BHEL 11th 12th April 2025

Participant ID 11210521150265
Participant Name RAVIRANJAN KUMAR
Test Center Name iON Digital Zone iDZ1 Patliputra
Test Date 11/04/2025
Test Time 2:00 PM - 4:30 PM
Subject Supervisor Trainee Mechanical

Section : Section I Question on Subject Discipline

Q.1 What is the SI unit of specific weight?

Ans A. kg/m·s²

B. N/m³

C. N·m²

D. kg/m³

Question ID : 44100958262
Option 1 ID : 441009231940
Option 2 ID : 441009231939
Option 3 ID : 441009231938
Option 4 ID : 441009231937
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.2 In a cantilever beam, a uniformly distributed load (w/unit length) is applied. Select the correct
statement.

Ans A. At x = L, bending moment will be wL2 N.m.

B. At x = 0, bending moment will be wL N.m.

C. At x = 0, bending moment will be wL2 N.m.

D. At x = L, bending moment will be (wL2) N.m.

Question ID : 44100927785
Option 1 ID : 441009110690
Option 2 ID : 441009110688
Option 3 ID : 441009110689
Option 4 ID : 441009110691
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.3 What is the SI unit of surface tension?

Ans A. N·m²

B. J/m

C. N/m

D. N·m

Question ID : 44100958274
Option 1 ID : 441009231986
Option 2 ID : 441009231988
Option 3 ID : 441009231987
Option 4 ID : 441009231985
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.4 The relationship for the bending equation is:

(where, M = Bending moment; I = Moment of inertia about the centroidal axis; f = Bending
stress; y = Distance of the fibre from the neutral axis; E = Young’s Modulus; R= Radius of
curvature)
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 44100968103
Option 1 ID : 441009271223
Option 2 ID : 441009271220
Option 3 ID : 441009271221
Option 4 ID : 441009271222
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.5 A pressure vessel with a cylindrical shape is made from a narrow (low thickness) low carbon
steel plate. The cylindrical vessel has an inner diameter of 3600 mm. The thickness of the
steel plate is 2 cm. The Poisson ratio can be taken as 0.30 and the modulus of elasticity for
the steel can be taken as 200 GPa. The inner pressure of 0.8 MPa is developed in the cylinder.
Based on these details, the value of circumferential and longitudinal stresses, respectively, in
MPa, will be:
Ans A. 144 and 72

B. 72 and 36

C. 36 and 72

D. 72 and 144

Question ID : 44100969218
Option 1 ID : 441009275496
Option 2 ID : 441009275495
Option 3 ID : 441009275493
Option 4 ID : 441009275494
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.6 What is the primary purpose of the helical flutes in a twist drill?
Ans A. To increase the strength of the drill bit

B. To guide the drill into the material

C. To remove chips from the hole during drilling

D. To provide better grip in the drill chuck

Question ID : 44100917224
Option 1 ID : 44100968767
Option 2 ID : 44100968768
Option 3 ID : 44100968769
Option 4 ID : 44100968770
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.7 What is the role/application of flexible manufacturing systems in Consumer Goods
Production?
Ans A. Disables manufacturers to produce a wide variety of parts efficiently without the need
for dedicated production lines for each product
B. Enables manufacturers to produce a wide variety of parts efficiently without the need
for dedicated production lines for each product
C. Performs various machining operations like milling, turning, and drilling

D. Used in the production of molds, dies, and tooling for various industries

Question ID : 44100913134
Option 1 ID : 44100952330
Option 2 ID : 44100952329
Option 3 ID : 44100952332
Option 4 ID : 44100952331
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.8 What is the main disadvantage of using carbide broaching tools?

Ans A. Difficulty in sharpening

B. High cost and brittleness

C. Low hardness

D. Poor cutting performance

Question ID : 44100916710
Option 1 ID : 44100966702
Option 2 ID : 44100966699
Option 3 ID : 44100966700
Option 4 ID : 44100966701
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.9 Which type of bonding is most commonly found in ceramics?

Ans A. Van der Waals bonding

B. Covalent bonding

C. Metallic bonding

D. No bonding

Question ID : 44100957450
Option 1 ID : 441009228666
Option 2 ID : 441009228664
Option 3 ID : 441009228663
Option 4 ID : 441009228665
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.10 For functioning of a machine tool, geometric integrity is an essential requirement. The test to
ensure geometric integrity is:
Ans A. surface hardness test

B. thermal stability test

C. surface roughness test

D. rectilinear movements test

Question ID : 44100925363
Option 1 ID : 441009101151
Option 2 ID : 441009101153
Option 3 ID : 441009101152
Option 4 ID : 441009101154
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.11 Which of the following programming languages is developed for PUMA lines of robots?
Ans A. VAL

B. AL

C. MCL

D. Wave

Question ID : 44100930196
Option 1 ID : 441009120151
Option 2 ID : 441009120150
Option 3 ID : 441009120152
Option 4 ID : 441009120149
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.12 An industry works for the manufacturing of large pressure vessels. The client of a company
asks to upgrade its existing pressure vessel for some reason. The new vessel needs to handle
pressure double of that handled by the old vessel. Based on the new requirement, the ratio of
the old to the new circumferential stress will be:
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 44100969246
Option 1 ID : 441009275607
Option 2 ID : 441009275606
Option 3 ID : 441009275605
Option 4 ID : 441009275608
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.13 If any member/beam is deformed under pure bending, then the shape of the deformation
would be:
Ans A. square

B. rectangular

C. triangular

D. circular

Question ID : 44100965440
Option 1 ID : 441009260742
Option 2 ID : 441009260741
Option 3 ID : 441009260744
Option 4 ID : 441009260743
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.14 In forced convection, why is turbulent flow generally more effective than laminar flow for heat
transfer in practical applications?
Ans A. Because the irregular velocity fluctuations enhance both heat and momentum transfer

B. Because the flow remains stable, limiting temperature variations during transfer

C. Because it minimises energy losses by maintaining a steady and streamlined flow

D. Because it allows smoother particle movement, reducing heat transfer efficiency

Question ID : 44100934105
Option 1 ID : 441009135783
Option 2 ID : 441009135785
Option 3 ID : 441009135784
Option 4 ID : 441009135782
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.15 ___________ abrasive is denoted by 'C' in the grinding wheel marking system.
Ans A. Diamond

B. Silicon Carbide

C. Aluminum Oxide

D. Cubic Boron Nitride (CBN)

Question ID : 44100917243
Option 1 ID : 44100968846
Option 2 ID : 44100968844
Option 3 ID : 44100968845
Option 4 ID : 44100968843
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.16 During a metal removal operation using a conventional method, the tool must be:
Ans A. harder than the workpiece

B. softer than the workpiece

C. flexible compared to the workpiece

D. longer than the workpiece

Question ID : 44100964485
Option 1 ID : 441009256920
Option 2 ID : 441009256919
Option 3 ID : 441009256921
Option 4 ID : 441009256922
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.17 To maximise fin effectiveness, what should be the ideal ratio of perimeter to cross-sectional
area?
Ans A. Should remain constant

B. As low as possible

C. As high as possible

D. Depends on the material only

Question ID : 44100941616
Option 1 ID : 441009166005
Option 2 ID : 441009166004
Option 3 ID : 441009166007
Option 4 ID : 441009166006
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.18 Which abrasive bond is highly flexible and commonly used for producing thin grinding wheels?
Ans A. Rubber bond

B. Resinoid bond

C. Vitrified bond

D. Shellac bond

Question ID : 44100917236
Option 1 ID : 44100968817
Option 2 ID : 44100968816
Option 3 ID : 44100968815
Option 4 ID : 44100968818
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.19 What is the role of slag in submerged arc welding?
Ans A. Helps in generating more heat

B. Protects the weld from contamination and controls cooling rate

C. Acts as an electrical insulator

D. Increases arc visibility

Question ID : 44100917227
Option 1 ID : 44100968782
Option 2 ID : 44100968781
Option 3 ID : 44100968780
Option 4 ID : 44100968779
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.20 Which of the following crystal systems has axes of unequal lengths, but all angles are 90°?
Ans A. Monoclinic

B. Triclinic

C. Orthorhombic

D. Cubic

Question ID : 44100957778
Option 1 ID : 441009229996
Option 2 ID : 441009229998
Option 3 ID : 441009229997
Option 4 ID : 441009229995
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.21 Which of the following tests is used to determine the fatigue limit of materials?
Ans A. Rotating bending fatigue test

B. Impact test

C. Hardness test

D. Tensile test

Question ID : 44100957842
Option 1 ID : 441009230253
Option 2 ID : 441009230252
Option 3 ID : 441009230254
Option 4 ID : 441009230251
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.22 When increasing the length of shank portion of a bolt, a property of bolt will also increase. The
name of property changes linearly with the length of the bolt is:
Ans A. resilience

B. shear strength

C. tensile strength

D. compressive strength

Question ID : 44100988169
Option 1 ID : 441009350615
Option 2 ID : 441009350616
Option 3 ID : 441009350613
Option 4 ID : 441009350614
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.23 A cantilever beam is fixed at point A. A two-point load is applied at point B and C, receptively,
as shown in the given figure. The shear force in section AB will be equal to (in kN):

Ans A. 1.8

B. 0.1

C. 3.5

D. 1.7

Question ID : 44100994083
Option 1 ID : 441009374307
Option 2 ID : 441009374309
Option 3 ID : 441009374306
Option 4 ID : 441009374308
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.24 What type of turbine is the Pelton wheel?

Ans A. Axial flow turbine

B. Francis turbine

C. Reaction turbine

D. Impulse turbine

Question ID : 44100958808
Option 1 ID : 441009234131
Option 2 ID : 441009234130
Option 3 ID : 441009234128
Option 4 ID : 441009234129
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.25 During the alignment testing of a machine tool (radial drilling machine), an instrument (dial
indicator) is installed on a cylindrical spindle. The cylindrical spindle is rotated, and the
instrument (dial indicator) touches various points (see the figure below). This test is used to
check:

Ans A. type of forces acting on the base plate

B. compressive strength of the base plate

C. type of material used in the base plate

D. parallelism of the base plate

Question ID : 44100925244
Option 1 ID : 441009100681
Option 2 ID : 441009100679
Option 3 ID : 441009100680
Option 4 ID : 441009100682
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.26 The main advantage of an air cooling system over a water cooling system is:
Ans A. reduced noise levels

B. lower maintenance and simpler design

C. higher thermal efficiency

D. increased fuel economy

Question ID : 44100917400
Option 1 ID : 44100969461
Option 2 ID : 44100969462
Option 3 ID : 44100969459
Option 4 ID : 44100969460
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.27 Match the types of broaching machines in Column A with their correct descriptions in Column
B.

Column A (Types of Broaching Machines) Column B (Description)

A) Horizontal Broaching Machine 1) Used for cutting external surfaces like engine blocks.
B) Vertical Broaching Machine 2) The workpiece is stationary, and the tool moves in a vertical
direction.
C) Surface Broaching Machine 3) The workpiece moves continuously while the broach remains
fixed.
D) Rotary Broaching Machine 4) The broach rotates while cutting to create non-linear profiles.
E) Continuous Broaching Machine 5) The tool moves horizontally for broaching long parts.
Ans A. A → 5, B → 2, C → 1, D → 4, E → 3

B. A → 2, B → 3, C → 1, D → 5, E → 4

C. A → 1, B → 4, C → 2, D → 5, E → 3

D. A → 3, B → 2, C → 4, D → 1, E → 5

Question ID : 44100916641
Option 1 ID : 44100966428
Option 2 ID : 44100966427
Option 3 ID : 44100966425
Option 4 ID : 44100966426
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.28 What type of turbine is a Francis turbine?

Ans A. Reaction turbine

B. Radial turbine

C. Impulse turbine

D. Axial flow turbine

Question ID : 44100958826
Option 1 ID : 441009234211
Option 2 ID : 441009234212
Option 3 ID : 441009234210
Option 4 ID : 441009234213
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.29 Select the engine component that forms the combustion chamber.
Ans A. Cylinder

B. Camshaft

C. Crankshaft

D. Flywheel

Question ID : 44100917310
Option 1 ID : 44100969111
Option 2 ID : 44100969114
Option 3 ID : 44100969112
Option 4 ID : 44100969113
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.30 The ‘MONITOR’ command is an example of:
Ans A. calculative functions

B. motion and sensing functions

C. computation functions

D. program flow control functions

Question ID : 44100930205
Option 1 ID : 441009120188
Option 2 ID : 441009120185
Option 3 ID : 441009120186
Option 4 ID : 441009120187
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.31 Which of following components of a steam power plant generates steam?

Ans A. Condenser

B. Turbine

C. Generator

D. Boiler

Question ID : 44100953077
Option 1 ID : 441009211385
Option 2 ID : 441009211386
Option 3 ID : 441009211387
Option 4 ID : 441009211384
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.32 A coiled spring can be made by different types of materials. A specifically developed material
for springs is cold drawn steel. During the specification of cold drawn steel, which code of
ASTM is used?
Ans A. A401

B. A231

C. A227

D. A229

Question ID : 44100968356
Option 1 ID : 441009272062
Option 2 ID : 441009272061
Option 3 ID : 441009272059
Option 4 ID : 441009272060
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.33 The fin effectiveness εfin​is the ratio of the heat transfer rate from the fin to the heat transfer
rate from the same surface area without a fin. What does a value of εfin < 1 imply?
Ans A. The fin acts as an insulator, reducing heat transfer from the surface.

B. The fin effectiveness is maximised for cost efficiency.

C. The fin effectively enhances heat transfer from the surface.

D. The fin effectiveness is optimised for maximum heat transfer.

Question ID : 44100934065
Option 1 ID : 441009135552
Option 2 ID : 441009135551
Option 3 ID : 441009135550
Option 4 ID : 441009135553
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.34 A spring is made by coiling of wires. A parameter related to spring, namely spring index, is
used for designing. The value of spring index can be used to understand a feature related to
soft or stiff spring. In case of a spring needed to be designed for high value of spring index,
what should be the correct combination of diameters?
Ans A. Wire diameter of spring should be low and mean coil diameter should be low.

B. Wire diameter of spring should be high and mean coil diameter should be high.

C. Wire diameter of spring should be high and mean coil diameter should be low.

D. Wire diameter of spring should be low and mean coil diameter should be high.

Question ID : 44100968341
Option 1 ID : 441009272022
Option 2 ID : 441009272019
Option 3 ID : 441009272021
Option 4 ID : 441009272020
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.35 ____________ is typically caused by incorrect electrode manipulation or improper torch angle.
Ans A. Slag inclusion

B. Lack of fusion

C. Burn-through

D. Crater crack

Question ID : 44100917235
Option 1 ID : 44100968811
Option 2 ID : 44100968812
Option 3 ID : 44100968813
Option 4 ID : 44100968814
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.36 Which of the following values involve measuring of attainable cycle times for a defined
sequence in different areas of the working place?
Ans A. Thermal values

B. Kinematic values

C. Dynamic values

D. Power noise values

Question ID : 44100930129
Option 1 ID : 441009119968
Option 2 ID : 441009119965
Option 3 ID : 441009119966
Option 4 ID : 441009119967
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.37 What is the packing efficiency of a body-centered cubic (BCC) unit cell?
Ans A. 74.0%

B. 68.0%

C. 90.0%

D. 52.4%

Question ID : 44100957749
Option 1 ID : 441009229881
Option 2 ID : 441009229880
Option 3 ID : 441009229882
Option 4 ID : 441009229879
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.38 The flange coupling is a type of rigid coupling used to connect two shafts. A flange is an
integral part of coupling and nut bolts are used to connect the flanges. Nut and bolts are
projected beyond the flange in case of:
Ans A. protected flange coupling

B. muff or sleeve coupling

C. unprotected flange coupling

D. flexible coupling

Question ID : 44100990764
Option 1 ID : 441009361226
Option 2 ID : 441009361228
Option 3 ID : 441009361227
Option 4 ID : 441009361229
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.39 Which of the following parts of a robot is used to aim the hand at any part of the work piece?
Ans A. Waist

B. Arm

C. Wrist

D. Hand

Question ID : 44100930109
Option 1 ID : 441009119884
Option 2 ID : 441009119883
Option 3 ID : 441009119882
Option 4 ID : 441009119881
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.40 An impulse turbine operates at a speed of 3000 rpm and the diameter of the rotor is 2 m. What
is the tangential velocity of the blade tips?
Ans A. 314.16 m/s

B. 100.6 m/s

C. 360.2 m/s

D. 150.2 m/s

Question ID : 44100953136
Option 1 ID : 441009211620
Option 2 ID : 441009211622
Option 3 ID : 441009211621
Option 4 ID : 441009211623
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.41 In the beam shown in the given figure, maximum shear force will be developed at:

Ans A. left side of point B

B. left side of point A

C. right side of point A

D. right side of point B

Question ID : 44100927748
Option 1 ID : 441009110542
Option 2 ID : 441009110540
Option 3 ID : 441009110541
Option 4 ID : 441009110543
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.42 Which of the following is a key factor in determining the force of impact between a jet and a
moving plate?
Ans A. Plate thickness

B. Velocity of the moving plate

C. Jet pressure

D. Density of the fluid

Question ID : 44100958745
Option 1 ID : 441009233863
Option 2 ID : 441009233864
Option 3 ID : 441009233862
Option 4 ID : 441009233861
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.43 Precise measurement tools based on the application of laser interferometry are used for
different measurements. In view of this advanced technique, select the INCORRECT statement.
Ans A. Co-ordinate measuring machines can be used to measure straightness of machine
tools.
B. Interferometry can be treated as an advanced method for various measurements.

C. An autocollimator can be used for angular measurement.

D. Laser light can not be used for surface related measurements, such as flatness.

Question ID : 44100925289
Option 1 ID : 441009100859
Option 2 ID : 441009100861
Option 3 ID : 441009100860
Option 4 ID : 441009100862
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.44 Describe the role of the flywheel in starting the engine.

Ans A. It supplies fuel to the combustion chamber

B. It increases the compression ratio

C. It controls valve timing

D. It stores energy and helps turn the crankshaft during startup

Question ID : 44100917313
Option 1 ID : 44100969123
Option 2 ID : 44100969126
Option 3 ID : 44100969125
Option 4 ID : 44100969124
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.45 In a counter-flow heat exchanger, two fluids flow in opposite directions. Considering the
temperature profiles and flow arrangement shown in the figure, which of the following
statements best explains why a counter-flow heat exchanger achieves a higher rate of heat
transfer for a given surface area compared to parallel flow arrangements?

Ans A. The temperature gradient between the two fluids remains nearly constant along the
length.
B. The hot fluid exits at a temperature equal to the initial temperature of the cold fluid.

C. The heat transfer rate is non-uniform due to the parallel flow paths of the fluids.

D. The cold fluid reaches a temperature higher than the outlet temperature of the hot
fluid.

Question ID : 44100934139
Option 1 ID : 441009135966
Option 2 ID : 441009135969
Option 3 ID : 441009135968
Option 4 ID : 441009135967
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.46 While manufacturing a shaft, tolerances are given to shaft of diameter mm. The
values of tolerance and fundamental deviation (in mm) are:
Ans A. 0.025 and +0.015, respectively

B. 0.025 and −0.015, respectively

C. 0.015 and −0.005, respectively

D. 0.015 and +0.005, respectively

Question ID : 44100918643
Option 1 ID : 44100974345
Option 2 ID : 44100974344
Option 3 ID : 44100974346
Option 4 ID : 44100974347
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.47 In the Fe-C phase diagram, the eutectic point occurs at which composition and temperature?
Ans A. 100% C; 1147°C

B. 0% C; 1538°C

C. 100% Fe; 1538°C

D. 4.3% C; 1147°C

Question ID : 44100957794
Option 1 ID : 441009230060
Option 2 ID : 441009230062
Option 3 ID : 441009230059
Option 4 ID : 441009230061
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.48 According to Newton's law of cooling, the rate of convection heat transfer is proportional to:
Ans A. the temperature difference between the surface and the fluid

B. the thermal conductivity of the fluid

C. the fluid pressure and viscosity

D. the surface area and fluid density

Question ID : 44100934121
Option 1 ID : 441009135887
Option 2 ID : 441009135889
Option 3 ID : 441009135888
Option 4 ID : 441009135886
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.49 What is the Reynolds number for non-viscous flow?

Ans A. Equal to 2000

B. Always less than 2000

C. Zero

D. Infinite

Question ID : 44100958508
Option 1 ID : 441009232923
Option 2 ID : 441009232924
Option 3 ID : 441009232921
Option 4 ID : 441009232922
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.50 Compared to an open-cycle gas turbine, a closed-cycle gas turbine operates at:
Ans A. lower heat recovery efficiency

B. higher exhaust losses

C. higher pressure ratios and efficiency

D. higher atmospheric contamination

Question ID : 44100917465
Option 1 ID : 44100969721
Option 2 ID : 44100969719
Option 3 ID : 44100969720
Option 4 ID : 44100969722
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.51 By-pass governing is especially useful in turbines where:

Ans A. load demand fluctuates frequently

B. steam is used at constant pressure

C. the turbine operates under full load constantly

D. high turbine speeds are not required

Question ID : 44100917501
Option 1 ID : 44100969863
Option 2 ID : 44100969865
Option 3 ID : 44100969864
Option 4 ID : 44100969866
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.52 In a hydropower plant, the draft tube connects the turbine to the:
Ans A. surge tank

B. penstock

C. tail race

D. dam reservoir

Question ID : 44100917699
Option 1 ID : 44100970638
Option 2 ID : 44100970635
Option 3 ID : 44100970636
Option 4 ID : 44100970637
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.53 Which gear machining method is most suitable for producing internal gears?
Ans A. Gear Broaching

B. Gear Extrusion

C. Gear Stamping

D. Gear Hobbing

Question ID : 44100916747
Option 1 ID : 44100966850
Option 2 ID : 44100966852
Option 3 ID : 44100966851
Option 4 ID : 44100966849
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.54 Which of the following statements regarding the overall efficiency of a centrifugal pump is
correct?
Ans A. It is always greater than the mechanical efficiency.

B. It is the product of volumetric efficiency, mechanical efficiency and manometric

efficiency.
C. It depends only on the design of the impeller.

D. It is defined as the ratio of impeller power to water power.

Question ID : 44100924647
Option 1 ID : 44100998304
Option 2 ID : 44100998305
Option 3 ID : 44100998306
Option 4 ID : 44100998307
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.55 A specific type of spring can be made by arranging (stacking) disc-shaped washers with
cupped or conical profiles. Such type of spring can be used in:
Ans A. automobile clutches

B. seat recliners

C. automobile axle

D. typewriters

Question ID : 44100968291
Option 1 ID : 441009271894
Option 2 ID : 441009271893
Option 3 ID : 441009271891
Option 4 ID : 441009271892
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.56 The specific speed of a radial flow centrifugal pump at slow speed is:
Ans A. 80 to 160

B. 10 to 30

C. 30 to 35

D. 50 to 80

Question ID : 44100924621
Option 1 ID : 44100998203
Option 2 ID : 44100998200
Option 3 ID : 44100998201
Option 4 ID : 44100998202
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.57 A bolt may be termed as eccentrically loaded if the applied load generates:
Ans A. bending moment and shear or direct normal loading concurrently

B. shear loading and direct normal concurrently

C. only bending moment

D. only direct normal loading concurrently

Question ID : 44100988186
Option 1 ID : 441009350684
Option 2 ID : 441009350683
Option 3 ID : 441009350681
Option 4 ID : 441009350682
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.58 Which of the following is a direct consequence of the Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics?
Ans A. The concept of absolute zero temperature

B. The existence of a thermometer

C. The second law of thermodynamics

D. The internal energy of an ideal gas

Question ID : 44100953020
Option 1 ID : 441009211161
Option 2 ID : 441009211160
Option 3 ID : 441009211162
Option 4 ID : 441009211163
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.59 Classify IC engines based on the cycle of operation.
Ans A. Two-stroke and four-stroke engines

B. Air-cooled and water-cooled engines

C. Reciprocating and rotary engines

D. Single-cylinder and multi-cylinder engines

Question ID : 44100917294
Option 1 ID : 44100969047
Option 2 ID : 44100969048
Option 3 ID : 44100969050
Option 4 ID : 44100969049
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.60 _______ types of cooling systems are most commonly used in motorcycles and small engines.
Ans A. Oil cooling

B. Air cooling

C. Hybrid cooling

D. Water cooling

Question ID : 44100917399
Option 1 ID : 44100969457
Option 2 ID : 44100969456
Option 3 ID : 44100969458
Option 4 ID : 44100969455
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.61 A centrifugal pump delivers water from a reservoir at a lower level to another reservoir at a
higher level. The suction head is 3 m, the delivery head is 25 m and the frictional losses in the
system are 2 m. What is the manometric head (Hm) of the pump?
Ans A. 22 m

B. 30 m

C. 20 m

D. 24 m

Question ID : 44100924637
Option 1 ID : 44100998265
Option 2 ID : 44100998267
Option 3 ID : 44100998264
Option 4 ID : 44100998266
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.62 The typical voltage supplied by the vehicle's battery in a battery ignition system is:
Ans A. 24V or 48V

B. 6V or 12V

C. 220V

D. 110V

Question ID : 44100917414
Option 1 ID : 44100969512
Option 2 ID : 44100969511
Option 3 ID : 44100969514
Option 4 ID : 44100969513
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.63 Which type of fluid flow is dominated by viscous forces?

Ans A. Laminar flow

B. Turbulent flow

C. Steady flow

D. Unsteady flow

Question ID : 44100958486
Option 1 ID : 441009232833
Option 2 ID : 441009232834
Option 3 ID : 441009232835
Option 4 ID : 441009232836
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.64 In 3D surface modelling, the objects are created by use of surfaces attached to
__________________.
Ans A. 2D Pictorial models

B. 3D Wireframe models

C. 2D Geometrical models

D. 3D Solid models

Question ID : 44100913186
Option 1 ID : 44100952544
Option 2 ID : 44100952541
Option 3 ID : 44100952543
Option 4 ID : 44100952542
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.65 The type of bond commonly used in diamond and CBN (Cubic Boron Nitride) grinding wheels
is:
Ans A. metal bond

B. vitrified bond

C. shellac bond

D. rubber bond

Question ID : 44100917238
Option 1 ID : 44100968826
Option 2 ID : 44100968825
Option 3 ID : 44100968823
Option 4 ID : 44100968824
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.66 Which type of machine tool is used for both vertical and horizontal movements of the cutting
tool in milling operations?
Ans A. Vertical milling machine

B. Horizontal milling machine

C. Drilling machine

D. Universal milling machine

Question ID : 44100957526
Option 1 ID : 441009228967
Option 2 ID : 441009228968
Option 3 ID : 441009228970
Option 4 ID : 441009228969
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.67 An experimental setup has been developed for the measurement of taper angle using a sine
bar of length of 200 mm. Each roller has a diameter of 2 cm. For measurement of an angle of
20° (take sin20= 0.342), the height of slip gauge blocks (in mm) will be:
Ans A. 69.40

B. 68.40

C. 58.40

D. 67.40

Question ID : 44100917606
Option 1 ID : 44100970554
Option 2 ID : 44100970552
Option 3 ID : 44100970551
Option 4 ID : 44100970553
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.68 If a vernier bevel protractor has 12 vernier scale divisions, covering 23 main scale divisions,
what is its least count?
Ans A. 2°

B. 5′

C. 10′

D. 1°

Question ID : 44100917521
Option 1 ID : 44100969945
Option 2 ID : 44100969946
Option 3 ID : 44100969944
Option 4 ID : 44100969943
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.69 Which unit is commonly used to specify spindle speed in a drilling machine?
Ans A. Kilowatts (kW)

B. Newton-meters (Nm)

C. Revolutions per minute (rpm)

D. Metres per second (m/s)

Question ID : 44100917219
Option 1 ID : 44100968750
Option 2 ID : 44100968749
Option 3 ID : 44100968748
Option 4 ID : 44100968747
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.70 Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics?
Ans A. It defines temperature scales.

B. It implies that two systems at the same temperature will not exchange heat.

C. It explains the relationship between heat and work.

D. It establishes that thermal equilibrium is transitive.

Question ID : 44100953023
Option 1 ID : 441009211173
Option 2 ID : 441009211175
Option 3 ID : 441009211174
Option 4 ID : 441009211172
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.71 What does the fin efficiency ηfin​represent?

Ans A. Ratio of heat loss from tip to heat gain at base

B. Ratio of maximum heat transfer to base temperature

C. Ratio of actual heat transfer to ideal heat transfer

D. Ratio of conduction heat transfer to convection loss

Question ID : 44100934076
Option 1 ID : 441009135597
Option 2 ID : 441009135595
Option 3 ID : 441009135594
Option 4 ID : 441009135596
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.72 Hollow shafts are made by removing the material near the centre of the shaft. Such removal of
material improves the strength of a hollow shaft as compared to a solid shaft of the same
weight. Which of the following is one of the many applications where a hollow shaft is used?
Ans A. Connecting rod

B. Railway wagon axles

C. Drill bit

D. Crank shaft

Question ID : 44100968423
Option 1 ID : 441009272320
Option 2 ID : 441009272321
Option 3 ID : 441009272322
Option 4 ID : 441009272319
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.73 In which of the following gripping methods is the workpiece held in a jig and the robot
performs an activity on it?
Ans A. Coarse gripping

B. No gripping

C. Precise gripping

D. Assembly

Question ID : 44100930119
Option 1 ID : 441009119922
Option 2 ID : 441009119921
Option 3 ID : 441009119923
Option 4 ID : 441009119924
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.74 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of flexible manufacturing systems?
Ans A. Increased machine utilisation

B. Reduced inventory requirements

C. Huge factory floor space requirement

D. Greater responsiveness to change

Question ID : 44100913100
Option 1 ID : 44100952195
Option 2 ID : 44100952193
Option 3 ID : 44100952196
Option 4 ID : 44100952194
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.75 What does BOD stand for in effluent treatment standards?

Ans A. Biological Oxygen Distribution

B. Base Oxide Demand

C. Biochemical Oxygen Demand

D. Biological Organic Demand

Question ID : 44100958223
Option 1 ID : 441009231792
Option 2 ID : 441009231791
Option 3 ID : 441009231789
Option 4 ID : 441009231790
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.76 The correct sequence of strokes in a four-stroke petrol engine is:

Ans A. Power → Compression → Intake → Exhaust

B. Compression → Power → Exhaust → Intake

C. Exhaust → Compression → Power → Intake

D. Intake → Compression → Power → Exhaust

Question ID : 44100917331
Option 1 ID : 44100969193
Option 2 ID : 44100969194
Option 3 ID : 44100969191
Option 4 ID : 44100969192
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.77 How does the fluid motion occur in natural convection?
Ans A. By transferring high momentum to the fluid

B. Through buoyancy without the use of a fluid mover

C. Due to mechanical forces applied to the fluid

D. By using a fan or a pump to move the fluid

Question ID : 44100934078
Option 1 ID : 441009135605
Option 2 ID : 441009135603
Option 3 ID : 441009135604
Option 4 ID : 441009135602
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.78 Which of the following is used to improve hole size accuracy in drilling operations?
Ans A. Reaming

B. Boring

C. Milling

D. Grinding

Question ID : 44100957542
Option 1 ID : 441009229031
Option 2 ID : 441009229033
Option 3 ID : 441009229034
Option 4 ID : 441009229032
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.79 Compared to gear cutting, gear rolling results in which of the following?
Ans A. Lower tool life

B. Improved surface finish and wear resistance

C. Higher material wastage

D. More production steps

Question ID : 44100916744
Option 1 ID : 44100966837
Option 2 ID : 44100966839
Option 3 ID : 44100966838
Option 4 ID : 44100966840
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.80 Solid model which is created on the cad software are based on a program called
_________________.
Ans A. OS Graphical Modeler

B. Programming Modeler

C. ACIS Geometrical Modeler

D. Design Modeler

Question ID : 44100912707
Option 1 ID : 44100950602
Option 2 ID : 44100950603
Option 3 ID : 44100950601
Option 4 ID : 44100950604
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.81 In a machine component, there is bolted joint experiencing eccentric loading. The correct
combination of applications for eccentric loading is:
Ans A. shaft and pully of a transmission system

B. pillar cranes and wall brackets

C. axle and bearing of a train wheel

D. shaft and gear in an automobile

Question ID : 44100988193
Option 1 ID : 441009350709
Option 2 ID : 441009350710
Option 3 ID : 441009350712
Option 4 ID : 441009350711
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.82 Which of the following is a characteristic of metals?

Ans A. Poor conductors of electricity

B. Have low melting points

C. Poor conductors of heat

D. Ductile and malleable

Question ID : 44100954736
Option 1 ID : 441009217921
Option 2 ID : 441009217922
Option 3 ID : 441009217919
Option 4 ID : 441009217920
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.83 Which of the following statements is true regarding the temperature difference between the
hot and cold fluids in a parallel flow heat exchanger?
Ans A. The temperature difference increases from the inlet to the outlet.

B. The temperature difference decreases from the inlet to the outlet.

C. The temperature difference first increases and then decreases along the length.

D. The temperature difference remains constant along the length of the heat exchanger.

Question ID : 44100934138
Option 1 ID : 441009135963
Option 2 ID : 441009135964
Option 3 ID : 441009135965
Option 4 ID : 441009135962
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.84 If the density of a fluid is 1000 kg/m³, and the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s², what is
the specific weight?
Ans A. 9.81 N/m³

B. 981 N/m³

C. 9810 N/m³

D. 1000 N/m³

Question ID : 44100958267
Option 1 ID : 441009231959
Option 2 ID : 441009231960
Option 3 ID : 441009231957
Option 4 ID : 441009231958
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.85 The manometric efficiency of a centrifugal pump is defined as:

Ans A. ratio of the power output of the pump to the power input to the impeller

B. ratio of the actual discharge to the theoretical discharge

C. ratio of hydraulic efficiency to mechanical efficiency

D. ratio of the actual head developed by the pump to the energy supplied by the impeller

Question ID : 44100924642
Option 1 ID : 44100998285
Option 2 ID : 44100998284
Option 3 ID : 44100998287
Option 4 ID : 44100998286
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.86 Which of the following liquids has the highest surface tension at room temperature?
Ans A. Oil

B. Alcohol

C. Water

D. Mercury

Question ID : 44100958276
Option 1 ID : 441009231995
Option 2 ID : 441009231996
Option 3 ID : 441009231993
Option 4 ID : 441009231994
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.87 Radial engines are most commonly used in:

Ans A. ships

B. aircrafts

C. small cars

D. motorcycles

Question ID : 44100917299
Option 1 ID : 44100969069
Option 2 ID : 44100969070
Option 3 ID : 44100969068
Option 4 ID : 44100969067
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.88 A beam member has been subjected to a point load. The arrangement has been shown in the
given figure. A point load of 50 N is applied at an angle of 45° with vertical. The distance AB =
500 cm and CD = 200 cm is given. The magnitude and direction of bending moment in N.m at
point A and B will be:

Ans A. 25 cos45 counterclockwise and 25 sin45 counterclockwise, respectively

B. 50 cos45 counterclockwise and 0, respectively

C. 25 sin45 clockwise and 0, respectively

D. 50 cos45 counterclockwise and 50 sin45 clockwise, respectively

Question ID : 44100994184
Option 1 ID : 441009374703
Option 2 ID : 441009374702
Option 3 ID : 441009374704
Option 4 ID : 441009374705
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.89 What is the primary mechanism involved in gear coining?

Ans A. Chemical etching

B. Heat treatment

C. Material removal

D. Metal flow under high pressure

Question ID : 44100916736
Option 1 ID : 44100966806
Option 2 ID : 44100966805
Option 3 ID : 44100966803
Option 4 ID : 44100966804
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.90 What is the major difference between a quasi-static process and a non-quasi-static process?
Ans A. In a quasi-static process, the change happens instantaneously.

B. A non-quasi-static process occurs too rapidly for equilibrium to be maintained.

C. A quasi-static process cannot do work.

D. In a non-quasi-static process, the system remains in equilibrium at each moment.

Question ID : 44100953012
Option 1 ID : 441009211129
Option 2 ID : 441009211130
Option 3 ID : 441009211131
Option 4 ID : 441009211128
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.91 Which of the following metals is most commonly used in the construction of aircraft?
Ans A. Aluminium

B. Zinc

C. Iron

D. Copper

Question ID : 44100954745
Option 1 ID : 441009217956
Option 2 ID : 441009217957
Option 3 ID : 441009217954
Option 4 ID : 441009217955
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.92 Which tool is used in the gear shaping process?

Ans A. Hob Cutter

B. Pinion Cutter

C. Broach Cutter

D. End Mill

Question ID : 44100916751
Option 1 ID : 44100966865
Option 2 ID : 44100966866
Option 3 ID : 44100966868
Option 4 ID : 44100966867
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.93 A gear tooth calliper consists two Vernier scales. In a gear calliper, chordal thickness can be
noted/observed using:
Ans A. both horizontal and vertical scales

B. an inclined Vernier scale

C. a vertical Vernier scale

D. a horizontal Vernier scale

Question ID : 44100925194
Option 1 ID : 441009100482
Option 2 ID : 441009100481
Option 3 ID : 441009100480
Option 4 ID : 441009100479
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.94 In Flexible Manufacturing System (FMS), lower manufacturing lead times mean
________________.
Ans A. faster customer deliveries

B. slower customer deliveries

C. requires less floor area

D. requires more floor area

Question ID : 44100913161
Option 1 ID : 44100952441
Option 2 ID : 44100952443
Option 3 ID : 44100952442
Option 4 ID : 44100952444
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.95 The capacity of shock absorbing of a bolt is a critical property. If there is a need to enhance
the capacity of shock absorbing for a bolt, then it can be achieved by:
Ans A. decreasing the length of the shank portion of the bolt

B. reducing the diameter of shank and threaded portion

C. reducing the thread core diameter but not the shank portion diameter

D. reducing the shank diameter less than or equal to thread core diameter

Question ID : 44100988160
Option 1 ID : 441009350580
Option 2 ID : 441009350577
Option 3 ID : 441009350578
Option 4 ID : 441009350579
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.96 What is pitting corrosion?
Ans A. Localised corrosion that forms small pits or holes in the material

B. Corrosion that causes cracks in the material

C. Corrosion that occurs uniformly across a surface

D. Corrosion that occurs on the surface of metals in contact with saltwater

Question ID : 44100957861
Option 1 ID : 441009230329
Option 2 ID : 441009230330
Option 3 ID : 441009230327
Option 4 ID : 441009230328
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.97 During an assembly, if a shaft of diameter is and a hole diameter is ,

then this assembly would yield a:
Ans A. interference fit

B. transition fit

C. clearance fit

D. press fit

Question ID : 44100917862
Option 1 ID : 44100971272
Option 2 ID : 44100971271
Option 3 ID : 44100971273
Option 4 ID : 44100971274
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.98 What does the Grashof number (Gr) signify for the flow regime over a vertical plate in natural
convection?
Ans A. Flow regime becomes turbulent for a Gr number greater than 109.

B. Flow regime becomes turbulent for a Gr number greater than 108.

C. Flow regime becomes turbulent for a Gr number greater than 107.

D. Flow regime becomes turbulent for a Gr number greater than 106.

Question ID : 44100934079
Option 1 ID : 441009135606
Option 2 ID : 441009135607
Option 3 ID : 441009135608
Option 4 ID : 441009135609
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.99 In a transmission system, a specific type of key is used to connect a shaft with a gear. This
transmission system needs to transfer 20000 watts of power. For such a heavy power transfer,
the transmission system should use a:
Ans A. round key

B. saddle key

C. sunk key

D. tangent key

Question ID : 44100969309
Option 1 ID : 441009275859
Option 2 ID : 441009275857
Option 3 ID : 441009275860
Option 4 ID : 441009275858
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.10 The main function of an intercooler in a multi-stage air compressor is to:

0
Ans A. increase the work done on the air

B. increase the temperature of air

C. reduce the pressure of air

D. remove the heat of compression between stages

Question ID : 44100917526
Option 1 ID : 44100969966
Option 2 ID : 44100969963
Option 3 ID : 44100969964
Option 4 ID : 44100969965
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Section : Section II Test on Reasoning

Q.1
If , then the value of is ________.

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 44100929711
Option 1 ID : 441009118311
Option 2 ID : 441009118310
Option 3 ID : 441009118312
Option 4 ID : 441009118309
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.2 The selling price of 10 bananas is equal to the cost price of 14 bananas. Out of total bananas,
5% of bananas are damaged and rotten. The percentage of profit of the banana seller is
______%.
Ans A. 22

B. 33

C. 11

D. 44

Question ID : 44100927548
Option 1 ID : 441009109736
Option 2 ID : 441009109737
Option 3 ID : 441009109735
Option 4 ID : 441009109738
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.3 3 men or 5 children or 4 women can finish a work in 6 days. The work will be finished in _____
days by a man, a woman and a child (rounded off to two-decimal digits).
Ans A. 7.55

B. 7.44

C. 7.66

D. 7.77

Question ID : 44100927618
Option 1 ID : 441009110016
Option 2 ID : 441009110015
Option 3 ID : 441009110017
Option 4 ID : 441009110018
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.4 Let be a natural number, and let the ratio of it and its square be . If the number is
multiplied by 15 and is subtracted from its square, then the ratio is . What
should be the value of so that the ratio of and is 3 : 5?
Ans A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 2

Question ID : 44100930208
Option 1 ID : 441009120198
Option 2 ID : 441009120199
Option 3 ID : 441009120200
Option 4 ID : 441009120197
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.5 The average of 11 consecutive odd integers is 11. The smallest number among the integers is
______.
Ans A. 3

B. 11

C. 0

D. 1

Question ID : 44100927023
Option 1 ID : 441009107673
Option 2 ID : 441009107674
Option 3 ID : 441009107671
Option 4 ID : 441009107672
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.6 A hollow cone with wall thickness 1 unit is made using cubic units of material. If its inner
depth is units and outer radius is units, then the height of the cone is ______ units.
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 44100929752
Option 1 ID : 441009118472
Option 2 ID : 441009118469
Option 3 ID : 441009118470
Option 4 ID : 441009118471
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.7 Six people, J, K, L, M, N and O, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the left of
L. J sits second to the right of M. O sits to the immediate right of K, and N sits to the
immediate left of M. Who sits at the immediate left of J?
Ans A. N

B. M

C. K

D. L

Question ID : 44100916450
Option 1 ID : 44100965670
Option 2 ID : 44100965671
Option 3 ID : 44100965672
Option 4 ID : 44100965669
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.8 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide
which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All cats are animals.
Some animals are dogs.
Conclusions:
(I) Some cats are dogs.
(II) All animals are cats.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Question ID : 44100916421
Option 1 ID : 44100965554
Option 2 ID : 44100965555
Option 3 ID : 44100965556
Option 4 ID : 44100965553
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.9 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following equation?

188 × 4 ÷ 15 − 9 + 62 = ?
Ans A. 135

B. 130

C. 120

D. 125

Question ID : 44100912552
Option 1 ID : 44100950001
Option 2 ID : 44100950000
Option 3 ID : 44100949998
Option 4 ID : 44100949999
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.10 Six people, R, S, T, U, V and W, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the right
of T. U sits second to the left of W. R sits to the immediate right of S, and V sits to the
immediate right of W. Who is sitting at the extreme right?
Ans A. V

B. W

C. S

D. U

Question ID : 44100916454
Option 1 ID : 44100965685
Option 2 ID : 44100965687
Option 3 ID : 44100965688
Option 4 ID : 44100965686
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.11 Six people, P, Q, R, S, T and U, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the left of
R. P sits second to the right of T. S sits to the immediate right of Q, and U sits to the immediate
left of T. Who sits at the immediate left of R?
Ans A. U

B. P

C. T

D. Q

Question ID : 44100916448
Option 1 ID : 44100965663
Option 2 ID : 44100965664
Option 3 ID : 44100965661
Option 4 ID : 44100965662
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.12 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the father of B’,
and A ÷ B means ‘A is the mother of B’.

How is V related to Z if V ÷ W – X + Y ÷ Z?
Ans A. Mother’s sister

B. Father's sister

C. Father's mother

D. Sister’s daughter

Question ID : 44100916612
Option 1 ID : 44100966310
Option 2 ID : 44100966312
Option 3 ID : 44100966309
Option 4 ID : 44100966311
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.13

Ans A. 2

B. 1.12

C. 1.5

D. 2.25

Question ID : 44100929701
Option 1 ID : 441009118269
Option 2 ID : 441009118270
Option 3 ID : 441009118271
Option 4 ID : 441009118272
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.14
The value of the expression is ______.

Ans A. 1.5

B. 1

C. 2

D. 2.5

Question ID : 44100927449
Option 1 ID : 441009109346
Option 2 ID : 441009109343
Option 3 ID : 441009109344
Option 4 ID : 441009109345
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.15 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

12 43 84 135 196 ?
Ans A. 267

B. 266

C. 296

D. 287

Question ID : 44100912567
Option 1 ID : 44100950059
Option 2 ID : 44100950058
Option 3 ID : 44100950061
Option 4 ID : 44100950060
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.16 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike
in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT belong
to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. KN–MP

B. FI–HK

C. JM–KN

D. PS–RU

Question ID : 44100916681
Option 1 ID : 44100966589
Option 2 ID : 44100966588
Option 3 ID : 44100966587
Option 4 ID : 44100966590
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.17 The population of a city was 1,20,000 in 2020, and the population was 1,25,000 in 2021. The
population of the city in 2024 would be ______ (approximately) if the population grew the same
way.
Ans A. 1,42,185

B. 1,41,299

C. 1,48,125

D. 1,45,218

Question ID : 44100927377
Option 1 ID : 441009109060
Option 2 ID : 441009109059
Option 3 ID : 441009109062
Option 4 ID : 441009109061
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.18 Five years ago, the age of T was double the age of S. Now, the sum of their ages is 55 years.
What is the difference in the ages of T and S in years?
Ans A. 10

B. 15

C. 8

D. 12

Question ID : 44100929580
Option 1 ID : 441009117785
Option 2 ID : 441009117787
Option 3 ID : 441009117784
Option 4 ID : 441009117786
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.19 Refer to the given letter series and answer the question that follows.

(Left) M F A B V Q E S P J M T S S A I H Z J W U Q T M (Right)

How many such vowels are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and
also immediately followed by a consonant?
Ans A. 0

B. 2

C. 3

D. 1

Question ID : 44100916594
Option 1 ID : 44100966244
Option 2 ID : 44100966242
Option 3 ID : 44100966241
Option 4 ID : 44100966243
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.20 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two sets of pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

QPS : MJL
WOW : SIP
Ans A. IJM : EDF

B. KON : GHI

C. WGX : SAR

D. OQR : KLM

Question ID : 44100916650
Option 1 ID : 44100966461
Option 2 ID : 44100966464
Option 3 ID : 44100966463
Option 4 ID : 44100966462
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Section : Section III General Knowledge

Q.1 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सिंधु घाटी स्थल अपने बंदरगाह और व्यापारिक गतिविधियों के लिए जाना जाता था?
Ans A. हड़प्पा

B. कालीबंगा

C. मोहनजोदड़ो

D. लोथल

Question ID : 44100919762
Option 1 ID : 44100978783
Option 2 ID : 44100978786
Option 3 ID : 44100978784
Option 4 ID : 44100978785
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.2 फरवरी 2025 में, ____________ ने IIT-हैदराबाद में आयोजित 8वीं राष्ट्रीय परिमित तत्व डेवलपर्स मीटिंग में
संरचनाओं के परिमित तत्व विश्लेषण (FEAST) सॉफ्टवेयर के नवीनतम संस्करण का अनावरण किया।
Ans A. भारतीय अंतरिक्ष अनुसंधान संगठन (Indian Space Research Organisation)

B. एंट्रिक्स कॉर्पोरेशन (Antrix Corporation)

C. स्काईरूट एयरोस्पेस प्राइवेट लिमिटेड (Skyroot Aerospace Private Limited)

D. भारतीय प्रौद्योगिकी संस्थान, मद्रास (Indian Institute of Technology, Madras)

Question ID : 44100930327
Option 1 ID : 441009120707
Option 2 ID : 441009120704
Option 3 ID : 441009120705
Option 4 ID : 441009120706
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.3 भारत के पूर्वी तट के दक्षिणी भाग को किस नाम से जाना जाता है?
Ans A. मलाबार

B. कोरोमंडल

C. कोंकण

D. कन्नड़

Question ID : 44100916904
Option 1 ID : 44100967479
Option 2 ID : 44100967480
Option 3 ID : 44100967478
Option 4 ID : 44100967477
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.4 भारत के 74वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम में कितने प्रकार की नगरपालिकाओं का प्रावधान है?

Ans A. पांच

B. तीन

C. दो

D. चार

Question ID : 44100925804
Option 1 ID : 441009102834
Option 2 ID : 441009102832
Option 3 ID : 441009102831
Option 4 ID : 441009102833
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.5 निम्नलिखित में से किस युग्म में शामिल नाम भारत में प्रचलित झूम कृ षि (lash and burn) के अन्य नाम नहीं हैं?
Ans A. वालरे और कु रुवा

B. दहिया और बरीगाँ

C. कोमान और बेबर

D. कोनुको और मसोले

Question ID : 44100916865
Option 1 ID : 44100967328
Option 2 ID : 44100967327
Option 3 ID : 44100967326
Option 4 ID : 44100967325
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.6 कें द्रीय श्रम और रोजगार मंत्री भूपेंद्र यादव द्वारा 7 मार्च 2022 को शुरू की गई 'डोनेट-ए-पेंशन (Donate-a-
Pension)' पहल के लिए, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा आयु वर्ग पात्र है?

Ans A. 50 से 60 वर्ष

B. 60 से 70 वर्ष

C. 40 से 50 वर्ष

D. 18 से 40 वर्ष

Question ID : 44100917706
Option 1 ID : 44100970665
Option 2 ID : 44100970666
Option 3 ID : 44100970664
Option 4 ID : 44100970663
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.7 भारत के संविधान का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अनुच्छेद भारत की वस्तु एवं सेवा कर परिषद (GST परिषद) से
संबंधित है?
Ans A. अनुच्छेद 338 A

B. अनुच्छेद 350 B

C. अनुच्छेद 279 A

D. अनुच्छेद 243 Z

Question ID : 44100925676
Option 1 ID : 441009102330
Option 2 ID : 441009102329
Option 3 ID : 441009102327
Option 4 ID : 441009102328
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.8 सर आर्थर वेलेस्ली द्वारा बरार के मराठा राजा रघुजी भोंसले द्वितीय और ब्रिटिश ईस्ट इंडिया कं पनी के बीच
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी संधि संपन्न करवाई गई थी?
Ans A. बेसिन की संधि

B. पुरंदर की संधि

C. सालबाई की संधि

D. देवगांव की संधि

Question ID : 44100919771
Option 1 ID : 44100978819
Option 2 ID : 44100978822
Option 3 ID : 44100978821
Option 4 ID : 44100978820
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.9 नवंबर 2024 में भारत के अंतर्राष्ट्रीय फिल्म महोत्सव के 55वें संस्करण में प्रदर्शित करने के लिए चुनी गई फिल्म
'ट्वेल्थ फे ल (12th Fail)' का निर्देशन किसने किया था?

Ans A. राहुल सदाशिवन

B. चिदंबरम एस पोडुवल

C. विधु विनोद चोपड़ा

D. तुषार हीरानंदानी

Question ID : 44100930308
Option 1 ID : 441009120597
Option 2 ID : 441009120599
Option 3 ID : 441009120598
Option 4 ID : 441009120596
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.10 वर्ष 1991 के आर्थिक सुधारों के बाद की अवधि के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन गलत है?
Ans A. 2003-04 में बाह्य देनदारियों को GDP के लगभग 1.67% पर नियंत्रित रखा गया।
B. FRBM अधिनियम, जिसके द्वारा सरकार के लिए राजकोषीय घाटे को कम करने के लक्ष्य निर्धारित किए गए थे,
वर्ष 1992 में अंगीकृ त किया गया था।
C. 1995-96 में ऋण और GDP का अनुपात घटकर GDP का लगभग 4.3% हो गया।

D. 2002-03 में कें द्र सरकार का राजस्व घाटा बढ़कर GDP का लगभग 4.4% हो गया।

Question ID : 44100928254
Option 1 ID : 441009112550
Option 2 ID : 441009112551
Option 3 ID : 441009112548
Option 4 ID : 441009112549
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Section : Section IV General English

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Peremptory
Ans A. Dextrous

B. Imperious

C. Authoritative

D. Lenient

Question ID : 44100912843
Option 1 ID : 44100951164
Option 2 ID : 44100951167
Option 3 ID : 44100951165
Option 4 ID : 44100951166
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.2 Select the correct spelling of the highlighted incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

The architect designed an extravegant building with intricate details.

Ans A. Extravegaent

B. Extravagence

C. Extravagant

D. Extravagent

Question ID : 44100912898
Option 1 ID : 44100951384
Option 2 ID : 44100951385
Option 3 ID : 44100951383
Option 4 ID : 44100951386
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She smiled ____ when she received the good news.

Ans A. brightly

B. bright

C. brightness

D. brightening

Question ID : 44100911338
Option 1 ID : 44100945181
Option 2 ID : 44100945179
Option 3 ID : 44100945180
Option 4 ID : 44100945182
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.4 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
1. The phenomenon of antibiotic resistance is rapidly growing, making it increasingly difficult
to treat bacterial infections.
2. The misuse and overuse of antibiotics in humans and animals accelerate the process,
allowing bacteria to evolve and develop resistance.
3. This has become a major global health concern, as infections that were once easily
treatable are now becoming life-threatening.
4. Scientists are working on alternative treatments such as bacteriophage therapy and new
drug formulations to combat resistant bacteria.
5. If left unchecked, antibiotic resistance could lead to a future where minor infections become
deadly due to a lack of effective treatment options.
Ans A. 12453

B. 23145

C. 15324

D. 13245

Question ID : 44100912954
Option 1 ID : 44100951601
Option 2 ID : 44100951602
Option 3 ID : 44100951600
Option 4 ID : 44100951599
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.5 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
1. Reading regularly helps improve vocabulary, enhances comprehension skills and fosters
critical thinking.
2. In today’s fast-paced digital world, fewer people take the time to engage in deep reading.
3. Studies suggest that individuals who read extensively have better cognitive abilities and are
more empathetic.
4. Digital distractions, such as social media and streaming services, have reduced people's
attention span for books.
5. Encouraging reading habits from a young age can help individuals develop stronger
analytical and communication skills.
Ans A. 24531

B. 21345

C. 25134

D. 12453

Question ID : 44100912948
Option 1 ID : 44100951578
Option 2 ID : 44100951576
Option 3 ID : 44100951575
Option 4 ID : 44100951577
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.6 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
1. The discovery of exoplanets has revolutionised our understanding of the universe, revealing
that Earth-like planets may be more common than previously thought.
2. However, detecting these distant worlds is a complex task requiring advanced technology
and precise measurements.
3. Scientists have developed techniques such as the transit method and radial velocity method
to identify exoplanets orbiting distant stars.
4. One of the biggest challenges is determining whether these planets have atmospheres
capable of supporting life.
5. Recent breakthroughs in telescope technology, such as the James Webb Space Telescope,
have improved our ability to analyse exoplanetary atmospheres.
Ans A. 15234

B. 13425

C. 14325

D. 13245

Question ID : 44100912962
Option 1 ID : 44100951642
Option 2 ID : 44100951644
Option 3 ID : 44100951643
Option 4 ID : 44100951641
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.7 Select the most appropriate preposition to fill in the blank.

Most climate change projections are predicated ____ a sophisticated analysis of complex
atmospheric models.
Ans A. in

B. upon

C. of

D. within

Question ID : 44100911349
Option 1 ID : 44100945224
Option 2 ID : 44100945223
Option 3 ID : 44100945226
Option 4 ID : 44100945225
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.8 Select the correct spelling of the underlined incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

The manager appreciated his dedication and comimttment to the project.

Ans A. Comittment

B. Commitment

C. Commmitment

D. Committment

Question ID : 44100912890
Option 1 ID : 44100951352
Option 2 ID : 44100951351
Option 3 ID : 44100951354
Option 4 ID : 44100951353
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Lucid
Ans A. Obese

B. Explicit

C. Vague

D. Transparent

Question ID : 44100912841
Option 1 ID : 44100951158
Option 2 ID : 44100951159
Option 3 ID : 44100951156
Option 4 ID : 44100951157
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The speaker addressed the audience ____ to ensure clarity and engagement.

Ans A. articulation

B. articulating

C. articulate

D. articulately

Question ID : 44100911342
Option 1 ID : 44100945197
Option 2 ID : 44100945198
Option 3 ID : 44100945195
Option 4 ID : 44100945196
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.11 Select the correct spelling of the highlighted incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

The ancient manuscript contained irreperable damage due to poor preservation.

Ans A. Irrepairable

B. Irrepearable

C. Irreparable

D. Irreperabal

Question ID : 44100912894
Option 1 ID : 44100951367
Option 2 ID : 44100951370
Option 3 ID : 44100951369
Option 4 ID : 44100951368
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.12 Select the most appropriate preposition to fill in the blank.

The scientist was intrigued ____ the unexpected results of the experiment.

Ans A. by

B. for

C. into

D. within

Question ID : 44100911344
Option 1 ID : 44100945203
Option 2 ID : 44100945206
Option 3 ID : 44100945205
Option 4 ID : 44100945204
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Imperturbable
Ans A. Tranquil

B. Agitated

C. Stoic

D. Inhabitable

Question ID : 44100912848
Option 1 ID : 44100951186
Option 2 ID : 44100951185
Option 3 ID : 44100951187
Option 4 ID : 44100951184
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.14 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
1. Climate change has led to unpredictable weather patterns, rising sea levels and increased
frequency of extreme events.
2. Governments and organisations worldwide have implemented policies to reduce carbon
emissions and invest in renewable energy.
3. Scientists warn that without immediate intervention, the long-term consequences could be
catastrophic for ecosystems and human populations.
4. Shifting towards sustainable practices, such as electric vehicles and green infrastructure, is
essential for mitigating environmental damage.
5. However, challenges such as economic constraints and political opposition continue to
hinder large-scale adoption of green initiatives.
Ans A. 15234

B. 13245

C. 14532

D. 13425

Question ID : 44100912953
Option 1 ID : 44100951597
Option 2 ID : 44100951595
Option 3 ID : 44100951596
Option 4 ID : 44100951598
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.15 Select the correct spelling of the highlighted incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

Her conscientous approach to work made her a valued employee.

Ans A. Consciencious

B. Consceintious

C. Conscienshous

D. Conscientious

Question ID : 44100912901
Option 1 ID : 44100951396
Option 2 ID : 44100951398
Option 3 ID : 44100951397
Option 4 ID : 44100951395
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Recalcitrant
Ans A. Obedient

B. Intransigent

C. Defiant

D. Rebellious

Question ID : 44100912845
Option 1 ID : 44100951172
Option 2 ID : 44100951173
Option 3 ID : 44100951174
Option 4 ID : 44100951175
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Illiteracy remains a significant global issue, affecting individuals and societies in profound
ways. People who lack basic reading and writing skills often struggle to find stable
employment, limiting their ability to support themselves and their families. Moreover, illiteracy
creates a barrier to accessing crucial information, such as healthcare guidelines, legal rights
and financial literacy, which are essential for navigating daily life. Beyond the individual level,
illiteracy hampers economic growth. Businesses require skilled workers who can read
instructions, analyse data and communicate effectively. A workforce with low literacy skills
reduces overall productivity, forcing industries to invest additional resources in training.
Furthermore, illiterate citizens may find it difficult to participate in democratic processes, as
they struggle to understand political policies, cast informed votes or engage in public
discussions. Government initiatives, non-profit organisations and community programmes that
offer adult education and literacy training are among efforts to combat illiteracy. Technology
has also made education more accessible through mobile learning platforms and online
resources. However, true progress requires long-term investment and a cultural shift that
prioritises education for all.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 What can be inferred about the economic impact of illiteracy from the passage?
Ans A. Countries with high illiteracy rates experience rapid industrial development.

B. Illiterate individuals are more likely to become business owners.

C. Companies prefer to hire illiterate workers to save on training costs.

D. Illiteracy can slow economic growth by reducing workforce efficiency.

Question ID : 44100912922
Option 1 ID : 44100951477
Option 2 ID : 44100951478
Option 3 ID : 44100951475
Option 4 ID : 44100951476
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Illiteracy remains a significant global issue, affecting individuals and societies in profound
ways. People who lack basic reading and writing skills often struggle to find stable
employment, limiting their ability to support themselves and their families. Moreover, illiteracy
creates a barrier to accessing crucial information, such as healthcare guidelines, legal rights
and financial literacy, which are essential for navigating daily life. Beyond the individual level,
illiteracy hampers economic growth. Businesses require skilled workers who can read
instructions, analyse data and communicate effectively. A workforce with low literacy skills
reduces overall productivity, forcing industries to invest additional resources in training.
Furthermore, illiterate citizens may find it difficult to participate in democratic processes, as
they struggle to understand political policies, cast informed votes or engage in public
discussions. Government initiatives, non-profit organisations and community programmes that
offer adult education and literacy training are among efforts to combat illiteracy. Technology
has also made education more accessible through mobile learning platforms and online
resources. However, true progress requires long-term investment and a cultural shift that
prioritises education for all.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
Ans A. The Hidden Cost of Illiteracy on Workforce Productivity

B. Literacy: The Sole Key to Social and Economic Empowerment

C. The Silent Struggle: Understanding the Effects of Illiteracy

D. Bridging the Knowledge Gap: The Role of Education in Governance

Question ID : 44100912923
Option 1 ID : 44100951482
Option 2 ID : 44100951479
Option 3 ID : 44100951480
Option 4 ID : 44100951481
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Illiteracy remains a significant global issue, affecting individuals and societies in profound
ways. People who lack basic reading and writing skills often struggle to find stable
employment, limiting their ability to support themselves and their families. Moreover, illiteracy
creates a barrier to accessing crucial information, such as healthcare guidelines, legal rights
and financial literacy, which are essential for navigating daily life. Beyond the individual level,
illiteracy hampers economic growth. Businesses require skilled workers who can read
instructions, analyse data and communicate effectively. A workforce with low literacy skills
reduces overall productivity, forcing industries to invest additional resources in training.
Furthermore, illiterate citizens may find it difficult to participate in democratic processes, as
they struggle to understand political policies, cast informed votes or engage in public
discussions. Government initiatives, non-profit organisations and community programmes that
offer adult education and literacy training are among efforts to combat illiteracy. Technology
has also made education more accessible through mobile learning platforms and online
resources. However, true progress requires long-term investment and a cultural shift that
prioritises education for all.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word as used in the passage.

Hampers
Ans A. Impedes

B. Advises

C. Glorifies

D. Facilitates

Question ID : 44100912924
Option 1 ID : 44100951485
Option 2 ID : 44100951486
Option 3 ID : 44100951483
Option 4 ID : 44100951484
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
 Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Illiteracy remains a significant global issue, affecting individuals and societies in profound
ways. People who lack basic reading and writing skills often struggle to find stable
employment, limiting their ability to support themselves and their families. Moreover, illiteracy
creates a barrier to accessing crucial information, such as healthcare guidelines, legal rights
and financial literacy, which are essential for navigating daily life. Beyond the individual level,
illiteracy hampers economic growth. Businesses require skilled workers who can read
instructions, analyse data and communicate effectively. A workforce with low literacy skills
reduces overall productivity, forcing industries to invest additional resources in training.
Furthermore, illiterate citizens may find it difficult to participate in democratic processes, as
they struggle to understand political policies, cast informed votes or engage in public
discussions. Government initiatives, non-profit organisations and community programmes that
offer adult education and literacy training are among efforts to combat illiteracy. Technology
has also made education more accessible through mobile learning platforms and online
resources. However, true progress requires long-term investment and a cultural shift that
prioritises education for all.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Based on the passage, which of the following best explains why illiteracy can weaken
democratic participation?
Ans A. Illiterate individuals cannot express opinions on social media.

B. Illiteracy leads to financial instability, making people uninterested in politics.

C. Governments do not allow illiterate citizens to vote.

D. Illiterate individuals may be less likely to vote due to a lack of awareness.

Question ID : 44100912921
Option 1 ID : 44100951474
Option 2 ID : 44100951473
Option 3 ID : 44100951472
Option 4 ID : 44100951471
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --