MEDICARE REFRESHER QUESTIONS

1. Some people are very allergic to insect bites and stings. This condition is called_________.
A. Septic Shock
B. Cardiac Arrest
C. Toxic Shock Syndrome
D. Anaphylactic Shock ✓
2. Water tight utility forms part of
A. Nurses Appendage
B. Doctors Bandage
C. First Aid Kit ✓
D. The tool box
3. What are the three aims of First Aid? Preserve Life, Prevent Further Harm:
A. Promote Recovery ✓
B. Provide Comfort
C. Post Treatment
4. If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of:
A. High Fever
B. Head Injury
C. Broken Limbs
D. Irregular Breathing ✓
5. If a known epileptic is experiencing a seizure, you should _____________
A. Restrain them by holding their shoulders
B. call an ambulance
C. place a pillow or towel under the head and feet
D. remove furniture or other close objects ✓
6. Medicare service is:
A. A simple transportation system
B. A first aid system
C. a system in which Medicare is given along with transportation ✓
D. a system where doctors and nurses are actively involved
7. First aid is given by:
A. Doctors
B. Nurses
C. Lay people who value life in the vicinity ✓
D. People in high positions
8. A victim that has come in contact with poison ivy should ________
A. Wait at least 20 minutes before washing the effected area with hot water and soap
B. Rinse the effected area immediately with soap and water. ✓
C. Continue to wear clothes that come that have come and contact with the plant
D. Immediately scratch and rub the effected area to provide long term relief from the itching.
9. If someone faints, the first thing you should do is ________
A. place cool water on their face.
B. have them lie on their tummy.
C. raise their feet. ✓
D. give them something to drink.
10. The first point in an emergency is to remember is ________________
A. Call the doctor.
B. Don't panic. ✓
C. Run from the site.
D. Call for help.

11. The phrase in “the services of the ship” means:

A. He first boards the vessel to the time he departs from her. ✓
B. The relationship between captain and the crew.
C. The relationship between captain and the doctor.
D. The relationship between nurse and patient.
12. Which of these are not found in a First Aid Kit:
A. Bandages
B. Iodine Prep Pads
 C. Narcotics ✓
D. Burn Creams
13. Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the first to receive emergency
treatment:
A. Major multiple fractures
B. Eye Injuries
C. Back Injuries with spinal cord damage
D. Airway and breathing difficulties. ✓
14. The first aid symbol is :
A. The maltese cross ✓
B. The cross of Gibraltar
C. The Sudanese Cross
D. The cross of the dead.
15. Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or
unconscious:
A. Give a stimulant. ✓
B. Elevate his head.
C. Stop severe bleeding.
D. Treat for shock.
16. First Aid Encompasses DRABCD? Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing, Compression/Circulation
and:
A. Diet.
B. Defibrillation. ✓
C. Do & Donts
D. Damage.
17. Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE:
A. The hospital may be used for disciplinary confinement if it is not being used for treatment.
B. The hospital space must have both a bathtub and shower.
C. A hospital is required on all vessels with a crew of 12 or more if it makes
overnight voyages. ✓
D. If a ship has a crew of forty-five who do not have their own room, the hospital must have four
berths.

18. The cost of treatment on board the ship when reasonable is borne by:
A. The patient
B. The shipowner ✓
C. The captain
D. The crew member

19. The contents of the first aid kit include the following except:
A. Micropore
B. Macropore ✓
C. Bandages
D. Scissors.
20. When it is required to remove a victim from a life-threatening situation, the person giving first aid
must:
A. Pull the victim by the feet.
B. Avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance. ✓
C. Carry the victim to a location where injuries can be assessed.
D. Place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal.
21. What is first Aid?
A. Completing a primary surve.
B. The first help given to the victim of an accident. ✓
C. Assessing a victims vital signs.
D. Treating a victim for shock.

22. What danger to personnel exists when a carbon dioxide extinguisher is discharged in a small
enclosed space:
A. Second degree burns
B. Electric shock
C. Suffocation ✓
 D. Burst Eardrums.
23. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an:
A. vigorous shaking
B. sequence of back blows
C. pericardial thump
D. ammonia inhalant ✓
24. Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a lifeboat
in an emergency situation:
A. Ration food and water supplies.
B. Search for survivors. ✓
C. Determine position and closest point of land.
D. Check pyrotechnic supplies.
25. Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted:
A. Revive the person with smelling salts.
B. Loosen the clothing.
C. Lay the person horizontally.
D. Give pain reliever. ✓
26. Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space:
A. Damaged eardrums
B. Electric Shock
C. Frostbite
D. Respiratory arrest. ✓
27. The muscular system consists of how many types of muscles:
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3 ✓
D. 2
28. ECG is useful in determining:
A. Fitness levels
B. Breathing problems
C. Abnormal rhythms of the heart ✓
D. High blood pressure
29. Which of the following is digestive system disease:
A. Cholera ✓
B. Diptheria
C. Small pox
D. Thyphoid
30. Saliva is composed of how much percentage of water:
A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 95.50% ✓

31. In the relationship of parts of the body to each other, Anterior means:
A. In back of
B. Towards the feet
C. In front of ✓
D. Towards the head

32. Which ribs are called True Ribs:

A. The first 5 bones in the ribs.
B. The first 6 bones in the ribs.
C. The first 7 bones in the ribs. ✓
D. The first 8 bones in the ribs.
33. The central nervous system is composed of:
A. The brain and the spinal cord ✓
B. The heart and lungs
C. The rib cage
D. The limbs
34. Arterioles in the body branch into:
A. Veins
 B. Capillaries ✓
C. Arteries
D. Cells
35. Normal resting blood pressure for a young adult is:
A. 100/60
B. 110/70
C. 120/80 ✓
D. 130/90
36. The facial bone Mandible is:
A. The upper jawbone
B. The lower jawbone ✓
C. The nasal bone
D. The cheek bone.
37. The longest, strongest and largest bone in the human body is:
A. The leg
B. The thigh bone ✓
C. The arm
D. The hand
38. Arteries in the body branch into:
A. Veins
B. Capillaries
C. Arterioles ✓
D. Cells
39. How many layers or tunics does an artery have:
A. Four
B. Three ✓
C. Two
D. One
40. The most common sign of gastrointestinal disorder is:
A. Indigestion ✓
B. Fever
C. Giddiness
D. Stomach Pain
41. The spinal cord, going down, is divided into how many divisions:
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 ✓ D. 5

42. The muscular system consists of how many types of muscles:

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3 ✓
D. 2
43. The skull which is the bony framework of the head, consists of:
A. 4 cranial bones
B. 6 cranial bones
C. 8 cranial bones ✓
D. 10 cranial bones
44. The skeletal system consists of how many branches:
A. 2 ✓
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
45. The movement of the bone away from midline is called :
A. Lateral flexion
B. Adduction
C. Gliding movement
D. Abduction ✓
46. In the human body, the skeletal system consists of:
A. 55 bones
B. 101 bones
C. 206 bones ✓
D. 250 bones
47. How many bones comprise the hand:
A. 12
B. 16
C. 20
D. 27 ✓
48. What is the proper treatment for heat stroke?
A. Rapid cooling of the body ✓
B. Covering with a blanket
C. Exercise
D. Drinking alcohol.
49. EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which
position?
A. Head up and Feet down.
B. Head down and feet up. ✓
C. Flat on back with head and feet elevated.
D. Arms above the head.
50. Who will monitor the casualty’s chest during the rescue breathing:
A. First person ✓
B. Second person
C. Casualty itself
D. No need to monitor

51. Choking is commonly caused by all except:

A. Swallowing large pieces of improperly chewed food
B. Drinking alcohol before or during meals
C. Laughing while eating
D. Bending during meals ✓

52. What action should be taken for a patient suffering from heat exhaustion?
A. Moved to a cool room and told to lie down ✓
B. Kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously.
C. Given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of rest.
53. How will you open the casualty’s airway?
A. Head lift / chin tilt
B. Head tilt / chin lift ✓
C. Head tilt / open the mouth
D. Chin lift / open the mouth
54. Who will call the local emergency number?
A. First person
B. Second person ✓
C. Casualty
D. No need to inform the local emergency.
55. Anaphylaxis is treated with
A. Analgesic tablet
B. A tablet under the tongue
C. An epinephrine injection of adrenaline ✓
D. An injection of insulin

56. Which of the following conditions is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock:

A. Slow deep breathing ✓
B. Pale and cold skin
C. Weak and rapid pulse
D. Restlessness and anxiety

57. What treatment does a victim whose life threatening condition is “Not Breathing” need?
A. The Heimlich Maneuver, two rescue breaths and CPR
B. Start CPR Immediately
C. Twelve to fifteen rescue breaths per minute and correct CPR
D. You should follow the steps for rescue breathing. ✓
58. After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent
shock?
 A. Slightly elevate the head and feet
B. Keep the person awake
C. Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature. ✓
D. Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow.
59. First aid means:
A. Providing CPR to a person in distress.
B. The treatment of broken bones
C. Immediate and temporary basic medical care to an ill or injured person. ✓
60. Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of:
A. Cooling, removing to shaded area and lying down ✓
B. Bathing with rubbing alcohol
C. Drinking ice water
61. If a person is experiencing heavy bleeding, you should?
A. Apply pressure and elevate the wound to slow blood flow ✓
B. Attempt to burn the wound to stop bleeding
C. Clean and rinse the wound
D. Remove bandages and wraps.
62. A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the
pulse at the ______.
A. Carotid artery in the neck ✓
B. Femoral artery in the groin
C. Brachial artery in the arm
D. Radial artery in the wrist
63. Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive ______________.
A. Loss of body temperature
B. Loss of water and salt from the body ✓
C. Gain in body temperature
D. Intake of water when working or exercising.
64. Heat stroke affects the body’s vital organs except:
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Kidney
D. Bones ✓
65. Acute breathing difficulty can occur following all below except:
A. Electric shocks
B. Drowning
C. Lumbar spinal injuries ✓
D. Allergic reactions
66. Which statement about a simple sling is true?
A. The part of the sling against the chest goes over the shoulder on the injured arm.
B. The pigtail protects the neck from injury from the sling.
C. The injured hand should be 4 to 6 inches higher than the elbow.
D. The part of the sling furthest away from the chest passes over the shoulder on the
injured arm. ✓
67. The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by ______________.
A. Direct pressure on the wound. ✓
B. Elevating the wounded area
C. Pressure on a pressure point.
D. A tourniquet above the wound.
68. What is the most severe type of burn?
A. 1st Degree burn
B. 2nd Degree burn
C. 3rd Degree burn ✓

69. Water pulls heat from the body at what rate?

A. 10 times faster than air
B. 20 times faster than air
C. 30 times faster than air
D. 25 times faster than air ✓
70. At which method heat is lost by sweating?
A. Evaporation ✓
 B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Convection
71. What is the meaning of hypo?
A. High
B. Medium
C. Low ✓
D. Normal
72. If you are stranded in extreme cold weather, where should you stay?
A. In an ice shelter
B. In the car ✓
C. Outside by a fire
73. What is the percentage of heat lost from your head?
A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 50% ✓
D. 15%
74. Incorrect treatment may result in a condition known as __________________.
A. The bends
B. After drop ✓
C. Restore circulation.
75. Humans are ____________
A. Cold animals
B. Warm animals ✓
C. Adapt both warm and cold.
76. How much percentage increase in your survival time in the sea if you are in huddle position?
A. 20
B. 50 ✓
C. 60
D. 75
77. What is the normal percentage of salt content contained in bodily fluids?
A. 2%
B. 3.50%
C. 0.90% ✓
D. 1%
78. What symptom indicates a patient needs emergency care for hypothermia?
A. Stumbling
B. Blueness of skin
C. Disorientation
D. Poor coordination ✓
79. What is the normal temperature of human body?
A. 96.6 degree Fahrenheit
B. 97.6 degree Fahrenheit
C. 98.6 degree Fahrenheit ✓
D. 99.6 degree Fahrenheit

80. How many breaths is essential per cycle for infants in CPR
A. 1 ✓
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
81. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?
A. Keep the patient warm but not hot.
B. Have the injured person lie down
C. Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation. ✓
D. Relieve the pain of the injury.
82. The ratio of compression and breath for infant is
A. 30:02
B. 15:02
C. 15:01
D. 5:01 ✓
83. Which is the following correctly describes the CPR technique for an adult:
A. Four cycles of 15 compressions followed by 1 breath each minute.
B. One cycle of 1 breath and 10 compressions each 2 to 3 inches deep per minute.
C. Twelve cycles of one breath and 5 compressions per minute
D. Four cycles of 2 breaths and 15 compressions per minute. ✓
84. What is the cause of cramps?
A. Over exertion
B. Lactic acid build up due to inadequate oxygen or lack of water ✓
C. Lack of sleep
85. The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called ___________.
A. Evaluation
B. Triage ✓
C. Surveying
D. Prioritizing
86. Which one is the first step in chest compression for infants
A. Place the middle and index fingers on the breast bone. ✓
B. Place the index and small fingers on the breast bone.
C. Place the heel of one hand on the sternum and the heel of the other on top
D. Place the heel of one hand on the ribs and the heel of the other is near the first hand.
87. What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye?
A. Apply an ice pack to the eye.
B. Keep the eyelid closed.
C. Flush the eye with plenty of water. ✓
D. Rub the eye area clean.
88. Airway obstruction defines as
A. Failure of air entered the lungs
B. Failure to breath
C. Block in the passage of air to the lungs ✓
D. Breath holding.
89. How long should a person remain still after being removed from cold water?
A. 30 min ✓ B. 1 hour C. 15 min
90. Which of the following precautions should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with
dry lime?
A. Water should be applied in a fine spray.
B. The burned area should be immersed in water.
C. The entire burn area should be covered with ointment.
D. Before washing with water, the lime should be brushed away gently and removed
from skin contact. ✓
91. First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns, especially
A. Flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical attention ashore
or by radio. ✓
B. Wiping the affected area with a clean dry cloth and resting quietly for several hours.
C. Drying the acid or alkali with a rag followed by applying a light cream.
D. All of the above may be acceptable treatments depending on the severity of the burn.
92. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring,
his first step is to ___________.
A. Flush water over any burned area of the patient.
B. Apply ointment to the burned areas on the patient.
C. Shut down electrical power in the area. ✓
D. Remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment or wiring.

93. What is one of the critical non-thermal problems that occur when adrift at sea?
A. Motion sickness
B. Sunburn
C. Dehydration ✓
D. Salt water ulcers
94. Which method is the direct transfer of heat to the environment?
A. Evaporation
B. Conduction
C. Radiation ✓
D. Convection
95. What reason does hypothermia occur?
A. Slim and weak persons who have inadequate body fat and where insulation to
cold is poor ✓
B. The person did not eat enough.
C. The person put on too many layers of clothing.
96. What is hypothermia?
A. Low body temperature ✓
B. High body temperature
C. Low body acid level
D. High body acid level.
97. Which of the following is not a sign of hypothermia?
A. Confusion
B. Coma
C. Fumbling hands
D. Sweating ✓
98. The body expends most of the energy we consume doing what?
A. Digesting food
B. Keeping blood flowing to our extremities
C. Maintaining our core temperature ✓
D. Breathing
99. What is the first thing to do for a hypothermia victim?
A. Check body temperature.
B. Cover the victim with a blanket.
C. Move the victim to a warmer environment.
D. Check the pulse and see if the victim is breathing. ✓
100. At what stage of immersion does the falling body temperature become a primary hazard?
A. Initial immersion
B. Short term immersion
C. Long term immersion ✓
D. Post immersion
101. What are the common survival technique except?
A. Down proofing
B. Treading water
C. Swimming fast ✓
D. H.E.L.P. position
102. Hypothermia occurs when a persons body temperature drops below:
A. 95 degrees F ✓
B. 70 degrees F
C. 85 degrees F
D. 99 degrees F
103. Which of the following would come first?
A. Removing wet clothing ✓
B. Wrapping the victim in a warm blanket
C. Placing heat packs on the victim’s pulse points
104. Which of the following is a symptom of hypothermia?
A. Inflammation
B. Jitters
C. Loss of coordination ✓
D. Throwing up.
105. At what temperature does hypothermia become life threating?
A. 95
B. 93
C. 90 ✓
D. 91
106. Goose bumps is roughness of the skin caused by
A. Erection of skin in response to cold or water
B. Erection of papillae in response to cold or water ✓
C. Erection of subcutaneous tissue in response to cold or water
D. erection of muscle in response to cold or water.
107. At what temperature does shivering stop?
A. 93-90
 B. 90-86 ✓
C. 86-82
D. 82-78
108. Symptoms of hypothermia except
A. Stumbling
B. Amnesia
C. Anemia ✓
D. Hallucination
109. At what temperature(degree F) does hypothermia occur?
A. 98.6
B. 90
C. 93
D. 95 ✓
110. What is the distance can swim a normal swimmer?
A. 8 miles
B. 1 mile
C. 100 yard
D. 100 yards ✓
111. Unconscious and death occur at temperature of
A. 90-86
B. 86-90
C. 86-82
D. 82-78 ✓
112. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately ______________.
A. Apply ointment to the burned area.
B. Flood the affected area with water. ✓
C. Wrap the burn with sterile dressing.
D. Apply an ice pack to the burned area.
113. Which of the following signs may go away as the hypothermia worsens?
A. Slurred speech
B. Confusion
C. Shivering ✓
D. Unconsciousness

114. Signs observed in hypothermia

A. Slowing of pace
B. Stumbling
C. Thinness of speech ✓
D. Drowsiness

115. How far have some good swimmers been able to swim before being overcome by hypothermia?
A. 1 mile
B. .5 miles
C. 2.5 miles
D. .8 miles ✓

116. What is the time duration for raising head from sea in down proofing technique?
A. 5-7 seconds
B. 5-7 minutes
C. 10-15 minutes
D. 10-15 seconds ✓
117. What is the first thing you should do for a hypothermic person?
A. Check breath. ✓
B. Check pulse.
C. Check heartbeat.
118. What is the projected survival time if you are treading water?
A. 4 hours B. 1.5 hours C. 2.75 hours D. 2 hours ✓
119. Poisoning can occur by the following except:
A. Injection
B. Inhalation
C. Infection ✓
 D. Ingestion
120. Where should be place your fist on the casualty in the CPR
A. Right side Ribs
B. Left side Ribs.
C. Middle of the sternum ✓
D. Lower of the sternum
121. CPR consists of
A. Two full breaths and 10 pushes
B. Four full breaths and 20 pushes
C. Two full breaths and 30 pushes ✓
D. Four full breaths and 30 pushes
122. What is the essential part of life support for people with respiratory arrest?
A. Providing breaths
B. Recirculating the blood in their body ✓
C. Defibrillation
123. What do you use to give CPR to an infant or child?
A. Hand
B. Palm
C. Middle and Index finger ✓
124. How will you give rescue breath to casualty?
A. Mouth to Mouth and nose respiration.
B. Mouth to nose respiration.
C. Mouth to Mouth respiration. ✓
125. Physical data on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) which describes chemicals that produce
health effects requiring medical attention where damage may be permanent but is neither life-
threatening nor seriously disabling, is called _______________.
A. Moderate exposure level
B. High toxicity
C. High exposure level
D. Moderate toxicity ✓
126. In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim
A. Start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water.
B. Drain water from the lungs before ventilating.
C. Begin mouth to mouth ventilations. ✓
D. Do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting.
127. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent
that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
A. Raise the victim’s head higher than his feet.
B. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
C. Re-tip the head and try again. ✓
D. Press on the victim’s lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction.

128. Which of the following statements is true concerning the actions of a properly organized rescue
party for removing an unconscious victim from a tank containing toxic vapours?
A. The victim should not be moved until the extent of his injuries is determined.
B. The victim should be fitted with a canister type OBA as soon as possible.
C. The rescue party should provide the victim with oxygen or fresh air immediately. ✓
D. The tank vapors should be tested with a explosimeter before personnel enter.
129. What do you use to give CPR to an infant or child?
A. Hand
B. Palm
C. Middle and Index finger ✓
130. Heimlich Maneuver is used for
A. Partial airway obstructions
B. Complete Airway obstruction ✓
C. Chronic bronchial asthma
D. Acute bronchial asthma
131. Atmospheric air contains
A. 16% of oxygen
B. 18% of oxygen
C. 21% of oxygen ✓
 D. 26% of oxygen
132. Before CPR is started, you should __________.
A. Establish an open airway.
B. Treat any bleeding wounds.
C. Ensure the victim is conscious or unconscious ✓
D. Make the victim comfortable.
133. Green stick fracture is:
A. Fracture that happens on a twig
B. Fracture that is hardly noticed
C. Fracture in children. ✓
D. An irreparable fracture.
134. When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, the most important symptom to check for
is:
A. Suspension of breathing ✓
B. Unconsciousness
C. Slow and weak pulse
D. Cold and moist skin
135. What will you do if the patient is choking?
A. Chest thrusts
B. Abdominal thrusts ✓
C. Intubation
136. When performing abdominal thrusts on a patient who has a completely blocked airway, where
should you position yourself?
A. On their side
B. Straddle their thighs. ✓
C. On their back
137. When providing Rescue breathing a breath should be given every _____________?
A. 1 second
B. 5 seconds ✓
C. 10 seconds
D. 30 seconds
138. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in someone who is unconscious?
A. Food
B. Drinking
C. Tongue ✓
139. In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim:
A. Start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water.
B. Drain water from the lungs before ventilating.
C. Begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations. ✓
D. Do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting.
140. BLS is
A. Basic life science.
B. Bend lean and support.
C. Basic life support. ✓
D. Basic living support.
141. The MOST important element in administering CPR is:
A. Having the proper equipment for the process.
B. Starting the treatment quickly.
C. Administering of oxygen. ✓
D. Treating for traumatic shock.
142. When performing abdominal thrusts how many thrusts do you do?
A. 1 to 5 thrusts
B. 6 to 10 thrusts ✓
C. 15 to 20 thrusts
D. 30 to 40 thrusts
143. Leaking or damaged packages under IMDG code, are to be
A. Accepted
B. Destroyed
C. Rejected ✓
D. Accepted with conditions.
144. When do you stop CPR?
 A. After 5 minutes
B. When tired
C. After 10 minutes
D. Until they start breathing or relived by someone ✓
145. Heimlich maneuver is used for
A. Burns
B. Battlefield injuries.
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Choking ✓
146. While working with IMDG cargo, the falg to be displayed on board is
A. Alpha
B. Bravo ✓
C. Charlie
D. Delta
147. How many compressions should be given per cycle?
A. 25
B. 35
C. 30 ✓
D. 20
148. How long should you check the pulse on a person?
A. 5-10 seconds ✓
B. 30 seconds
C. 1 min
D. Until found.

149. If a person is choking, you should do nothing as long as :

A. They are coughing. ✓
B. They are still conscious.
C. Their face has not turned blue.

150. In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, which of the following treatments
would you AVOID using?
A. Giving stimulants ✓
B. Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating atmosphere.
C. Determine the need for and administer CPR if appropriate.
D. Keeping him warm and comfortable.

151. The accepted treatment for a sprained ankle is:

A. Remove the shoe and check for swelling using the capillary reflex method.
B. Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold
towels. ✓
C. Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle splint and apply heat if possible.
D. Have the victim walk or move as soon as possible to prevent stiffness.
152. Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm
soapy water or warm salt water to ______________.
A. Induce vomiting. ✓
B. Absorb the poison from the blood.
C. Neutralize the poison in the blood.
D. Increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison.
153. Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how
long is it normally possible to survive without water?
A. Up to 3 days
B. 8 to 12 days ✓
C. 15 to 20 days
D. 25 to 30 days
154. Phalanges making up the fingers are composed of
A. 12 bones
B. 13 bones
C. 14 bones ✓
D. 15 bones
155. Where are the lumber vertebrae found
 A. Comprise 2 bones that comes after the thoracic vertebrae
B. Comprise 3 bones that comes after the thoracic vertebrae
C. Comprise 4 bones that comes after the thoracic vertebrae
D. Comprise 5 bones that comes after the thoracic vertebrae ✓
156. When contraction occurs blood passes through
A. Capillaries
B. Arterioles
C. Veins
D. Aortic valve ✓
157. The sideways movement of the trunk at the waist is called
A. Lateral flexion ✓
B. Abduction
C. Gliding movement
D. Angular movement
158. In the relationship of parts of the body to each other, Superior means:
A. In back of
B. Towards the feet
C. In front of
D. Towards the head end or above ✓
159. The immune system fight against
A. Destroying of healthy cells
B. Internal changes in cells ✓
C. Introducing infected cells
D. Infective organisms
160. How to treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion you should
A. Administer artificial respiration
B. Put him in a tab of ice water
C. Give him sips of cold water ✓
D. Cover him with a light cloth.
161. If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing you should
A. Immediately give a stimulant by force if necessary
B. Make the victim comfortable in a bunk
C. Immediately start CPR ✓
D. Administer oxygen

162. BLS is what are the infectious fluid that transmit the HIV infections in human body except
A. Bood
B. Sweat ✓
C. Semen
D. Vaginal secretion
163. The emergency responder is one link in
A. Emergency Medical Services system (EMS)
164. During 2 rescuer CPR on an adult how many cycles of CPR do u perform before switching roles?
A. 5 cycles
165. Splint an injury to a muscle, bone, or joint only when
A. You have to move or transport the victim
B. You can do so without hurting the victim
C. Both A & B
166. Lividity refers to
A. Settling of blood in the body due to gravity
167. If a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries is correctly being
administered first aid
A. The person should not be moved, but made comfortable until medical assistance
arrives
168. An industrial worker sustains a severe laceration to his forearm. Direct pressure to the wound
fails to control the bleeding. The correct arterial pressure point to control the bleeding is the
A. Brachial
169. Doctor recommend the RICE method for treating sprains. Rest, Ice, Compress and Elevate.

170. A victim of a car accident has just vomited and now appears to be coughing up blood. He is
breathing very quickly and his pulse is weak and fast. What is most likely wrong?
 A. He has internal bleeding
171. If you suspect someone is going into shock, you should not give them
A. Water
172. When performing chest compressions on an adult, we press the chest
A. 4-5 cm
173. Severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal. Chlorine gas is primarily a
A. Respiratory irritant
174. You are caring for a victim with a burned hand. Put the hand in cool water if
A. The burns are minor with no open blisters.
175. In general, a splint should be snug, but not so tight that it slows circulation.
176. Which procedure should not be done for a person who has fainted? Give pain reliever.
177. A victim has lost a lot of blood through a deep cut in his leg. He is breathing fast and seems pale
and restless. He is probably in shock.
178. You suspect that a person has been poisoned. She is conscious. You first call should be to
A. The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number.
179. The best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident is to
A. Keep the victim warm and dry while lying down.
180. What would you do when caring for a seizure victim?
A. Remove nearby objects that might cause injury.
181. How long can a person survive in cold water?
A. 2.5 hours

182. For which of the following burn victims should you immediately call your local emergency phone
number?
A. A 68 year old woman who has blistered grease burn on herb hands and arms.

183. Helicopter use is restricted in wind speed over

A. 50 knots ✓
B. 60 Knots
C. 70 knots
D. 80 knots
184. Too much alcohol can damage the _____ and contribute to some cancers, such as throat and liver
cancer.
A. Kidney
B. Liver ✓
C. Brain
185. People with Anorexia have the fear of
A. Losing weight
B. Gaining weight ✓
C. Maintaining weight
186. Noro virus is a type of virus which affects the
A. Central nervous system
B. Gastro-intestinal system ✓
C. Cardio Vascular system
D. Skin Disease
187. If a known diabetic appears to have missed their lunch and appears confused and vague, what
should you do immediately?
A. Give them a sandwich to eat.
B. Encourage them to take their insulin.
C. Call an ambulance.
D. Give them a sugary drink. ✓
188. A high fiber, low fat diet and regular exercise can help to
A. Increase CVD
B. Increase weight
C. Lose weight ✓
189. A person suffering from hypoglycemia or low blood sugar can be quickly treated by?
A. Making the person rest.
B. Making the person drink water.
C. Providing food with high sugar content such as chocolate, peanut butter or even
plain sugar. ✓
190. Which of the following characteristics has regularly been implicated in the aetiology of eating
disorders.
A. Perfectionism ✓
B. Narcissism
C. Extraversion
D. Introversion
191. Pick one of the following familial factors that plays a role in the development of eating disorders.
A. Parental attitudes to sex
B. Parental obesity ✓
C. Parental attitudes to the media
D. Parental attitudes to education
192. In animal research, lesions to which part of the brain have been shown to cause appetite loss,
resulting in a self-starvation syndrome?
A. Lateral hypothalamus ✓
B. Cerebellum
C. Amygdala
D. Basal ganglia
193. Noro virus can be prevented by the following except
A. Washing hands often
B. Isolating sick person
C. Drinking little amount of water ✓
D. Maintaining strong immune system.
194. Cancer of the cervix in women can be detected by regular Pap smears
A. VAT test
B. Elisa test
C. Pap smears. ✓
195. How much exercise do you really need?
A. 45 minutes twice a week
B. 30 minutes three or four days a week
C. 60 minutes at least three or four days a week
D. 30 minutes at least four or five a week ✓
196. Which of the following is a laboratory procedure developed to provide an objective behavioural
measure of the tendency to binge eat?
A. Palatability test
B. Food pre-load test ✓
C. Full capacity test D. Fully loaded test
197. What percentage of your diet should fat make up?
A. About 10% of your daily calories
B. About 20% of your daily calories
C. About 30% of your daily calories ✓
D. About 40% of your daily calories
198. Which of the following is a common treatment for bulimia?
A. Family therapy
B. Cognitive Behaviour Therapy ✓
C. Psychodynamic therapy
D. Humanistic therapy
199. Anorexia and bulimia are frequently comorbid with major depression, thus eating disorders have
tended to be treated pharmacological with which of the following:
A. Antipsychotics
B. Antibiotics
C. Antihistamine
D. Antidepressants ✓
200. Which of the following is a prominent characteristic of individuals with eating disorders?
A. High self esteem
B. Low self esteem ✓
C. High levels of responsibility
D. Narcissism
201. Body dissatisfaction is associated with triggering bouts of:
A. Purging
B. Binging
C. Dieting ✓
 D. Shopping
202. The four c for stress management are the following except:
A. Courage ✓
B. Control
C. Commitment
D. Community
203. Research of bulimia nervosa has found low levels of:
A. Alpha-dopamine
B. Beta-serotonin
C. Beta-endorphin ✓
D. Alpha-amphetamine
204. Hyperglycaemia is
A. Increased glycine
B. Increased sugar ✓
C. Decreased glycine
D. Decreased sugar

205. What is healthy blood pressure level?

A. 110/70 ✓
B. 125/85
C. 135/90
D. 140/95
206. How often should an adult have a tetanus-diphtheria booster?
A. 5 years
B. 2 years
C. 10 years ✓
D. 15 years
207. Some signs of someone with Bulimia
A. Fears weight gain ✓
B. Goes out to social events frequently
C. Eats high calorie meals
D. Is happy with their body and the way they look

208. Symptoms of sugar diabetes include _______

A. Increased appetite and thirst ✓
B. Decreased appetite and thirst
C. Gain in weight
D. Elevated temperature
209. Noro virus can be prevented by the following except
A. Washing hands often
B. Isolating sick person
C. Drinking little amount of water ✓
D. Maintaining strong immune system
210. In Bulimia nervosa, the non purging sub-type, a behaviour which is used to compensate for
binging is:
A. Exercise
B. Controlling intake of certain types of food
C. Withdrawing from social interaction
D. Controlling carbohydrate intake
211. In restricted type anorexia nervosa, self-starvation is not associated with which of the following?
A. Concurrent purging
B. Socializing
C. Body dysmorphic issues
D. Eating only certain food types
212. Binge eating causes a person to binge eat how many more times a week?
A. 3 more times
B. 2 more times
C. 4 more times
213. In Bulimia Nervosa, the purging sub-type, vomiting is the most common form of purging. What
percentage of sufferers present with this type of purging?
A. 50-60%
 B. 80-90%
C. 15-25%
D. 50-80%
214. When should you have your first colonoscopy to screen for colon cancer?
A. At age 35
B. At age 40
C. At age 45
D. At age 50

215. How often should you have a Pap smear?

A. Once a year after puberty
B. Once a year after either turning 21 or having sexual intercourse for the first time
C. Once a year after age 21 and twice a year after 30
D. Once a year if you’re not in a monogamous relationship
216. In Binge-eating/Purging type anorexia nervosa, self-starvation is associated with:
A. Not eating to help control weight gain
B. Not being bothered about weight gain
C. Regularly engaging in purging activities to help control weight gain
D. Eating only certain food types

217. One of the most common treatments for eating disorders is:
A. Electro-convulsive therapy
B. Medication
C. Family Therapy
D. Aversion Therapy
218. When should most women have their first mammogram?
A. At Age 30
B. At age 35
C. At age 40
D. At age 45

219. Since sunscreen-awareness campaigns began, have skin cancer rates decreased?
A. Yes, fewer people are getting skin cancer
B. No, skin cancer rates and deaths from the disease are on the upswing
C. No, skin cancer is on the rise, but fatalities are down.
D. Skin cancer rates have been stable over the past decade
220. Which of the following is not a good approach to managing stress?
A. Talking directly to the person who is causing the stress
B. Giving yourself a treat, like comfort food or a cocktail.
C. Accepting that there are things beyond your control
D. Trying cognitive-behavioural therapy to learn new coping skills
221. Maintaining healthy and hygienic working conditions on board ships is difficult due to the
following except:
A. Lack of immediate specialized medical facilities on board.
B. Non-Availability of immediate medical help at sea
C. Unlimited manpower and availability of replacement
D. Risk of spread of infections and within confined space
222. Mother to baby transmission occurs through all except:
A. Long before delivery
B. Just before delivery
C. During childbirth
D. Through breast milk
223. The only way to stop the spread of HIV infection is through:
A. Regular treatment of infected persons
B. Isolation of infected persons
C. Prevention
D. Avoiding direct contact with infected persons
224. The acute period lasts for _____ weeks after initial infection
A. 0-4 weeks
B. 2-6 weeks
C. 6-12 weeks
 D. 12-16 weeks
225. ELISA is a test to screen for:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. HIV antibodies
226. HIV virus can replicate itself inside:
A. Human cells
B. Mosquito cells
C. Monkey cells
D. Pig cells
227. Does HIV only affect gay people?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only gay men
D. Only gay women
228. During AIDS people may develop the following symptoms except:
A. Diarrhoea
B. Constipation
C. Unexpected weight loss
D. Joint and muscle pain
229. Once the virus entered the cells it leaves behind
A. The capsid
B. Lipid membrane
C. The envelop
D. Matrix protein

230. Acute infection in HIV may present as:

A. Diarrhoea
B. Vomiting
C. Swollen lymph glands
D. Swelling of the feet
231. Health promotion and disease prevention should be emphasised in:
A. Medical education
B. Primary education
C. High education
D. College education
232. What is First Line Therapy:
A. The first single drug for HIV treatments
B. The first combination drugs for HIV treatments
C. The second single drug for HIV when the first drug is resistance
D. The second combination drug for HIV when the first drug is resistance.
233. Direct blood contact occurs through all except:
A. Needle sharing
B. Transfusion
C. Sharing of beds
D. Accident in health care settings
234. Clinical latency in HIV infection refers to
A. The number of virus killed by the body
B. The number of viral particles killed by the body
C. Increase the number of viral practical in the blood stream
D. Decrease the number of viral practical in the blood stream
235. What type of treatment can recover the damage that HIV might have caused already?
A. Antiretroviral drug treatments
B. Vaccine therapy
C. Radio therapy
236. What color will appear if the patient serum is positive for HIV antibody in ELISA
A. Yellow
B. White
 C. Purple
D. Green
237. Window period or zero negative period can last for:
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 5 months
D. 6 months
238. HIV /AIDS is not transmitted by:
A. Blood transfusion
B. Organ or tissue transplant
C. Use of contaminated injection
D. Sharing toilets or wasting facilities
239. What are the infectious fluid that transmits the HIV infections in human body except:
A. Blood
B. Sweat
C. Semen
D. Vaginal secretion
240. HIV affects a person’s immune system, which makes them more vulnerable to infections, and can make
them very ill:
A. It makes a person lose weight very suddenly
B. It reduces the body’s core temperature
C. It attacks the immune system.
241. The only way to stop the spread of HIV infection is through:
A. Regular treatment of infected persons
B. Isolation of infected persons
C. Prevention
D. Avoiding direct contact with infected persons
242. The escape of HIV from the immune response can be caused by:
A. Immune system
B. Isotope variation
C. Epitope Variation
D. Immune variation
243. At the beginning of therapy, the first combination of drugs is called:
A. Front line therapy
B. Third line therapy
C. First line therapy
244. The parts of HIV virus include all except:
A. Lipid membrane
B. Matrix
C. Capsid
D. DNA
245. Approximately how many people are infected with HIV worldwide:
A. 20 million
B. 70 million
C. 150 million
D. 60 million
246. At what stage the virus can be found in bloodstream:
A. Window period
B. Acute HIV infection
C. Latent reservoir
D. Onset of disease
247. What’s the difference between HIV and AIDS?
A. HIV is a virus and AIDS is a bacterial disease
B. There is no difference between HIV and AIDS
C. HIV is the virus that causes AIDS
248. Studies in prevention indicate the following policies help except:
A. Practical support
B. Encouragement of prevention effect
C. Counselling and treatment awareness
D. Hospital upgradation
249. What are the non infectious fluid
 A. Vomit
B. Feces
C. Tears
250. What is second line therapy:
A. The first single drug for HIV treatments
B. The first combination drugs for HIV treatments
C. The second single drug for HIV when the first drug is resistance
D. The second combination drug for HIV when the first drug is resistance.
251. Taking two or more antiretroviral drugs at a time is called:
A. Clinical latency
B. Combination therapy
C. Combative therapy
252. Second line therapy is a minimum of how many drugs?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 3
D. 10
253. With the onset of AIDS
A. Skin problems and mouth ulcers reoccur
B. Skin problems cease to occur
C. Mouth ulcers heal rapidly
D. Skin problems occur but mouth ulcers don’t

254. HIV prevention can be made difficult by all except:

A. Physicians’ ambiguity
B. Social ambiguity
C. Language barrier
D. Failure to convince patient
255. Approx how many people are living with HIV worldwide:
A. 33 million
B. 23 million
C. 13 million
256. Once the virus enters the cells it leaves behind:
A. The capsid
B. Lipid membrane
C. The envelop
D. Matrix protein
257. HIV virus enters the penis through the
A. Glans penis
B. Urethra
C. Fore skin
D. Shaft of penis
258. Physicians goal in HIV prevention should be limited to:
A. Helping patient asses their own risks
B. Self counselling and testing
C. Resisting good prevention practice
D. Determine patient disinterest changing behaviour
259. When HIV becomes resistance to their drugs:
A. If only one drug taken
B. If only two drugs taken
C. If more than two drugs taken.
260. How many steps present in HIV life cycle:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
261.