Maternal & Child Health

Nursing Exam 1 (50 Items)

In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and
answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make
a print out.

1. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to

occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?

A. Sperm count
B. Sperm motility
C. Sperm maturity
D. Semen volume

2. A couple who wants to conceive but has been

unsuccessful during the last 2 years has undergone many
diagnostic procedures. When discussing the situation with
the nurse, one partner states, “We know several friends in
our age group and all of them have their own child already,
Why can’t we have one?”. Which of the following would be
the most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this couple?

A. Fear related to the unknown

B. Pain related to numerous procedures.
C. Ineffective family coping related to infertility.
D. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.

3. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the

pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first
trimester?

A. Dysuria
B. Frequency
C. Incontinence
D. Burning

4. Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second

trimester, are most likely the result of which of the
following?
A. Increased plasma HCG levels
B. Decreased intestinal motility
C. Decreased gastric acidity
D. Elevated estrogen levels

5. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to

observe chloasma?

A. Breast, areola, and nipples

B. Chest, neck, arms, and legs
C. Abdomen, breast, and thighs
D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose

6. A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she

walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the
following as the cause?

A. The large size of the newborn

B. Pressure on the pelvic muscles
C. Relaxation of the pelvic joints
D. Excessive weight gain

7. Which of the following represents the average amount of

weight gained during pregnancy?

A. 12 to 22 lb
B 15 to 25 lb
C. 24 to 30 lb
D. 25 to 40 lb

8. When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing

aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse would explain that this
is most probably the result of which of the following?

A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
C. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
D. The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus

9. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as

which of the following?
A. Diagnostic signs
B. Presumptive signs
C. Probable signs
D. Positive signs

10. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a

presumptive sign of pregnancy?

A. Hegar sign
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Skin pigmentation changes
D. Positive serum pregnancy test

11. Which of the following common emotional reactions to

pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first
trimester?

A. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism

B. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness
C. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion
D. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies

12. During which of the following would the focus of classes

be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development,
sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?

A. Prepregnant period
B. First trimester
C. Second trimester
D. Third trimester

13. Which of the following would be disadvantage of breast

feeding?

A. Involution occurs more rapidly

B. The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies
C. The father may resent the infant’s demands on the
mother’s body
D. There is a greater chance for error during preparation

14. Which of the following would cause a false-positive

result on a pregnancy test?
A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an
abortion
B. The test was performed too early or too late in the pregnancy
C. The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature
D. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending

15. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as

which of the following?

A. 5 weeks gestation
B. 10 weeks gestation
C. 15 weeks gestation
D. 20 weeks gestation

16. A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of

the following?

A. January 2
B. March 28
C. April 12
D. October 12

17. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than

12 weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?

A. Uterus in the pelvis

B. Uterus at the xiphoid
C. Uterus in the abdomen
D. Uterus at the umbilicus

18. Which of the following danger signs should be reported

promptly during the antepartum period?

A. Constipation
B. Breast tenderness
C. Nasal stuffiness
D. Leaking amniotic fluid

19. Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values

would the nurse consider as significant?

A. Hematocrit 33.5%
B. Rubella titer less than 1:8
C. White blood cells 8,000/mm3
D. One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL

20. Which of the following characteristics of contractions

would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true
labor?

A. Occurring at irregular intervals

B. Starting mainly in the abdomen
C. Gradually increasing intervals
D. Increasing intensity with walking

21. During which of the following stages of labor would the

nurse assess “crowning”?

A. First stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage

22. Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during
active labor for which of the following reasons?

A. The neonatal effects include hypotonia, hypothermia, generalized

drowsiness, and reluctance to feed for the first few days.
B. These drugs readily cross the placental barrier, causing
depressive effects in the newborn 2 to 3 hours after intramuscular
injection.
C. They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and lack of an
antagonist make them generally inappropriate during labor.
D. Adverse reactions may include maternal hypotension, allergic or
toxic reaction or partial or total respiratory failure

23. Which of the following nursing interventions would the

nurse perform during the third stage of labor?

A. Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests.

B. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.
C. Coach for effective client pushing
D. Promote parent-newborn interaction.
24. Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse’s
understanding about the newborn’s thermoregulatory
ability?

A. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.

B. Suctioning with a bulb syringe
C. Obtaining an Apgar score
D. Inspecting the newborn’s umbilical cord

25. Immediately before expulsion, which of the following

cardinal movements occur?

A. Descent
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. External rotation

26. Before birth, which of the following structures connects

the right and left auricles of the heart?

A. Umbilical vein
B. Foramen ovale
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Ductus venosus

27. Which of the following when present in the urine may

cause a reddish stain on the diaper of a newborn?

A. Mucus
B. Uric acid crystals
C. Bilirubin
D. Excess iron

28. When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the

following ranges would be considered normal if the newborn
were sleeping?

A. 80 beats per minute

B. 100 beats per minute
C. 120 beats per minute
D. 140 beats per minute
29. Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of
the newborn?

A. The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is diamond

shaped.
B. The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior closes at 8 to 12
weeks.
C. The anterior is large in size when compared to the
posterior fontanel.
D. The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears sunken.

30. Which of the following groups of newborn reflexes below

are present at birth and remain unchanged through
adulthood?

A. Blink, cough, rooting, and gag

B. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag
C. Rooting, sneeze, swallowing, and cough
D. Stepping, blink, cough, and sneeze

31. Which of the following describes the Babinski reflex?

A. The newborn’s toes will hyperextend and fan apart from

dorsiflexion of the big toe when one side of foot is stroked
upward from the ball of the heel and across the ball of the
foot.
B. The newborn abducts and flexes all extremities and may begin to
cry when exposed to sudden movement or loud noise.
C. The newborn turns the head in the direction of stimulus, opens
the mouth, and begins to suck when cheek, lip, or corner of mouth is
touched.
D. The newborn will attempt to crawl forward with both arms and
legs when he is placed on his abdomen on a flat surface

32. Which of the following statements best describes

hyperemesis gravidarum?

A. Severe anemia leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional

imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.
B. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to electrolyte,
metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of
other medical problems.
C. Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that commonly results
in dehydration and ultimately decreasing maternal nutrients
D. Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause gastrointestinal
irritation and possibly internal bleeding

33. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a

classic sign of PIH?

A. Edema of the feet and ankles

B. Edema of the hands and face
C. Weight gain of 1 lb/week
D. Early morning headache

34. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions

would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a
negative pregnancy tests?

A. Threatened
B. Imminent
C. Missed
D. Incomplete

35. Which of the following factors would the nurse suspect

as predisposing a client to placenta previa?

A. Multiple gestation
B. Uterine anomalies
C. Abdominal trauma
D. Renal or vascular disease

36. Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client

experiencing abruptio placenta?

A. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding

B. Concealed or external dark red bleeding
C. Palpable fetal outline
D. Soft and nontender abdomen

37. Which of the following is described as premature

separation of a normally implanted placenta during the
second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?

A. Placenta previa
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Incompetent cervix
D. Abruptio placentae

38. Which of the following may happen if the uterus

becomes overstimulated by oxytocin during the induction of
labor?

A. Weak contraction prolonged to more than 70 seconds

B. Tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90 seconds
C. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding
D. Increased restlessness and anxiety

39. When preparing a client for cesarean delivery, which of

the following key concepts should be considered when
implementing nursing care?

A. Instruct the mother’s support person to remain in the family

lounge until after the delivery
B. Arrange for a staff member of the anesthesia department to
explain what to expect postoperatively
C. Modify preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either
a planned or emergency cesarean birth
D. Explain the surgery, expected outcome, and kind of anesthetics

40. Which of the following best describes preterm labor?

A. Labor that begins after 20 weeks gestation and before 37

weeks gestation
B. Labor that begins after 15 weeks gestation and before 37 weeks
gestation
C. Labor that begins after 24 weeks gestation and before 28 weeks
gestation
D. Labor that begins after 28 weeks gestation and before 40 weeks
gestation

41. When PROM occurs, which of the following provides

evidence of the nurse’s understanding of the client’s
immediate needs?

A. The chorion and amnion rupture 4 hours before the onset of labor.
B. PROM removes the fetus most effective defense against
infection
C. Nursing care is based on fetal viability and gestational age.
D. PROM is associated with malpresentation and possibly
incompetent cervix

42. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of

dystocia?

A. Nurtional
B. Mechanical
C. Environmental
D. Medical

43. When uterine rupture occurs, which of the following

would be the priority?

A. Limiting hypovolemic shock

B. Obtaining blood specimens
C. Instituting complete bed rest
D. Inserting a urinary catheter

44. Which of the following is the nurse’s initial action when

umbilical cord prolapse occurs?

A. Begin monitoring maternal vital signs and FHR

B. Place the client in a knee-chest position in bed
C. Notify the physician and prepare the client for delivery
D. Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to the exposed cord

45. Which of the following amounts of blood loss following

birth marks the criterion for describing postpartum
hemorrhage?

A. More than 200 ml

B. More than 300 ml
C. More than 400 ml
D. More than 500 ml

46. Which of the following is the primary predisposing factor

related to mastitis?

A. Epidemic infection from nosocomial sources localizing in the

lactiferous glands and ducts
B. Endemic infection occurring randomly and localizing in the
periglandular connective tissue
C. Temporary urinary retention due to decreased perception of the
urge to avoid
D. Breast injury caused by overdistention, stasis, and
cracking of the nipples

47. Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?

A. Inflammation and clot formation that result when blood

components combine to form an aggregate body
B. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become lodged
within the pulmonary blood vessels
C. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become lodged
within the femoral vein
D. Inflammation of the vascular endothelium with clot
formation on the vessel wall

48. Which of the following assessment findings would the

nurse expect if the client develops DVT?

A. Midcalf pain, tenderness and redness along the vein

B. Chills, fever, malaise, occurring 2 weeks after delivery
C. Muscle pain the presence of Homans sign, and swelling in
the affected limb
D. Chills, fever, stiffness, and pain occurring 10 to 14 days after
delivery

49. Which of the following are the most commonly assessed

findings in cystitis?

A. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills, and flank pain

B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever
and suprapubic pain
C. Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic pain, chills, and
fever
D. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and
frequency

50. Which of the following best reflects the frequency of

reported postpartum “blues”?

A. Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers report some form of
postpartum blues
B. Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers report some form of
postpartum blues
C. Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues
D. Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers report some form of
postpartum blues

Maternal & Child Health

Nursing Exam 2 (50 Items)
In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and
answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make
a print out.

1. For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse

informs the client about the need to take the pill at the same
time each day to accomplish which of the following?
A. Decrease the incidence of nausea
B. Maintain hormonal levels
C. Reduce side effects
D. Prevent drug interactions
2. When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the
following would the nurse include as the most effective
method for preventing sexually transmitted infections?

A. Spermicides
B. Diaphragm
C. Condoms
D. Vasectomy

3. When preparing a woman who is 2 days postpartum for

discharge, recommendations for which of the following
contraceptive methods would be avoided?

A. Diaphragm
B. Female condom
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Rhythm method

4. For which of the following clients would the nurse expect

that an intrauterine device would not be recommended?

A. Woman over age 35

B. Nulliparous woman
C. Promiscuous young adult
D. Postpartum client

5. A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, “I’m

constipated all the time!” Which of the following should the
nurse recommend?

A. Daily enemas
B. Laxatives
C. Increased fiber intake
D. Decreased fluid intake

6. Which of the following would the nurse use as the basis

for the teaching plan when caring for a pregnant teenager
concerned about gaining too much weight during
pregnancy?

A. 10 pounds per trimester

B. 1 pound per week for 40 weeks
C. ½ pound per week for 40 weeks
D. A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds

7. The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period
started on January 14 and ended on January 20. Using
Nagele’s rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of
the following?

A. September 27
B. October 21
C. November 7
D. December 27

8. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client

who states, “I had a son born at 38 weeks gestation, a
daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at
about 8 weeks,”the nurse should record her obstetrical
history as which of the following?

A. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2
B. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2
C. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
D. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2

9. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12

weeks’ gestation, the nurse would use which of the
following?

A. Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus

B. Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region
C. Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid
process
D. External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus

10. When developing a plan of care for a client newly

diagnosed with gestational diabetes, which of the following
instructions would be the priority?

A. Dietary intake
B. Medication
C. Exercise
D. Glucose monitoring
11. A client at 24 weeks gestation has gained 6 pounds in 4
weeks. Which of the following would be the priority when
assessing the client?

A. Glucosuria
B. Depression
C. Hand/face edema
D. Dietary intake

12. A client 12 weeks’ pregnant come to the emergency

department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal
bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cms cervical
dilation.The nurse would document these findings as which
of the following?

A. Threatened abortion
B. Imminent abortion
C. Complete abortion
D. Missed abortion

13. Which of the following would be the priority nursing

diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy?

A. Risk for infection

B. Pain
C. Knowledge Deficit
D. Anticipatory Grieving

14. Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus for

firmness and position in relation to the umbilicus and
midline, which of the following shouldthe nurse do first?

A. Assess the vital signs

B. Administer analgesia
C. Ambulate her in the hall
D. Assist her to urinate

15. Which of the following should the nurse do when a

primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that she has sore
nipples?

A. Tell her to breast feed more frequently

B. Administer a narcotic before breast feeding
C. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere
D. Use soap and water to clean the nipples

16. The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client, 4 hours’

postpartum that are as follows: BP 90/60; temperature
100.4ºF; pulse 100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute. Which of
the following shouldthe nurse do first?

A. Report the temperature to the physician

B. Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff
C. Assess the uterus for firmness and position
D. Determine the amount of lochia

17. The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge

(lochia) on four clients. Which of the following assessments
would warrant notification of the physician?

A. A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client

B. A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days postpartum
C. Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks after
delivery
D. A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery

18. A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4ºF, with a

uterus that is tender when palpated, remains unusually
large, and not descending as normally expected. Which of
the following shouldthe nurse assess next?

A. Lochia
B. Breasts
C. Incision
D. Urine

19. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing

practice with the current early postpartum discharge?

A. Promoting comfort and restoration of health

B. Exploring the emotional status of the family
C. Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care
D. Teaching about the importance of family planning

20. Which of the following actions would be least effective in

maintaining a neutral thermal environment for the newborn?
A. Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing
B. Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior to weighing
C. Placing crib close to nursery window for family viewing
D. Covering the infant’s head with a knit stockinette

21. A newborn who has an asymmetrical Moro reflex

response should be further assessed for which of the
following?

A. Talipes equinovarus
B. Fractured clavicle
C. Congenital hypothyroidism
D. Increased intracranial pressure

22. During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision,

assessing for which of the following is the priority?

A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Discomfort
D. Dehydration

23. The mother asks the nurse. “What’s wrong with my son’s
breasts? Why are they so enlarged?” Whish of the following
would be the best response by the nurse?

A. “The breast tissue is inflamed from the trauma experienced with

birth”
B. “A decrease in material hormones present before birth
causes enlargement,”
C. “You should discuss this with your doctor. It could be a
malignancy”
D. “The tissue has hypertrophied while the baby was in the uterus”

24. Immediately after birth the nurse notes the following on

a male newborn: respirations 78; apical hearth rate 160
BPM, nostril flaring; mild intercostal retractions; and
grunting at the end of expiration. Which of the following
shouldthe nurse do?

A. Call the assessment data to the physician’s attention

B. Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
C. Suction the infant’s mouth and nares
D. Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity

25. The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the

telephone about umbilical cord care. Which of the following
statements by the mother indicates effective teaching?

A. “Daily soap and water cleansing is best”

B. ‘Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs”
C. “An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents infection”
D. “He can have a tub bath each day”

26. A newborn weighing 3000 grams and feeding every 4

hours needs 120 calories/kg of body weight every 24 hours
for proper growth and development. How many ounces of 20
cal/oz formula should this newborn receive at each feeding
to meet nutritional needs?

A. 2 ounces
B. 3 ounces
C. 4 ounces
D. 6 ounces

27. The postterm neonate with meconium-stained amniotic

fluid needs care designed to especially monitor for which of
the following?

A. Respiratory problems
B. Gastrointestinal problems
C. Integumentary problems
D. Elimination problems

28. When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the

following techniques denotes the correct method of
measurement used by the nurse?

A. From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus

B. From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process
C. From the symphysis pubis to the fundus
D. From the fundus to the umbilicus

29. A client with severe preeclampsia is admitted with of BP

160/110, proteinuria, and severe pitting edema. Which of the
following would be most important to include in the client’s
plan of care?

A. Daily weights
B. Seizure precautions
C. Right lateral positioning
D. Stress reduction

30. A postpartum primipara asks the nurse, “When can we

have sexual intercourse again?” Which of the following
would be the nurse’s best response?

A. “Anytime you both want to.”

B. “As soon as choose a contraceptive method.”
C. “When the discharge has stopped and the incision is
healed.”
D. “After your 6 weeks examination.”

31. When preparing to administer the vitamin K injection to

a neonate, the nurse would select which of the following
sites as appropriate for the injection?

A. Deltoid muscle
B. Anterior femoris muscle
C. Vastus lateralis muscle
D. Gluteus maximus muscle

32. When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse

observes a red swollen area on the right side of the vaginal
orifice. The nurse would document this as enlargement of
which of the following?

A. Clitoris
B. Parotid gland
C. Skene’s gland
D. Bartholin’s gland

33. To differentiate as a female, the hormonal stimulation of

the embryo that must occur involves which of the following?

A. Increase in maternal estrogen secretion

B. Decrease in maternal androgen secretion
C. Secretion of androgen by the fetal gonad
D. Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad

34. A client at 8 weeks’ gestation calls complaining of slight

nausea in the morning hours. Which of the following client
interventions should the nurse question?

A. Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate of soda in an 8-ounce

glass of water
B. Eating a few low-sodium crackers before getting out of bed
C. Avoiding the intake of liquids in the morning hours
D. Eating six small meals a day instead of thee large meals

35. The nurse documents positive ballottement in the

client’s prenatal record. The nurse understands that this
indicates which of the following?

A. Palpable contractions on the abdomen

B. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus
C. Fetal kicking felt by the client
D. Enlargement and softening of the uterus

36. During a pelvic exam the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge

of the cervix. The nurse documents this as which of the
following?

A. Braxton-Hicks sign
B. Chadwick’s sign
C. Goodell’s sign
D. McDonald’s sign

37. During a prenatal class, the nurse explains the rationale

for breathing techniques during preparation for labor based
on the understanding that breathing techniques are most
important in achieving which of the following?

A. Eliminate pain and give the expectant parents something to do

B. Reduce the risk of fetal distress by increasing uteroplacental
perfusion
C. Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing the perception of
pain
D. Eliminate pain so that less analgesia and anesthesia are needed
38. After 4 hours of active labor, the nurse notes that the
contractions of a primigravida client are not strong enough
to dilate the cervix. Which of the following would the nurse
anticipate doing?

A. Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin infusion

B. Administering a light sedative to allow the patient to rest for
several hour
C. Preparing for a cesarean section for failure to progress
D. Increasing the encouragement to the patient when pushing
begins

39. A multigravida at 38 weeks’ gestation is admitted with

painless, bright red bleeding and mild contractions every 7
to 10 minutes. Which of the following assessments should be
avoided?

A. Maternal vital sign

B. Fetal heart rate
C. Contraction monitoring
D. Cervical dilation

40. Which of the following would be the nurse’s most

appropriate response to a client who asks why she must
have a cesarean delivery if she has a complete placenta
previa?

A. “You will have to ask your physician when he returns.”

B. “You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage.”
C. “The placenta is covering most of your cervix.”
D. “The placenta is covering the opening of the uterus and
blocking your baby.”

41. The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of

the following positions with a face presentation?

A. Completely flexed
B. Completely extended
C. Partially extended
D. Partially flexed
42. With a fetus in the left-anterior breech presentation, the
nurse would expect the fetal heart rate would be most
audible in which of the following areas?

A. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of midline

B. In the lower-left maternal abdominal quadrant
C. In the lower-right maternal abdominal quadrant
D. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of midline

43. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The

nurse interprets this to be the result of which of the
following?

A. Lanugo
B. Hydramnio
C. Meconium
D. Vernix

44. A patient is in labor and has just been told she has a
breech presentation. The nurse should be particularly alert
for which of the following?

A. Quickening
B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Pica
D. Prolapsed umbilical cord

45. When describing dizygotic twins to a couple, on which of

the following would the nurse base the explanation?

A. Two ova fertilized by separate sperm

B. Sharing of a common placenta
C. Each ova with the same genotype
D. Sharing of a common chorion

46. Which of the following refers to the single cell that

reproduces itself after conception?

A. Chromosome
B. Blastocyst
C. Zygote
D. Trophoblast
47. In the late 1950s, consumers and health care
professionals began challenging the routine use of
analgesics and anesthetics during childbirth. Which of the
following was an outgrowth of this concept?

A. Labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum (LDRP)

B. Nurse-midwifery
C. Clinical nurse specialist
D. Prepared childbirth

48. A client has a midpelvic contracture from a previous

pelvic injury due to a motor vehicle accident as a teenager.
The nurse is aware that this could prevent a fetus from
passing through or around which structure during childbirth?

A. Symphysis pubis
B. Sacral promontory
C. Ischial spines
D. Pubic arch

49. When teaching a group of adolescents about variations

in the length of the menstrual cycle, the nurse understands
that the underlying mechanism is due to variations in which
of the following phases?

A. Menstrual phase
B. Proliferative phase
C. Secretory phase
D. Ischemic phase

50. When teaching a group of adolescents about male

hormone production, which of the following would the nurse
include as being produced by the Leydig cells?

A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Testosterone
C. Leuteinizing hormone
D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
Maternal & Child Health
Nursing Exam 3 (50 Items)

In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and
answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make
a print out.

1. While performing physical assessment of a 12 month-old,

the nurse notes that the infant’s anterior fontanel is still
slightly open. Which of the following is the nurse’s most
appropriate action?

A. Notify the physician immediately because there is a problem.

B. Perform an intensive neurological examination.
C. Perform an intensive developmental examination.
D. Do nothing because this is a normal finding for the age.

2. When teaching a mother about introducing solid foods to

her child, which of the following indicates the earliest age at
which this should be done?

A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 4 months

3. The infant of a substance-abusing mother is at risk for

developing a sense of which of the following?

A. Mistrust
B. Shame
C. Guilt
D. Inferiority

4. Which of the following toys should the nurse recommend

for a 5-month-old?

A. A big red balloon

B. A teddy bear with button eyes
C. A push-pull wooden truck
D. A colorful busy box

5. The mother of a 2-month-old is concerned that she may be

spoiling her baby by picking her up when she cries. Which of
the following would be the nurse’s best response?

A. “ Let her cry for a while before picking her up, so you don’t spoil
her”
B. “Babies need to be held and cuddled; you won’t spoil her
this way”
C. “Crying at this age means the baby is hungry; give her a bottle”
D. “If you leave her alone she will learn how to cry herself to sleep”

6. When assessing an 18-month-old, the nurse notes a

characteristic protruding abdomen. Which of the following
would explain the rationale for this finding?

A. Increased food intake owing to age

B. Underdeveloped abdominal muscles
C. Bowlegged posture
D. Linear growth curve

7. If parents keep a toddler dependent in areas where he is

capable of using skills, the toddle will develop a sense of
which of the following?

A. Mistrust
B. Shame
C. Guilt
D. Inferiority

8. Which of the following is an appropriate toy for an 18-

month-old?

A. Multiple-piece puzzle
B. Miniature cars
C. Finger paints
D. Comic book

9. When teaching parents about the child’s readiness for

toilet training, which of the following signs should the nurse
instruct them to watch for in the toddler?
A. Demonstrates dryness for 4 hours
B. Demonstrates ability to sit and walk
C. Has a new sibling for stimulation
D. Verbalizes desire to go to the bathroom

10. When teaching parents about typical toddler eating

patterns, which of the following should be included?

A .Food “jags”
B. Preference to eat alone
C. Consistent table manners
D. Increase in appetite

11. Which of the following suggestions should the nurse

offer the parents of a 4-year-old boy who resists going to
bed at night?

A. “Allow him to fall asleep in your room, then move him to his own
bed.”
B. “Tell him that you will lock him in his room if he gets out of bed
one more time.”
C. “Encourage active play at bedtime to tire him out so he will fall
asleep faster.”
D. “Read him a story and allow him to play quietly in his bed
until he falls asleep.”

12. When providing therapeutic play, which of the following

toys would best promote imaginative play in a 4-year-old?

A. Large blocks
B. Dress-up clothes
C. Wooden puzzle
D. Big wheels

13. Which of the following activities, when voiced by the

parents following a teaching session about the
characteristics of school-age cognitive development would
indicate the need for additional teaching?

A. Collecting baseball cards and marbles

B. Ordering dolls according to size
C. Considering simple problem-solving options
D. Developing plans for the future
14. A hospitalized schoolager states: “I’m not afraid of this
place, I’m not afraid of anything.” This statement is most
likely an example of whichof the following?

A. Regression
B. Repression
C. Reaction formation
D. Rationalization

15. After teaching a group of parents about accident

prevention for schoolagers, which of the following
statements by the group would indicate the need for more
teaching?

A. “Schoolagers are more active and adventurous than are younger

children.”
B. “Schoolagers are more susceptible to home hazards than are
younger children.”
C. “Schoolagers are unable to understand potential dangers
around them.”
D. “Schoolargers are less subject to parental control than are
younger children.”

16. Which of the following skills is the most significant one

learned during the schoolage period?

A. Collecting
B. Ordering
C. Reading
D. Sorting

17. A child age 7 was unable to receive the measles, mumps,

and rubella (MMR) vaccine at the recommended scheduled
time. When would the nurse expect to administer MMR
vaccine?

A. In a month from now

B. In a year from now
C. At age 10
D. At age 13
18. The adolescent’s inability to develop a sense of who he
is and what he can become results in a sense of which of the
following?

A. Shame
B. Guilt
C. Inferiority
D. Role diffusion

19. Which of the following would be most appropriate for a

nurse to use when describing menarche to a 13-year-old?

A. A female’s first menstruation or menstrual “periods”

B. The first year of menstruation or “period”
C. The entire menstrual cycle or from one “period” to another
D. The onset of uterine maturation or peak growth

20. A 14-year-old boy has acne and according to his parents,

dominates the bathroom by using the mirror all the time.
Which of the following remarks by the nurse would be least
helpful in talking to the boy and his parents?

A. “This is probably the only concern he has about his body.

So don’t worry about it or the time he spends on it.”
B. “Teenagers are anxious about how their peers perceive them. So
they spend a lot of time grooming.”
C. “A teen may develop a poor self-image when experiencing acne.
Do you feel this way sometimes?”
D. “You appear to be keeping your face well washed. Would you feel
comfortable discussing your cleansing method?”

21. Which of the following should the nurse suspect when

noting that a 3-year-old is engaging in explicit sexual
behavior during doll play?

A. The child is exhibiting normal pre-school curiosity

B. The child is acting out personal experiences
C. The child does not know how to play with dolls
D. The child is probably developmentally delayed.

22. Which of the following statements by the parents of a

child with school phobia would indicate the need for further
teaching?
A. “We’ll keep him at home until phobia subsides.”
B. “We’ll work with his teachers and counselors at school.”
C. “We’ll try to encourage him to talk about his problem.”
D. “We’ll discuss possible solutions with him and his counselor.”

23. When developing a teaching plan for a group of high

school students about teenage pregnancy, the nurse would
keep in mind which of the following?

A. The incidence of teenage pregnancies is increasing.

B. Most teenage pregnancies are planned.
C. Denial of the pregnancy is common early on.
D. The risk for complications during pregnancy is rare.

24. When assessing a child with a cleft palate, the nurse is

aware that the child is at risk for more frequent episodes of
otitis media due to whichof the following?

A. Lowered resistance from malnutrition

B. Ineffective functioning of the Eustachian tubes
C. Plugging of the Eustachian tubes with food particles
D. Associated congenital defects of the middle ear.

25. While performing a neurodevelopmental assessment on

a 3-month-old infant, which of the following characteristics
would be expected?

A. A strong Moro reflex

B. A strong parachute reflex
C. Rolling from front to back
D. Lifting of head and chest when prone

26. By the end of which of the following would the nurse

most commonly expect a child’s birth weight to triple?

A. 4 months
B. 7 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months

27. Which of the following best describes parallel play

between two toddlers?
A. Sharing crayons to color separate pictures
B. Playing a board game with a nurse
C. Sitting near each other while playing with separate dolls
D. Sharing their dolls with two different nurses

28. Which of the following would the nurse identify as the

initial priority for a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia?

A. Instituting infection control precautions

B. Encouraging adequate intake of iron-rich foods
C. Assisting with coping with chronic illness
D. Administering medications via IM injections

29. Which of the following information, when voiced by the

mother, would indicate to the nurse that she understands
home care instructions following the administration of a
diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis injection?

A. Measures to reduce fever

B. Need for dietary restrictions
C. Reasons for subsequent rash
D. Measures to control subsequent diarrhea

30. Which of the following actions by a community health

nurse is most appropriate when noting multiple bruises and
burns on the posterior trunk of an 18-month-old child during
a home visit?

A. Report the child’s condition to Protective Services

immediately.
B. Schedule a follow-up visit to check for more bruises.
C. Notify the child’s physician immediately.
D. Don nothing because this is a normal finding in a toddler.

31. Which of the following is being used when the mother of

a hospitalized child calls the student nurse and states, “You
idiot, you have no idea how to care for my sick child”?

A. Displacement
B. Projection
C. Repression
D. Psychosis
32. Which of the following should the nurse expect to note
as a frequent complication for a child with congenital heart
disease?

A. Susceptibility to respiratory infection

B. Bleeding tendencies
C. Frequent vomiting and diarrhea
D. Seizure disorder

33. Which of the following would the nurse do first for a 3-

year-old boy who arrives in the emergency room with a
temperature of 105 degrees, inspiratory stridor, and
restlessness, who is learning forward and drooling?

A. Auscultate his lungs and place him in a mist tent.

B. Have him lie down and rest after encouraging fluids.
C. Examine his throat and perform a throat culture
D. Notify the physician immediately and prepare for
intubation.

34. Which of the following would the nurse need to keep in

mind as a predisposing factor when formulating a teaching
plan for child with a urinary tract infection?

A. A shorter urethra in females

B. Frequent emptying of the bladder
C. Increased fluid intake
D. Ingestion of acidic juices

35. Which of the following should the nurse do first for a 15-
year-old boy with a full leg cast who is screaming in
unrelenting pain and exhibiting right foot pallor signifying
compartment syndrome?

A. Medicate him with acetaminophen.

B. Notify the physician immediately
C. Release the traction
D. Monitor him every 5 minutes

36. At which of the following ages would the nurse expect to

administer the varicella zoster vaccine to child?
A. At birth
B. 2 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months

37. When discussing normal infant growth and development

with parents, which of the following toys would the nurse
suggest as most appropriate for an 8-month-old?

A. Push-pull toys
B. Rattle
C. Large blocks
D. Mobile

38. Which of the following aspects of psychosocial

development is necessary for the nurse to keep in mind
when providing care for the preschool child?

A. The child can use complex reasoning to think out situations.

B. Fear of body mutilation is a common preschool fear
C. The child engages in competitive types of play
D. Immediate gratification is necessary to develop initiative.

39. Which of the following is characteristic of a preschooler

with mid mental retardation?

A. Slow to feed self

B. Lack of speech
C. Marked motor delays
D. Gait disability

40. Which of the following assessment findings would lead

the nurse to suspect Down syndrome in an infant?

A. Small tongue
B. Transverse palmar crease
C. Large nose
D. Restricted joint movement

41. While assessing a newborn with cleft lip, the nurse

would be alert that which of the following will most likely be
compromised?
A. Sucking ability
B. Respiratory status
C. Locomotion
D. GI function

42. When providing postoperative care for the child with a

cleft palate, the nurse should position the child in which of
the following positions?

A. Supine
B. Prone
C. In an infant seat
D. On the side

43. While assessing a child with pyloric stenosis, the nurse is

likely to note which of the following?

A. Regurgitation
B. Steatorrhea
C. Projectile vomiting
D. “Currant jelly” stools

44. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be

inappropriate for the infant with gastroesophageal reflux
(GER)?

A. Fluid volume deficit

B. Risk for aspiration
C. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
D. Altered oral mucous membranes

45. Which of the following parameters would the nurse

monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of thickened feedings
for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux (GER)?

A. Vomiting
B. Stools
C. Uterine
D. Weight

46. Discharge teaching for a child with celiac disease would

include instructions about avoiding which of the following?
A. Rice
B. Milk
C. Wheat
D. Chicken

47. Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess

in a child with celiac disease having a celiac crisis secondary
to an upper respiratory infection?

A. Respiratory distress
B. Lethargy
C. Watery diarrhea
D. Weight gain

48. Which of the following should the nurse do first after

noting that a child with Hirschsprung disease has a fever
and watery explosive diarrhea?

A. Notify the physician immediately

B. Administer antidiarrheal medications
C. Monitor child ever 30 minutes
D. Nothing, this is characteristic of Hirschsprung disease

49. A newborn’s failure to pass meconium within the first 24

hours after birth may indicate which of the following?

A. Hirschsprung disease
B. Celiac disease
C. Intussusception
D. Abdominal wall defect

50. When assessing a child for possible intussusception,

which of the following would be least likely to provide
valuable information?

A. Stool inspection
B. Pain pattern
C. Family history
D. Abdominal palpation
Maternal & Child Health
Nursing Exam 4: Maternity
Nursing (50 Items)

In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and
answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make
a print out.

1. You performed the Leopold’s maneuver and found the

following: breech presentation, fetal back at the right side of
the mother. Based on these findings, you can hear the fetal
heart beat (PMI) BEST in which location?

A. Left lower quadrant

B. Right lower quadrant
C. Left upper quadrant
D. Right upper quadrant

2. In Leopold’s maneuver step #1, you palpated a soft broad

mass that moves with the rest of the mass. The correct
interpretation of this finding is:
A. The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part.
B. The presentation is breech.
C. The mass palpated is the back
D. The mass palpated is the buttocks.

3. In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard round

movable mass at the supra pubic area. The correct
interpretation is that the mass palpated is:

A. The buttocks because the presentation is breech.

B. The mass palpated is the head.
C. The mass is the fetal back.
D. The mass palpated is the fetal small part

4. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is:

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone

5. The hormone responsible for the maturation of the

graafian follicle is:

A. Follicle stimulating hormone

B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. Luteinizing hormone

6. The most common normal position of the fetus in utero is:

A. Transverse position
B. Vertical position
C. Oblique position
D. None of the above

7. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may

experience shortness of breath. This complaint maybe
explained as:

A. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is using

more oxygen
B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm
upwards
C. The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its
hormones
D. The woman maybe experiencing complication of pregnancy

8. Which of the following findings in a woman would be

consistent with a pregnancy of two months duration?

A. Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of striae gravidarum

B. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
C. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
D. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement

9. Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?

A. Fetal movement felt by mother

B. Enlargement of the uterus
C. (+) pregnancy test
D. (+) ultrasound

10. What event occurring in the second trimester helps the

expectant mother to accept the pregnancy?

A. Lightening
B. Ballotment
C. Pseudocyesis
D. Quickening

11. Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good posture will
prevent which prenatal discomfort?

A. Backache
B. Vertigo
C. Leg cramps
D. Nausea

12. When a pregnant woman experiences leg cramps, the

correct nursing intervention to relieve the muscle cramps is:

A. Allow the woman to exercise

B. Let the woman walk for a while
C. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards the
knees
D. Ask the woman to raise her legs

13. From the 33rd week of gestation till full term, a healthy
mother should have prenatal check up every:

A. week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks

14. The expected weight gain in a normal pregnancy during

the 3rd trimester is

A. 1 pound a week
B. 2 pounds a week
C. 10 lbs a month
D. 10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester

15. In the Bartholomew’s rule of 4, when the level of the

fundus is midway between the umbilicus and xyphoid
process the estimated age of gestation (AOG) is:

A. 5th month
B. 6th month
C. 7th month
D. 8th month

16. The following are ways of determining expected date of

delivery (EDD) when the LMP is unknown EXCEPT:

A. Naegele’s rule
B. Quickening
C. McDonald’s rule
D. Batholomew’s rule of 4

17. If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD)
is

A. Oct. 7
B. Oct. 24
C. Nov. 7
D. Nov. 8
18. Kegel’s exercise is done in pregnancy in order to:

A. Strengthen perineal muscles

B. Relieve backache
C. Strengthen abdominal muscles
D. Prevent leg varicosities and edema

19. Pelvic rocking is an appropriate exercise in pregnancy to

relieve which discomfort?

A. Leg cramps
B. Urinary frequency
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Backache

20. The main reason for an expected increased need for iron
in pregnancy is:

A. The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the

increased need for red blood cell mass as well as the fetal
requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
B. The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite
C. The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the mother must
supply
D. The mother may have a problem of digestion because of pica

21. The diet that is appropriate in normal pregnancy should

be high in

A. Protein, minerals and vitamins

B. Carbohydrates and vitamins
C. Proteins, carbohydrates and fats
D. Fats and minerals

22. Which of the following signs will require a mother to

seek immediate medical attention?

A. When the first fetal movement is felt

B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
C. Mild uterine contraction
D. Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation
23. You want to perform a pelvic examination on one of your
pregnant clients. You prepare your client for the procedure
by:

A. Asking her to void

B. Taking her vital signs and recording the readings
C. Giving the client a perineal care
D. Doing a vaginal prep

24. When preparing the mother who is on her 4th month of

pregnancy for abdominal ultrasound, the nurse should
instruct her to:

A. Observe NPO from midnight to avoid vomiting

B. Do perineal flushing properly before the procedure
C. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before the procedure
and not void until the procedure is done
D. Void immediately before the procedure for better visualization

25. The nursing intervention to relieve “morning sickness”

in a pregnant woman is by giving

A. Dry carbohydrate food like crackers

B. Low sodium diet
C. Intravenous infusion
D. Antacid

26. The common normal site of nidation/implantation in the

uterus is

A. Upper uterine portion

B. Mid-uterine area
C. Lower uterine segment
D. Lower cervical segment

27. Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and has a history of

abortion in the 4th pregnancy and the first pregnancy was a
twin. She is considered to be

A. G 4 P 3
B. G 5 P 3
C. G 5 P 4
D. G 4 P 4
28. The following are skin changes in pregnancy EXCEPT:

A. Chloasma
B. Striae gravidarum
C. Linea negra
D. Chadwick’s sign

29. Which of the following statements is TRUE of

conception?

A. Within 2-4 hours after intercourse conception is possible

in a fertile woman
B. Generally, fertilization is possible 4 days after ovulation
C. Conception is possible during menstruation in a long menstrual
cycle
D. To avoid conception, intercourse must be avoided 5 days before
and 3 days after menstruation

30. Which of the following are the functions of amniotic

fluid?

1. Cushions the fetus from abdominal trauma

2. Serves as the fluid for the fetus
3. Maintains the internal temperature
4. Facilitates fetal movement

A. 1 & 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3
D. All of the above

31. You are performing abdominal exam on a 9th month

pregnant woman. While lying supine, she felt breathless,
had pallor, tachycardia, and cold clammy skin. The correct
assessment of the woman’s condition is that she is:

A. Experiencing the beginning of labor

B. Having supine hypotension
C. Having sudden elevation of BP
D. Going into shock

32. Smoking is contraindicated in pregnancy because

A. Nicotine causes vasodilation of the mother’s blood vessels
B. Carbon monoxide binds with the hemoglobin of the
mother reducing available hemoglobin for the fetus
C. The smoke will make the fetus and the mother feel dizzy
D. Nicotine will cause vasoconstriction of the fetal blood vessels

33. Which of the following is the most likely effect on the

fetus if the woman is severely anemic during pregnancy?

A. Large for gestational age (LGA) fetus

B. Hemorrhage
C. Small for gestational age (SGA) baby
D. Erythroblastosis fetalis

34. Which of the following signs and symptoms will most

likely make the nurse suspect that the patient is having
hydatidiform mole?

A. Slight bleeding
B. Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina
C. Absence of fetal heart beat
D. Enlargement of the uterus

35. Upon assessment the nurse found the following: fundus

at 2 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, last menstrual
period (LMP) 5 months ago, fetal heart beat (FHB) not
appreciated. Which of the following is the most possible
diagnosis of this condition?

A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Missed abortion
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy

36. When a pregnant woman goes into a convulsive seizure,

the MOST immediate action of the nurse to ensure safety of
the patient is:

A. Apply restraint so that the patient will not fall out of bed
B. Put a mouth gag so that the patient will not bite her tongue and
the tongue will not fall back
C. Position the mother on her side to allow the secretions to
drain from her mouth and prevent aspiration
D. Check if the woman is also having a precipitate labor

37. A gravidocardiac mother is advised to observe bed rest

primarily to

A. Allow the fetus to achieve normal intrauterine growth

B. Minimize oxygen consumption which can aggravate the
condition of the compromised heart of the mother
C. Prevent perinatal infection
D. Reduce incidence of premature labor

38. A pregnant mother is admitted to the hospital with the

chief complaint of profuse vaginal bleeding, AOG 36 wks, not
in labor. The nurse must always consider which of the
following precautions:

A. The internal exam is done only at the delivery under strict

asepsis with a double set-up
B. The preferred manner of delivering the baby is vaginal
C. An emergency delivery set for vaginal delivery must be made
ready before examining the patient
D. Internal exam must be done following routine procedure

39. Which of the following signs will distinguish threatened

abortion from imminent abortion?

A. Severity of bleeding
B. Dilation of the cervix
C. Nature and location of pain
D. Presence of uterine contraction

40. The nursing measure to relieve fetal distress due to

maternal supine hypotension is:

A. Place the mother on semi-fowler’s position

B. Put the mother on left side lying position
C. Place mother on a knee chest position
D. Any of the above

41. To prevent preterm labor from progressing, drugs are

usually prescribed to halt the labor. The drugs commonly
given are:
A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline
B. Prostaglandin and oxytocin
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Dexamethasone and prostaglandin

42. In placenta praevia marginalis, the placenta is found at

the:

A. Internal cervical os partly covering the opening

B. External cervical os slightly covering the opening
C. Lower segment of the uterus with the edges near the
internal cervical os
D. Lower portion of the uterus completely covering the cervix

43. In which of the following conditions can the causative

agent pass through the placenta and affect the fetus in
utero?

A. Gonorrhea
B. Rubella
C. Candidiasis
D. moniliasis

44. Which of the following can lead to infertility in adult

males?

A. German measles
B. Orchitis
C. Chicken pox
D. Rubella

45. Papanicolaou smear is usually done to determine cancer

of

A. Cervix
B. Ovaries
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Breast

46. Which of the following causes of infertility in the female

is primarily psychological in origin?
A. Vaginismus
B. Dyspareunia
C. Endometriosis
D. Impotence

47. Before giving a repeat dose of magnesium sulfate to a

pre-eclamptic patient, the nurse should assess the patient’s
condition. Which of the following conditions will require the
nurse to temporarily suspend a repeat dose of magnesium
sulfate?

A. 100 cC. urine output in 4 hours

B. Knee jerk reflex is (+)2
C. Serum magnesium level is 10mEg/L.
D. Respiratory rate of 16/min

48. Which of the following is TRUE in Rh incompatibility?

A. The condition can occur if the mother is Rh(+) and the fetus is
Rh(-)
B. Every pregnancy of an Rh(-) mother will result to erythroblastosis
fetalis
C. On the first pregnancy of the Rh(-) mother, the fetus will
not be affected
D. RhoGam is given only during the first pregnancy to prevent
incompatibility

49. Which of the following are the most commonly assessed

findings in cystitis?

A. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills, and flank pain

B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever
and suprapubic pain
C. Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic pain, chills, and
fever
D. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and
frequency

50. Which of the following best reflects the frequency of

reported postpartum “blues”?
Maternal & Child Health Nursing Exam
5: Maternity Nursing (50 Items)

In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and
answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make
a print out.

1. Which of the following conditions will lead to a small-for-

gestational age fetus due to less blood supply to the fetus?

A. Diabetes in the mother

B. Maternal cardiac condition
C. Premature labor
D. Abruptio placenta

2. The lower limit of viability for infants in terms of age of

gestation is:

A. 21-24 weeks
B. 25-27 weeks
C. 28-30 weeks
D. 38-40 weeks

3. Which provision of our 1987 constitution guarantees the

right of the unborn child to life from conception is

A. Article II section 12
B. Article II section 15
C. Article XIII section 11
D. Article XIII section 15
4. In the Philippines, if a nurse performs abortion on the
mother who wants it done and she gets paid for doing it, she
will be held liable because

A. Abortion is immoral and is prohibited by the church

B. Abortion is both immoral and illegal in our country
C. Abortion is considered illegal because you got paid for doing it
D. Abortion is illegal because majority in our country are catholics
and it is prohibited by the church

5. The preferred manner of delivering the baby in a gravido-

cardiac is vaginal delivery assisted by forceps under epidural
anesthesiA. The main rationale for this is:

A. To allow atraumatic delivery of the baby

B. To allow a gradual shifting of the blood into the maternal
circulation
C. To make the delivery effort free and the mother does not
need to push with contractions
D. To prevent perineal laceration with the expulsion of the fetal head

6. When giving narcotic analgesics to mother in labor, the

special consideration to follow is:

A. The progress of labor is well established reaching the transitional

stage
B. Uterine contraction is progressing well and delivery of the baby is
imminent
C. Cervical dilatation has already reached at least 8 cm. and the
station is at least (+)2
D. Uterine contractions are strong and the baby will not be
delivered yet within the next 3 hours.

7. The cervical dilatation taken at 8:00 AM in a G1P0 patient

was 6 centimeters. A repeat I.E. done at 10 A. M. showed
that cervical dilation was 7 cm. The correct interpretation of
this result is:

A. Labor is progressing as expected

B. The latent phase of Stage 1 is prolonged
C. The active phase of Stage 1 is protracted
D. The duration of labor is normal
8. Which of the following techniques during labor and
delivery can lead to uterine inversion?

A. Fundal pressure applied to assist the mother in bearing down

during delivery of the fetal head
B. Strongly tugging on the umbilical cord to deliver the
placenta and hasten placental separation
C. Massaging the fundus to encourage the uterus to contract
D. Applying light traction when delivering the placenta that has
already detached from the uterine wall

9. The fetal heart rate is checked following rupture of the

bag of waters in order to:

A. Check if the fetus is suffering from head compression

B. Determine if cord compression followed the rupture
C. Determine if there is utero-placental insufficiency
D. Check if fetal presenting part has adequately descended following
the rupture

10. Upon assessment, the nurse got the following findings: 2

perineal pads highly saturated with blood within 2 hours
post partum, PR= 80 bpm, fundus soft and boundaries not
well defineD. The appropriate nursing diagnosis is:

A. Normal blood loss

B. Blood volume deficiency
C. Inadequate tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage
D. Hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony

11. The following are signs and symptoms of fetal distress

EXCEPT:

A. Fetal heart rate (FHR) decreased during a contraction and persists

even after the uterine contraction ends
B. The FHR is less than 120 bpm or over 160 bpm
C. The pre-contraction FHR is 130 bpm, FHR during
contraction is 118 bpm and FHR after uterine contraction is
126 bpm
D. FHR is 160 bpm, weak and irregular

12. If the labor period lasts only for 3 hours, the nurse
should suspect that the following conditions may occur:
1.Laceration of cervix
2.Laceration of perineum
3.Cranial hematoma in the fetus
4.Fetal anoxia

A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4

13. The primary power involved in labor and delivery is

A. Bearing down ability of mother

B. Cervical effacement and dilatation
C. Uterine contraction
D. Valsalva technique

14. The proper technique to monitor the intensity of a

uterine contraction is

A. Place the palm of the hands on the abdomen and time the
contraction
B. Place the finger tips lightly on the suprapubic area and time the
contraction
C. Put the tip of the fingers lightly on the fundal area and try
to indent the abdominal wall at the height of the contraction
D. Put the palm of the hands on the fundal area and feel the
contraction at the fundal area

15. To monitor the frequency of the uterine contraction

during labor, the right technique is to time the contraction

A. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same

contraction
B. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of
the next contraction
C. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next
contraction
D. From the deceleration of one contraction to the acme of the next
contraction

16. The peak point of a uterine contraction is called the

A. Acceleration
B. Acme
C. Deceleration
D. Axiom

17. When determining the duration of a uterine contraction

the right technique is to time it from

A. The beginning of one contraction to the end of the same

contraction
B. The end of one contraction to the beginning of another
contraction
C. The acme point of one contraction to the acme point of another
contraction
D. The beginning of one contraction to the end of another
contraction

18. When the bag of waters ruptures, the nurse should

check the characteristic of the amniotic fluiD. The normal
color of amniotic fluid is

A. Clear as water
B. Bluish
C. Greenish
D. Yellowish

19. When the bag of waters ruptures spontaneously, the

nurse should inspect the vaginal introitus for possible cord
prolapse. If there is part of the cord that has prolapsed into
the vaginal opening the correct nursing intervention is:

A. Push back the prolapse cord into the vaginal canal

B. Place the mother on semifowler’s position to improve circulation
C. Cover the prolapse cord with sterile gauze wet with sterile
NSS and place the woman on Trendelenburg position
D. Push back the cord into the vagina and place the woman on sims
position

20. The fetal heart beat should be monitored every 15

minutes during the 2nd stage of labor. The characteristic of
a normal fetal heart rate is
A. The heart rate will decelerate during a contraction and
then go back to its pre-contraction rate after the contraction
B. The heart rate will accelerate during a contraction and remain
slightly above the pre-contraction rate at the end of the contraction
C. The rate should not be affected by the uterine contraction.
D. The heart rate will decelerate at the middle of a contraction and
remain so for about a minute after the contraction

21. The mechanisms involved in fetal delivery is

A. Descent, extension, flexion, external rotation

B. Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external
rotation
C. Flexion, internal rotation, external rotation, extension
D. Internal rotation, extension, external rotation, flexion

22. The first thing that a nurse must ensure when the baby’s
head comes out is

A. The cord is intact

B. No part of the cord is encircling the baby’s neck
C. The cord is still attached to the placenta
D. The cord is still pulsating

23. To ensure that the baby will breath as soon as the head
is delivered, the nurse’s priority action is to

A. Suction the nose and mouth to remove mucous secretions

B. Slap the baby’s buttocks to make the baby cry
C. Clamp the cord about 6 inches from the base
D. Check the baby’s color to make sure it is not cyanotic

24. When doing perineal care in preparation for delivery, the

nurse should observe the following EXCEPT

A. Use up-down technique with one stroke

B. Clean from the mons veneris to the anus
C. Use mild soap and warm water
D. Paint the inner thighs going towards the perineal area

25. What are the important considerations that the nurse

must remember after the placenta is delivered?
1.Check if the placenta is complete including the membranes
2.Check if the cord is long enough for the baby
3.Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood vessels
4.Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a shiny portion

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 3

26. The following are correct statements about false labor

EXCEPT

A. The pain is irregular in intensity and frequency.

B. The duration of contraction progressively lengthens over
time
C. There is no vaginal bloody discharge
D. The cervix is still closeD.

27. The passageway in labor and deliver of the fetus include

the following EXCEPT

A. Distensibility of lower uterine segment

B. Cervical dilatation and effacement
C. Distensibility of vaginal canal and introitus
D. Flexibility of the pelvis

28. The normal umbilical cord is composed of:

A. 2 arteries and 1 vein

B. 2 veins and 1 artery
C. 2 arteries and 2 veins
D. none of the above

29. At what stage of labor and delivery does a primigravida

differ mainly from a multigravida?

A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
30. The second stage of labor begins with ___ and ends with
__?

A. Begins with full dilatation of cervix and ends with delivery of

placenta
B. Begins with true labor pains and ends with delivery of baby
C. Begins with complete dilatation and effacement of cervix
and ends with delivery of baby
D. Begins with passage of show and ends with full dilatation and
effacement of cervix

31. The following are signs that the placenta has detached
EXCEPT:

A. Lengthening of the cord

B. Uterus becomes more globular
C. Sudden gush of blood
D. Mother feels like bearing down

32. When the shiny portion of the placenta comes out first,
this is called the ___ mechanism.

A. Schultze
B. Ritgens
C. Duncan
D. Marmets

33. When the baby’s head is out, the immediate action of

the nurse is

A. Cut the umbilical cord

B. Wipe the baby’s face and suction mouth first
C. Check if there is cord coiled around the neck
D. Deliver the anterior shoulder

34. When delivering the baby’s head the nurse supports the
mother’s perineum to prevent tear. This technique is called

A. Marmet’s technique
B. Ritgen’s technique
C. Duncan maneuver
D. Schultze maneuver
35. The basic delivery set for normal vaginal delivery
includes the following instruments/articles EXCEPT:

A. 2 clamps
B. Pair of scissors
C. Kidney basin
D. Retractor

36. As soon as the placenta is delivered, the nurse must do

which of the following actions?

A. Inspect the placenta for completeness including the

membranes
B. Place the placenta in a receptacle for disposal
C. Label the placenta properly
D. Leave the placenta in the kidney basin for the nursing aide to
dispose properly

37. In vaginal delivery done in the hospital setting, the

doctor routinely orders an oxytocin to be given to the
mother parenterally. The oxytocin is usually given after the
placenta has been delivered and not before because:

A. Oxytocin will prevent bleeding

B. Oxytocin can make the cervix close and thus trap the
placenta inside
C. Oxytocin will facilitate placental delivery
D. Giving oxytocin will ensure complete delivery of the placenta

38. In a gravido-cardiac mother, the first 2 hours postpartum

(4th stage of labor and delivery) particularly in a cesarean
section is a critical period because at this stage

A. There is a fluid shift from the placental circulation to the

maternal circulation which can overload the compromised
heart.
B. The maternal heart is already weak and the mother can die
C. The delivery process is strenuous to the mother
D. The mother is tired and weak which can distress the heart

39. The drug usually given parentally to enhance uterine

contraction is:
A. Terbutalline
B. Pitocin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Lidocaine

40. The partograph is a tool used to monitor labor. The

maternal parameters measured/monitored are the following
EXCEPT:

A. Vital signs
B. Fluid intake and output
C. Uterine contraction
D. Cervical dilatation

41. The following are natural childbirth procedures EXCEPT:

A. Lamaze method
B. Dick-Read method
C. Ritgen’s maneuver
D. Psychoprophylactic method

42. The following are common causes of dysfunctional labor.

Which of these can a nurse, on her own manage?

A. Pelvic bone contraction

B. Full bladder
C. Extension rather than flexion of the head
D. Cervical rigidity

43. At what stage of labor is the mother is advised to bear

down?

A. When the mother feels the pressure at the rectal area

B. During a uterine contraction
C. In between uterine contraction to prevent uterine rupture
D. Anytime the mother feels like bearing down

44. The normal dilatation of the cervix during the first stage
of labor in a nullipara is

A. 1.2 cm./hr
B. 1.5 cm./hr.
C. 1.8 cm./hr
D. 2.0 cm./hr

45. When the fetal head is at the level of the ischial spine, it
is said that the station of the head is

A. Station –1
B. Station “0”
C. Station +1
D. Station +2

46. During an internal examination, the nurse palpated the

posterior fontanel to be at the left side of the mother at the
upper quadrant. The interpretation is that the position of
the fetus is:

A. LOA
B. ROP
C. LOP
D. ROA

47. The following are types of breech presentation EXCEPT:

A. Footling
B. Frank
C. Complete
D. Incomplete

48. When the nurse palpates the suprapubic area of the

mother and found that the presenting part is still movable,
the right term for this observation that the fetus is

A. Engaged
B. Descended
C. Floating
D. Internal Rotation

49. The placenta should be delivered normally within ___

minutes after the delivery of the baby.

A. 5 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 60 minutes

50. When shaving a woman in preparation for cesarean

section, the area to be shaved should be from ___ to ___

A. Under breast to mid-thigh including the pubic area

B. The umbilicus to the mid-thigh
C. Xyphoid process to the pubic area
D. Above the umbilicus to the pubic area

Maternal & Child Health

Nursing Exam 6: Maternity
Nursing (50 Items)

In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and
answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make
a print out.

1. Postpartum Period:
The fundus of the uterus is expected to go down normally
postpartally about __ cm per day.

A. 1.0 cm
B. 2.0 cm
C. 2.5 cm
D. 3.0 cm

2. The lochia on the first few days after delivery is

characterized as

A. Pinkish with some blood clots

B. Whitish with some mucus
C. Reddish with some mucus
D. Serous with some brown tinged mucus

3. Lochia normally disappears after how many days

postpartum?
A. 5 days
B. 7-10 days
C. 18-21 days
D. 28-30 days

4. After an Rh(-) mother has delivered her Rh (+) baby, the

mother is given RhoGam. This is done in order to:

A. Prevent the recurrence of Rh(+) baby in future pregnancies

B. Prevent the mother from producing antibodies against the
Rh(+) antigen that she may have gotten when she delivered to
her Rh(+) baby
C. Ensure that future pregnancies will not lead to maternal illness
D. To prevent the newborn from having problems of incompatibility
when it breastfeeds

5. To enhance milk production, a lactating mother must do

the following interventions EXCEPT:

A. Increase fluid intake including milk

B. Eat foods that increases lactation which are called galactagues
C. Exercise adequately like aerobics
D. Have adequate nutrition and rest

6. The nursing intervention to relieve pain in breast

engorgement while the mother continues to breastfeed is

A. Apply cold compress on the engorged breast

B. Apply warm compress on the engorged breast
C. Massage the breast
D. Apply analgesic ointment

7. A woman who delivered normally per vagina is expected

to void within ___ hours after delivery.

A. 3 hrs
B. 4 hrs.
C. 6-8 hrs
D. 12-24 hours

8. To ensure adequate lactation the nurse should teach the

mother to:
A. Breast feed the baby on self-demand day and night
B. Feed primarily during the day and allow the baby to sleep through
the night
C. Feed the baby every 3-4 hours following a strict schedule
D. Breastfeed when the breast are engorged to ensure adequate
supply

9. An appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a

postpartum mother with thrombophlebitis is:

A. Encourage the mother to ambulate to relieve the pain in the leg

B. Instruct the mother to apply elastic bondage from the foot going
towards the knee to improve venous return flow
C. Apply warm compress on the affected leg to relieve the pain
D. Elevate the affected leg and keep the patient on bedrest

10. The nurse should anticipate that hemorrhage related to

uterine atony may occur postpartally if this condition was
present during the delivery:

A. Excessive analgesia was given to the mother

B. Placental delivery occurred within thirty minutes after the baby
was born
C. An episiotomy had to be done to facilitate delivery of the head
D. The labor and delivery lasted for 12 hours

11. According to Rubin’s theory of maternal role adaptation,

the mother will go through 3 stages during the post partum
perioD. These stages are:

A. Going through, adjustment period, adaptation period

B. Taking-in, taking-hold and letting-go
C. Attachment phase, adjustment phase, adaptation phase
D. Taking-hold, letting-go, attachment phase

12. The neonate of a mother with diabetes mellitus is prone

to developing hypoglycemia because:

A. The pancreas is immature and unable to secrete the needed

insulin
B. There is rapid diminution of glucose level in the baby’s
circulating blood and his pancreas is normally secreting
insulin
C. The baby is reacting to the insulin given to the mother
D. His kidneys are immature leading to a high tolerance for glucose

13. Which of the following is an abnormal vital sign in

postpartum?

A. Pulse rate between 50-60/min

B. BP diastolic increase from 80 to 95mm Hg
C. BP systolic between 100-120mm Hg
D. Respiratory rate of 16-20/min

14. The uterine fundus right after delivery of placenta is

palpable at

A. Level of Xyphoid process

B. Level of umbilicus
C. Level of symphysis pubis
D. Midway between umbilicus and symphysis pubis

15. After how many weeks after delivery should a woman

have her postpartal check-up based on the protocol followed
by the DOH Philippines?

A. 2 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 12 weeks

16. In a woman who is not breastfeeding, menstruation

usually occurs after how many weeks?

A. 2-4 weeks
B. 6-8 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 12 months

17. The following are nursing measures to stimulate

lactation EXCEPT

A. Frequent regular breast feeding

B. Breast pumping
C. Breast massage
D. Application of cold compress on the breast
18. When the uterus is firm and contracted after delivery but
there is vaginal bleeding, the nurse should suspect

A. Laceration of soft tissues of the cervix and vagina

B. Uterine atony
C. Uterine inversion
D. Uterine hypercontractility

19. The following are interventions to make the fundus

contract postpartally EXCEPT

A. Make the baby suck the breast regularly

B. Apply ice cap on fundus
C. Massage the fundus vigorously for 15 minutes until
contracted
D. Give oxytocin as ordered

20. The following are nursing interventions to relieve

episiotomy wound pain EXCEPT

A. Giving analgesic as ordered

B. Sitz bath
C. Perineal heat
D. Perineal care

21. Postpartum blues is said to be normal provided that the

following characteristics are present. These are

1. Within 3-10 days only;

2. Woman exhibits the following symptoms- episodic tearfulness,
fatigue, oversensitivity, poor appetite;
3. Maybe more severe symptoms in primpara

A. All of the above

B. 1 and 2
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3

22. The neonatal circulation differs from the fetal circulation

because

A. The fetal lungs are non-functioning as an organ and most

of the blood in the fetal circulation is mixed blooD.
B. The blood at the left atrium of the fetal heart is shunted to the
right atrium to facilitate its passage to the lungs
C. The blood in left side of the fetal heart contains oxygenated blood
while the blood in the right side contains unoxygenated blooD.
D. None of the above

23. The normal respiration of a newborn immediately after

birth is characterized as:

A. Shallow and irregular with short periods of apnea lasting

not longer than 15 seconds, 30-60 breaths per minute
B. 20-40 breaths per minute, abdominal breathing with active use of
intercostals muscles
C. 30-60 breaths per minute with apnea lasting more than 15
seconds, abdominal breathing
D. 30-50 breaths per minute, active use of abdominal and
intercostal muscles

24. The anterior fontanelle is characterized as:

A. 3-4 cm antero-posterior diameter and 2-3 cm transverse

diameter, diamond shape
B. 2-3 cm antero-posterior diameter and 3-4 cm transverse diameter
and diamond shape
C. 2-3 cm in both antero-posterior and transverse diameter and
diamond shape
D. none of the above

25. The ideal site for vitamin K injection in the newborn is:

A. Right upper arm

B. Left upper arm
C. Either right or left buttocks
D. Middle third of the thigh

26. At what APGAR score at 5 minutes after birth should

resuscitation be initiated?

A. 1-3
B. 7-8
C. 9-10
D. 6-7
27. Right after birth, when the skin of the baby’s trunk is
pinkish but the soles of the feet and palm of the hands are
bluish this is called:

A. Syndactyly
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Peripheral cyanosis
D. Cephalo-caudal cyanosis

28. The minimum birth weight for full term babies to be

considered normal is:

A. 2,000gms
B. 1,500gms
C. 2,500gms
D. 3,000gms

29. The procedure done to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum

is:

A. Marmet’s technique
B. Crede’s method
C. Ritgen’s method
D. Ophthalmic wash

30. Which of the following characteristics will distinguish a

postmature neonate at birth?

A. Plenty of lanugo and vernix caseosa

B. Lanugo mainly on the shoulders and vernix in the skin folds
C. Pinkish skin with good turgor
D. Almost leather-like, dry, cracked skin, negligible vernix
caseosa

31. According to the Philippine Nursing Law, a registered

nurse is allowed to handle mothers in labor and delivery
with the following considerations:

1. The pregnancy is normal.;

2. The labor and delivery is uncomplicated;
3. Suturing of perineal laceration is allowed provided the nurse had
special training;
4. As a delivery room nurse she is not allowed to insert intravenous
fluid unless she had special training for it.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 4

32. Birth Control Methods and Infertility:

In basal body temperature (BBT) technique, the sign that
ovulation has occurred is an elevation of body temperature
by

A. 1.0-1.4 degrees centigrade

B. 0.2-0.4 degrees centigrade
C. 2.0-4.0 degrees centigrade
D. 1.0-4.0 degrees centigrade

33. Lactation Amenorrhea Method(LAM) can be an effective

method of natural birth control if

A. The mother breast feeds mainly at night time when ovulation

could possibly occur
B. The mother breastfeeds exclusively and regularly during
the first 6 months without giving supplemental feedings
C. The mother uses mixed feeding faithfully
D. The mother breastfeeds regularly until 1 year with no
supplemental feedings

34. Intra-uterine device prevents pregnancy by the ff.

mechanism EXCEPT

A. Endometrium inflames
B. Fundus contracts to expel uterine contents
C. Copper embedded in the IUD can kill the sperms
D. Sperms will be barred from entering the fallopian tubes

35. Oral contraceptive pills are of different types. Which

type is most appropriate for mothers who are breastfeeding?

A. Estrogen only
B. Progesterone only
C. Mixed type- estrogen and progesterone
D. 21-day pills mixed type

36. The natural family planning method called Standard

Days (SDM), is the latest type and easy to use methoD.
However, it is a method applicable only to women with
regular menstrual cycles between ___ to ___ days.

A. 21-26 days
B. 26-32 days
C. 28-30 days
D. 24- 36 days

37. Which of the following are signs of ovulation?

1. Mittelschmerz;
2. Spinnabarkeit;
3. Thin watery cervical mucus;
4. Elevated body temperature of 4.0 degrees centigrade

A. 1 & 2
B. 1, 2, & 3
C. 3 & 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4

38. The following methods of artificial birth control works as

a barrier device EXCEPT:

A. Condom
B. Cervical cap
C. Cervical Diaphragm
D. Intrauterine device (IUD)

39. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about normal

ovulation?

A. It occurs on the 14th day of every cycle

B. It may occur between 14-16 days before next
menstruation
C. Every menstrual period is always preceded by ovulation
D. The most fertile period of a woman is 2 days after ovulation

40. If a couple would like to enhance their fertility, the

following means can be done:
1. Monitor the basal body temperature of the woman
everyday to determine peak period of fertility;
2. Have adequate rest and nutrition;
3. Have sexual contact only during the dry period of the
woman;
4. Undergo a complete medical check-up to rule out any
debilitating disease

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 4
C. 1,2,4
D. 1,2,3,4

41. In sympto-thermal method, the parameters being

monitored to determine if the woman is fertile or infertile
are:

A. Temperature, cervical mucus, cervical consistency

B. Release of ovum, temperature and vagina
C. Temperature and wetness
D. Temperature, endometrial secretion, mucus

42. The following are important considerations to teach the

woman who is on low dose (mini-pill) oral contraceptive
EXCEPT:

A. The pill must be taken everyday at the same time

B. If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she must take
2 pills for added protection
C. If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she needs to take
another temporary method until she has consumed the whole pack
D. If she is breast feeding, she should discontinue using mini-pill and
use the progestin-only type

43. To determine if the cause of infertility is a blockage of

the fallopian tubes, the test to be done is

A. Huhner’s test
B. Rubin’s test
C. Postcoital test
D. None of the above
44. Infertility can be attributed to male causes such as the
following EXCEPT:

A. Cryptorchidism
B. Orchitis
C. Sperm count of about 20 million per milliliter
D. Premature ejaculation

45. Spinnabarkeit is an indicator of ovulation which is

characterized as:

A. Thin watery mucus which can be stretched into a long

strand about 10 cm
B. Thick mucus that is detached from the cervix during ovulation
C. Thin mucus that is yellowish in color with fishy odor
D. Thick mucus vaginal discharge influence by high level of estrogen

46. Vasectomy is a procedure done on a male for

sterilization. The organ involved in this procedure is

A. Prostate gland
B. Seminal vesicle
C. Testes
D. Vas deferens

47. Breast self examination is best done by the woman on

herself every month during

A. The middle of her cycle to ensure that she is ovulating

B. During the menstrual period
C. Right after the menstrual period so that the breast is not
being affected by the increase in hormones particularly
estrogen
D. Just before the menstrual period to determine if ovulation has
occurred

48. A woman is considered to be menopause if she has

experienced cessation of her menses for a period of

A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
49. Which of the following is the correct practice of self
breast examination in a menopausal woman?

A. She should do it at the usual time that she experiences her

menstrual period in the past to ensure that her hormones are not at
its peak
B. Any day of the month as long it is regularly observed on
the same day every month
C. Anytime she feels like doing it ideally every day
D. Menopausal women do not need regular self breast exam as long
as they do it at least once every 6 months

50. In assisted reproductive technology (ART), there is a

need to stimulate the ovaries to produce more than one
mature ovA. The drug commonly used for this purpose is:

A. Bromocriptine
B. Clomiphene
C. Provera
D. Estrogen

Maternal & Child Health

Nursing Exam 10: NLE Pre-
Boards (100 Items)
In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and
answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make
a print out.

Situation 1: Mariah is a 31 year old lawyer who has been married for
6 moths. She consults you for guidance in relation with her
menstrual cycle and her desire to get pregnant.

1. She wants to know the length of her menstrual cycle. Her

periodic menstrual period is October 22 to 26. Her LMB is
November 21. Which of the following number of days will be
your correct response?
A. 29
B. 28
C. 30
D. 31

2. You advised her to observe and record the signs of

ovulation. Which of the following signs will she likely note
down?

1. A 1 degree Fahrenheit rise in basal body temperature

2. Cervical mucus becomes copious and clear
3. One pound increase in weight
4. Mittelschmerz

A. 1,2,4
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4

3. You instruct Mariah to keep record of her basal

temperature everyday, which of the following instructions is
incorrect?

A. If coitus has occurred, this should be reflected in the chart

B. It is best to have coitus on the evening following a drop in BBT to
become pregnant
C. Temperature should be taken immediately after waking and
before getting put of bed
D. BBT is lowest during the secretory phase

4. She reports an increase in BBT on December 16. Which

hormone brings about this change in her BBT?

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Gonadootrophine
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone

5. The following month, Mariah suspects she is pregnant.

Her urine is positive for Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin.
Which structure produce HCG?
A. Pituitary Gland
B. Trophoblastic cells of the embryo
C. Uterine deciduas
D. Ovarian follicles

Situation 2: Mariah came back and she is now pregnant.

6. At 5 months gestation, which of the following fetal

development would probably be expected:

A. Fetal development are felt by Mariah

B. Vernix caseosa covers the entire body
C. Viable if delivered within this period
D. Braxton Hicks contractions are observed

7. The nurse palpates the abdomen of Mariah. Now at 5

month gestation, what level of the abdomen can be the
fundic height be palpated?

A. Symphysis pubis
B. Midpoint between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
C. Midpoint between the symphysis pubis the umbilicus
D. Umbilicus

8. She worries about her small breast, thinking that she

probably will incapable to breastfeed her baby. Which of the
following responses of the nurse is correct?

A. “The size of your breast will not affect your lactation.”

B. “You can switch to bottle feeding.”
C. “You can try to have exercise to increase the size of your breast.”
D. “Manual expression of milk is possible.”

9. She tells the nurse that she does not take milk regularly.
She claims that she does not want to gain too much weight
during her pregnancy. Which of the following nursing
diagnosis is a priority?

A. Potential self-esteem disturbance related to physiologic changes

in pregnancy
B. Ineffective individual coping related to physiologic changes in
pregnancy
C. Fear related to the effects of pregnancy
D. Knowledge deficit regarding nutritional requirements
pregnancies related to lack of information sources.

10. Which of the following interventions will likely ensure

compliance of Mariah?

A. Incorporate her food preferences that are adequately

nutritious in her meal plan.
B. Consistently counsel toward optimum nutritional intake
C. Respect her right to reject dietary information if she chooses
D. Information of the adverse effects of inadequate nutrition to her
fetus

Situation 3: Susan is a patient in the clinic where you work. She is

inquiring about pregnancy.

11. Susan tells you she is worried because she develops

breast later than most of her friends. Breast development is
termed as:

A. Adrenarche
B. Mamarche
C. Thelarche
D. Menarche

12. Kevin, Susan’s husband, tells you that he is considering

vasectomy. After the birth of their new child. Vasectomy
involves the incision of which organ?

A. The testes
B. The vas deferens
C. The epididymis
D. The scrotum

13. On examination, Susan has been found of having a

cystocele. A cystocele is:

A. A sebaceous cyst arising from the vulvar fold.

B. Protrusion of intestines into the vagina
C. Prolapse of the uterus into the vagina
D. Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal wall.
14. Susan typically has menstrual cycle of 34 days. She told
you she had a coitus on days 8, 10 and 20 of her menstrual
cycle. Which is the day on which she is most likely to
conceive?

A. 8th day
B. 10th day
C. Day 15
D. Day 20

15. While talking with Susan, 2 new patients arrived and

they are covered with large towels and the nurse noticed
that there are many cameraman and news people outside of
the OPD. Upon assessment the nurse noticed that both of
them are still nude and the male client’s penis is still inside
the female client’s vagina and the male client said that “I
can’t pull it.” Vaginismus was your first impression. You
know that the psychological cause of Vaginismus is related
to:

A. The male client inserted the penis too deeply that it stimulates
vaginal closure
B. The penis was too large that’s why the vagina triggered it’s
defense to attempt to close
C. The vagina do not want to be penetrated
D. It is due to learning patterns of the female client where
she views sex as bad or sinful.

Situation 4: Overpopulation is one problem in the Philippines that

case economic drain. Most Filipinos are against in legalizing
abortion. As a nurse, Mastery of contraception is needed to
contribute to the society and economic growth.

16. Supposed that Dana, 17 years old, tells you she wants to
use fertility awareness method of contraception. How will
she determine her fertile days?

A. She will notice that she feels hot as if she has an elevated
temperature
B. She should assess whether her cervical mucus is thin
colour, clear and watery.
C. She should monitor her emotions fro sudden anger or crying
D. She should assess whether her breast feel sensitive to cool air.
17. Dana chooses to use COC as her family planning method,
what is the danger sign of COC you would ask her to report?

A. A stuffy or runny nose

B. Arthritis like symptoms
C. Slight weight gain
D. Migraine headache

18. Dana asks about subcutaneous implants and she asks

how long will these implants be effective. Your best answer
is:

A. One month
B. Twelve month
C. Five years
D. 10 years

19. Dana asks about female condoms. Which of the following

is true with regards to female condoms?

A. The hormone the condom releases might cause mild weight gain.
B. She should insert the condom before any penile
penetration
C. She should coat the condom with spermicide before use
D. Female condoms unlike male condoms are reusable.

20. Dana has asked about GIFT procedure. What makes her a
good candidate for GIFT?

A. She has patent fallopian tubes, so fertilized ova can be

implanted on them.
B. She is RH negative, a necessary stipulation to rule out RH
incompatibility.
C. She has normal uterus, so the sperm can be injected through the
cervix into it.
D. Her husband is taking sildenafil (Viagra), so all sperms will be
motile.

Situation 5 – Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse

Specialist and currently attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND
INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions pertain to meeting the
nursing needs of this particular population group.
21. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation
prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer?

A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill

sperm
B. Sperm can not enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is
blocked.
C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian
tubes are blocked
D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is nowhere for them to
go.

22. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for

infertility. Infertility is said to exist when:

A. a woman has no uterus

B. a woman has no children
C. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year
D. a couple has wanted a child for 6 months

23. Another client named Lilia is diagnosed as having

endometriosis. This condition interferes with fertility
because:

A. endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes

B. the uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen
C. the ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen
D. pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased FSH levels

24. Lilia is scheduled to have a hysterosalpingogram. Which

of the following instructions would you give her regarding
this procedure?

A. She will not be able to conceive for 3 months after the procedure
B. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present
C. Many women experience mild bleeding as an after effect
D. She may feel some cramping when the dye is inserted

25. Lilia’s cousin on the other hand, knowing nurse Lorena’s

specialization asks what artificial insemination by donor
entails. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse
Lorena?
A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or
cervix
B. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary
C. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal patency
D. The husband’s sperm is administered intravenously weekly

Situation 6: You are assigned to take care of a group of patients

across the lifespan.

26. Pain in the elder persons require careful assessment

because they:

A. Experienced reduce sensory perception

B. Have increased sensory perception
C. Are expected to experience chronic pain
D. Have decreased pain threshold

27. Administration of analgesics to the older persons require

careful patient assessment because older people:

A. Are more sensitive drugs

B. Have increased hepatic, renal, and gastrointestinal function
C. Have increased sensory perception
D. Mobilize drugs more rapidly

28. The elderly patient is at higher risk for urinary

incontinence because:

A. Increased glomerular filtration

B. Diuretic use
C. Decreased bladder capacity
D. Decreased glomerular filtration

29. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of

infection among the elderly?

A. Decreased breath sounds with crackles

B. Fever
C. Pain
D. Change in the mental status

30. Priorities when caring for the elderly trauma patient:

A. Circulation, airway, breathing
B. Disability(Neurologic), airway, breathing
C. Airway, Breathing, Disability(Neurologic),
D. Airway, breathing, Circulation

31. Preschoolers are able to see things from which of the

following perspectives?

A. Their peers
B. Their own and their caregivers
C. Their own and their mother’s
D. Only their own

32. In conflict management, the win-win approach occurs

when:

A. There are two conflicts and the parties agree to each one
B. Each party gives in on 50% of the disagreement making the
conflict
C. Both parties involved are committed in solving the conflict
D. The conflict is settled out of court so the legal system mandates
parties win.

33. According to the social-International perspective of child

abuse and neglect, four factors place the family members at
risk for abuse, these risk factors are the family members at
risk for abuse. These risk factors are the family itself, the
caregiver, the child and:

A. The presence of a family crisis

B. Genetics
C. The national emphasis on sex
D. Chronic poverty

34. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you

most likely find when assessing an infant with Arnold-
Chiari malformation?

A. Weakness of the leg muscles, loss of sensation in the legs, and

restlessness
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag reflex and
respiratory distress
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant and an arching of the back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea and vomiting

35. A parent calls you and frantically reports that her child
has gotten into her famous ferrous sulfate pills and ingested
a number of these pills. Her child is now vomiting, has
bloody diarrhea and is complaining of abdominal pain. You
will tell the mother to:

A. Call emergency medical services (EMS) and get the child to the
emergency room
B. Relax because these symptoms will pass and the child will be fine
C. Administer syrup of ipecac
D. Call the poison control center

36. A client says she heard from a friend that you stop
having periods once you are on the “pill.” The most
appropriate response would be:

A. “The pill prevents the uterus from making such endometrial

lining, that is why period may often be scant or skipped
occasionally.”
B. “If your friend has missed her period, she should stop taking the
pills and get a pregnancy test.”
C. “The pill should cause a normal menstrual period every
month. It sounds like your friend has not been taking the
pills properly.”
D. Missed period can be very dangerous and may lead to the
formation of precancerous cells.”

37. The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants during

their hospital stay notice which of the following symptoms
as a primary manifestation of Hirschsprung’s disorder?

A. A fine rash over the trunk

B. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24 hours after
birth
C. The skin turns yellow and then brown over the first 24 hours to 46
hours after birth.
D. High grade fever.

38. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just been

diagnosed as having a partial placenta previa. She is able
and has minimal spotting and is being sent home. Which of
these instructions to the client may indicate a need for
further teaching?

A. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges

B. Avoid intercourse for three days
C. Call if contractions occur.
D. Stay on left side as much as possible when lying down.

39. A woman has been rushed to the hospital with ruptured

membrane. Which of the following should the nurse check
first?

A. Check for the presence of infarction.

B. Assess for Prolapse of the umbilical cord
C. Check the maternal heart rate
D. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid

40. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a plastic-

coated diaper. If a topical medication were to be prescribed
and it were to go on the stomachs or buttocks, the nurse
would teach the caregivers to:

A. Avoid covering the area of the topical medication with the

diaper
B. Avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper
C. Put the diaper on as usual
D. Apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside of the diaper

41. Which of the following factors is most important in

determining the success of relationships used in delivering
nursing care?

A. Type of illness of the client

B. Transference and countertransference
C. Effective communication
D. Personality of the participants

42. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg from automobile

accident. Why are lacerations of lower extremities
potentially more serious among pregnant women than
other?
A. lacerations can provoke allergic responses due to gonadotropic
hormone release
B. a woman is less able to keep the laceration clean because of her
fatigue
C. healing is limited during pregnancy so these will not heal until
after birth
D. increased bleeding can occur from uterine pressure on leg
veins

43. In working with the caregivers of a client with an cute or

chronic illness, the nurse would:

A. Teach care daily and let the caregivers do a return

demonstration just before discharge
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag reflex and
respiratory distress
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant and arching of the back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea and vomiting

44. Which of the following roles BEST exemplifies the

expanded role of the nurse?

A. Circulating nurse in surgery

B. Medication nurse
C. Obstetrical nurse
D. Pediatric nurse practitioner

45. According to De Rosa and Kochura’s (2006) article

entitled “Implement Culturally Health Care in your
workplace,” cultures have different patterns of verbal and
nonverbal communication. Which difference does NOT
necessarily belong?

A. Personal behaviour
B. Eye contact
C. Subject Matter
D. Conversational style

46. You are the nurse assigned to work with a child with
acute glomerulonephritis. By following the prescribed
treatment regimen, the child experiences a remission. You
are now checking to make sure the child does not have a
relapse. Which finding most lead you to the conclusion that
a relapse is happening?

A. Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat, changing complete

blood count (CBC) with differential count
B. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+ proteinuria or more
for 3 days or the child found to have 3-4+ proteinuria plus
edema.
C. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the urine for 3 days,
extreme thirst, increase in urine output and a moon face.
D. A temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees F) flank pain,
burning frequency, urgency on voiding and cloudy urine.

47. The nurse is working with an adolescent who complains

of being lonely and having a lack of fulfilment in her life.
This adolescent shies away from intimate relationships at
times yet at other times she appears promiscuous. The
nurse will likely work with this adolescent in which of the
areas?

A. Isolation
B. Loneliness
C. Lack of fulfilment
D. Identity

48. The use of interpersonal decision making psychomotor

skills and application of knowledge expected in the role of a
licensed healthcare professional in the context of public
health welfare and safety as an example of?

A. Delegation
B. Supervision
C. Responsibility
D. Competence

49. The painful phenomenon known as back labor occurs in a

client whose fetus in what position?

A. Brow position
B. Right occipito-Anterior Position
C. Breech position
D. Left occipito-Posterior Position
50. Focus methodology stands for?

A. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand and Solution

B. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous, Utilize, Substantiate
C. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand, Substantiate
D. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous (process), Understand, Solution

Situation 7: The infant and child mortality rate in the low to middle
income countries is ten times higher than industrialized countries. In
response to this the WHO and UNICEF launched protocol Integrated
Management of Childhood Illness to reduce the morbidity and
mortality against childhood illnesses.

51. If a child with diarrhea registers two signs in the yellow

row in the IMCI chart, we can classify the patient as:

A. Moderate dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration

52. Celeste has had diarrhea for 8 days. There is no blood in

the stool, he is irritable, his eyes are sunken, the nurse
offers fluid to Celeste and he drinks eagerly. When the nurse
pinched the abdomen it goes back slowly. How will you
classify Celeste’s Illness?

A. Moderate dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration

53. A child who is 7 weeks has had diarrhea for 14 days but
has no sign of dehydration is classified as?

A. Persistent diarrhea
B. Severe dysentery
C. Dysentery
D. Severe Persistent diarrhea

54. The child with no dehydration needs home treatment.

Which of the following is not included in the rules for home
treatment in this case?
A. Forced fluids
B. When to return
C. Give Vitamin A supplement
D. Feeding more

55. Fever as used in IMCI includes:

A. Axillary temperature of 37.5 or higher

B. Rectal temperature of 38 or higher
C. Feeling hot to touch
D. All of the above
E. A and C only

Situation: Prevention of Dengue is an important nursing

responsibility and controlling it’s spread is priority once outbreak
has been observed.

56. An important role of the community health nurse in the

prevention and control of Dengue H-fever includes:

A. Advising the elimination of vectors by keeping water containers

covered
B. Conducting strong health education drives/campaign directed
toward proper garbage disposal
C. Explaining to the individuals, families, groups and
community the nature of the disease and its causation.
D. Practicing residual spraying with insecticides

57. Community health nurses should be alert in observing a

Dengue suspect. The following is NOT an indicator for
hospitalization of H-fever suspects?

A. Marked anorexia, abdominal pain and vomiting

B. Increasing hematocrit count
C. Cough of 30 days
D. Persistent headache

58. The community health nurses primary concern in the

immediate control of hemorrhage among patients with
dengue is:

A. Advising low fiber and non-fat diet

B. Providing warmth through light weight covers
C. Observing closely the patient for vital signs leading to
shock
D. Keeping the patient at rest.

59. Which of these signs may NOT be REGARDED as a truly

positive signs indicative of Dengue H-fever?

A. Prolonged Bleeding Time

B. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within 1 cm square
C. Steadily increasing hematocrit count
D. Fall in the platelet count

60. Which of the following is the most important treatment

of patients with Dengue H-fever?

A. Give aspirin for fever

B. Replacement of body fluids
C. Avoid unnecessary movement
D. Ice cap over abdomen in case of melena

Situation 9: Health education and Health Promotion is an important

part of nursing responsibility in the community. Immunization is a
form of health promotion that aims at preventing the common
childhood illnesses.

61. In correcting misconceptions and myths about certain

diseases and their management, the health worker should
first:

A. Identify the myths and misconceptions prevailing in the

community
B. Identify the source of these myths and misconceptions
C. Explain how and why these myths came about
D. Select the appropriate IEC strategies to correct them.

62. How many percent of measles are prevented by

immunization at 9 months age?

A. 80 %
B. 90%
C. 99 %
D. 95 %
63. After TT3 vaccination a mother is said to be protected to
tetanus by around?

A. 80 %
B. 85 %
C. 99 %
D. 90 %

64. If ever convulsion occurs after administering DPT, what

should nurse best suggest to the mother?

A. Do not continue DPT vaccination anymore

B. Advise mother to come back aster 1 week
C. Give DT instead of DPT
D. Give pertussis of the DPT and remove DT

65. These vaccines are given 3 doses at one month intervals:

A. DPT, BCG, TT
B. DPT, TT, OPV
C. OPV, Hep. B, DPT
D. Measles, OPV, DPT

Situation 10: With the increasing documented cases of CANCER the

best alternative to treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The
following conditions apply.

66. Which among the following is the primary focus of

prevention of cancer?

A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer

B. Diagnosis and treatment
C. Treatment at early stage
D. Early detection

67. In the prevention and control of cancer, which of the

following activity is the most important function of the
community health nurse?

A. Conduct community assemblies

B. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with symptoms of
cancer
C. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as parameters in our
process of detection; control and treatment modalities.
D. Teach women about proper/correct nutrition.

68. Who among the following are recipients of the secondary

level of care for cancer cases?

A. Those under early case detection

B. Those under supportive care
C. Those scheduled for surgery
D. Those under going treatment

69. Who among the following are recipients of the tertiary level of
care for cancer cases?

A. Those under early treatment

B. Those under supportive care
C. Those under early detection
D. Those scheduled for surgery

70. In Community Health Nursing, despite the availability

and use of many equipment and devices to facilitate the job
of the community health nurse, the nurse should be
prepared to apply is a scientific approach. This approach
ensures quality of care even at the community setting. This
nursing parlance is nothing less than the:

A. Nursing diagnosis
B. Nursing protocol
C. Nursing research
D. Nursing process

Situation 11 – Two children were brought to you. One with chest

indrawing and the other had diarrhea. The following questions apply:

71. Using Integrated Management and Childhood Illness

(IMCI) approach, how would you classify the 1st child?

A. Bronchopneumonia
B. No pneumonia: cough or cold
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Pneumonia
72. The 1st child who is 13 months has fast breathing using
IMCI parameters he has:

A. 40 breaths per minute or more

B. 50 breaths per minute
C. 30 breaths per minute or more
D. 60 breaths per minute

73. Nina, the 2nd child has diarrhea for 5 days. There is no
blood in the stool. She is irritable and her eyes are sunken.
The nurse offered fluids and the child drinks eagerly. How
would you classify Nina’s illness?

A. Some dehydration
B. Dysentery
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration

74. Nina’s treatment should include the following EXCEPT:

A. Reassess the child and classify him for dehydration

B. For infants under 6 months old who are not breastfed, give 100-
200 ml clean water as well during this period.
C. Give in the health center the recommended amount of ORS for 4
hours.
D. Do not give any other foods to the child for home
treatment

75. While on treatment, Nina 18 months old weighed 18 kgs

and her temperature registered at 37 degrees C. Her mother
says she developed cough 3 days ago. Nina has no general
danger signs. She has 45 breaths/minute, no chest
indrawing, no stridor. How would you classify Nina’s
manifestation.

A. No pneumonia
B. Severe pneumonia
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchopneumonia

76. Carol is 15 months old and weighs 5.5 kgs and it is her
initial visit. Her mother says that Carol is not eating well and
unable to breastfeed, he has no vomiting, has no convulsion
and not abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken. Her
temperature is 38.9 deg C. Using the integrated
management of childhood illness or IMCI strategy, if you
were the nurse in charge of Carol, how will you classify her
illness?

A. a child at a general danger sign

B. very severe febrile disease
C. severe pneumonia
D. severe malnutrition

77. Why are small for gestational age newborns at risk for
difficulty maintaining body temperature?

A. their skin is more susceptible to conduction of cold

B. they are preterm so are born relatively small in size
C. they do not have as many fat stored as other infants
D. they are more active than usual so they throw off comes

78. Oxytocin is administered to Rita to augment labor. What

are the first symptoms of water intoxication to observe for
during this procedure?

A. headache and vomiting

B. a swollen tender tongue
C. a high choking voice
D. abdominal bleeding and pain

79. Which of the following treatment should NOT be

considered if the child has severe dengue hemorrhagic
fever?

A. use plan C if there is bleeding from the nose or gums

B. give ORS if there is skin petechiae, persistent vomiting, and
positive tourniquet test
C. give aspirin
D. prevent low blood sugar

80. In assessing the patient’s condition using the Integrated

Management of Childhood Illness approach strategy, the
first thing that a nurse should do is to:
A. ask what are the child’s problem
B. check the patient’s level of consciousness
C. check for the four main symptoms
D. check for the general danger signs

81. A child with diarrhea is observed for the following

EXCEPT:

A. how long the child has diarrhea

B. skin petechiae
C. presence of blood in the stool
D. signs of dehydration

82. The child with no dehydration needs home treatment.

Which of the following is NOT included in the care for home
management at this case?

A. give drugs every 4 hours

B. continue feeding the child
C. give the child more fluids
D. inform when to return to the health center

83. Ms. Jordan, RN, believes that a patient should be treated

as individual. This ethical principle that the patient referred
to:

A. beneficence
B. nonmaleficence
C. respect for person
D. autonomy

84. When patients cannot make decisions for themselves,

the nurse advocate relies on the ethical principle of:

A. justice and beneficence

B. fidelity and nonmaleficence
C. beneficence and nonmaleficence
D. fidelity and justice

85. Being a community health nurse, you have the

responsibility of participating in protecting the health of
people. Consider this situation: Vendors selling bread with
their bare hands. They receive money with these hands. You
do not see them washing their hands. What should you say
or do?

A. “Miss, may I get the bread myself because you have not washed
your hands”
B. All of these
C. “Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/ bread tong”
D. “Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands first before getting
the bread”

Situation 12: The following questions refer to common clinical

encounters experienced by an entry level nurse.

86. A female client asks the nurse about the use of cervical
cap. Which statement is correct regarding the use of the
cervical cap?

A. It may affect Pap smear results

B. It does not need to be fitted by the physician
C. It does not require the use of spermicide
D. It must be removed within 24 hours

87. The major components of the communication process

are?

A. Verbal, written, and nonverbal

B. Speaker, Listener and reply
C. Facial expression, tone of voice and gestures
D. Message, sender, channel, Receiver and Feedback

88. The extent of burns in children are normally assessed

and expressed in terms of:

A. The amount of body surface that is unburned

B. Percentages of total body surface area (TBSA)
C. How deep the deepest burns are
D. The severity of the burns on a 1 to 5 burn scale

89. The school nurse notices a child who is wearing old,

dirty, poor-fitting clothes; is always hungry; has no lunch
money; and is always tired. When the nurse asks the boy
his tiredness, he talks of playing outside until midnight. The
nurse will suspect that this child is:
A. Being raised by a parent of low intelligence (IQ)
B. An orphan
C. A victim of child neglect
D. The victim of poverty

90. Which of the following indicates the type(s) of acute

renal failure?

A. Four types: hemorrhagic with and without clotting, and

nonhemorrhagic with and without clotting
B. One type: Acute
C. Three types: Prerenal, intrarenal, postrenal
D. Two types: Acute and subacute

Situation 13: Milo 16 y/o has been diagnosed to have AIDS, he

worked as entertainer in a cruise ship:

91. Which method of transmission is common to contract

AIDS:

A. Syringe and needles

B. Body fluids
C. Sexual contact
D. Transfusion

92. Causative organism in AIDS is one of the following:

A. Fungus
B. Bacteria
C. Retrovirus
D. Parasites

93. You are assigned in a private room of Milo. Which

procedure should be of utmost importance:

A. Alcohol wash
B. Universal precaution
C. Washing isolation
D. Gloving technique

94. What primary health teaching would you give to Milo?

A. Daily exercise
B. Prevent infection
C. Reversal Isolation
D. Proper nutrition

95. Exercise precaution must be taken to protect health

worker dealing with the AIDS patients, which among these
must be done as priority?

A. Boil used syringes and needles

B. Use gloves when handling specimen
C. Label personal belonging
D. Avoid accidental wound

Situation 14: Michelle is a 6 year old preschooler. She was reported

by her sister to have measles but she was at home because of fever,
upper respiratory problem and white sports in her mouth.

96. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red, the rash

appears on the skin in invasive stage prior to eruption. As a
nurse, your physical examination must determine
complication especially:

A. Otitis media
B. Bronchial pneumonia
C. Inflammatory conjunctiva
D. Membranous laryngitis

97. To render comfort measure is one of the priorities, which

includes care of the skin, eyes, ears, mouth and nose. To
clean the mouth, your antiseptic is in some form of which
one below?

A. Water
B. Sulfur
C. Alkaline
D. Salt

98. As a public health nurse, you teach mother and family

members the prevention of complication of measles. Which
of the following should be closely watched?
A. Temperature fails to drop
B. Inflammation of the conjunctiva
C. Inflammation of the nasopharynx
D. Ulcerative stomatitis

99. Source of infection of measles is secretion of nose and

throat of infection person. Filterable of measles is
transmitted by:

A. Water supply
B. Droplet
C. Food ingestion
D. Sexual contact

100. Method of prevention is to avoid exposure to an

infection person. Nursing responsibility for rehabilitation of
patient includes the provision of:

A. Terminal disinfection
B. Injection of gamma globulin
C. Immunization
D. Comfort measures