Apr 2024-25
Apr 2024-25
Contributors:
Prachee Mishra
Saket Surya
Atri Prasad Rout
Niranjana S Menon
Nripendra Singh
Shirin Pajnoo
Shrusti Singh
Tushar Chakrabarty
Vaishali Dhariwal
DISCLAIMER: This document is being furnished to you for your information. You may choose to reproduce or redistribute this report for
non-commercial purposes in part or in full to any other person with due acknowledgement of PRS Legislative Research (“PRS”). The
opinions expressed herein are entirely those of the author(s). PRS makes every effort to use reliable and comprehensive information, but
PRS does not represent that the contents of the report are accurate or complete. PRS is an independent, not-for-profit group. This document
has been prepared without regard to the objectives or opinions of those who may receive it.
Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
Table of Contents
Finance………………………………………………………………….....…………………………… 02
Macroeconomic Development…………………………………………………………………..... 02
Finance……………………………………………………………………………………………… 03
Corporate Affairs…………………………………………………………………………………… 09
Commerce and Industry…………………………………………………………………………… 09
Mines…………………………………………………………………………………………...…… 11
Agriculture…………………………………………………………………………………………... 12
Media and Broadcasting…………………………………………………………………………… 14
Infrastructure……………………………………………………………………………………………. 15
Communications and IT……………………………………………………………………………. 15
Electricity………..…………………………………………………………………………………... 16
Petroleum ………………………………………………………………………………….............. 17
Railways……………………………………………………………………………..................... 17
Civil Aviation………………………………………………………………………………………... 17
Road Transport and Highways……………………………………………………………………. 19
Shipping…………………………………………………………………………………................. 19
Development……………………………………………………………………………………………. 21
Education……………………………………………………………………………………………. 21
Skill Development…...…………………………………………………………………….............. 23
Youth Affairs & Sports………………………………………………………............................... 23
Science & Technology…………………………………………………………………................ 23
Health…………………………………………………………………………………………..…… 23
Environment.……………………………………………………………………........................... 24
Rural Development……………………………………………………………………………….. 25
Housing & Urban Affairs………………………………………………………........................... 25
Tribal Affairs………………………………………………………………………………………… 26
Law and Security………………………………………………………………………...................... 27
Home Affairs………………………………………………………………………………............ 27
Law and Justice…………………………………………………………………………............... 28
Minority Affairs…………………………………………………………………………………….... 29
Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
Jan-25
Feb-25
Mar-25
Dec-24
Aug-24
Sep-24
Apr-24
Nov-24
Jul-24
Oct-24
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
India Act, 1955, (iv) Banking Companies credit without the lender’s knowledge. Wilful
(Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, default by a guarantor will be deemed to have
1970, and (v) Banking Companies (Acquisition and occurred if he does not honour the guarantee
Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980.21,22,23,24,25 despite having the ability to do so.
Key features include:
▪ Definition of fortnight for cash reserves: IRDAI released master circular for health
Scheduled banks must maintain a certain level insurance products
of average daily balance with the RBI as cash In May 2024, the Insurance and Regulatory
reserves on a fortnightly basis. A fortnight Development Authority of India (IRDAI) released
was defined as the period from Saturday to the a master circular on health insurance products.27
second following Friday (including both days). The master circular superseded 55 previous
The Bill changed the definition of fortnight to circulars.28 Existing products not in compliance
the period from: (i) first day to fifteenth day of with the circular were to comply by September 30,
each month, or (ii) sixteenth day to the last day 2024. Key features of the master circular include:
of each month.
▪ Types of insurance products offered:
▪ Nomination: The Banking Regulation Act Insurers must offer products to provide a wider
allows single or joint deposit holders to choice to customers. They must cater to: (i)
appoint a nominee. The Bill allows the all ages, (ii) all types of medical conditions,
appointment of up to four nominees. (iii) pre-existing and chronic conditions, (iv)
▪ Tenure of directors of co-operative banks: all systems of medicine and treatment, and (v)
The Banking Regulation Act prohibits the all types of hospitals and health care providers.
director of a bank (except its chairman or ▪ Claim settlement: Insurers must aim towards
whole-time director) to hold office for more 100% cashless settlements of claims in a time
than eight years consecutively. The Bill bound manner. Requests for cashless
increased this period to 10 years for co- settlements must be decided within one hour of
operative banks. the request. Final authorisation must be
For a PRS summary of the Bill, see here. granted within three hours of discharge from
the hospital. In case of delays, any additional
RBI issued directions on treatment of wilful amount charged must be borne by the insurer
from the shareholder’s fund.
and large defaulters
▪ Customer information sheet: Insurers must
In July 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
provide customers with a Customer
issued the RBI (Treatment of Wilful Defaulters and
Information Sheet (CIS) in a format prescribed
Large Defaulters) Directions, 2024.26 The
by IRDAI. The CIS will explain all the
Directions provide a procedure for the
features of a policy in a simple language.
classification of a borrower as wilful defaulter by
These include: (i) type of insurance, (ii) sum
lenders. Key features include:
insured, (iii) summary of exclusions, (iv)
▪ Wilful defaulter: A wilful defaulter refers to: deductibles, and (v) sub-limits.
(i) a borrower or a guarantor who has
committed wilful default of at least Rs 25 lakh RBI released directions for asset
or above as notified by RBI, (ii) promoters and reconstruction companies
directors associated at the time of default if the
defaulter is a company, and (iii) persons in The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the RBI
charge of and responsible for management of (Asset Reconstruction Companies) Directions,
the affairs of an entity other than companies. 2024 in April 2024.29 Asset Reconstruction
Large defaulter refers to a defaulter with an Companies (ARCs) take over stressed assets from
outstanding amount of at least one crore rupees financial institutions (such as banks) and focus on
and whose account has been categorised as a recovering the dues from such assets. The
doubtful or loss account. directions provide for matters such as the
registration, asset reconstruction, and governance
▪ Wilful default by a borrower will be deemed to of ARCs. Key features include:
have occurred when he defaults in meeting
repayment obligations to the lender. In ▪ Registration: ARCs must obtain a certificate
addition, at least one of the specified of registration from the RBI. Registered ARCs
conditions needs to be fulfilled. These include: can undertake both securitisation and asset
(i) default despite having the capacity to reconstruction activities. Securitisation is the
honour the obligations, (ii) diversion or acquisition of financial assets by ARCs from
siphoning off of funds availed from the lender, other entities.30 ARCs must have a minimum
or (iii) disposal of assets given for securing the net owned fund (NOF) of Rs 300 crore.
Existing ARCs with NOF of Rs 100 crore as
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
on October 11, 2022 have been allowed to the previous quarter, and (iv) a net profit in last two
raise it to Rs 300 crore by March 31, 2026. financial years. It is not mandatory for small
ARCs acting as resolution applicants under the finance banks to have an identified promoter. Any
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 must existing promoters must continue as promoters on
have a minimum NOF of Rs 1,000 crore. transitioning to a universal bank. Addition of new
promoters or change in promoters will not be
▪ Asset reconstruction: ARCs must frame a
allowed during the transition. Eligible small
board-approved policy for acquiring financial
finance banks with a diversified loan portfolio will
assets. This policy must be framed within 90
be preferred for transitioning to universal banks.
days of granting the registration certificate.
The policy should specify: (i) the norms and
procedure for acquisition, (ii) types and RBI revised directions for peer-to-peer
desirable profile of assets, and (iii) valuation lending platforms
procedure of assets acquired. ARCs may In August 2024, RBI revised the Non-Banking
formulate a plan for realisation of assets which Financial Company (NBFC) – Peer to Peer
could provide for: (i) a change in management Lending Platforms (Reserve Bank) Directions,
of the business of the borrower, (ii) 2017.35,36 A peer to peer (P2P) lending platform is
rescheduling debts payable by the borrower, or an intermediary providing loan facilitation services.
(iii) any debt to equity conversion. NBFC-P2P are engaged in the business of running
▪ Securitisation: The Securitisation and P2P lending platform. RBI noted that some of
Reconstruction of Financial Assets and these platforms had adopted practices which violate
Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, the 2017 Directions. These include violating the
allows ARCs to issue security receipts (SRs) to prescribed funds transfer mechanism and
raise funds.30 It may also be issued to entities promoting peer to peer lending as an investment
in exchange for acquisition of financial assets. product with assured returns. Key changes include:
As per the Directions, ARCs must get their ▪ Credit risk: The 2017 Directions provide that
SRs rated within six months of the acquisition. an NBFC-P2P must not provide or arrange any
The rating should be based on recovery risk, credit enhancement or guarantee. The
i.e., how much can be recovered from the amendments added that they must not assume
acquired financial asset. any credit risk for transactions on their
platform. Loss of principal or interest must be
RBI amended regulatory framework for borne by lenders on the platform. Adequate
housing finance companies disclosures must be made to be lenders.
In August 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ▪ Disclosure by platform: NBFC-P2P
amended the regulatory framework for housing platforms must disclose on their website the
finance companies (HFCs).31 HFCs are non- performance of their portfolio. This should
banking financial companies (NBFCs) with at least include the performance of non-performing
60% of their total assets constituting finance for assets. The amendments added that the
housing.32 RBI observed that deposit accepting disclosures must include all the losses borne by
HFCs are subject to more relaxed parameters lenders on principal and interest.
compared to deposit accepting NBFCs. As
▪ Investment products: The amended
regulatory concerns associated with deposit
directions prohibit NBFC-P2P platforms from
acceptance are the same across all categories of
promoting P2P lending as an investment
NBFCs, such HFCs will now be regulated in line
product with features such as tenure linked
with NBFCs.
assured minimum returns.
RBI released circular for transition of small ▪ Loan disbursal: Earlier, loans could not be
finance banks to universal banks disbursed unless recipient of the loan was
approved by the lender and all participants
In April 2024, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) signed the loan contract. The amendments
released a circular to provide for the voluntary added that loans need lenders and borrowers to
transition of small finance banks to universal be matched/ mapped as per a policy approved
banks.33 Small finance banks: (i) facilitate savings by the board of the NBFC-P2P platform.
and (ii) provide credit to small business units, small
and marginal farmers, and other low-income SEBI approved changes to mutual fund and
groups.34 For transitioning into a universal bank,
asset management framework
small finance banks must meet certain conditions.
These include: (i) a satisfactory track record of The Securities and Exchange Board of India
performance for minimum five years, (ii) their (SEBI) approved the following changes related to
shares listed on a recognised stock exchange, (iii) a mutual funds:
minimum net worth of Rs 1,000 crore at the end of
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▪ Approval for new mutual fund product: In investors (FPIs) had to make certain
September 2024, SEBI approved the disclosures if they held: (i) more than 50% of
introduction of a new investment product their Indian equity assets in a single corporate
under the current mutual fund framework.37 It group or (ii) equity assets worth over Rs
seeks to bridge the gap between mutual funds 25,000 crore in the Indian markets.41 These
and portfolio management services by offering disclosures relate to all entities holding any
greater flexibility in portfolio construction. It ownership, economic interest, or exercising
will have a minimum investment limit of Rs 10 control in the FPI. SEBI observed that equity
lakh per investor across products offered by a market trading volumes have more than
single asset management company. doubled from when these limits were set. The
Board approved increasing the disclosure
▪ Regulatory framework for passive mutual
threshold for FPIs from Rs 25,000 crore to Rs
funds: SEBI also approved a new regulatory
50,000 crore.
framework for passively managed mutual
funds in September 2024.37 Passive funds ▪ Disclosure by university funds: In June
follow a rule-based investment strategy and 2024, university funds and university related
provide negligible discretion regarding asset endowments that are eligible to be registered
allocation. The framework provides for as foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) were
relaxed criteria for the sponsors of a mutual exempted from providing additional
fund in terms of net worth, track record, disclosures.42 To avail this exemption,
profitability, and disclosures. following conditions must be met: (i) fund
must have less than 25% of its global assets as
▪ Mechanism to prevent market abuse by
Indian equity assets, (ii) its global assets must
asset management companies (AMCs): In
be more than Rs 10,000 crore, and (iii) it must
April 2024, SEBI mandated AMCs (such as
have filed appropriate tax returns in their home
mutual funds) to adopt institutional
jurisdiction to prove that it is a non-profit
mechanisms to identify and deter potential
exempt from tax.
market abuse.38 Such abuse could include
front-running and fraudulent transactions in ▪ Flexibility to invest in IFSC-based FPIs:
securities. Front-running is the practice of Earlier, contribution by a single non-resident
trading in securities based on information Indian (NRI), overseas citizen of India (OCI),
received ahead of other market participants. or resident Indian in foreign portfolio investors
The institutional mechanism will consist of (FPIs) could not exceed 25% of the total
enhanced surveillance systems, internal control corpus.43 Aggregate contribution by such
procedures, and process to identify and address investors were capped at 50% of the corpus. In
various types of misconduct. AMCs must also April 2024, SEBI approved a framework for
provide a mechanism for whistle-blowers who increasing contribution by NRI, OCI and
report misconduct. resident Indians in FPIs based out of
International Financial Services Centres
SEBI amended listing framework for small (IFSCs) to 100%.38 IFSCs cater to customers
and medium enterprises outside domestic jurisdiction.
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
SEBI issued norms for sharing real time The scheme was approved for 2024-25 with a total
price data with third parties expected outlay of Rs 1,500 crore. It provides
incentive at the rate of 0.15% per transaction for
The Securities and Exchange Board of India payments up to Rs 2,000. The incentive is
(SEBI) issued a circular regarding norms for provided to small merchants.
sharing real time price data to third parties in May
2024.47 SEBI noted that certain online gaming Finance Ministry launched pension scheme
platforms provide virtual trading services or fantasy
for minors
games. Such games are based on movement of real
time share prices of listed companies. Some In September 2024, the Ministry of Finance
platforms also offer monetary incentives based on announced the National Pension System (NPS)
the performance of a virtual stock portfolio. As per Vatsalya scheme for minors.49 It is regulated and
the circular, market infrastructure institutions (such administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory
as stock exchanges) should not share real time price Authority of India (PFRDA). All minor citizens up
data with third parties. Data can be shared when to the age of 18 years can open an account. A
needed for orderly functioning of the securities minimum contribution of Rs 1,000 will be needed
market or meeting regulatory requirements. to open the account. Thereafter, a minimum annual
Market institutions or intermediaries must enter contribution of Rs 1,000 can be deposited in the
into an agreement with entities with whom they account. The account will be opened in the name
want to share real time price data. Such an of the minor and managed by their guardian till
agreement must specify the activities for which the adulthood. On completing 18 years of age, the
data is being shared along with the justification of NPS Vatsalya account will transition to a regular
it being needed for orderly functioning of the account under NPS.
securities market. Market price data can be shared
for investor education and awareness with a lag of SEBI approved framework for
one day. cybersecurity and AI
SEBI barred association with unregistered The Securities and Exchange Board of India
persons (SEBI) approved frameworks for cybersecurity and
use of artificial intelligence (AI) tools.
In June 2024, the Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI) barred persons regulated by SEBI and ▪ Cybersecurity: In June 2024, SEBI approved
their agents from associating with any unauthorised the Cybersecurity and Cyber Resilience
Framework for SEBI regulated entities.42 It
person providing advice/ recommendation on
classifies regulated entities in categories based
securities.42 The Board noted that certain persons
on their span of operations, number of clients,
and unregulated entities are inducing investors to
trade volume, and assets under management.
deal in securities based on inappropriate claims.
Association implies any monetary transaction, The framework classifies data into regulatory
referral of client, and interaction of information data, and IT and cybersecurity data.
Regulatory data will have to be mandatorily
technology systems. These restrictions will not
localised while IT and cybersecurity data may
apply to association: (i) with persons who are
be stored outside India. All entities were to
exclusively engaged in investor education, and (ii)
adopt the framework by April 1, 2025.
through specified digital platform which does not
provide unauthorised advice related to return. ▪ Use of AI tools: In December 2024, SEBI
introduced a framework for use of artificial
SEBI increased scope of same-day intelligence tools by regulated entities such as
settlement of securities stock exchanges and clearing corporations.39
These entities will be solely responsible for:
In September 2024, SEBI increased the scope of
(i) privacy, security, and integrity of investors’
the optional same-day settlement cycle for
data, (ii) output generated from AI tools, and
securities. The securities for same day settlement
(iii) compliance with applicable laws.
will be increased from 25 to top 500 companies
based on market capitalisation in a phased manner.
Same-day settlement will co-exist with the current
next-day (T+1) settlement cycle.
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Cabinet approved new industrial nodes mills which supply at least 75% of ethanol from the
under the National Industrial Corridor converted plants to Oil Marketing Companies for
Development Programme blending with petrol. For availing benefits, an
application must be submitted within six months of
In August 2024, the Union Cabinet approved notifying the scheme.
development of new industrial nodes under the
National Industrial Corridor Development Cabinet approved policy to boost high
Programme.56 Under the programme, 11 industrial performance biomanufacturing
corridors are being developed across the country.57
The newly approved industrial nodes will be In August 2024, the Union Cabinet approved the
located in following areas: (i) Khurpia, ‘BioE3 Policy for Fostering High Performance
Uttarakhand, (ii) Rajpura-Patiala, Punjab, (iii) Biomanufacturing’.63 Biomanufacturing uses
Dighi, Maharashtra, (iv) Palakkad, Kerala, (v) Agra biological systems of living organisms for
and Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh, (vi) Gaya, Bihar, (vii) production. The Policy aims to accelerate green
Zaheerabad, Telangana, (viii) Orvakal and growth by promoting biomanufacturing. High
Kopparthy in Andhra Pradesh, and (ix) Jodhpur- performance biomanufacturing is defined as the
Pali in Rajasthan. These will be developed as new ability to produce a wide range of products and
smart industrial cities. The total estimated address farming and food challenges through
investment in these new industrial nodes is Rs advance bio-technology.
28,602 crore.
The policy provides innovation-driven support for
R&D and entrepreneurship across sectors such as:
Commerce Ministry introduced scheme (i) climate resilient agriculture, (ii) high value bio-
allowing duty free import of diamonds based chemicals, (iii) marine and space research,
In January 2025, the Ministry of Commerce and and (iv) biopolymers and enzymes. It will facilitate
Industry introduced the Diamond Imprest the establishment of Biomanufacturing and Bio-AI
Authorisation Scheme.58 The scheme allows duty- hubs and Biofoundry. Biofoundry is a laboratory
free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of that uses automation in biomanufacturing.64
less than 1/4th carat. To be eligible for the scheme,
beneficiaries must have exported at least: (i) USD Cabinet approved Rs 1,000 crore funding
15 million worth cut and polished diamonds for space-based startups
annually for the last three years, and (ii) USD 25
million worth goods annually.59 They must also In October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved
have filled Income Tax and GST returns for the last setting up of Rs 1,000 crore venture capital fund to
three years.60 To avail duty free imports, support space-based startups.65 This fund is being
beneficiaries must add at least 10% value to the set up by the Indian National Space Promotion and
imported diamonds before exporting. Authorisation Centre (INSPACe). INSPACe was
created by the government in 2020 to promote and
The scheme aims to incentivise manufacturers to oversee private sector participation in space
retain their operations in India. It also intends to activities. The fund would be deployed over a five-
enhance export competitiveness of Indian diamond year period starting from 2025 to 2030, with an
manufacturers. The scheme is being implemented annual deployment of Rs 150-200 crore. The
from April 1, 2025. indicative range of investment in startups is
between Rs 10-60 crore. Growth stage companies
Modified ethanol interest subvention can expect investment in the Rs 10-30 crore band.
scheme notified Late growth stage companies that have shown
significant progress, can attract investments in the
In March 2025, the Ministry of Food and Public Rs 30-60 crore band. This fund is expected to
Distribution notified a scheme for cooperative benefit around 40 spaced based startup companies.
sugar mills to increase production and supply of Key objectives of this fund include: (i) infusion of
ethanol.61 Under the scheme, financial assistance capital to create a multiplier effect for further
will be extended to cooperative sugar mills for investment, (ii) retention of space companies
conversion of sugarcane-based feedstock ethanol domiciled in India, and (iii) accelerate private
plants to multi-feedstock based plants.62 Multi- sector participation in Indian space sector.
feedstock based plants use inputs like maize and
damaged foodgrains, in addition to sugarcane to
produce ethanol.62 Cooperative sugar mills will be
offered interest subvention of 6% per annum or
50% of the interest, whichever is lower, with the
subsidy being covered by the central government
for a period of five years. The scheme will be
made available to only those cooperative sugar
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
performance security. If the composite licence Table 7: MSP for rabi crops for Marketing
holder fails to complete exploration within the Season 2025-26 (in Rs per quintal)
specified time period, it won’t be eligible for MSP MSP
Crops change
carrying out production. Performance security 2024-25 2025-26
will be revised for composite licence holders Wheat 2,275 2,425 6.6%
eligible for production lease. Barley 1,850 1,980 7.0%
▪ Rate of contribution to the Offshore Areas Gram 5,440 5,650 3.9%
Mineral Trust: Production lease holders must Lentil (Masur) 6,425 6,700 4.3%
pay an amount equivalent to 10% of the royalty Rapeseed and
5,650 5,950 5.3%
as a contribution to the Offshore Areas Mineral Mustard
Trust Fund. Safflower 5,800 5,940 2.4%
Sources: Press Information Bureau; PRS.
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
Cabinet approved programme for access to cooperatives. The guarantee cover ranges from
high-quality planting material 75% to 85%, depending on the loan amount and the
type of borrower.
The Union Cabinet approved the Clean Plant
Programme under the Mission for Integrated Cabinet approved mission for oilseeds
Development of Horticulture in August 2024.80, 81
production
The programme aims to provide high-quality and
virus-free planting material to farmers. This is The Union Cabinet approved the National Mission
expected to increase crop yields and improve on Edible Oils – Oilseeds (NMEO-Oilseeds) in
income opportunities. Under the programme, nine October 2024.85 The Mission will be implemented
Clean Plant Centres will be set up across India with a proposed allocation of Rs 10,103 crore
focusing on specific fruit types. These centres will between 2024-25 to 2030-31. It aims to increase
be equipped with advanced diagnostic and production of primary oilseed crops from 39
therapeutic facilities. To ensure accountability in million tonne in 2022-23 to 70 million tonne by
production and sale of planting material, a 2030-31. These include Rapeseed-Mustard,
certification system will be established under the Groundnut, Soybean, Sunflower, and Sesamum.
Seeds Act, 1966. To facilitate the multiplication of Domestic edible oil production in 2023-24 is
clean planting materials, infrastructure support will estimated to be 12 million tonne.86 Along with
be provided to large-scale nurseries. NMEO – Oil Palm, this mission targets to increase
domestic edible oil production to 25 million tonne
The programme aims to address the diverse agro-
by 2030-31. This increase in domestic production
climatic conditions across regions by developing
is expected to cover 72% of India’s projected
region-specific clean plant varieties and
requirement by 2030-31. 65 new seed hubs and 50
technologies. The programme has an estimated
seed storage units will be setup in the public sector
outlay of Rs 1,766 crore and is being implemented
to improve seed production infrastructure.
by the National Horticulture Board, in association
with Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
Cabinet approved expansion of Agriculture
Cabinet approved launch of National Infrastructure Fund
Mission on Natural Farming The Union Cabinet approved the expansion of the
financing facility under the Agriculture
In November 2024, the Union Cabinet approved
Infrastructure Fund (AIF) in August 2024.87 All
the National Mission on Natural Farming as a
eligible beneficiaries of the scheme will be allowed
centrally sponsored scheme. It has an outlay of Rs
to create infrastructure under projects for building
2,481 crore until 2025-26.82
community farming assets. Integrated primary
The Mission aims at promoting natural farming secondary processing projects will be included in
methods such as chemical free farming, farming the list of eligible activities under AIF. AIF credit
using local livestock methods, and diversified crop guarantee coverage of Farmer Produce
systems. In 2024-25 and 2025-26, the scheme will Organisations will be extended through the
be implemented in 15,000 clusters in gram NABSanrakshan Trustee Company Pvt. Ltd. The
panchayats. The scheme aims to cover one crore AIF was launched in 2020 and additional storage
farmers and an area of 7.5 lakh hectares. capacity of 500 lakh tonnes has been created for
agricultural produce under the fund.
Credit guarantee scheme for warehousing
receipt-based pledge financing launched Cabinet approved rationalisation of
schemes for sustainable agriculture and
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and
Public Distribution launched the Credit Guarantee food security
Scheme for e-NWR based pledge financing (CGS- In October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved the
NPF).83 An electronic negotiable warehousing rationalisation of all existing centrally sponsored
receipt (e-NWR) is issued for commodities kept in schemes under the Ministry of Agriculture and
warehouses accredited by the Warehousing Farmers Welfare into two umbrella schemes: (i)
Development and Regulatory Authority. Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
Farmers/traders can use the e-NWR to avail loans (PM-RKVY), and (i) Krishonnati Yojana.88
against the commodities.84
The PM-RKVY will be implemented with an
The new scheme provides a guarantee cover for the outlay of Rs 57,075 crore to promote sustainable
loans availed against e-NWR. It has a total corpus agriculture. Some of the schemes under PM-
of Rs 1,000 crore and will cover loans up to Rs 75 RKVY include: (i) Soil Health Management, (ii)
lakh for agricultural purposes and up to two crore Rainfed Area Development, (iii) Agro Forestry,
rupees for non-agricultural purposes. Eligible and (iv) Agricultural Mechanisation. State
borrowers include: (i) small and marginal farmers, governments will have the flexibility to reallocate
(ii) women/SC/ST/PwD famers, and (iii) farmer
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
funds from one component to another as per their regulations and quality of service regulations for
requirements. broadcasters.91,92,93 In August 2023, TRAI had
released a consultation paper seeking a review on
The Krishonnati Yojana will be targeted at
the regulatory framework for broadcasters.94 Key
achieving food security for self-sufficiency with a
features of the amended regulations include:
proposed outlay of Rs 44,247 crore.
▪ Tariff changes: Broadcasters charge Network
Cabinet approved continuation of supply of Capacity Fees (NCF) from subscribers, which
free fortified rice under PMGKAY was capped at Rs 130 for the first 200 channels
and at Rs 160 on more than 200 channels.
In October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved the This ceiling has been removed. The new NCF
continuation of supply of free fortified rice under must be published on the broadcaster’s
all welfare schemes including the Pradhan Mantri website. Distribution Platform Operators
Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana.89 The free supply has (DPOs) can now offer discounts of up to 45%
been extended from July 2024 to December 2028. on bouquets of channels. DPOs bundle and
Rice fortification involves adding rice kernels package content from various broadcasters.
enriched with micronutrients to regular rice. It will Such discounts were earlier limited to 15%.
be implemented as a central sector scheme funded
by the Union government. ▪ Penalties: The amended regulatory
framework also provides for financial penalties
Guidelines for National Mission on Natural for contravention of provisions. Penalties
range up to one lakh rupees, and depend on the
Farming released
nature of the violation and the size of the
The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare broadcaster. For instance, non-declaration of
notified the guidelines for the National Mission on the MRP of channels can attract a fine of up to
Natural Farming in December 2024.90 The Mission Rs 25,000 for the first offence.
aims to promote sustainable systems of farming
▪ Change in carriage fees: The method for
and improve soil health. It aims to initiate natural
calculating carriage fees has been simplified.
farming in 7.5 lakh hectare of land by 2026. Key
For instance, there is no longer a distinction
features of the guidelines include:
between standard and high-definition (HD)
▪ Priority Areas: The Mission will be channels. Earlier, HD channels attracted
implemented in areas such as: (i) regions of higher carriage fees.
five kilometre corridor along river Ganga, (ii)
▪ Quality of Service (QoS) amendments: The
districts on the banks of major rivers, (iii)
regulatory framework amends various QoS
districts with high and low fertiliser input sale
standards. Charges for services such as
in states, and (iv) districts with tribal areas.
installation, activation and relocation have
▪ Training: The Mission aims to create a been deregulated. DPOs must publish these
support ecosystem for farmers to transition to charges clearly to subscribers. Platform
natural farming. This will include training for services offered by DPOs must be categorised
farmers. Training will be extended through: separately on the electronic programming
(i) Centres of Natural Farming, (ii) Krishi guide. Platform services are programs
Vigyan Kendras, (iii) State Agricultural transmitted exclusively to subscribers by
Universities, and (iv) Local Natural Farming DPOs. The maximum retail price for each
Institutions. In addition, 2,060 natural farming platform service must also be displayed.
model demonstration farms will be set up. The Certain compliances have also been relaxed for
Mission will also deploy 30,000 community DPOs having less than 30,000 subscribers,
resource persons (or Krishi Sakhis) for scaling including: (i) having a website, (ii) maintaining
up of natural farming practices. a manual of practice, and (iii) having a
consumer corner.
The National Institute of Agricultural Extension
Management will work towards capacity
development of scientists and officials.
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Infrastructure
Communications and IT TRAI released recommendations on
TRAI released recommendations on sharing regulatory sandbox
of telecom infrastructure and spectrum In April 2024, TRAI released recommendations on
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) regulatory sandboxes for the telecom sector. It also
released its recommendations on ‘Telecom proposed a framework for encouraging innovative
Infrastructure Sharing, Spectrum Sharing, and technologies and business models through the use
Spectrum Leasing’ in April 2024.95 Telecom of regulatory sandboxes.96 A regulatory sandbox
infrastructure is broadly divided into passive and refers to a test environment that mimics actual
active infrastructure. Passive infrastructure refers scenarios. Companies are exempt from certain
to non-electronic infrastructure (such as towers, compliances and regulations in a sandbox. They
buildings and poles), and active infrastructure may test products or services on a limited set of
refers to electronic infrastructure (such as radios users. Key recommendations of TRAI include:
and transceivers). Spectrum is a band of radio ▪ Scope and eligibility: New digital
frequency used for telecommunication. Key communication services or technologies
recommendations include: needing live or controlled testing can be tested
▪ Infrastructure sharing: TRAI has in a regulatory sandbox. Permissions to utilise
recommended that telecom service licensees the sandbox will be valid up to 12 months and
should be allowed to share all types of passive may be extended. All Telecom Service
and active infrastructure. Passive Providers (TSP) will be eligible to provide
infrastructure may be shared with all types of their network for regulatory sandboxes.
licensees, however, active infrastructure may ▪ Regulation and oversight: The oversight of
only be shared based on the scope of the regulatory sandboxes will be carried out by a
services offered. Currently, licensees can body created in the National
share passive infrastructure and certain Telecommunications Institute for Policy
specified active infrastructure (such as Research, Innovation, and Training.
antennas and transmission systems). The Permission for utilising the sandbox will be
Department of Telecommunications (DoT) granted by the Department of
designates certain equipment as core network Telecommunications.
elements. Sharing of core network elements
will not be allowed if there will be less than ▪ Funding for projects: Projects utilising the
two independent core networks after sharing. regulatory sandbox may be funded through the
Universal Service Obligation Fund (now the
TRAI recommended mandatory sharing of Digital Bharat Nidhi). Applicants must
government-funded passive infrastructure. indicate funding sought in their application.
This includes infrastructure built using the However, projects not seeking government
Universal Service Obligation Fund (now the funding will have a higher chance of approval.
Digital Bharat Nidhi). Other types of
infrastructure, such as interception systems, Amendments to the Aadhaar
may be shared after permission from the DoT.
Authentication for Good Governance Rules,
▪ Spectrum sharing and leasing: TRAI has 2020 notified
recommended that access providers should be
allowed to share and lease spectrum. Certain In January 2025, Ministry of Electronics and
restrictions have also been recommended. Information Technology notified amendments to
These include: (i) a two-year lock-in period the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance
before spectrum sharing or leasing, and (ii) a (Social Welfare, Innovation, Knowledge) Rules,
limit on the number of entities with which 2020.97,98 The Rules have been framed under the
spectrum can be shared or leased (one Aadhaar Act of 2016.99 Key features of the
additional provider per spectrum band). amendments are:
Revenue received from sharing or leasing ▪ Purposes for which Aadhaar authentication
spectrum will be considered a part of overall may be permitted: Under the Rules, the
revenue for determining various levies by the central government may allow Aadhaar
government. The government will also levy a authentication for these purposes: (i) to
fee of 0.5% of the value of spectrum shared. prevent dissipation of social welfare benefits,
(ii) to use digital platforms to ensure good
governance, and (iii) to enable innovation and
the spread of knowledge. The amendments
add that the central government may also allow
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
Aadhaar authentication for the purpose of energy refers to generation of electricity through
‘promoting ease of living of residents and wind turbines installed in the water bodies, usually
enabling better access to services for them’. at sea. Viability gap funding refers to financial
support for projects that may be economically
▪ Requesting entities: The Rules provide that a
justified but fall short of financial viability.104
Department/Ministry of the central or state
government may submit a proposal to the The scheme will support installation of a total of
central government for using Aadhaar one gigawatt capacity, comprising 500 MW each
authentication. The central government will off the coast of Gujarat and Tamil Nadu. These
refer this proposal to the Unique Identification two projects are estimated to generate 3.7 billion
Authority of India (UIDAI) for their units of electricity annually. The total support for
recommendation. Subsequently, the central these projects is expected to be Rs 6,853 crore. For
government authorises the use of Aadhaar establishing the wind energy projects, private
authentication by the entity. developers will be selected through a bidding
process. In addition, Rs 600 crore will be provided
The amendments add that any other entity may also
for upgradation of nearby ports. Development of
submit a proposal for using Aadhaar authentication.
ports will help in meeting logistical requirements
Such a proposal must be for the specified purposes,
for the wind energy projects.
and in the interest of the State.
Operational Guidelines for implementation
'Model Solar Village’ issued
Electricity In August 2024, Ministry of Power notified the
scheme guidelines for implementing the ‘Model
CERC notified new Regulations for grant of Solar Village’ component of the PM-Surya Ghar
inter-state transmission licences Muft Bijli Yojana.105 It aims to solarise one village
In June 2024, Central Electricity Regulatory per district. Each model village will receive
Commission (CERC) notified the CERC assistance of one crore rupees from the centre.
(Procedure, Terms and Conditions for Grant of The Model Solar Village will be identified through
Transmission Licence and Other Related Matters) a competition between villages of each district.
Regulations, 2024.100 These replace the Only revenue villages with a population over 5,000
Regulations issued on this subject in 2009.101 The (or 2,000 in special category states) can compete.
2024 Regulations provide a framework for grant Eligible villages will be identified by a District
and administration of licences for inter-state Level Committee.
transmission of electricity. Key changes under the
2024 Regulations include: Villages will be evaluated based on the renewable
energy capacity installed within six months after all
▪ Exemption for certain purposes: eligible villages for the competition are declared.
Distribution licencees and bulk consumers will After a Model Solar Village is selected, states must
not need a licence to develop and operate develop a plan for transitioning it into a solar
transmission lines that connect their systems to powered village.
the inter-state transmission system. Bulk
consumers refer to consumers who avail Amendments to guidelines on cross-border
supply at the voltage of 33 kV or above.100,102
trade of electricity notified
The 2009 Regulations did not grant such
exemption to these entities. In August 2024, Ministry notified guidelines on
cross-border trade of electricity. The Ministry of
▪ Authorisation for additional works under
Power amended the 2018 Guidelines on cross
existing licences: Under the 2009
border trade of electricity.106,107,108 These
Regulations, for undertaking certain additional
guidelines provide for import and export of
transmission works subsequent to the grant of
electricity between India and its neighbouring
a licence, fresh licences had to be issued. The
countries. Key Features of the amendments are:
2024 Regulations provide for the inclusion of
such additional works under an existing ▪ Source of fuel for export of electricity from
licence. A licencee may apply to CERC to coal and gas: Under the 2018 guidelines,
amend the existing licence for this purpose. Indian generation and distribution companies
may export electricity generated from coal,
Cabinet approved viability gap funding for gas, renewable sources, or hydropower to
offshore wind energy projects neighbouring countries. In case of coal and
gas, electricity must be generated using
In June 2024, Union Cabinet has approved a imported fuel. Additionally, in case of coal,
scheme to provide for viability gap funding to coal from spot auction or commercial mining
offshore wind energy projects.103 Offshore wind (without specified end-use) may also be used.
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The amendments empower the central the Technology Agnostic pathway. For the
government to permit additional fuel sources bio-mass based pathway, the bidder's net worth
for export of coal and gas-based electricity. should be greater than Rs 1.5 crore per
thousand MT per annum of the quoted
▪ Domestic sale by export-oriented entities:
production capacity.
The amendments allow the Indian generators
that exclusively export electricity to also sell
their output domestically under certain
conditions. The central government may
provide permission for this in case of: (i) Petroleum
sustained non-scheduling of full or part Cabinet approves modifications in Pradhan
capacity, or (ii) issuance of notice by the
generator for default on payment.
Mantri JI-VAN Yojana
In August 2024, Cabinet has approved
Guidelines issued for implementing modifications to the Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN
incentive scheme for Green Hydrogen Yojana. The scheme supports development of
Production advanced bio-fuel technologies, such as second-
generation ethanol. Revisions to the scheme extend
In July 2024, Ministry of New and Renewable its implementation by five years (till 2028-29).
Energy issued guidelines for implementing the The scheme has also been expanded to support
“Incentive Scheme for Green Hydrogen Production projects that use feedstock such as agricultural and
(under Mode 1)- Tranche-II”.109 This scheme is a forestry residues, industrial waste, and algae.
component of the Strategic Interventions for Green
Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT). The
programme provides financial incentive
mechanisms to boost the domestic manufacturing
of electrolysers and green hydrogen in India.
Railways
The Scheme aims to maximise production and The Railways (Amendment) Bill, 2024
increase cost-competitiveness of Green Hydrogen passed by Parliament
as a fuel. Under Tranche-I of the scheme, 4,12,000 The Railways (Amendment) Bill, 2024 was passed
metric tons of capacity has already been allocated by Parliament in March 2025. The Bill repeals the
to 10 companies for Green Hydrogen Production.110 Railway Board Act, 1905 and incorporates its
The Guidelines provide a framework for selecting provisions into the Railways Act, 1989. 112,113
beneficiaries for the second tranche of the incentive
scheme. Key features of the Guideline include:111 For a PRS analysis of the Bill, see here.
▪ Structure of Scheme: The second tranche
allocates production capacity of 4,50,000 MT
(Metric tonnes) of Green Hydrogen. This will
be achieved in two ways - 40,000 MT will be Civil Aviation
produced through biomass-based pathway and The Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024
4,10,000 MT will be produced though through
passed by Parliament
technology agonistic (using electrolysis)
pathway. Production capacity will be The Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024 was
distributed through bidding. passed by Parliament in December 2024.114 The
Bill was introduced in July 31, 2024. The Act
▪ Incentive for Production: The minimum bid
replaces the Aircraft Act, 1934. The Bill retains
for production through agnostic pathways is
the regulatory structure and most of the provisions
10,000 MT while maximum bid allowed is
under the 1934 Act. Key changes include:
90,000 MT. For production through biomass
pathways, the bid should be between 500 MT ▪ Authorities: It sets up three authorities: (i) the
and 4,000 MT. A bidder can bid for both Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
pathways. The maximum incentive for the for performing regulatory functions and
first year is Rs 50/Kg, for the second year Rs overseeing safety, (ii) the Bureau of Civil
40/Kg and for the third year Rs 30/Kg. Bids Aviation Security (BCAS) for overseeing
for three years will be averaged and the bidder security, and (iii) the Aircraft Accidents
with the least incentive demanded will be Investigation Bureau for investigation of
allotted the production capacity. aircraft accidents. The centre may issue
directions to these authorities and also review
▪ Eligibility of bidder: In order to participate in
their orders, if necessary, in public interest.
the bidding process, the bidder's net worth
must exceed Rs 15 crore per thousand MT per ▪ Regulation of aircraft design: The Act
annum of the quoted production capacity under regulates various activities related to aircrafts
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▪ Revocation of licences: The 1958 Act Indian Ports Bill, 2025 introduced in Lok
empowers the Director General of Shipping to Sabha
modify or revoke licences. The Bill specifies
the grounds for modification, suspension, or The Indian Ports Bill, 2025 was introduced in Lok
revocation of licences: (i) violation of terms of Sabha in March, 2025.127 It seeks to replace the
licence or an existing law, or (ii) failure to Indian Ports Act, 1908.128 The Act outlines the
comply with directions of the Director powers of the central and state governments with
General. respect to: (i) altering port limits, (ii) safety and
conservation of ports, and (iii) levy of port-dues,
For a PRS summary of the Bill, see here. fees, and other charges. The Bill retains certain
provisions of the Act. Key changes include:
Lok Sabha passed the Bills of Lading Bill,
▪ Maritime State Development Council: The
2024
Bill requires the central government to
The Bills of Lading Bill, 2024 was passed in Lok establish the Maritime State Development
Sabha in March 2025.125 It replaces the Indian Council. The Council will issue guidelines in
Bills of Lading Act, 1856.126 The Act provides a consultation with central and state
legal framework for issuance of bills of lading. governments on: (i) data or information to be
collected by ports along with the manner of
▪ Retained provisions: The Act states that a collection, updation, storage and submission to
bill of lading is conclusive evidence of goods
the Council, (ii) dissemination of data or
on board. It grants following persons all rights
information related to ports, and (iii) ensuring
of suit and liabilities regarding the goods: (i)
transparency of port tariff. It will also make
the receiver as per the bill of lading, or (ii) any
recommendations on matters related to
third party to whom the receiver may transfer legislative adequacy, efficiency of ports and
the ownership of goods. The Bill retains this connectivity to ports.
provision.
▪ State Maritime Boards: The Bill provides
▪ Power to issue directions: The Bill adds that
statutory recognition to all state maritime
the central government may issue directions
boards specified in the third schedule of the
for carrying out the provisions of the Bill.
Bill. This includes maritime boards
For a PRS summary of the Bill, see here. established in states such as Gujarat,
Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu. Functions of
The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024 the State Maritime Boards include: (i)
passed by Lok Sabha exercising licensing functions for port
infrastructure, (ii) supervision of all port
The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024 was works, (iii) fixing port tariff, and (iv)
introduced in Lok Sabha on August 9, 2024. The regulation of navigation within port limits.
Bill seeks to replace the Indian Carriage of Goods ▪ Dispute Resolution Committee: The Bill
by Sea Act, 1925. The Act establishes the requires state governments to constitute a
responsibilities, liabilities, rights, and immunities in dispute resolution committee to adjudicate
case of goods carried from a port in India to disputes arising between non-major ports, port
another port in India or any other port in the concessionaires, port users, and port service
world. The Act is in conformance with the providers within the state. Appeals against
International Convention for the Unification of orders of the Committee shall be made to the
Certain Rules of Law relating to Bills of Lading of High Court within sixty days.
August 1924 (Hague Rules) and subsequent
amendments to it. The Bill retains all provisions of ▪ Pollution containment and response: Under
the Act. the Bill, all ports must prepare a port waste
reception and handling plan as prescribed by
The Bill empowers the central government to: (i) the central government and in consultation
issue directions for carrying out provisions of the with the state government. Every port must
Bill, and (ii) amend the schedule specifying rules report incidents involving threat of pollution to
applicable to bills of lading. A bill of lading refers coastal waters to the central or state
to a document issued by a freight carrier to a governments, in a manner as prescribed by the
shipper. It contains details such as the type, central government.
quantity, condition, and destination of goods being For a PRS summary of the Bill, see here.
carried. The rules outline the responsibilities,
liabilities, rights, and immunities of goods carriers.
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Development
Education support meritorious students in pursuing higher
education.131 The scheme will extend collateral
UGC released curriculum and credit and guarantor free loans covering tuition and other
framework for postgraduate programmes expenses to students who get admission in quality
The University Grants Commission (UGC) higher education institution. For loans up to Rs 7.5
released the ‘Curriculum and Credit Framework for lakh, 75% of the outstanding amount will be
Post Graduate Programmes’ in June 2025.129 The covered by a credit guarantee. The scheme will
Framework seeks to provide flexibility to: (i) apply to students in: (i) top 100 institutions in each
pursue subjects different from those studied in field, (ii) state government institutions ranked 101-
undergraduate programmes (UG), (ii) pursue PG 200, and (iii) all central government institutions.
education in different modes of learning, (iii) Rankings would be based on the National
pursue simultaneous academic or industry Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF). The
engagements and obtain credits for the same, and scheme is expected to cover about 22 lakh students
(iv) exit a PG programme after one year with a PG across 860 institutions.
diploma. Key features of the Framework include: Further, the scheme will provide interest
▪ Credit requirement and eligibility for PG subvention of 3% on loans up to Rs 10 lakh to
programme: The Framework prescribes students with a family income of up to eight lakh
criteria for undergraduate students to be rupees. Beneficiaries must not be covered under
eligible for various types of PG programmes. any other government scholarship or interest
For instance, to be eligible for a one-year MA, subvention scheme. Interest subvention will be
MCom or MSc degree, a candidate must have provided to one lakh students every year.
a Bachelor’s degree with Honours with
minimum 160 credits. However, to be eligible RTE rules amended to allow holding back
for a two-year MA, MCom, or MSc degree, students in central government schools
they need a three year/ six semester Bachelor’s
degree with 120 credits. In December 2024, the Ministry of Education
notified the Right of Children to Free and
▪ Flexibility in switching subjects in PG: The Compulsory Education (Amendment) Rules,
Framework permits graduate students to: (i) 2024.132 These amend the rules issued under the
pursue a different subject in post-graduation, if Right of Children to Free and Compulsory
they qualify in the entrance examination, and Education Act, 2009.133,134 The Act guarantees free
(ii) apply for a PG programme that was a and compulsory elementary education to children
major or minor in graduate studies. Under the aged between six and 14.
Framework, certain students will be eligible
for admission in Master in Engineering or a The Act requires schools to conduct a regular
Master of Technology. These include those examination for classes fifth and eighth at the end
having completed: (i) a four-year UG of an academic year.133 Students failing this exam
programme, (ii) a three-year UG and a two- can appear for a re-examination within two months.
year PG programme or (iii) a five-year The 2024 Rules require holding back students in
integrated programme, in STEM subjects. classes five or eight if they fail the re-
▪ Assessment: The Framework suggests examination.132 During the period in which they
assessments to be continuous as opposed to are held back, schools must guide the student and
summative (this includes unit tests and his parents by identifying learning gaps and
semester-wise exams). It also suggests for providing necessary resources. The head of the
school will maintain a list of students who are held
assessments to be driven by learning outcomes.
The National Higher Education Qualification back, and will monitor their progress. Annual
Framework (NHEQF) delineates learning exams and re-exams must test competency and not
outcomes for UG and PG programmes.130 It memorisation or procedural skills.132
requires learning outcomes to be measured
using criteria such as: (i) knowledge of the UGC issued draft regulations for
field, (ii) applicability of knowledge and skills, appointment of faculty and VC in HEIs
and (iii) employability. In January 2025, the University Grants
Commission (UGC) issued the “Draft UGC
Cabinet approved scheme to provide (Minimum Qualifications for Appointment and
financial support to meritorious students Promotion of Teachers and Academic Staff in
In November 2024, the Union Cabinet approved Universities and Colleges and Measures for the
the PM Vidyalakshmi scheme to financially Maintenance of Standards in Higher Education),
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
Regulations, 2025”.135 These provide for the medical courses are filled by: (i) NEET ranking,
eligibility criteria for appointment of faculty and (ii) state quotas, and (iii) institutional preferences.
Vice-Chancellors (VCs) in Higher Educational
The Court held that the Constitution provides the
Institutions (HEIs). The draft seeks to replace the
right to seek admission in educational institutions
2018 Regulations on this subject.136 Key features
across India. Differential treatment of students
of the draft regulations include:
based on residence deters this right. However,
▪ Appointment of VC: The Vice Chancellor is domicile reservations are permissible in MBBS
the chief executive and academic head of a courses as they help address shortage of doctors in
university.137 As per the existing regulations, a neglected regions. On the other hand, PG medical
VC must be appointed from persons with at courses address the need for specialists and should
least 10 years of experience: (i) as a professor, thus enrol students based on marks and merit.
or (ii) at a senior position of a reputed research
The Court ruled that all PG medical seats under
or academic administrative organisations. The
state quotas should be filled based on students’
draft Regulations add that he can also be
performance in NEET. However, this will not
appointed from persons with at least 10 years
apply to seats currently filled under state quota.
of experience at a senior level in industry, or
The Court upheld the validity of seats filled
public policy or administration, with a proven
through institutional preferences. These are seats
record of academic or scholarly contributions.
granted to UG students of the same college. The
▪ Under existing regulations, the VC will be Supreme Court stated that the share of such seats
appointed from a panel of names prepared by a should be reasonable.
three to five-member search committee. The
Visitor or Chancellor of the university will CBSE issued draft policy to conduct two
make this appointment. The search committee board exams in a year for Class 10
must not be connected to that university in any
way. One member of the committee must be a In February 2025, the Central Board for Secondary
nominee of the UGC Chairman. The draft Education (CBSE) issued the “Draft Scheme for
Regulations provide that this committee will Two Examinations for Class X from 2026”.141 The
be constituted by the Chancellor/Visitor of a draft policy was issued in line with the National
university. It will comprise of one nominee Education Policy, 2020, which recommended
each of the: (i) Visitor/Chancellor, (ii) UGC allowing students to take up to two board exams in
Chairman, and (iii) apex body of a university. a year.142 This intends to reduce exam-related
In certain states, the Chancellor of a state pressure by providing students with an option to
university is the Governor of that state. 138 The improve their scores in the second attempt.
President of India appoints the Chancellor in According to the draft, CBSE board exams for
central universities.139 class 10 will be held twice a year between: (i)
▪ Recruitment of Assistant Professors: Under February 17 to March 6 and (ii) May 5 to 20.
the 2018 Regulations, Assistant Professors Results for all students will be released after results
directly recruited into an HEI must: (i) possess of the second exam are out.
a Master’s degree and clear the National
Eligibility Test (NET), or (ii) hold a Ph.D. The Tribhuvan Sahkari University Bill, 2025
draft allows persons with only a master’s passed by Lok Sabha
degree in engineering to be directly recruited
The Tribhuvan Sahkari University Bill, 2025 was
as Assistant Professor.
passed in Lok Sabha in March 2025.143 The Bill
▪ Recruitment on a contract basis: Existing seeks to establish the Institute of Rural
regulations allow recruiting faculty on a Management Anand, Gujarat (IRMA) as the
contract basis. However, contract faculty “Tribhuvan” Sahkari University. Currently, IRMA
should not exceed 10% of the total faculty is registered as a society. The Bill places IRMA as
positions in an HEI. The draft Regulations do a school within the university. It also states that its
away with this limit. They provide that autonomous identity will be preserved within the
contract period of such faculty should not institutional framework of the University.
exceed six months.
For a PRS Summary of the Bill, see here.
Supreme Court struck down domicile-based
reservations in PG medical admissions
In January 2025, the Supreme Court held that
residence-based reservation in post-graduate (PG)
medical courses violated the fundamental right to
equality (Article 14).140 Currently, seats for PG
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
in the scheme.149 Senior citizens already covered headed by Secretary of the Department of
under the scheme will individually be covered for Pharmaceuticals.
an extra five lakh rupees as health insurance.
Expansion of the scheme will extend insurance Health Ministry expanded scope of
coverage to 4.5 crore families (six crore senior nutrition support for Tuberculosis Patients
citizens). This will also include senior citizens who The Health Ministry announced the expansion of
are already availing benefits of other public and the Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana in October 2024.151
private insurance schemes. This scheme aims to provide nutritional and
financial support to TB patients to reduce mortality
Uniform Code for marketing practices in due to TB.
medical devices released
Financial support for each TB patient was
The Department of Pharmaceuticals released the increased from Rs 500 to Rs 1,000 per month. The
Uniform Code for Marketing Practices in Medical scheme will also provide energy-dense nutritional
Devices, 2024 in September 2024.150 The Code supplements to underweight TB patients for the
regulates the branding and promotion of medical first two months of treatment. Family members of
devices in the country. TB patients will also receive nutritional support
which will be aimed at improving their immunity.
Key features of the Code include:
The scheme will be expanded with a total cost of
▪ Claims: Claims made by medical devices
Rs 1,040 crore. This will be distributed between
companies regarding the usefulness of a
the Centre and states in a 60:40 ratio.
medical device must be based on the latest
evidence. Prohibited claims include: (i) using
other brand names without prior consent of the
respective companies, (ii) calling a medical
device safe without qualification, and (iii) Environment
claiming it to be without side-effects.
The Public Liability Insurance
▪ Promotion: Any promotional material must (Amendment) Rules, 2024 notified
contain details including: (i) generic/brand
name of the medical device, (ii) name/address In December 2024, the Ministry of Environment,
of the manufacturer/importer and the business Forest and Climate Change notified the Public
name/address of the marketeer, (iii) warnings Liability Insurance (Amendment) Rules, 2024.152
and precautions for use, and (iv) a statement These amend the Public Liability Rules, 1991,
stating that additional information is available issued under the Public Liability Insurance Act,
on request. 1991.153,154 The Act provides a framework for
compensation to persons affected by accidents in
▪ Only brand reminders (such as books, diaries, handling of hazardous substances. Key changes
dummy models) worth less than Rs 1,000 each under the Amendment Rules include:
can be circulated. Free evaluation samples
must not be circulated to anyone except the ▪ Increase in limit on liability of insurers:
person qualified to prescribe it or someone Under the Act, an owner of an undertaking
authorised to receive it on their behalf. handling hazardous substances must take
Demonstration products (products that help insurance for their liability to provide relief in
explain functions of a medical device) should the event of an accident. Under the 1991
be taken back by companies after the Rules, in case of an accident, the maximum
demonstration period is over. liability of an insurer was five crore rupees.
The 2024 Rules increase this to Rs 250 crore.
▪ Ethics Committee: An Ethics Committee for In case of more than one accident within one
marketing practices in medical devices must be year or the duration of policy, whichever is
established in all Indian medical device less, the maximum liability of the insurer was
associations. It will address grievances Rs 15 crore under the 1991 Rules. The 2024
regarding compliance with the Code. The Rules increase this to Rs 500 crore.
Committee should pass an order within 90
days of receiving a complaint. Violation of the ▪ Reimbursements to be provided by the
Code will result in penalties such as: (i) owner: The 2024 Rules specify the amount of
expulsion from the association, (ii) issuing a relief to be provided by the owner to the
corrective statement in the media, or (iii) affected persons in specified cases. For
monetary recovery. The Committee’s decision instance, relief of five lakh rupees per person
can be appealed before the Apex Committee must be provided in the event of death. For
within 15 days. The Apex Committee will be damage to private property, relief must cover
actual damage, and is subject to a maximum of
Rs 50 lakh.
24
Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
25
Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
26
Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
27
Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
Centre constituted committee to monitor the end of Lok Sabha constituted in that
situation at the India-Bangladesh border simultaneous election.
In August 2024, the central government constituted The Bill was referred to a Joint Parliamentary
a five-member committee to monitor the current Committee (Chairperson: Mr P.P. Chaudhary)
situation at the India-Bangladesh border.166 The consisting of 39 MPs.
committee will communicate with counterpart For a PRS summary of the Bill, see here.
authorities in Bangladesh and ensure safety of
Indian citizens and minorities in Bangladesh. The
Bill introduced to implement simultaneous
Ministry of External Affairs had highlighted
several attacks on minorities and their institutions
election for Legislative Assemblies of UTs
in Bangladesh amidst the large-scale unrest in the The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill,
country.167 2024 was introduced in Lok Sabha in December
2024.169 It seeks to implement simultaneous
▪ The committee is headed by the Additional
election to UTs with a legislature and amends the
Director General, Border Security Force
following Acts: (i) the Government of Union
(BSF), Eastern Command. Other members
Territories Act, 1963, (ii) the Government of
include Inspector General, BSF Frontier HQ
South Bengal and Secretary, Land and Ports National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991, and
Authority of India. (iii) the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act,
2019. These Acts provide for the structure and
functioning of the Legislative Assemblies of
Puducherry, Delhi, and Jammu and Kashmir (UT
Assemblies). The Bill is similar to the Constitution
Law and Justice (129th) Amendment Bill, 2024.
Constitutional Amendment Bill introduced The Bill has been referred to the JPC along with the
to implement simultaneous election Constitution (129th) Amendment Bill, 2024.
In December 2024, the Constitution (One Hundred For a PRS summary of the Bill, see here.
and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, 2024, was
introduced in Lok Sabha.168 The Bill empowers the Bill to reserve seats for STs in Goa
Election Commission to conduct election for Lok Assembly introduced in Lok Sabha
Sabha and all State Assemblies at the same time
(referred to as simultaneous election). In August 2024, the Readjustment of
Representation of Scheduled Tribes in Assembly
▪ Commencement of simultaneous election: Constituencies of the State of Goa Bill, 2024, was
The President will issue a notification on the introduced in Lok Sabha.170 The Bill seeks to
first sitting of Lok Sabha after a general reserve seats in the Goa Legislative Assembly for
election. The terms of all State Assemblies Scheduled Tribes based on the 2001 census.
constituted after the date of the notification
will expire with the expiry of the full term of For a PRS Summary of the Bill, see here.
Lok Sabha. Hence, elections to Lok Sabha and
all State Assemblies thereafter will be Bombay HC struck down IT Rules
conducted together. establishing fact check unit
▪ Premature dissolution of Lok Sabha or In September 2024, the Bombay High Court struck
State Assemblies: If Lok Sabha or a State down a 2023 amendment to the Information
Assembly is dissolved sooner than its full term Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital
of five years, fresh election will be held for a Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.171,172 The Rules
term equal to the remainder of the five-year require digital intermediaries (such as social media
term. This will synchronise elections for Lok websites) to exercise due diligence in preventing
Sabha and all Assemblies every five years. users from intentionally spreading false or
misleading information. The amendment expanded
▪ Deferring a state election: If the Election
this to prohibit any information regarding business
Commission is of the opinion that the election
of the central government which a fact-check unit
for a particular State Assembly cannot be held
(FCU) of the government identifies as false or
as part of the simultaneous election, it may
misleading.173 The Court held that the amended
make a recommendation to the President.
Rules violated the right to freedom of speech and
Upon this recommendation, the President may
expression under Article 19 of the Constitution.
issue an order to conduct election for this State
Any restriction placed on this right must be
Assembly at a later date. Where the election
reasonable and conform to the restrictions under
for a State Assembly is deferred to after the
provided under the Constitution.
simultaneous election, its term will end with
28
Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
The Court further held that as the FCU will be (waqf-alal-aulad). The Act allowed for waqf
appointed by the executive, the Centre will become creation by any person. The Bill states that
the final arbiter of what constitutes false or only a person showing or demonstrating that
misleading. This violates the principle of natural he/she has been practising Islam for at least
justice. In addition, the Court found the terms five years may declare a waqf. The Bill
‘false or misleading’ to be vague and overbroad in removes waqf by user. It also adds that this
the absence of any guidelines to identify such removal would only apply prospectively.
items. The Court also noted that the amendment
▪ Government property as waqf: The Bill
was beyond the scope of the Information
states that any government property identified
Technology Act, 2000 and therefore could not be a
as waqf will cease to be so. Any officer above
part of the Rules under this Act.174
the rank of a Collector and designated by the
state government will determine ownership in
Supreme Court ruled that government case of uncertainty, and submit a report to the
entities cannot unilaterally appoint state government.
arbitrators
▪ Composition of the Central Waqf Council:
In November 2024, a five-judge bench of the Under the Act, the Union Minister in-charge of
Supreme Court ruled that government entities and waqf is the ex-officio chairperson of the
PSUs cannot unilaterally appoint arbitrators in Council. Members of the Council include
public-private arbitration agreements. It held that Members of Parliament, persons of national
such clauses violate equality and equal protection eminence, retired Supreme Court or High
before law (Article 14).175,176 Court judges, and eminent scholars in Muslim
The Court examined whether: (i) unilateral law. The Act requires that all Council
appointment of arbitrator is legally valid, (ii) such members, barring the Minister, must be
appointment is constitutional, if done by the Muslims, and at least two must be women.
government in a public-private contract, and (iii) The Bill removes the requirement for the MPs,
the principle of equal treatment of parties extends former judges, and eminent persons appointed
to appointment of arbitrators. to the Council to be Muslim. It further
mandates that two members in the Council
The Court held that the principle of equal treatment must be non-Muslims.
of parties applies to all stages of arbitration,
including appointment of arbitrator. It further held ▪ Composition of Waqf Boards: The Act
that allowing one party to unilaterally appoint an provides for election of up to two members
arbitrator raises questions about impartiality of the each from electoral colleges of a state’s
arbitrator. This also hinders the other party from Muslim: (i) MPs, (ii) MLAs and MLCs, and
equally participating in dispute resolution. (iii) Bar Council members, to the Board. The
Bill amends this to empower the state
government to nominate one person from each
of the above groups to the Board. They need
not be Muslims. It adds that the Board must
Minority Affairs have: (i) two non-Muslim members, and (ii) at
Bill to amend law regulating waqf property least one member each from Shias, Sunnis, and
introduced in Lok Sabha Backward classes of Muslims. The Act
provides that at least two members must be
The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 was introduced women. The Bill mandates that two Muslim
in Lok Sabha.177 It seeks to amend the Waqf Act, members be women.
1995.178 The Act regulates waqf property in India.
The Act defines waqf as an endowment of movable For a PRS analysis of the Bill, see here.
or immovable property for purposes considered
pious, religious, or charitable under Muslim law.
The Bill renames the Act to ‘United Waqf
Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and
Development Act, 1995’. The Bill was referred to
a Joint Parliamentary Committee (Chair: Mr.
Jagdambika Pal).179 Key features of the Bill and
the amendments recommended by the JPC include:
▪ Formation of waqf: The Act allowed waqf to
be formed by: (i) declaration, (ii) recognition
based on long-term use (waqf by user), or (iii)
endowment when the line of succession ends
29
Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
1
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3
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The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934,
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The Reserve Bank of India (Treatment of Wilful Defaulters
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and Large Defaulters) Directions, 2024, Reserve Bank of India,
7
Resolution of the Monetary Policy Committee, October 7 to 9, July 30, 2024,
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Official X account of PIB India, 29
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10
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govt-staffers-pensioners-9782164/. 30
The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
11
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12
“GM CR briefs the Media on Unified Pension Scheme for 31
Review of regulatory framework for HFCs and harmonisation
Employees”, Press Information Bureau, Ministry of Railways, of regulations applicable to HFCs and NBFCs, Reserve Bank of
August 26, 2024, India, August 12, 2024,
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Review of regulatory framework for Housing Finance
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amended-by-finance-no.-2-act-2024.pdf. 33
Voluntary Transition of Small Finance Banks to Universal
15
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Lending – Targets and Classification) Directions, 2025, Reserve https://rbidocs.rbi.org.in/rdocs/notification/PDFs/CIRCULARV
Bank of India, March 24, 2025, OLUNTARYTRANSITIONFROMSFBTOUBDC5035CA4F8C
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Small Finance Banks: Balancing Financial Inclusion and
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Review of Master Direction - Non-Banking Financial
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Master Directions - Non-Banking Financial Company – Peer
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announcement of 2024-25”, Press Information Bureau, Ministry Reserve Bank of India, October 4, 2017,
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Annual Policy Review: April 2024 – March 2025 PRS Legislative Research
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39 Scheme for making India Atmanirbhar in electronics supply
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40 Industrial Corridor Development Programme”, Press
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“Government of India developing 11 Industrial Corridor
41
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42
58
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47 Environment and Employment) Policy for Fostering High
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49
“NPS Vatsalya: A Groundbreaking Pension Scheme for 65
Union Cabinet approves establishment of Rs.1,000 crore
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F. NO-CSR/13/35/2024, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, 66
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Sabha on December 10, 2024,
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