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The document consists of 42 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to pharmacology, specifically focusing on cholinergic and adrenergic drugs, their mechanisms, effects, and clinical applications. Each question presents a scenario or characteristic regarding neurotransmitters, receptors, and drug actions, requiring knowledge of pharmacological principles. The questions cover a range of topics including cholinomimetics, antimuscarinics, neuromuscular blockers, sympathomimetics, and beta-blockers.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
21 views6 pages

ANS Key

The document consists of 42 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to pharmacology, specifically focusing on cholinergic and adrenergic drugs, their mechanisms, effects, and clinical applications. Each question presents a scenario or characteristic regarding neurotransmitters, receptors, and drug actions, requiring knowledge of pharmacological principles. The questions cover a range of topics including cholinomimetics, antimuscarinics, neuromuscular blockers, sympathomimetics, and beta-blockers.

Uploaded by

Shreya
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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42 MCQs Max time: 45 Min

1) Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:


a) Sympathetic ganglia
b) Sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
c) Parasympathetic ganglia
d) Parasympathetic postganglionic nerve endings

2) Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?
a) Lobeline
b) Pilocarpine
c) Nicotine
d) Bethanechol

3) Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following EXCEPT:


a) It decreases intraocular pressure
b) It causes mydriasis
c) It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic effects
d) It is resistant to acethylcholiesterase

4) Which of the following cholinomimetics is a plant derivative with lower potency than
nicotine but with a similar spectrum
of action?
a) Lobeline
b) Pilocarpine
c) Carbochol
d) Acetylcholine

5) Indicate a cholinesterase inhibitor, which has an additional direct nicotinic agonist effect:
a) Edrophonium
b) Carbochol
c) Neostigmine
d) Lobeline

6) Indicate the organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor, which can be made up in an


aqueous solution for ophthalmic use
and retains its activity within a week:
a) Physoctigmine
b) Edrophonium
c) Echothiophate
d) Neostigmine

7) Which of the following cholinomimetics is a drug of choice for reversing the effects of
nondepolarizing neuromuscular
relaxants?
a) Echothiophate
b) Physostigmine
c) Edrophonium
d) Pilocarpine

8) The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of:


a) Ganglion-blockers
b) Atropine-similar drugs
c) Neuromuscular junction blockers
d) Both a and c
9) Indicate the drug, which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect
than most other antimuscarinic
agents?
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
d) Ipratropium

10) The effect of the drug on parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs
EXCEPT:
a) Eye
b) Heart
c) Smooth muscle organs
d) Glands

11) The tissues most sensitive to atropine are:


a) The salivary, bronchial and sweat glands
b) The gastric parietal cells
c) Smooth muscle and autonomic effectors
d) The heart

12) All of the following parts of the heart are very sensitive to muscarinic receptor blockade
except:
a) Atria
b) Sinoatrial node
c) Atrioventricular node
d) Ventricle

13) Which of the following agents is most effective in regenerating cholinesterase associated
with skeletal muscle
neuromuscular junctions?
a) Succinylcholine
b) Pralidoxime
c) Pirenzepine
d) Propiverine

14) Antimuscarinics are used in the treatment of the following disorders EXCEPT:
a) Motion sickness
b) Glaucoma
c) Hyperhidrosis
d) Asthma

15) Contraindications to the use of antimuscarinic drugs are all of the following except:
a) Glaucoma
b) Myasthenia
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Paralytic ileus and atony of the urinary bladder

16) Indicate the ganglion-blocking drug, which can be taken orally for the treatment of
hypertension?
a) Mecamylamine
b) Scopolamine
c) Trimethaphane
d) Vecocuronium
17) Skeletal muscle relaxation and paralysis can occur from interruption of functions at
several sites, including all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Nicotinic acethylcholine receptors
b) Muscarinic acethylcholine receptors
c) The motor end plate
d) Contractile apparatus

18) Which of the following drugs has “double-acetylcholine” structure?


a) Rocuronium
b) Carbachol
c) Atracurium
d) Succylcholine

19) Indicate the nondepolarizing agent, which has the fastest onset of effect?
a) Succinylcholine
b) Rapacuronium
c) Pancuronium
d) Tubocurarine

20) Indicate muscles, which are more resistant to block and recover more rapidly:
a) Hand
b) Leg
c) Neck
d) Diaphragm

21) Which neuromuscular blocking agent has the potential to cause the greatest release of
histamine?
a) Succylcholine
b) Tubocurarine
c) Pancuronium
d) Rocuronium

22) Characteristics of epinephrine include all of the following EXCEPT:


a) It is synthesized into the adrenal medulla
b) It is synthesized into the nerve ending
c) It is transported in the blood to target tissues
d) It directly interacts with and activates adrenoreceptors

23) Catecholamine includes following EXCEPT:


a) Ephedrine
b) Epinephrine
c) Isoprenaline
d) Norepinephrine

24) Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is contained in all of the following tissues EXCEPT:
a) Bronchial muscles
b) Heart
c) Pupillary dilator muscle
d) Fat cells

25) In which of the following tissues both alfa and beta1 adrenergic stimulation produces the
same effect?
a) Blood vessels
b) Intestine
c) Uterus
d) Bronchial muscles

26) A relatively pure alfa agonist causes all of the following effects EXCEPT:
a) Increase peripheral arterial resistance
b) Increase venous return
c) Has no effect on blood vessels
d) Reflex bradycardia

27) A nonselective beta receptor agonist causes all of the following effects EXCEPT:
a) Increase cardiac output
b) Increase peripheral arterial resistance
c) Decrease peripheral arterial resistance
d) Decrease the mean pressure

28) Which of the following agents is an alfa1-selective agonist?


a) Norepinephrine
b) Methoxamine
c) Ritodrine
d) Ephedrine

29) Epinephrine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT:


a) Positive inotropic and chronotropic actions on the heart
b) Increase peripheral resistance
c) Predominance of alfa effects at low concentration
d) Skeletal muscle blood vessel dilatation

30) Epinephrine is used in the treatment of all of the following disorders EXCEPT:
a) Bronchospasm
b) Anaphylactic shock
c) Cardiac arrhythmias
d) Open-angle glaucoma

31) Which of the following direct-acting drugs is a relatively pure alfa agonist, an effective
mydriatic and decongestant and
can be used to raise blood pressure?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Phenylephrine
d) Ephedrine

32) Isoproterenol produces all of the following effects EXCEPT:


a) Increase in cardiac output
b) Fall in diastolic and mean arterial pressure
c) Bronchoconstriction
d) Tachycardia

33) Indicate the sympathomimetic drug, which is used in a hypotensive emergency:


a) Xylometazoline
b) Ephedrine
c) Terbutaline
d) Phenylephrine

34) Indicate the long-acting topical decongestant agents:


a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Phenylephrine
d) Xylometazoline

35) The adverse effects of sympathomimetics include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Drug-induced parkinsonism
b) Cerebral hemorrhage or pulmonary edema
c) Myocardial infarction
d) Ventricular arrhythmias

36) Which of the following drugs is a nonselective alfa receptor antagonist?


a) Prazosin
b) Phentolamine
c) Metoprolol
d) Reserpine

37) Indicate the irreversible alfa receptor antagonist:


a) Tolazoline
b) Labetalol
c) Prazosin
d) Phenoxybenzamine

38) Indicate an alfa1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, which has great selectivity for alfa1a
subtype:
a) Prazosin
b) Tamsulosin
c) Phenoxybenzamine
d) Phentolamine

39) Which of the following alfa receptor antagonists is useful in reversing the intense local
vasoconstriction caused by
inadvertent infiltration of norepinephrine into subcutaneous tissue during intravenous
administration?
a) Propranolol
b) Phentolamine
c) Tamsulosin
d) Ergotamine

40) Propranolol-induced adverse effects include all of the following EXCEPT:


a) Bronchoconstriction
b) “supersensitivity” of beta-adrenergic receptors (rapid withdrawal)
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Sedation, sleep disturbances, depression and sexual dysfunction

41) Indicate a beta-blocker, which is particularly efficacious in thyroid storm:


a) Pindolol
b) Sotalol
c) Phentolamine
d) Propranolol

42) Indicate a beta receptor antagonist, which has very long duration of action:
a) Metoprolol
b) Propranolol
c) Nadolol
d) Pindolol

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