

a. Dust Cells: Kidney 0c. Kupffer Cells: Liver

b. Microglia: PNS d. Dust Cells: Spleen

67. Local inflammation- produces the symptoms of

1.Redness 2.Heat 3.Swelling 4. Pain
5.Loss of function
a. 1 and 2
b, 1,3,4 and 5
c. 3,4,5
All
O
d. 1,2,3,4,5

-
68. It is a large molecule that stimulate an adaptive immune response.
a. Antibody 0 b. Antigen c. B cell d. T cell

69. Where does- T cells and B-

cells originate.
a.
O Red Bone Marrow b. Yellow Bone Marrow c. Liver
d. Liver

70. It is the suppression of the immune system’s response to an antigen.

-

a. Inhibition 0b. Tolerance c. Suppressants d.

Contraindication

71. Which statement below about hormones is true?

A. Hormones are enzymes that catalyze reactions
B. Hormones are released into the blood circulation
C. Hormones affect all cells of the body
D. Hormones are released by neurons at synapses

--
72. Which hormones are soluble in blood?
A. Steroid hormones
B. Hormones produced by the adrenal cortex
C. The sex hormones
D. Those released by the pituitary gland

73. Which statement about the hypothalamus is correct?

A. The hypothalamus is connected to the brain by the infundibulum
B. The hypothalamus is composed of glandular epithelial tissue
O
C. The hypothalamus se secretes releasing hormones
D, The hypothalamus se secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine

74. What- hormone does the3 thyroid produce?

A. thyroid stimulating hormone B. calcitriol C. thyroxine D. parathyroid
-

0
hormone

75. What- hormone(s) does the- -

adrenal medulla produce?
A. aldosterone ⑧
B. epinephrine and norepinephrine C. corticosteroids
D. glucocorticoids

76. What is produced by the-beta cells of the pancreas?

O
-

A. angiotensin-converting enzyme B. glucocorticoids C. glucagon D.

insulin

77. Which- o
gland or organ releases erythropoietin?
A. The kidneys
0 B. The adrenal glands C. The anterior
pituitary
D. The pancreas

-does parathyroid hormone have?

78. What effect
0
A. It increases plasma Ca* concentration
B. It decreases plasma Ca2+ concentration
 C. It increases the rate of ATP formation
D. It stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine

79. Which one of the following is&NOT part of the endocrine system?
A. the islets of Langerhans (pancreatic islets)
B. the thyroid gland
C. the acini cells of the pancreas
D. the parathyroid glands

0 3
80. Which hormone stimulates the kidneys to retain water and increase blood
-
pressure?
0
a) Aldosterone b) Estrogen c) Testosterone d)
Progesterone

-
81. Which of the following glands is known as the -
"master gland" because it controls
the
--functions of many other endocrine glands?
a) Thyroid gland b) Adrenal gland 0c) Pituitary gland d)
Pancreas

--
82. Which hormone is produced by the adrenal glands and helps regulate stress
responses, metabolism, and immune function?
a) Insulin 0b) Cortisol c) Thyroxine d) Growth
hormone

--
83. The thyroid gland primarily produces which hormone that regulates metabolism
and- growth?
a) Insulin ⑧b) Thyroxine (T4) c) Estrogen d)
Testosterone

84. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating- uterine contractions during

childbirth and milk ejection during breastfeeding?
a) Prolactin b) Oxytocin c) Estrogen d) Progesterone

③
85. Growth hormone (GH) is secreted by which gland and plays a key role in
-

stimulating growth and development?

-

a) Thyroid gland ⑧b) Pituitary gland c) Adrenal gland d)

Pancreas

86. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating the body's circadian
rhythm and
- sleep-wake cycle?
a) Melatonin b) Cortisol c) Aldosterone d) Thyroxine

and the- --
87. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the maturation of ovarian follicles
secretion of estrogen in females?
a) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
c) Prolactin d) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
(TSH)

88. Where is the--adrenal gland located in the body?

a) In the neck, just below the thyroid gland ⑧
b) On top of each kidney
kidney
 c) Behind the stomach d) Inside the brain, near
the hypothalamus

&-
89. Which of the following is not a part of the endocrine system?
a) Thyroid gland 0b) Liver
c) Ovaries d) Pineal gland

90. What is the- -

primary function of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the body?
-

a)
0 Regulating blood calcium levels b) Regulating blood
glucose levels
c) Regulating blood pressure d) Regulating body temperature

-
91. Which of the following is a primary function of the lymphatic system?
a) Pumping blood throughout the body
b) Transporting oxygen to tissues
⑧
c) Filtering and returning interstitial fluid to the bloodstream
d) Digesting fats in the small intestine

-D-
92. What is the primary role of lymph nodes in the lymphatic system?
a) Production of lymphocytes
b) Removal of carbon dioxide from lymph
8
c) Filtration of lymph and trapping pathogens
d) Storage of excess lymphocytes

93. Which organ is considered theD

largest lymphatic organ in the body?
a)
0 Spleen X
b) Thymus c) Tonsils d) Appendix

94. -
Lymphatic vessels transport lymph, which is:
a) Red blood cells b) White blood cells 0
c) Plasma d)
Interstitial fluid

95. Which type of immunity involves the production of antibodies in -

response to
exposure to a foreign antigen?
-
a) Innate immunity 0 b) Active immunity c) Passive immunity d) Acquired
immunity

96.
- -
Passive immunity can be acquired through:
a) Vaccination
b) Antibodies passed from mother to fetus during pregnancy
0
c) Exposure to pathogens in the environment
d) Self-production of antibodies after infection

-
97. Which type of immunity is present at birth and provides immediate defense
against pathogens?
a) Acquired immunity b) Adaptive immunity
c)
⑧ Innate immunity d) Cellular immunity

98.-Immunization through vaccination is an example of:

a) Active natural immunity b) Passive natural immunity
c)
⑧ Active artificial immunity d) Passive artificial immunity

----
99. Which type of lymphocyte is primarily responsible for antibody production?
 a) T cells ⑥
b) B cells c) NK cells d)
Macrophages

100.--
Helper T cells are important in the immune response because they:
e

a) Directly kill infected cells

⑧ b) Produce antibodies
c) Activate other immune cells d) Phagocytose pathogens