QUESTION THERAJA

1. Computers can work with ________ as well as numbers

Ans – letters

2. A very common use of computers in offices is for ________

processing.

Ans – Word

3. Ready made computer programs are called _______ packages.

Ans – software

4. _______ are used in industry for automating process which are

repetitive.

Ans – robots

5. A ______ is a set of instructions for a computer to perform a

particular task.

Ans – Program

6. Most computers in use to-day are _______

Ans – Digital

7. The two broad categories of electronic computer are digital and ____

Ans – Analog

8. In digital computers, quantities are _______ rather than measured.

Ans – counted

9. Data is the name given to basic ______ on when the computer works

Ans – facts

10. Properly arranged data is called ______

Ans - information

11. Information to be processed by a computer is called __________

Ans – data

12. Collecting the data and converting it into information is called ______

Ans – data processing

13. Representing input data by standard abbreviations is called data ___

Ans – coding

14. All tangible items of a computer which can be seen and touched are
called _______

Ans – hardware

15. All forms of programs associated with a computer are known as ____

Ans – Software

16. The three functional elements of a digital computer are input device,
______ and out put device.

Ans – central processor

17. The central processing unit of a computer consists of ________,

Control unit and Arithmetic and Logic unit (ALU).

Ans – memory

18. A 32 bit computer word consists of ______ bytes.

Ans – 4

19. The set of characters including 26 alphabets and ten numerals is

called ________ data.

Ans – alphanumeric

20. Central processing unit (CPU) is called the ______ of a computer.

Ans – heart

21. 1 kilobyte equals ________ bytes.

Ans – 1024

22. Control unit is called the _______ centre of a digital computer.

Ans – Nerve

23. Control unit of a CPU is also called the master despatcher and
________ of the computer.

Ans – Clock

24. In the main memory of a computer, RAM is used as a short –term

memory because it is ________.

Ans – Volatile

25. The controlling program of a computer is held in ROM because it is a

________ memory.
Ans – Non volatile/permanent

26. Location in the main memory of a computer are called ________.

Ans – Words

27. Winchester disks are ideal for use in ______ and humid
environments.

Ans – Dusty

28. FORTRAN is a _______ level language.

Ans – High

29. High level language BASIC is designed for ________

Ans – Students

30. COBOL is a _______ language

Ans – Commercial

31. PILOT is called the _______ language

Ans – Author

32. The program written in machine language is called _______ program.

Ans – Object

33. A program written in high level language is called ______ program

Ans – Source

34. A ________ translates source program into object program

Ans – Compiler

35. An assembler translates ______ program into object program

Ans – Assembly

36. Each computer has its own ________ language.

Ans – Machine

37. Machine language ______ from computer to computer.

Ans – Varies
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A modern electronic computer is a machine that is meant for.

Ans – Input, storage, manipulation and outputting of data

2. A modern digital computer has

Ans – All of the above

3. The operation of a digital computer is based on ______ principle.

Ans – Counting

4. The main distinguishing feature of fifth generation digital computers

will be their.

Ans – Artificial intelligence

5. The very small and cheap computer built into many home devices is
called ________ computer.

Ans – Micro

6. In computer terminology, information means.

Ans – Data in more useful or intelligible form

7. Alphanumeric data consists of

Ans – Alphabets and numerals

8. Data processing is

Ans – Mostly associated with commercial work

9. A computer program

Ans – Contains instructions for the computer operator

10. Computer hardware usually refers to

Ans – Central processor, input/output devices and backing storage

11. Computer software

Ans – Is essential for operating hardware

12. The basic components of a modern digital computer are

Ans – All of the above

13. The central processor of a modern digital computer consists of

Ans – All of the above

14. Arithmetic and Logic unit is called the________ of a computer.

Ans – Calculator

15. Computer memory

Ans – Receives input data

16. Control unit is often called the _______ of a digital computer

Ans – All of the above

17. Most errors blamed on the computers are actually due to

Ans – Data entry errors

18. Most things which computers do

Ans – Can be done in other ways also

19. For solving a problem, a computer

Ans – Follows a program written by a programmer

20. In a computer, RAM is used as a short memory because it

Ans – Is volatile

21. A dot matrix printer

Ans – Is an output device

22. A computer will function only if it

Ans – Has a controlling program in its memory

23. Multiple choice examination answer sheets are evaluated by ____

reader.

Ans – Optical mark

24. A 64K, 16 bit computer memory contains ______ bytes.

Ans – 64 x 1024 x 2

25. In a modern digital computer, the function of a central processor is to

Ans – all of the above

26. The input data is entered into the ______ of a computer

Ans – Primary memory

27. A computer program consists of

Ans – Algorithms written in computer language

28. The person who writes instructions that tell the computer how to
handle input information is called.

Ans – Computer programmer

29. A computer programmer

Ans – Does all the thinking for a computer

30. High level computer programming language COBLOL is specially

meant for

Ans – Business people

31. PILOT language is meant for

Ans – Authors, teachers and trainees

32. The special purpose computer language for process control is

Ans – ADA

33. Computer program writing

Ans – Is more an art than a science

34. A source program is the program written in ______ language

Ans – High level

35. A program written in machine language is called ______ language

Ans – Object

36. Instructions for execution by a computer are given to it in _______

language

Ans – Machine

37. In computer terminology, a computer means

Ans – A program which translates source program into object

program

38. When spoken in connection with a computer, an assembler is a

Ans - Program
 FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The electronic instruments have higher sensitivity and faster _______

Than mechanical or electrical instruments.

Ans – response

2. The deflection type instruments with a scale and a pointer are called
_____ instruments

Ans – analog

3. Instruments serve three basic functions of indicating, recording and

_______

Ans – controlling

4. Digital instruments use ______ circuits and technique to obtain

measurements.

5. As compared to analog instruments, digital instruments have easy

readability and higher ______

Ans – Accuracy

6. Input impedance of an electronic instrument is very _______

Ans – high

7. The three essential elements of an electronic instrument are a

_______ , signal modifier and an indicating device.

Ans – transducer

8. Higher the full scale deflection current of meter movement, ____ its
internal resistance.

Ans – lower

9. The sensitivity of a meter movement is given by the ______ of its full

scale deflection current.

Ans – reciprocal

10. A meter movement with full scale deflection current of 50µ A has a
sensitivity of _____ kΩ/V

Ans – 20

11. A high input resistance voltmeter has ______ loading effect

Ans – less
12. In general, the voltage scales on a VTVM are linear whereas ohms
scale is _______.

Ans – non linear

13. Non digital ohm meter must be _______ before each measurement

Ans – zeroed

14. When resistance is to be measured, all power in the external circuit

must be turned _______

Ans – off

15. A VOM is used for measuring voltage, current and ______

Ans – resistance

16. An ac instrument using a half wave rectifier reads _______ percent of

the dc value.

Ans – 45

17. The input resistance of a VOM is ______ on each range

Ans – different

18. A VTVM has ________ loading effect on the circuit under test.

Ans – negligible

19. The CRO provides a ______ dimensional visual display of the signal
wave shape on its screen.

Ans – two

20. The hear of an oscilloscope is _______

Ans – CRT

21. In a scope the signal to be observed is applied across ______

deflecting plates.

Ans – Y

22. The voltage applied across the X plates of a scope is a _____ voltage

Ans – ramp

23. The deflection sensitivity of a CRT is defined as the vertical deflection

of the beam per unit ______ voltage

Ans – deflecting

24. For viewing two cycles of the input signal, sweep generator frequency
in a scope must be _____ the signal frequency.
Ans – half

25. In internal sync of a scope a portion of the input signal is used to

trigger the ____ generator

Ans – sweep

26. In a triggered type scope sweep generator runs only when input
signal is across the Y plates

Ans – Present

27. A dual trace CRO has two _____ input circuits.

Ans – vertical

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Digital instruments are those which

Ans – use deflection type meter movement

2. The main difference between the electronic and electrical instruments

is that an electronic instrument cdontains.

Ans – an electron device

3. The essential elements of an electronic instrument are

Ans – all of the above

4. The current sensitivity of a meter is expressed in

Ans – ohm/volt

5. The basic meter movement can be converted into an ohm meter by

connecting a _______ with it

Ans – battery and variable resistance in series

6. The D Arsonval meter movement can be converted into an audio

frequency as ammeter by adding a ______ to it

Ans – rectifier

7. In a linear meter, half scale deflection occurs when there is ______

percent of the rated current through its coil.

Ans – 50
8. A 0-1 mA meter has a sensitivity of

Ans – 1 KΩ/V

9. Loading effect is principally caused by ______ instruments.

Ans – low sensitivity

10. A multimeter is used to measure

Ans – all of the above

11. A sinusoidal voltage of rms value 10 Vis applied to a D Arsonval

movement connected in series with a half wave rectifier. It will show a
reading of ______ volt.

Ans – 4.5

12. A VTVM produces negligible loading of on a circuit under test

primarily because

Ans – of its very high internal resistance

13. The signal to be observed on the screen of an oscilloscope is applied

Ans – across its Y plates

14. Production of a steady continuous display of a signal waveform on

the scope screen is due to

Ans – proper sync between the signal and the sweep generator

15. The deflection sensitivity of a CRT depends inversely on the

Ans – separation between Y plates

16. Two complete signal cycles would be displayed on the screen of a

scope when time period of the sweep generator is _____ the signal time
period.

Ans – twice

17. A non triggered oscilloscope is one which

Ans – has a continuously running time base generator

18. The operation of a Q meter is based on

Ans – series resonance

 FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. A transducer is a device that ______ energy in one form to energy in

another form.

Ans – converts

2. Strain gauge is a _____ transducer

Ans – mechanical

3. A microphone is an example of _______ inductive transducer

Ans – acoustical

4. Quartz crystal belong to the category of ____ transducers

Ans – self generating

5. Linear variable differential transformer (LVDT) is a ____ inductive

transducer

Ans – passive

6. An LVDT has one primary but _______ identical secondaries.

Ans – two

7. Thermistors have _______ temperature co-efficient of resistance.

Ans – negative

8. Response time of a thermistor is equal to the time requi4red by it to

reach ______ of the total step change in temperature.

Ans – 63.2

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A transducer is any device which

Ans – converts energy in one form into another form

2. _______ represents a magnetic transducer.

Ans – LVDT

3. A microphone is classified as a _______ transducer

Ans – acoustical
4. A thermocouple is a _____ type transducer

Ans – voltage generating

5. A linear variable differential transformer (LVDT) has

Ans – movable magnetic core

6. The principal disadvantage of a piezoelectric transducer is that it

Ans – cannot measure static conditions

7. Which of the following metal is not used in making resistance –

temperature detectors

Ans – copper

8. RTDs can be used for measuring a temperature of _____ 0C

Ans – 500

9. A thermistor

Ans – has negative temperature coefficient

10. A thermistor with a time constant of one second is shifted from a

liquid at 100 0C to another at 200 0C. Its temperature after one second
would be _______ 0C

Ans – 163.2

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The fan –in of a logic gate is given by the number of ___ it can handle
properly.

Ans – inputs

2. Speed of a logic gate depends on transition time and propagation ___

Ans – delays

3. Noise immunity is generally expressed in

Ans – volt

4. RTL employs only ____ and resistors

Ans – transistors

5. RTL family was originally based on ____ circuit

Ans – NOR

6. TTL use multiple _______ transistor

Ans – emitter

7. As compared to DTL, TTL has _______ speed

Ans – greater

8. TTL series was originally designed around ________ gate cell

Ans – Nand

9. ECL is _____ logic because its transistors never go into saturation

Ans – non saturated

10. ECL is the _______ currently available logic circuit

Ans – fastest

11. ECL provides two ______ which are complements of each other

Ans – outputs

12. ECL family is used when maximum possible _______ is the prime
consideration

Ans – speed

13. ECL has basic circuitry that is essentially a ____ amplifier

configuration

Ans – differential

14. All logic levels of an ECL are ____

Ans – negative

15. We need and ____ circuit for interconnecting an ECL circuit to

another circuit of a different logic family.

Ans – interface

16. I2L circuit used no biasing and loading _______

Ans – resistors

17. I2L is the newest entry in the bipolar _______ logic field

Ans – saturated

18. I2L circuits are used where high _____ density is of prime
consideration

Ans – packing
19. MOS logic circuits us no _______
Ans – resistors

20. Power dissipation by COMS varies directly as input signal _______

Ans – frequency

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. In a saturated bipolar logic circuit, transistors operate

Ans – in saturation

2. Saturated logic circuits have inherently

Ans – low switching speed

3. Noise margin is expressed in

Ans – volt

4. DTL family employs

Ans – diodes, resistors and transistors

5. The chief advantage of Schottky TTL logic family over the standard
TTL family is its least

Ans – propagation delay

6. The main advantage claimed for ECL family of logic gates is its

Ans – extremely low propagation time

7. Special feature of an I2L circuit is that it

Ans – uses no biasing and loading resistors

8. A unique advantageous feature of COMS family is its

Ans – power dissipation in a nanowatt range

9. CMOS circuits are extensively used for one chip computers mainly
because of their

Ans – very large packing density

10. The main advantage of a CMOS family over the TTL family is its

Ans – much reduced power dissipation

11. CMOS family uses only

Ans – MOSFETs

12. Power is drawn by CMOS circuit only when

Ans – it switches logic levels

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Boolean algebra is the algebra of _______

Ans – logic

2. All variables in Boolean algebra can have only one to the two values
0 and _____

Ans – 1
_
3. According to OR laws, ___ + A = 1

Ans – A
__
4. The AND law gives A.A = ____

Ans – 0
=
5. According to the laws of complementation, A = ____
_
Ans – A

6. According to the Absorptive laws of Boolean algebra, A + AB = ___

Ans – A
_ _
7. According to D Morgan’s theorem, A + B = ____, ____
_ _
Ans - A . B

8. Each Boolean relation has its _____

Ans – dual
_ __
9. When simplified, AB + AB = ____ + ____
_ _
Ans – A + B
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Boolean algebra is essentially based on

Ans – logic

2. The first person who used Boolean algebra for the design of relay
switching circuits was

Ans – Shanon

3. Different variables used in Boolean algebra can have values of

Ans – 0 or 1
_
4. According to the algebra of logic, (A+A) = equals

Ans – 1

5. According to the Absorptive laws of Boolean algebra, expression

(A+AB) equals

Ans – A
__
6. When we demorganize A B, we get
___
Ans – A+B

7. The dual of the statement (A+1) = 1 is

Ans - A.0 = 0

8. The expression A BC can be simplified to

_ _ _
Ans – A + B + C

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. A logic gate is a circuit that makes _______ decisions.

Ans – logic

2. In logic algebra, variables can assume only two values either ___ or 1

Ans – 0

3. The ____ gate is also called any or all gate.

Ans – OR
4. In a 2-input OR gate, out put is 0 if and only if ____ inputs are 0

Ans – both

5. An OR gate corresponds to a _______ switching circuit

Ans – parallel

6. The statement “You can be rich or you can be poor” represents the
logic of ______ gate.

Ans – XOR

7. An XOR gate has an output 1 when its outputs are ______

Ans – different

8. An XOR gate has an output 0 when all its input are _________

Ans – 1

9. The output of an AND gate is FALSE if any of its input is _______

Ans – FALSE

10. ______ gate is also called all-or-nothing gate.

Ans – AND

11. In logic multiplication, A x A = _____

Ans – A

12. The only function of a NOT gate is to _______ the input

Ans – invert

13. When A = 0, B = 1 and C = 1, the value of Boolean expression

(AB+C) is _______

Ans – 1
_ _
14. The value of 1 + 1 = ______

Ans – 0
_
15. C = 0.0 = ___

Ans – 1
___
16. The value of A+A is ______
_
Ans – A
17. A _____ gate has an output of 1 only when all its inputs are 0

Ans – NOR

18. Both NOR and _____ gates are called universal gates.

Ans – NAND

19. An XNOR gate gives an output of 1 if its both inputs are at the _____
logic level

Ans – same

20. A full adder has _____ inputs and two outputs.

Ans – 3

21. For adding 4-bit numbers, we need ____ full adders connected in
parallel.

Ans – 4

22. The largest decimal numbers which a parallel adder consisting of four
full adders can add is

Ans – 15

23. A full sub tractor contains two half subtractors and one ____ gate

Ans – OR

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which.

Ans – make logic decisions

2. In positive logic, logic state 1 corresponds to

Ans – higher voltage level

3. In negative logic, the state 1 corresponds to

Ans – lower voltage level

4. The output of a 2-input OR gate is 0 only when its

Ans – both inputs are 0

5. An XOR gate produces an output only when its two inputs are

Ans – different

6. An AND gate
Ans – is equivalent to a series switching circuit

7. When an input electrical signal A = 10100 is applied to a NOT gate,

its output signal is

Ans – 01011

8. The only function of a NOT gate is to

Ans – invert and input signal

9. A NOR gate is ON only when all its inputs are

Ans – OFF

10. The truth table shown in fig is for

Ans – XNOR

11. For getting an output from an XNOR gate, its both inputs must be

Ans – at the same logic level

12. Which of the following in fig represents WRONG logic function

Ans

13. The arrangement shown in fig performs the logic function of a/an
____ gate.

Ans AND

14. In a certain 2-input logic gate, when A = 0, B = 0, then C = 1 and

when A = 0, B = 1 then again C = 1 it must be ____ gate.

Ans – NAND

15. The logic symbol shown in fig represents

Ans – NOR gate

16. The output from the logic gate shown in fig will be available when
inputs ______ are represent.
Ans – A, B and C

17. To get an output 1 from circuit of fig, the input must be

Ans – 1 0 1

18. which of the following logic gate in fig will have an output of 1

Ans –

19. A half – adder can be constructed from

Ans – one XOR gate and one AND gate.

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The bits 1 and 0 are used in the _____ number system.

Ans – binary

2. The very term digital implies a system of counting using ____ units

Ans – discrete

3. The binary number 10 is the same as the decimal number _______

Ans – two

4. The double dadd method is used to convert _____ integers to their

decimal equivalents.

Ans – binary

5. The double dadd method is used for ____ to binary conversion

Ans – decimal

6. The decimal fraction 0.75 corresponds to the binary fraction of ____

Ans – 0.11

7. In the binary system, 1+1 = _____

Ans - 102
8. 110 + 110 = _____

Ans – 210
9. 12 + 12 = _____

Ans - 102
10. According to the rules of binary addition, 1+1+1 = ________
Ans - 112
11. The binary addition 1+1+1+1 = ______

Ans - 1002
12. According to the rules of binary subtraction, 0-1 = 1 with a ___ of 1

Ans – borrow

13. Binary 111 111 is the same as decimal ______

Ans – 63

14. The 2s complement of the binary number 1011 is ______

Ans – 0101

15. As per binary multiplication rules, 112 x 102 = ______

Ans - 1102
16. In binary number system, 1012 x 2 = _______

Ans – 1010

17. In binary system, 101010/2 = _______

Ans - 101012
18. 112 + 1112 = ______

Ans - 10102
19. The octal 118 represents decimal _____ and binary _____

Ans – 910, 10012

20. 101 0118 represents decimal __________

Ans – 53

21. Each memory byte of a minicomputer usually consists of ____ bits

Ans – 8

22. The hexadecimal number system has a base of _______

Ans – 16
23. The number D16 corresponds to decimal _______

Ans – 1310

24. The number 2016 corresponds to decimal ________

Ans - 3210
25. The hex number 8C16 __________

Ans - 100011002
26. The hexadecimal equivalent of binary number 1010 is _______
Ans – A16

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The digital systems usually operate on ______ system.

Ans – binary

2. The binary system uses powers of ______ for positional values

Ans – 2

3. After counting 0, 1, 10, 11, the next binary number is

Ans – 100

4. The number 10002 is equivalent to decimal number

Ans – eight

5. In binary numbers, shifting the binary point one place to the right

Ans – increases by 10

6. The binary addition of 1+1+1 gives

Ans – 11

7. The cumulative addition of the four binary bits (1+1+1+1) gives

Ans – 100

8. The result of binary subtraction (100 – 011) is

Ans – 001

9. The 2’s complement of 10002 is

Ans – 1000
10. The chief reason why digital computers use complemental
subtraction is that it

Ans – simplifies their circuitry

11. The result of binary multiplication 1112 x 102 is

Ans – 1110

12. The binary division 110002/1002 gives

Ans – 110

13. The number 128 is equivalent to decimal

Ans – 10
14. The number 1001012 is equivalent to octal

Ans – 45

15. The number 178 is equivalent to binary

Ans – 1111

16. Which of the following is NOT an octal

Ans – 19

17. Hexadecimal number system is used as a shorthand language for

representing ____ numbers

Ans – binary

18. The binary equivalent of A16 is

Ans – 1010

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. In an integrated circuit, all active and passive components are ____

on a single chip of silicon.

Ans - fabricated

2. In case of any component failure it is more economical to ____ an IC

than to repair it

Ans – replace

3. A major advantage of ICs is their reduced _______

Ans – cost
4. The most important advantage of an IC is its extremely high ______

Ans – reliability

5. One drawback of ICs is that they can handle only a limited amount of
________

Ans – power

6. Functionally, ICs can be classified as linear and ___ ICs

Ans – digital

7. For mass production of ICs monolithic process is most

Ans – economical
8. _____ fabrication employs planar epitaxial process

Ans – monolithic

9. Where as monolithic ICs are formed within a silicon wafer, thin film
ICs are formed on its

Ans – surface

10. In thin film ICs, _________ components are added externally

Ans – active

11. The film ICs are produced by using vacuum evaporation or cathode

Ans - sputtering

12. Thick film ICs employ _____ printing techniques.

Ans - careen

13. Use of external discrete active components in film ICs allows greater
in circuit design.

Ans – flexibility

14. Multichip ICs possess greater flexibility but have least

Ans - reliability

15. LICs are also referred to as ____ ICs

Ans - analog

16. As compared to digital ICs linear ICs are used much

Ans - less

17. Digital ICs are mostly utilized by the _____ industry

Ans - computer

18. Monolithic capacitors are formed by utilizing the junction capacitance

of a ____ biased PN diode

Ans - reverse

19. Encapsulation of an IC means placing a ____ over it and scaling it

hermetically

Ans - cap

20. An OP – AMP is an extremely high gain high-rin ______ coupled

amplifier

Ans - directly
21. MOS ICs are ______ expensive than bipolar ICs

Ans - less

22. As compared to bipolar ICs, MOS ICs have _____ operating speed

Ans - slower

23. An OP – AMP is a ____ IC

Ans - linear

24. The open-loop gain of an ideal OP – AMP is _____

Ans – infinity

25. An ideal OP – AMP has an input resistance of _____ and an output

resistance of _____

Ans - infinity, zero

26. An adder circuit provides an output voltage which is the ____ sum of
two or more input voltages.

Ans - algebirc

27. An integrator converts a de level into a linearly increasing ____

output

Ans - ramp

28. A differentiator converts a linear ramp into a _____ de output

Ans - constant

29. Differentiator can be obtained by ____ the resistor and capacitor of

an integrator circuit

Ans - interchanging

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. First integrated circuit chip was developed by

Ans – JS Kilby

2. An integrated circuit is

Ans – fabricated on a tiny silicon chip

3. Most important advantage of an IC is its

Ans – extremely high reliability

4. In monolithic ICs all components are fabricated by ____ process

Ans – diffusion

5. Monolithic ICs are fabricated within

Ans – silicon layer

6. As compared to monolithic ICs film ICs have the advantage of

Ans – better high frequency response

7. Monolithic technique is ideally suited for fabricating ___ ICs

Ans – digital

8. In the context of IC fabrication, metallization means

Ans - forming interconnecting conduction pattern and bonding pads

9. Monolithic transistors are formed in the epitaxial N-layer

Ans – by successive impurity diffusions

10. The major component of a MOS IC is a/an

Ans – MOSFET

11. Processing of MOS ICs is less expensive than bipolar ICs primarily
because they

Ans – require much less diffusion steps

12. An OP – AMP can be classified as ________ amplifier

Ans – linear

13. An ideal OP – AMP has

Ans – all of the above

14. OP-AMPs have become very popular in industry mainly because

Ans – their external characteristics can be changed to suit any

application

15. Since input resistance of an OP-AMP is infinite

Ans – its input current is zero

16. The gain of an actual OP – AMP is around

Ans – 1,000,000
17. When an input voltage of 1 V is applied to an OP – AMP having A 0 =
104 and bias supply of 15V, the output voltage available is

Ans – 15V

18. An inverting amplifier has R1 = 2M and R1 = 2K, its scale factor is

Ans - -1000

19. Whenin a negative scaler, both R1 and Rf are reduced to zero, the
circuit functions as

Ans - unity follower

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Modulation is the process of ___ low frequency signal with high

frequency ____ wave

Ans – combining, carrier

2. Demodulation is the process of ____ the signal from the ______

carrier wave.

Ans – recovering, modulated

3. Intensity of a sound wave is directly proportional to the square of its

____

Ans – amplitude

4. Amplitude modulation produces _____ additional frequencies.

Ans – two

5. In amplitude modulation carrier ______ is changed but not its

frequency.

Ans – amplitude

6. Louder the sound being transmitted, larger the ______ in the

amplitude of the carrier wave

Ans – fluctuations

7. Percent modulation of an un modulated carrier wave is ______

Ans – zero

8. Modulation in excess of _____ percent produces distortion

Ans – 100
9. In AM transmission, each sideband contains ______ the intelligence
that is being transmitted.

Ans – all

10. In SSB SC transmission, bandwidth required is ____ of that required

for normal AM transmission

Ans – half

11. Bandwidth of a normal AM signal is twice the _____ modulating

frequency

Ans – highest

12. Since higher harmonics in voice and music are not transmitted in AM
system, its fidelity is ______

Ans – low

13. In an AM transmission with m = 100% suppression of carrier cuts the

power dissipation by a factor of ______

Ans – 3

14. In an AM transmission with m = 100%, suppression of carrier and one

sideband cuts the power dissipation by a factor of ______

Ans – 6
15. Lower the percent modulation, _______ the power saving in SSB-SC
system.

Ans – greater

16. Maximum undistorted power from an AM transmitter is obtained with

______ percent modulation

Ans – 100

17. In AM transmission when modulation is less than 100%, power output

is _____

Ans – reduced

18. In an AM transmission, all transmitted intelligence is in ______

Ans – sidebands

19. In FM, louder the sound ____ the deviation of carrier frequency from
its centre frequency

Ans – greater

20. In FM carrier ______ remains constant

Ans – amplitude

21. In FM, carrier swing is twice the frequency _______

Ans – deviation

22. The modulation index of an FM transmission can never ____ its

deviation ratio

Ans – exceed

23. Deviation ration of standard FM broadcast station is _______

Ans – 5

24. Theoretically speaking, the number of sidebands in an FM

transmission is _______

Ans – infinite

25. An FM broadcast station has much _____ bandwidth than an AM

station.

Ans – larger
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The main purpose of modulation is to

Ans – transmit low-frequency information over long distances

efficiently

2. Demodulation

Ans – is opposite of modulation

3. In amplitude modulation

Ans – carrier amplitude is changed

4. 100% modulation is produced in AM when carrier

Ans – amplitude equals signal amplitude

5. For a give carrier wave, maximum undistorted power is transmitted

when value of modulation is

Ans – 1

6. In an AM wave with 100 percent modulation each sideband carries

______ of the total transmitted power.

Ans – one-sixth

7. Given a carrier frequency of 100 khz and a modulating frequency of 5

khz, the bandwidth of AM transmission is ____ khz

Ans – 10

8. When modulation of an AM wave is decreased

Ans – percentage carrier power is increased

9. In AM, power content of the carrier is maximum when m equals

Ans – 0

10. In AM transmission with m = 1, suppression of carrier cuts power

dissipation by a factor of

Ans – 3

11. As compared to DSB-FC 100% modulated transmission, power

saving in SSB-SC system is ____ percent

Ans – 83.3
12. In an AM transmission with 100% modulation, 66.7% of power is
saved when ______ is/are suppressed

Ans – carrier

13. In an AM system, full information can be conveyed by transmitting

only

Ans – any one sideband

14. In FM, amplitude of the modulating signal determines

Ans – amplitude of frequency shift

15. In FM, when frequency deviation is doubled

Ans – modulation is doubled

16. For sound portion of TV transmission, deviation ratio is

Ans – 1.67

17. In an FM broadcast in VHF band, channel width is _____

Ans – 200

18. Modern FM receivers use de-emphasis circuit for

Ans – reducing the amplitude of high frequencies in the audio signal

19. One of the serious disadvantages of FM transmission is its

Ans – limited line of sight ratio

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Both square and sawtooth waves can be called ____ waves

Ans – nonsinusoidal

2. A pulse is an abrupt ____ in voltage or current

Ans – discontinuity

3. Pulse repetition frequency is given by the ____ of pulse repetition

rate

Ans – reciprocal

4. Rise time of a wave depends mainly on the _______ capacitance of

the transistor

Ans – diffusion
5. Apart form a de power source, a resistor and a capacitor, a sawtooth
generator requires a _____ device

Ans – switching

6. Multivibrator circuits are basically two-stage amplifiers with ____ feed

back form the output of one to the input of the other

Ans – positive

7. An AMV has two ____ stable states

Ans – quasi

8. An AMV ____ of its own accord

Ans – oscillates

9. In an AMV, when one stage is ON, the other is _____

Ans – off

10. The two output waves of an AMV are _____ degrees out of phase
with each other

Ans – 180

11. A BMV does not ______

Ans – oscillate

12. A BMV has two absolutely ____ states

Ans – stable

13. The feedback ratio in an AMV circuit is _______

Ans – unity

14. In an MMV, a single narrow input trigger pulse produces a single

____ pulse

Ans – rectangular

15. An MMV is often used for _____ old and distorted pulses

Ans – regenerating

16. A BMV can remain in any one of its two states ______

Ans – indefinitely

17. A BMV circuit uses no energy _______ element

Ans – storage
18. A BMV circuit is the ______ of memory and counting circuits
Ans – heart

19. `The Schmitt trigger is often called a _____ circuit

Ans – squaring

20. The Schmitt trigger is frequently used as a pulse height ______

Ans – discriminator

21. A blocking oscillator produces sharp and ____ pulses

Ans – narrow

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Nonsinusoidal waveforms

Ans – are departures for sine waveform

2. A relaxation oscillator is one which

Ans – produces nonsinusoidal output

3. A square pulse has a mark-to-space ratio of

Ans – 1:1

4. A part from a de power source, the essential requirements of a

sawtooth generator are

Ans – all of the above

5. Which of the following statement is WRONG

Ans – output is available continuously

6. An MMV circuit

Ans – returns to its stand-by state automatically

7. A BMV circuit

Ans – is not an oscillator

8. The frequency of oscillation of an AMV depends mainly on the

Ans – RC values of the circuit

9. An MMV is frequently used

Ans – for regeneration of distorted waves

10. A BMV is a _______ oscillator

Ans – triggered

11. A blocking oscillator

Ans – produces sharp and narrow pulses

12. In an astable multi

Ans – B = 1 (beeta)

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. An electronic oscillator is a circuit which converts dc energy into ____

energy.

Ans – ac

2. An electronic oscillator is an amplifier with _____ feed back

Ans – positive

3. Temperature variations cause ____ in the tuned LCoscillator output

frequency

Ans – drift

4. An oscillator circuit must satisfy ______ criterion

Ans – barkhausen

5. Hartley oscillator uses ______ feedback

Ans – inductive

6. _________ feed back us used in Colpitts oscillator

Ans – capacitive

7. Clapp oscillator is nothing but a ______ form of Colpitts oscillator

Ans – modified

8. Conversion of mechanical stress into electric potential by a crystal is

called ______ effect

Ans – piezoelectric

9. Q factor of a quartz wafer is very ________

Ans – high
10. Y-cut quartz crystals have ________ temperature coefficient

Ans – positive

11. Phase shift oscillators do not use _____ circuits

Ans – tuned

12. Phase shift oscillators are well-suited for comparatively _____

frequencies

Ans – low

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. An electronic oscillator is

Ans – an amplifier with feedback

2. The frequency of oscillation of an elementary LC oscillatory circuit

depends on

Ans – both b and c (coil inductance and capacitance)

3. For sustaining oscillations in an oscillator

Ans – both a and b (feed back factor should be unity, phase shift
should be 00

4. If Barkhausen criterion is not fulfilled by an oscillator circuit, it will

Ans – stop oscillating

5. In a transistor Hartley oscillator

Ans – inductive feedback is used

6. A Colpitts oscillator uses

Ans – tapped capacitance

7. In RC phase-shift oscillator circuits

Ans – pure sine wave output is possible

8. Wien bridge oscillator is most often used whenever

Ans – wide range of high purity since waves is to be generated

 FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. A UJT has only _______ PN junction

Ans – one

2. A UJT possess ______ resistance characteristics

Ans – negative

3. The intrinsic stand off ratio of a UJT is the ratio of two _____

Ans – resistances

4. A UJT firs when its emitter voltage exceeds the value

Ans – n VBB
5. Once fired, the current of a UJT increases _________

Ans – regeneratively

6. A UJT can be triggered into conduction by a _____ pulse at the

emitter

Ans – positive

7. A UJT is frequently used as a ______ oscillator

Ans – relaxation

8. Basically, SCR is a _____ with a control element

Ans – rectifier

9. The three terminals of an SCR are called anode, cathode and ______

Ans – gate

10. The four layers of an SCR are ______ of P-type and N-type

Ans – alternately

11. Once turned On an SCR becomes nearly a _____ circuit from anode
to cathode

Ans – short

12. An SCR can be imagined to consist of ______ interconnected

transistors of opposite polarity

Ans – two
13. An SCR is widely used for _____ control applications

Ans – power

14. A triac has two _____ and one gate terminal

Ans – anodes

15. A triac can be imagined to consist of two ______ parallel connected

SCRs with a common gate terminal

Ans – inverse

16. A triac has _______ doped regions

Ans – 6

17. Low current drpout is the only way to ____ a triac

Ans – open3

18. A diac may be thought of as a triac without its ______ terminal

Ans – gate

19. A diac is equivalent to _____ diodes connected in series

Ans – two

20. An SCS has one anode, one cathode and _____ gates

Ans – two

21. An SCS is just an _____ with an extra gate terminal

Ans – SCR

22. A ____ pulse is required at the anode gate of an SCS to turn it ON

Ans – negative

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A unijunction transistor has

Ans – two bases and one emitter

2. Which semiconductor device acts like a diode and two resistors

Ans – UJT

3. A UJT has RBB = 10K and RB2 = 4K. Its intrinsic stand off ration is

Ans – 0.6
4. An SCR conducts appreciable current when its _____ with respect to
cathode

Ans – anode and gate are both positive

5. After firing an SCR, the gating pulse is removed. The current in the
SCR will

Ans – remain the same

6. An SCR may be turned OFF by

Ans – all of the above

7. A triac behaves like two

Ans – inverse parallel connected SCRs with common gate

8. A triac can be triggered into conduction by

Ans – both b and c

9. A diac is equivalent to a

Ans – pair of four layer SCRs

10. An SCS has

Ans – one anode, one cathode and two gates

11. An SCS may be switched ON by a

Ans – positive pulse at its cathode gate G1

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. In a JFET, the gate channel junctions are normally never ____biased

Ans – forward

2. The depletion regions in a JFET act like a _____ to reduce the drain
current.

Ans – throttle

3. A JFET is a ______ controlled device

Ans – voltage

4. Unlike a BJT, JFET is a _____ transistor

Ans – unipolar
5. The ____ current of a JFET is practically zero

Ans – gate

6. The input resistance of an ideal JFET is ______

Ans – infinity

7. The high input resistance of a JFET is due to the fact that its input is
a reverse biased _______

Ans – junction

8. The depletion regions of a JFET ____ with increase in gate reverse

bias

Ans – increase

9. In a JFET, drain current is _____ when VGS = 0

Ans – maximum

10. With no voltage applied to the gate, channel of JFET acts like a ____

Ans – resistance

11. In MOSFETs gate and channel are ____ from each other

Ans – insulated

12. With _____ gate voltage, a DE MOSFET operates in the depletion

mode

Ans – negative

13. In depletion mode, a DE MOSFET conducts when VGS is ______

Ans – zero

14. An E-only MOSFET works only with _____ gate voltage

Ans – positive

15. A MOSFET can be easily destroyed by any ______ voltage on its

gate

Ans – stray

16. Any voltage build up between different leads of a MOSFET can be

avoided by using ______ rings
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A FET consists of a

Ans – all of the above

2. FETs have similar properties to

Ans – NPN transistors

3. For small values of drain to source voltage, JFET behaves like a

Ans – resistor

4. In a JFET, the primary control on drain current is exerted by

Ans – gate reverse bias

5. After VDS reaches pitch-off value VP in a JFET, drain current ID

becones

Ans – saturated

6. In a JFET, as external bias applied to the gate is increased

Ans – pinch-off voltage is reached at lower values of ID

7. In a JFET, drain current is maximum when VGS is

Ans – zero

8. The voltage gain of a given common source JFET amplifier depends

on its

Ans – drain load resistance

9. A JFET has the disadvantage of

Ans – having small gain band width product

10. For the operation of enhancement-only N-channel MOSFET, value of

gate voltage has to be

Ans – high positive

11. The extremely high input impedance of a MOSFET is primarily due to

Ans – extremely small leakage current of its gate capacitor

12. The main factor which makes a MOSFET likely to break down during
normal handling is its

Ans – both a and c

 FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. In feed back amplifiers, a ______ of the output voltage is fed back to

the input current current.

Ans – portion

2. Positive feedback occurs when feedback voltage and input voltage

are in ______ with each other

Ans – phase

3. Positive feedback is often used in ____ circuits

Ans – oscillator

4. A feedback amplifier essentially consists of an amplifier and a ____

circuit

Ans – feedback

5. _____ feedback is also called degenerative feedback

Ans – negative

6. Negative feedback is frequently used in ____ circuits

Ans – amplifier

7. The term BA is called feedback _____

Ans – factor

8. In a positive feedback amplifier when BA becomes equal to unity, it

starts _______

Ans – oscillating

9. Negative feedback in amplifiers gives reduced gain but ____

bandwidth

Ans – increased

10. One of the advantages of negative feedback is a highly ____

amplifier gain

Ans – stabilized

11. Negative feedback reduces the amplifier distortion by the amount of

gain

Ans – loop
12. Feedback does not change the gain bandwidth _____

Ans – product

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Feedback in an amplifier always helps to

Ans – control its output

2. Closed – loop gain of a feedback amplifier is the gain obtained when

Ans – feedback loop is closed

3. A large sacrifice factor in a negative feedback amplifier leads to

Ans – characteristics impossible to achieve without feedback

4. Negative feedback in an amplifier

Ans – all of the above

5. Regarding negative feedback in amplifiers which statement is

WRONG

Ans – it increases the gain bandwidth product

6. Negative feedback reduces distortion in the amplifier only when it

Ans – is generated in it

7. An amplifier with no feedback has a gain-bandwidth product of 4

MHz. Its closed loop gain is 40. The new bandwidth is

Ans – 100 Khz

8. The shunt-derived series-fed feedback in an amplifier

Ans – both b and c

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Decibel system is a _____ system of comparing two physical

quantities

Ans – logarithmic

2. The decibel is the unit of power ______

Ans – level
3. One decibel represents a power ratio of _____

Ans – 1.26

4. Decibel system is _____ because 20dBis not twice as much power as

10 dB.

Ans – nonlinear

5. Amplifier gain decreases at low as well as at _______ frequencies

Ans – high

6. Lower and upper cut-off frequencies are also called minus ___ dB
frequencies

Ans – 3

7. The bandwidth of an amplifier is the band of frequencies lying

between the two minus 3 ______ points on its frequency response curve

Ans – dB

8. Lower roll-off frequency is imposed by ____ and bypass capacitors

Ans – coupling

9. Internal transistor capacitances and stray wiring capacitance

determine the ____ cut-off frequency of an amplifier

Ans – upper

10. The of a transistor _____ with increase in frequency

Ans – decreases

11. Alpha cut-off frequency of a transistor is ____ than its beta cut-off
frequency.

Ans – higher

12. Greater the minority carrier mobility ______ the alpha cut-off
frequency of a transistor

Ans – higher

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The decibel is a measure of

Ans – power level

2. When power output of an amplifier doubles, the increase in its power
level is ____ decibels

Ans – 3

3. When output power level of radio receiver increases by 3 dB, its

absolute power changes by a factor of

Ans – 2

4. Zero watt cannot be chosen as zero decibel level because

Ans – it would be impossible to define a decibel

5. A minus 3 dB point on the gain versus frequency curve of an amplifier

is that point where

Ans – power falls to half its maximum value

6. The bandwidth of an amplifier may be increased by

Ans – minimizing its stray capacitances

7. Lower cut-off frequency of an amplifier is primarily determined by the

Ans – capacitances of coupling and bypass capacitors

8. The main reason for the variation of amplifier gain with frequency is

Ans – the presence of capacitance, both external and internal

9. Series connected external capacitors in an amplifier determine its cut-

off frequency

Ans – lower

10. The gain bandwidth product of an amplifier is given by

Ans – fT

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. In a CB amplifier, a positive-going input signal produces a ____ going

output signal.

Ans – positive

2. There is phase ______ of input signal in a CE amplifier.

Ans – reversal
3. _______ amplifier has the highest output impedance whereas GC
amplifier has the highest ____ gain.

Ans – CB current

4. The CC amplifier has ______ input impedance but _____ output

impedance.

Ans – high, low

5. The conduction angle of class – B amplifiers is ______ degree.

Ans – 180

6. The conduction angle of class AB amplifier lies between ____ and

____ degrees

Ans – 180, 360

7. For class A operation. Q point is located at the _____ of the load line.

Ans – centre

8. In class A amplifiers, worst case condition occurs when input signal is

_______

Ans – zero

9. In a transformer coupled class A amplifier, the maximum overall

efficiency is ______ percent.

Ans – 50

10. Push pull operation requires two transistors of the same type with
____ characteristics

Ans – matching

11. The theoretical limit for the efficiency of a class B amplifier is ____
percent.

Ans – 78.5

12. In class B push pull amplifiers, crossover distortion can be eliminated

by applying slight ______ bias to each emitter diode.

Ans – forward

13. A complementary symmetry amplifier requires a pair of closely

matched but ______ doped power transistors

Ans – oppositely
14. A complementary symmetry amplifier has the essential
characteristics of an ________ follower

Ans – emitter

15. Non linear distortion is called _____ distortion when viewed in the
frequency domain

Ans – harmonics

16. Frequency and phase distortion are due to the _____ of the circuit
elements.

Ans – reactances

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A CB amplifier ha very low input resistance because

Ans – low emitter ac resistance re shunts all other resistances

2. CE amplifier is characterized by

Ans – signal phase reversal

3. A CC amplifier has the highest

Ans – current gain

4. In a C amplifier voltage gain

Ans – cannot exceed unity

5. In a class A amplifier, conduction extends over 3600 because Q point

is

Ans – centred on load line

6. The basic reason for low efficiency of a direct coupled class A

amplifier is

Ans – centred location of its Q point

7. The circuit efficiency of a class A amplifier can be increased by using

Ans – transformer coupled load

8. In a class A amplifier worst case condition occurs with

Ans – zero signal input

9. The output of a class B amplifier

Ans – consists of positive half cycles only

10. The maximum overall efficiency of a transformer coupled class A
amplifier is ___ percent.

Ans – 50

11. A transistor audio amplifier is found to have an overall efficiency of 70

percent. Most probably, it is a ________ amplifier

Ans – class B push-pull

12. The main purpose of using transformer coupling in a class A amplifier

is to make it more

Ans – efficient

13. A class B push pull amplifier has the main advantage of being free
from

Ans – even-order harmonic distortion

14. The main use of a class C amplifier is

Ans – as an RF amplifier

15. The maximum overall efficiency of a class B push-pull amplifier

cannot exceed ____ percent

Ans – 78.5

16. Crossover distortion occurs in _____ amplifiers

Ans – push-pull

17. The primary cause of linear distortion in amplifiers is

Ans – reactances associated with the circuit and active amplifying

element

18. An amplifier is said to suffer from distortion when its output is

Ans – different from its input

19. While discussing amplifier performance, noise is defined as any kind

of unwanted signal in the output which is

Ans – unrelated to the input signal

20. An ideal amplifier has

Ans – noise factor of unity

 FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Small signal operation of a transistor is that in which signal

excursions are = _____ percent around Q point values

Ans – 10

2. For drawing de equivalent circuit of a transistor, all ac sources are

treated as _________ and capacitors as _______

Ans – shorts, opens

3. For drawing ac equivalent circuit of a transistor, all dc sources and

capacitors are treated as _______

Ans – shorts

4. The current gain of a single stage CE amplifier is nearly ____

Ans – beta

5. Voltage gain of an emitter follower is nearly ____

Ans – unity

6. For a transistor, the number of h-parameters is ______

Ans – four

7. The parameters hr and h0 are called ______ parameters of a

transistor

Ans – reverse

8. The parameter h11 has unit of ______ whereas h22 has that of ______

Ans – ohm, mho

9. For an ideal transistor, both hr and h0 are _______

Ans – zero

10. Typical value of _____ for an actual transistor is a few µS

Ans – h0

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The voltage gain of a well – designed single –stage CB amplifier is

essentially determined by ac collector load and.

Ans – input resistance of emitter diode

2. In a single stage CB amplifier, a smaller load resistance RL will
produce

Ans – low voltage gain

3. The basic reason for using an emitter bypass capacitor in a CE

amplifier circuit is to

Ans – prevent excessive degeneration from taking place

4. The output signal from a single stage CE amplifier is increased when

Ans – input signal resistance is small

5. The voltage gain of an emitter follower is

Ans – less than or equal to unity

6. The main use of an emitter follower is as

Ans – impedance matching device

7. The h-parameters are called hybrid because they

Ans – are defined by using both open and short circuit terminations

8. The smallest of the four h-parameters of a transistor is

Ans – h0

9. Typical value of hie is

Ans – 1k

10. In the CE amplifier circuit of fig, if Rc went short circuit

Ans – amplifier output signal would become zero

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The dc load line of a transistor can be drawn if we know its cut-off

and _____ points

Ans – saturation

2. The point on the dc load line which represents values of Ic and Vce
that exist in the absence of input signal is called ____ point

Ans – Q or quiescent

3. AC load line of a transistor is ____ than its de load line

Ans – steeper
4. When a CB circuit is biased at the optimum operating point, the
maximum available peak-to-peak output is 2Icq ____ or 2Vcbq

Ans – Rac

5. A load line describes graphically the relationship between possible

voltage and _______ values of a circuit

Ans – current

6. An improperly biased transistor produces _____ in the output signal

Ans – distortion

7. In the universal bias stabilization circuit, voltage and current values

are almost independent of ______

Ans – B

8. AC load line is based on ____ load resistance.

Ans – ac

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The dc load line of a transistor circuit

Ans – has a negative slope

2. The maximum peak- to – peak output voltage swing is obtained when

the Q-point of a circuit is located

Ans – at the centre of load line

3. The positive swing of the output signal starts clipping first when Q
point of the circuit moves

Ans – towards the cut-off point

4. Improper biasing of a transistor circuit leads to

Ans – distortion in output signal

5. The ac load line of a transistor circuit is steeper than its de load line
because

Ans – ac signal sees less load resistance

6. The universal bias stabilization circuit is most popular because

Ans – Ic does not depend on transistor characteristics

7. The negative output swing starts clipping first when Q point

Ans – is near saturation point

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The input characteristic of a CB connected transistor is ____ affected

by changes either in Vcb or temperature

Ans – hardly

2. The reciprocal of the slope of the output characteristic of a CB

connected transistor gives its ______ resistance.

Ans – output

3. Rout of a CB connected transistor is very _______

Ans – high

4. The input static characteristic of a CE connected transistor gives its

________ resistance

5. A transistor is said to be cut-off when Vce = _______

Ans – Vcc

6. A transistor is said to operate at saturation when Vce = ____ volts

Ans – 0

7. Under saturation conditions, Ic has ____ value

Ans – maximum

8. When a transistor is open circuited, Vce = ________

Ans – Vcc

9. In a transistor, Vce = 0 when the transistor operates either in

saturation or is _____, ______

Ans – shorted, out

10. If the base of a CE connected transistor is open, its Vce equals ____

Ans – Vcc
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The collector characteristics of a CE connected transistor may be

used to find its

Ans – output resistance

2. The emitter of a transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it

Ans – has to dissipate maximum power

3. For proper working of a transistor, in normal circuits

Ans – CBJ is reverse biased, EBJ is forward biased

4. In a properly biased NPN transistor, most of the electrons from the

emitter

Ans – pass through the base to the collector

5. Indicate in which of the following case (s) fig the lamp is ON and in
which it is OFF.

Ans – Ic/Ie

6. The common emitter forward amplification factor Bdc is given by

Ans - Ic/Ib

7. The following relationships between ___ and B are correct EXCEPT

Ans -

8. The value of total collector current in a CB circuit is

Ans – Ic = ΑiE + ICO

9. When the E/B junction of a transistor is reverse biased. Collector
current.

Ans – Stops

10. In the case of a bipolar transistor, α is

Ans – Negative and < 1

 FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Structurally, a bipolar junction transistor consists of emitter, base and

_______

Ans – Collector

2. Out of the three regions of a transistor, ______ is more heavily doped

than the other two.

Ans – Emitter

3. For proper functioning of a transistor its E/B junction is always _____

biased and C/B junction _____ biased.

Ans – Forward, Reverse

4. In a normally-working PNP transistor, both base and collector are at

_______ potential with respect to the emitter.

Ans – Positive

5. For all transistor configurations, emitter current is the _____ of base

and collector currents.

Ans – Sum

6. In an NPN transistor, the emitter to collector carrier is the _______

Ans – Electron

7. The leakage currents in a transistor are due to _____ carriers.

Ans – Minority

8. ICO is extremely _____ dependent.

Ans – Temperature

9. The ration of IC and IE gives the _____ of a transistor.

Ans – Alpha

10. The dc beta of a transistor is given by the ratio of ____ and IB

Ans - IC

11. The transistor β is much ______ than the α.

Ans – Larger

12. A transistor does not conduct unless its _____ base junction is
forward biased.

Ans – Emitter
 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The ripple factor of a power supply is a measure of.

Ans – Purity of power output

2. The output of a half-wave rectifier is suitable only for

Ans – Charging batteries

3. A bridge rectifier is preferable to an ordinary two diode full-wave

rectifier because.

Ans – It needs much smaller transformer for the same output

4. The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier circuit with a shunt capacitor filter
is.

Ans – 1.21

5. The PIV of a half-wave rectifier circuit with a shunt capacitor filter is

Ans – 2Vm
6. The primary function of a filter is to

Ans – Remove ripples from the rectified output

7. Larger the value of filter capacitor

Ans – Larger the peak current in the rectifying diode

8. Which stage of a dc power supply uses a Zener as the main

component.

Ans – Regulator

9. Which rectifier require four diodes.

Ans – Full-wave bridge circuit

10. For a half-wave controlled rectifier, the average value of output dc

voltage is given by.

Ans – Vdc = Vm (Cosø1 + 1)

2 II
 FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. A rectifier’s main function is to convert an ac voltage into _____ dc

voltage

Ans – Pulsating

2. In an unregulated voltage supply, dc terminal voltage _____ with the

amount of load.

Ans – Varies

3. Average value of the HW rectified voltage is _____ time the peak

supply voltage.

Ans – 0.318

4. PIV rating of a diode in a FW rectifier is ______ x peak supply

voltage.

Ans – 2

5. Frequency of the output voltage of a FW rectifier is ____ the supply

frequency.

Ans – Twice

6. Greater the form factor of a filter, higher its _____ factor

Ans – Ripple

7. In a shunt capacitor filter, load sees a _____ constant voltage across

it all times.

Ans – Nearly

8. In a shunt capacitor filter, ripple decreases with _____ in load

resistance.

Ans – Increase

9. In a transistor current regulator employs a transistor and a ____

diode

Ans – Resistance

10. A transistor current regulator employs a transistor and a _____ diode

Ans – Zener

11. Greater the conduction angle of a controlled rectifier, _____ its output

Ans – Higher
12. For a firing angle of 1800, the output of a half-wave controlled rectifier
is _______

Ans – Zero

13. An SCR needs a control circuit to ______ it into conduction at any

time after input cycle goes positive.

Ans – Trigger

14. In amplitude firing of an SCR, _____ current flows continuously

Ans – Gate