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Question Booklet Sl. No.
Question Booklet Alpha Code
A
A
Total Number of Questions : 100 Time : 90 Minutes
Maximum Marks : 100
INSTruCTIoNS To CANdIdATeS
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A
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Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number
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13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any
kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.
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1. The point at which the stress-strain curve of a material ceases to be a straight line
is called
A) Elastic limit B) limit of proportionality
C) yield point d) Ultimate stress
2. Which of the following statement is/are correct about bending moment ?
A) Bending moment is defined as the algebraic sum of the moments of all the
forces to the left of a section
B) Bending moment is the algebraic sum of the moments of all the forces to the
right of a section
C) Bending moment is defined as the algebraic sum of the moments of all the
forces either to the left or to the right of a section
d) All the above
3. A sunshade is an example of which type of beam ?
A) Simply supported beam B) Fixed beam
C) Continuous beam d) Cantilever beam
4. If l is the unsupported length of the compression member, then the effective length
of compression member effectively held in position at both ends, but not restrained
against rotation is
A) 0.65 l B) 0.8 l C) l d) 2 l
5. If M is the bending moment and EI is the flexural rigidity of a beam, then the strain
energy due to bending is given by the equation
l l
l
m2 dx
l
m2 dx m2 dx 2m2 dx
A) ∫ 2EI
B) ∫ EI
C) ∫ 4EI d) ∫ EI
0 0 0 0
6. The degree of indeterminacy of a propped cantilever beam subjected to inclined
external loading is equal to
A) 1 B) 2 C) 0 d) 3
7. The influence line diagrams can be used for determining
A) dead load on the structure
B) live load on the structure
C) Positions of loads for maximum shear force and bending moment values
d) None of the above
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8. Following assumptions are made while developing slope deflection method of analysis
of a structure
A) All joints are rigid
B) Shear deformations are neglected
C) distortions due to axial deformations are neglected
d) All
9. In the moment distribution method of analysis, the ratio of the moment shared by a
member to the applied moment at the joint is called
A) distribution factor of that member B) Stiffness of the beam
C) Relative stiffness of the beam d) Carry over factor
10. An example of a statically determinate structure is
A) Three hinged arch B) Two hinged arch
C) Single hinged arch d) Fixed arch
11. In vortex motion in which the fluid particles travel along circular path, the magnitude
of the velocity of the fluid particle is found to be
A) Constant along the circular path
B) Varying along the circular path
C) Varying in a direction perpendicular to circular path
d) Zero
12. In the case of a fluid flowing under constant head H through a circular orifice fixed
in the side wall of a large container, the coefficient of velocity Cv
A) Varies from 0.95 to 0.98 B) Slightly smaller than unity
C) Slightly larger than unity d) Unity
13. Which of the following statement is/are correct about reaction turbines ?
A) Water enters the turbine under pressure hence it has pressure energy and
kinetic energy
B) In axial flow turbines, the flow is parallel to the axis of the wheel
C) Both A) and B)
d) None
14. Centrifugal pumps are classified into volute pumps and diffuser pumps based on
A) Position of shaft B) Type of casing
C) Number of stages d) Suction
A -4-
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15. In the case of floating bodies, the condition of stable equilibrium is obtained when
the metacentre
A) lies above centre of gravity and centre of buoyancy
B) lies below centre of gravity and lies above centre of buoyancy
C) Coincides with centre of buoyancy
d) Coincides with centre of gravity
16. A Hydrograph represents
A) Graphical plot of a stream discharge against the corresponding percent of time
the discharge was exceeded
B) Cumulative flow volume versus time curve
C) Temporal variation of total runoff at a gauging point in a stream
d) None
17. Infiltration property of a soil depends on
A) Soil properties
B) Initial soil moisture content
C) Previous wetting history
d) All
18. Well yield per unit drawdown in the well is known as the
A) Specific yield B) Specific retention
C) Specific capacity D) Cone of depression
19. Applications of hydraulic jump include
A) Dissipation of energy of flow downstream of hydraulic structures
B) The maintenance of high water levels in channels
C) The mixing of chemicals for water purification
d) All
20. If the coefficient of variation of the annual rainfall for a region is found to be 15,
then it is
A) Region of high rainfall
B) Region of scanty rainfall
C) Snowy region
d) None
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21. An example of a level surface is
A) Top surface of a dining table B) Floor surface of a building
C) Still water surface of a lake d) Surface of a piece of plywood
22. When the contour lines having the same contour interval are farther apart, it shows a
A) Gentle slope B) Very steep slope
C) Plane surface d) Ridge or a valley
23. If three consecutive ordinates are taken at 2 m intervals from a traverse line and
measured as 1.8 m, 2.5 m and 2.0 m, then the area between the traverse line, the
first and last ordinates and the boundary, by trapezoidal rule, is
2
A) 21.6 m B) 17.6 m2 C) 8.8 m2 d) 7.6 m2
24. The error in the horizontal circle readings due to the line of collimation not being
perpendicular to the trunnion axis is eliminated by
A) Taking readings on the different parts of the horizontal circle
B) Taking readings on both the faces
C) Removing the parallax
d) Transiting the telescope
25. modern Electronic distance measuring instruments work on the principle of
measuring
A) Reflected energy generated by electromagnetic waves
B) Total time taken by electromagnetic wave in travelling the distance
C) Change in frequency of the electromagnetic waves
D) Phase difference between the transmitted and the reflected electromagnetic
waves
26. The global positioning system operated by the US department of defence uses
A) 6 satellites B) 12 satellites C) 18 satellites d) 24 satellites
27. How many modular bricks of size 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm are required for
100 cubic metre of masonry wall ?
A) 5000 B) 50000 C) 500 d) 1000
28. What percentage of the estimated cost of building works is assumed for sanitary and
water supply works in the estimate of a building ?
A) 8% B) 10% C) 7% d) 5%
A -6-
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29. If l is the length of the reinforcing bar and d is the diameter, the total length of straight
bar hooked at both the ends is
A) l + 9 d B) l + 12 d C) l + 18 d d) l + 6 d
30. A construction equipment was purchased for Rs. 2,00,000. If the useful life is
estimated as 5 years, find the percentage of average annual cost of the equipment
to the original cost assuming no scrap value.
A) 60 B) 50 C) 20 d) 40
31. Permissible moisture content in timber doors of thickness 50 mm and above, in Zone IV is
A) 12% B) 16% C) 14% d) 20%
32. maximum cement content for conventional Reinforced Cement concrete is
3
A) 300 kg/m B) 360 kg/m3 C) 450 kg/m3 d) 500 kg/m3
33. If the fineness modulus of a sample of fine aggregates is 4.3, the mean size of
particles in the sample is between
A) 1.18 mm and 2.36 mm B) 2.36 mm and 4.75 mm
C) 0.30 mm and 0.60 mm d) 0.15 mm and 0.30 mm
34. Which test is used to study the resistance of aggregates to weathering action ?
A) Crushing test B) Abrasion test
C) Soundness test d) Impact test
35. minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete structures constructed
along the seacoast
A) m30 B) m20 C) m40 d) m25
36. For mix design of m25 concrete, the standard deviation assumed as per
IS 10262-2019 is
A) 3.5 B) 4.0 C) 4.5 d) 5.0
37. As per IS guidelines, for under-water concreting, the water-cement ratio shall not
exceed
A) 0.60 B) 0.50 C) 0.45 d) 0.40
A -7-
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38. The lower half portion of an arch between the crown and the skewback is known as
A) Spandril B) Arcade C) Ring d) Haunch
39. Which of the following type of door can allow air circulation and privacy even when
it is closed ?
A) Part panelled, part glazed door B) Flush door
C) louvered door d) Wire gauge door
40. Floor Area Ratio (F.A.R.) is defined as
A) The ratio of floor area inclusive of all the floors to the area of plot on which
building stands
B) The ratio of open spaces to the area of plot on which building stands
C) The ratio of total area of the location to the area of plot on which building
stands
d) The area of plot on which building stands
41. Which arrangement is used for preventing the slip of earth in foundation trenches
when excavation is carried out in moderately firm ground and the depth of excavation
does not exceed 2 m ?
A) Stay bracing B) Box sheeting
C) Sheet piling d) Vertical sheeting
42. As per IS 4591-2002, the rated speed of the escalator shall not be more than
A) 40 metres per minute B) 24 metres per minute
C) 38 metres per minute d) 30 metres per minute
43. Which of the following concept is usually adopted for seismic strengthening of
structural elements ?
A) Weak column, strong beam B) Strong column, strong beam
C) Strong column, weak beam d) Weak column, weak beam
44. Which of the following non-destructive test follows the principle of analysis of the
noises created when materials deform or fracture ?
A) Acoustic emission technique
B) Rebound hammer test
C) Ultrasonic pulse velocity test
d) Windsor probe test
A -8-
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45. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence
follow
A) Normal distribution curve
B) Poisson’s distribution curve
C) Rayleigh distribution curve
d) Beta distribution curve
46. In an activity, if the latest start time is 28 days and the earliest start time is 18 days,
then the total float shall be
A) 46 days B) 10 days C) 9 days d) 5 days
47. Quality control cost estimated as
A) Prevention cost + Appraisal cost
B) Failure cost + Prevention cost
C) Prevention cost + Internal failure cost
d) Internal failure cost + External failure cost
48. What shall be the minimum distance of a powerline from any component of scaffold ?
A) 1.5 m B) 2.5 m
C) 3 m d) 4 m
49. As per IS 13920-2016, minimum dimension of a column shall be
A) 300 mm B) 200 mm
C) 250 mm d) 400 mm
50. Which of the following statements is correct, in the context of acceptance criteria of
concrete specified in IS 456-2000 ?
Statement 1 : If the strength of three cubes tested at 28 days is 21, 24 and 23 mPa,
the concrete can be considered as acceptable as m20 grade concrete.
Statement 2 : If the strength of three cubes tested at 28 days is 21, 24 and 23 mPa,
the concrete can be considered as acceptable as m25 grade concrete.
A) Both statements are true
B) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
C) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
d) Both statements are false
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51. For a town with population 40,000, the average daily demand is 200 litres/capita/day
and five demand is 4000 litres/minute. The peak demand is
A) 27.36 million litres/day B) 20.16 million litres/day
C) 21.60 million litres/day d) 37.92 million litres/day
52. Rotary pumps are classified under
A) Impulse pumps B) displacement pumps
C) Reciprocating pumps d) Centrifugal pumps
53. A centrifugal pump is required to lift 1.5 cubic metres of water per second to a height
of 7 metres. If total losses in the pipes is 0.5 metres, the minimum HP of the driving
engine to run the pump is (Assume efficiency 60%)
A) 300 HP B) 200 HP C) 250 HP d) 150 HP
54. A continuous flow settling tank has the following parameters :
length of settling zone = l
depth of water in settling zone = H
Horizontal velocity of flow of water = V
Settling velocity of particle = Vs
The condition for a particle to enter the sludge zone is
l H l H l H l H
A) > B) < C) > d) <
V VS V VS VS V VS V
55. The coagulant which can be used for treating water to be used in boilers is
A) Ferric chloride B) Alum C) Ferric sulphate d) Sodium aluminate
56. The proportionate depth for a sewer of diameter ‘d’ running partially full at depth ‘d’
and having ‘α’ as central angle in degrees is
A)
1
2
(1 − sin α )
2
B)
1
2
(
1 − sec α
2 ) C)
1
2
(
1 − tan α
2 ) d)
1
2
(
1 − cos α
2 )
57. 25 ml of sewage is diluted to 250 ml. dO concentration of diluted sample at the
beginning of BOd test was 8 mg/l and 6 mg/l after 5 days incubation at 20°C. The
corresponding dO values for the dilution water were 8.2 mg/l and 8 mg/l. The BOd
of the sewage is
A) 18.2 mg/l B) 20 mg/l C) 182 mg/l d) 200 mg/l
58. dumping is avoided as a disposal method when screenings are from
A) medium and coarse screens B) Coarse screens
C) Screens with shredders d) medium and fine screens
59. A circular trickling filter is treating 5 Million litres of sewage per day. The BOd is
100 mg/l. The organic loading rate is 1000 kg/hectare metre/day. The hydraulic
loading rate is 25 Million litres/hectare/day. The effective depth of filter is
A) 2 m B) 2.5 m C) 1.5 m d) 2.2 m
60. Highly stable atmosphere occurs when lapse rate is
A) isothermal B) normal C) adiabatic d) negative
A -10-
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61. The recommended value of maximum water cement ratio for concrete using 20 mm
nominal maximum size aggregates subjected to extreme exposure is
A) 0.45 B) 0.4 C) 0.5 d) 0.55
62. In limit State method, which of the following statements is correct ?
A) Permissible strain have an upper limit for concrete and strain variation across
the cross section is linear
B) Stress variation across the section of concrete is linear and the maximum
stress value is limited
C) Stress variation across the section of concrete is linear and the maximum
strain value is limited
d) None of the above
63. The bending moment corresponding to the first cracking for a simply supported plain
concrete beam of 200 mm wide and 300 mm deep, subjected to two equally spaced
point loads given that the grade of concrete is m25
A) 10.5 kNm B) 12 kNm C) 21 kNm d) 5.25 kNm
64. Thickness of slab is 70 mm. The maximum dia. of reinforcement that can be used is
A) 8 mm B) 10 mm C) 12 mm d) 16 mm
65. The long term static modulus of elasticity of concrete is
A) more than short term modulus of elasticity
B) may be more or less than short term modulus depending on the strength of
concrete
C) long term modulus can be as low as “1/2.6” of short term static modulus of
elasticity
d) None of the above
66. For a simply supported beam of span 11 m, the minimum effective depth required
assuming tension and compression modification factors as 1.0 and 1.1 is
A) 550 mm B) 600 mm C) 650 mm d) 700 mm
67. For beams with Fe 500 steel Xumax/d and mulimit are given by
2
A) 0.53 and 0.148 fckbd B) 0.48 and 0.148 fckbd2
C) 0.46 and 0.138 fckbd2 d) 0.46 and 0.133 fckbd2
68. The development length in compression for high yield strength deformed bars is given
φσ s
by l d = terms have the usual significance and “k” is a constant. The value of
kτbd
“k” is
A) 3.2 B) 6.4 C) 8 d) 5
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69. The minimum effective length ratio-effective length/unsupported length-to be
considered for sway columns is
A) 1.0 B) 1.2 C) 1.4 d) 2
70. A column of size 400 mm×400 m have 4 nos of 25 mm bars and 4 nos of 12 mm
bars. The size and spacing of lateral ties recommended is
A) 6 mm @ 300 mm c/c B) 8 mm @ 190 mm c/c
C) 8 mm @ 300 mm c/c d) 10 @ 300 mm c/c
71. Ideal location of lapping of reinforcement if required for a beam supported at ends is
A) For top bars-near to centre of span and for bottom bars-near supports
B) Top bars-near supports, bottom bars-near centre
C) lapping of reinforcement can be done anywhere, provided there is no
congestion
d) Top and bottom bars-near to beam supports
72. The maximum width of surface cracks as per IS 3370 Part II shall not exceed
A) 0.1 mm B) 0.15 mm C) 0.2 mm d) 0.3 mm
73. The two way shear stress in the case of a square isolated footing having size of side
“a” and supporting a square column having side “b” and when effective depth “d” and
uniform soil pressure “S” is obtained as
2 2
A) S(a – (b+d) )/4(b+d)d
2 2
B) S(a – b )/8(b+d)d
2 2
C) S(a – (b+d) )/16(b+d)d
2 2
d) S(a – b )
74. The statement “fillet welds of size closer to the minimum size of weld are preferred
as it is more economical” is
A) True
B) False-Bigger size fillets are better
C) Weld size is dependent on site conditions
d) No such preferences
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75. The shear capacity of bolts is reduced
I) When total thickness of connected plates exceeds 5 times the nominal
diameter of bolts.
II) When packing plates are more than 6 mm thick.
A) Both the above statements are true as bolts are subjected to bending
B) Only the second statement is correct
C) Shear capacity of bolt is evaluated without considering the above factors
D) Only the first statement is correct
76. An unequal angle is connected using one leg and used as a tension member. Which
leg is to be connected ?
A) long leg to be connected
B) Short leg to be connected as it is more efficient to take care of shear lag effects
C) Which leg is connected is immaterial
d) depending upon the type of connection like welding or bolting, the connected
leg to be selected
77. A simply supported concrete beam of effective span 8 m is given a parabolic tendon
profile for load balancing. If the gravity load applied is 20 kN/m and prestressing force
is 1600 kN, the central dip of cable profile is
A) 0.1 m B) 0.2 m C) 0.3 m d) 0.15 m
78. The final deflection due to all loads including the effects of temperature, creep and
shrinkage and measured from the as-cast level of the supports of floors, roofs and
all other horizontal members, should not normally exceed span/X where X is
A) 300 B) 350 C) 250 d) 400
79. The unfactored dead-20 kN/m, live 15 kN/m and wind 10 kN/m loads are available
for a beam design. The design load for limit state design is
A) 52.5 kN/m B) 54 kN/m C) 45 kN/m d) 33 kN/m
80. The maximum effective slenderness ratio for a member subjected to compressive forces
resulting only from combination of wind or earthquake actions, such that the deformation
of such member does not adversely affect stresses in any part of structure is
A) 300 B) 250 C) 180 d) 350
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81. A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 60 and plastic limit of 20. As per the plasticity
chart the soil is
A) ml B) CH C) Cl d) mI
82. A clay sample of 10 mm thick requires 10 minutes for 50% consolidation. What will be
the time required for 50% consolidation if the thickness of clay layer is 1 m at site ?
3
A) 10 minutes B) 102 minutes C) 105 minutes d) 106 minutes
83. Permeability of soil is directly proportional to
2
A) e B) e C) 1/e d) e3
84. What will be the effective stress at a depth of 5 m below a clay layer of saturated
unit weight of 20 kN/m3 ?
2
A) 100 kN/m B) 50 kN/m2 C) 75 kN/m2 d) 25 kN/m2
85. On which type of soil wash boring is not applicable
A) Cohesive soil B) Cohesion less soil
C) Soil with gravel and boulders d) All the above
86. The degree of disturbance of a cohesive sample can be estimated by
A) Recovery ratio B) Void ratio
C) Consolidation ratio d) Over consolidation ratio
87. disturbed samples can generally be used for
A) Consolidation test B) Specific gravity test
C) Permeability test d) Shear strength test
3
88. An unsupported excavation is to be made in clay layer with unit weight of 20 kN/m
2
and C = 40 kN/m . The depth of tension crack wiII be
A) 8 m B) 2 m C) 4 m d) 6 m
89. For a saturated normally consolidated clay specimen the pore pressure coefficient
B will be
A) 1.0 B) 0.8 C) 0.2 d) – 0.5
90. The ratio of unconfined compressive strength of an undisturbed sample of soil to
that of a remoulded sample, at the same water content is known as
A) Activity B) damping C) Plasticity d) Sensitivity
91. Transition curves are provided in highways to
A) Introduce super elevation gradually
B) Introduce extra widening gradually
C) Improve design speed on horizontal curves
d) All the above
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92. If a vehicle is moving with a speed of 80 kmph, the absolute minimum sight
distance required if t = 2.5 s and f = 0.36 is
A) 200 m B) 125 m C) 640 m d) 250 m
93. Which type of rail is commonly used in railways ?
A) Bridge rail B) Grooved rail C) Flat bottom rail d) Barlow rail
94. The percentage of voids in a sample of aggregate which is compacted in a
standard manner is known as
A) Index number B) Angularity number
C) Shape number d) Uniformity number
95. If sleeper density is (n + 4) for a broad gauge railway track, what will be the number
of sleepers required for 1 km of railway track, if the length of one rail for a broad
gauge is 13 m ?
A) 1118 B) 1200 C) 1308 d) 1700
96. Recommended land width for expressways is
A) 50-60 m B) 20-30 m C) 30-40 m d) 10-20 m
97. The defined path fixed on an aerodrome established for the aircraft to travel from
one place to another
A) Transient apron B) Runway
C) Taxiway d) None of the above
th
98. The % by weight of the aggregates whose thickness is less than 3/5 of their
mean dimension
A) Angularity Index B) Elongation Index
C) Flakiness Index d) Roundness Index
99. The desire lines in traffic survey is plotted based on which of the following data
A) Classified volume B) Accident
C) Speed and delay d) Origin and destination
100. The standard plate size in a plate bearing test for finding modulus of sub grade
reaction (k) value is
A) 100 cm diameter B) 30 cm diameter
C) 75 cm diameter d) 50 cm diameter
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Space for rough Work
A -16-
