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CT MCQ

The document is a multiple-choice questionnaire focused on Computed Tomography (CT), covering various aspects such as imaging modalities, historical developments, technical principles, and advantages of CT. It includes questions about the invention of CT scanners, mathematical techniques used in image reconstruction, and the characteristics of CT imaging. Each question is accompanied by the correct answer, providing a comprehensive overview of key concepts in CT technology.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
153 views11 pages

CT MCQ

The document is a multiple-choice questionnaire focused on Computed Tomography (CT), covering various aspects such as imaging modalities, historical developments, technical principles, and advantages of CT. It includes questions about the invention of CT scanners, mathematical techniques used in image reconstruction, and the characteristics of CT imaging. Each question is accompanied by the correct answer, providing a comprehensive overview of key concepts in CT technology.

Uploaded by

szbalbarada
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY MCQ

BY: BALBARADA, ZHANE A.

1. Which imaging modality eliminates superimposed structures for better anatomical differentiation?
A) Conventional Radiography
B) MRI
C) Computed Tomography (CT)
D) Ultrasound

Correct Answer: C – Computed Tomography (CT)

2. What does the term "tomography" mean, derived from the Greek word "tomos"?
A) Radiation
B) Section
C) Density
D) Rotation

Correct Answer: B – Section

3. Who is credited with inventing the first commercial CT scanner?


A) Wilhelm Roentgen
B) Godfrey Hounsfield
C) Marie Curie
D) Paul Lauterbur

Correct Answer: B – Godfrey Hounsfield

4. What principle developed in 1917 contributed to CT technology?


A) Fourier Transform
B) Radon Transform
C) Gaussian Theorem
D) Newton’s Law

Correct Answer: B – Radon Transform

5. What was the first commercially available CT scanner called?


A) EMI Scan
B) CAT Scanner
C) Radon Machine
D) Nuclear Scanner

Correct Answer: A – EMI Scan

6. Which mathematical technique is used to reconstruct CT images?


A) Gaussian Distribution
B) Algebraic Reconstruction Technique
C) Quantum Mechanics
D) Linear Regression

Correct Answer: B – Algebraic Reconstruction Technique

7. What scanning method allows continuous acquisition scanning?


A) Step-and-shoot scanning
B) Helical scanning
C) X-ray fluoroscopy
D) Ultrasound scanning

Correct Answer: B – Helical scanning

8. What is the main advantage of CT over conventional radiography?


A) Lower radiation exposure
B) Higher contrast resolution
C) Reduced cost
D) Real-time imaging

Correct Answer: B – Higher contrast resolution

9. In CT imaging, what determines slice thickness?


A) Y-axis localization
B) Z-axis localization
C) X-ray tube voltage
D) Detector array sensitivity

Correct Answer: B – Z-axis localization

10. What major company funded the development of CT technology using profits from The Beatles' albums?
A) Sony
B) EMI
C) Philips
D) Siemens

Correct Answer: B – EMI

11. What is the purpose of a bowtie filter in CT imaging?


A) Enhance radiation exposure
B) Shape X-ray intensity based on body thickness
C) Improve motion blur
D) Reduce noise artifacts

Correct Answer: B – Shape X-ray intensity based on body thickness

12. What does the CT number represent?


A) X-ray beam intensity
B) Density of tissues in Hounsfield Units (HU)
C) Patient positioning accuracy
D) Contrast resolution sensitivity

Correct Answer: B – Density of tissues in Hounsfield Units (HU)

13. What does the acronym "CAT" originally stand for?


A) Computed Axial Tomography
B) Computer-Assisted Tomography
C) Clinical Anatomical Testing
D) Conventional Anatomical Tomography

Correct Answer: A – Computed Axial Tomography

14. What device converts raw X-ray data into digital CT images?
A) Collimator
B) Data Acquisition System (DAS)
C) Lead shield
D) Ultrasound probe

Correct Answer: B – Data Acquisition System (DAS)

15. What scanning technique improves image quality by reducing motion artifacts?
A) Step-and-shoot method
B) Slip-ring technology
C) Projection-based X-ray imaging
D) Gamma camera scanning

Correct Answer: B – Slip-ring technology

16. What term refers to the relationship between X-ray attenuation and tissue density?
A) Spatial resolution
B) Contrast resolution
C) Linearity
D) Temporal resolution

Correct Answer: C – Linearity

17. Which component controls slice thickness in multi-slice CT?


A) X-ray tube power
B) Detector width
C) Rotation speed
D) Beam collimation

Correct Answer: B – Detector width

18. What scanning technique allows a single breath-hold examination?


A) Static imaging
B) Helical CT scanning
C) Gamma camera scanning
D) Conventional step-and-shoot scanning

Correct Answer: B – Helical CT scanning

19. Which scientist developed the first whole-body CT scanner in 1974?


A) Wilhelm Roentgen
B) Robert Ledley
C) Marie Curie
D) Allan Cormack

Correct Answer: B – Robert Ledley

20. What image processing method enhances CT contrast resolution?


A) Magnetic resonance imaging
B) Iterative reconstruction algorithms
C) Ultrasound wave interpretation
D) Linear regression smoothing

Correct Answer: B – Iterative reconstruction algorithms

21. What component in CT scanning converts X-ray photons into electrical signals?
A) Collimator
B) Photomultiplier tube
C) Detector array
D) Lead shield

Correct Answer: C – Detector array

22. Which term refers to the ability of a CT system to distinguish objects with similar densities?
A) Spatial resolution
B) Contrast resolution
C) Linearity
D) Temporal resolution

Correct Answer: B – Contrast resolution

23. What mathematical technique corrects for blurring in CT image reconstruction?


A) Radon transform
B) Gaussian smoothing
C) Filtered back projection
D) Neural network analysis

Correct Answer: C – Filtered back projection

24. What scanning method uses multiple rows of detectors to improve coverage?
A) Step-and-shoot scanning
B) Multidetector-row CT (MDCT)
C) Gamma-ray imaging
D) Ultrasound scanning

Correct Answer: B – Multidetector-row CT (MDCT)

25. Which of the following affects spatial resolution in CT imaging?


A) X-ray tube voltage
B) Detector size
C) Use of contrast agent
D) Patient positioning

Correct Answer: B – Detector size

26. What historical event led to EMI funding the development of CT scanners?
A) Moon landing
B) Success of The Beatles' albums
C) Discovery of X-rays
D) Cold War nuclear research

Correct Answer: B – Success of The Beatles' albums

27. What term describes the process of adjusting CT gray-scale intensity for better visualization?
A) Windowing
B) Beam hardening
C) Scatter correction
D) Quantum filtering

Correct Answer: A – Windowing

28. Which scanning method eliminates inter-scan delays using slip rings?
A) Step-and-shoot scanning
B) Conventional CT
C) Spiral CT
D) Ultrasound imaging

Correct Answer: C – Spiral CT

29. What does pitch refer to in spiral CT?


A) X-ray tube power output
B) Table movement relative to slice thickness
C) Image contrast ratio
D) X-ray photon energy levels

Correct Answer: B – Table movement relative to slice thickness

30. What measurement determines the size of a pixel in CT imaging?


A) Field of View (FOV) divided by matrix size
B) Window level adjustment
C) X-ray tube voltage
D) Contrast media absorption rate

Correct Answer: A – Field of View (FOV) divided by matrix size

31. What type of filter improves soft tissue contrast in CT imaging?


A) Soft tissue kernel filter
B) Hard X-ray filter
C) High-voltage smoothing filter
D) Gamma-ray suppression filter

Correct Answer: A – Soft tissue kernel filter

32. What CT scan feature helps ensure precise patient alignment before imaging?
A) Windowing
B) Scanogram
C) Image annotation
D) Ring artifact correction

Correct Answer: B – Scanogram

33. What major CT advantage allows for better visualization of soft tissue?
A) Increased spatial resolution
B) Enhanced contrast resolution
C) Lower radiation exposure
D) Real-time imaging

Correct Answer: B – Enhanced contrast resolution

34. What CT detector type is known for high sensitivity and faster response times?
A) Gas-filled detector
B) Solid-state scintillation detector
C) Gamma-ray detector
D) Lead shield detector

Correct Answer: B – Solid-state scintillation detector

35. What artifact occurs due to detector calibration errors in third-generation scanners?
A) Motion blur
B) Ring artifact
C) Beam hardening
D) Partial volume effect

Correct Answer: B – Ring artifact

36. What is a common scanning mode used in CT technology?


A) Fan-beam geometry
B) Step-and-shoot scanning
C) Cone-beam geometry
D) Parallel-beam geometry

Correct Answer: B – Step-and-shoot scanning

37. What CT hardware ensures continuous gantry rotation without cable entanglement?
A) Collimator
B) Slip rings
C) Linear encoder
D) Digital transformer

Correct Answer: B – Slip rings

38. What principle does filtered back projection aim to correct in CT imaging?
A) Scatter noise
B) Motion blur
C) Star-like artifacts
D) Low contrast resolution

Correct Answer: C – Star-like artifacts

39. Which CT scan generation introduced slip-ring technology?


A) First-generation
B) Third-generation
C) Fourth-generation
D) Fifth-generation

Correct Answer: C – Fourth-generation

40. What scanning method provides continuous X-ray emission without reversing gantry movement?
A) Step-and-shoot scanning
B) Spiral CT scanning
C) Gamma-ray emission imaging
D) Ultrasound-based imaging

Correct Answer: B – Spiral CT scanning

41. What advantage does multi-slice CT (MSCT) offer compared to conventional CT?
A) Lower spatial resolution
B) Faster scanning times
C) Reduced radiation exposure
D) Limited tissue differentiation

Correct Answer: B – Faster scanning times

42. Which imaging characteristic is quantified using Hounsfield units (HU)?


A) Spatial resolution
B) Contrast resolution
C) Tissue attenuation
D) Image noise

Correct Answer: C – Tissue attenuation

43. What function does collimation serve in CT scanning?


A) Focus X-ray beams onto a detector array
B) Eliminate scattered radiation
C) Control X-ray beam width
D) Enhance soft tissue contrast

Correct Answer: C – Control X-ray beam width

44. What is the primary component responsible for acquiring raw X-ray data in CT?
A) Photomultiplier tube
B) Collimator
C) Detector assembly
D) X-ray shield

Correct Answer: C – Detector assembly

45. What factor influences contrast resolution in CT imaging?


A) Use of lower kVp settings
B) Increased pitch ratio
C) Scanner gantry rotation speed
D) Detector array curvature

Correct Answer: A – Use of lower kVp settings

46. What is the primary function of the slip ring in CT scanning?


A) Reducing image contrast
B) Enabling continuous gantry rotation
C) Filtering low-energy X-rays
D) Adjusting spatial resolution

Correct Answer: B – Enabling continuous gantry rotation

47. What CT artifact results from beam attenuation differences across dense structures?
A) Partial volume effect
B) Beam hardening
C) Motion blur
D) Scatter radiation

Correct Answer: B – Beam hardening

48. What component minimizes scatter radiation effects in CT imaging?


A) Lead shielding
B) Bowtie filter
C) X-ray collimation
D) Image annotation

Correct Answer: B – Bowtie filter

49. What term describes the ratio of table movement to slice thickness in spiral CT?
A) Pitch
B) Beam attenuation
C) Detector absorption
D) Contrast ratio

Correct Answer: A – Pitch

50. Which scanning method was first introduced in fourth-generation CT systems?


A) Translate-rotate motion
B) Stationary detector ring
C) Gas-filled detector arrays
D) Parallel-beam geometry

Correct Answer: B – Stationary detector ring

51. What unit is used to measure X-ray attenuation in CT imaging?


A) Gauss
B) Tesla
C) Hounsfield Unit (HU)
D) Radon Value

Correct Answer: C – Hounsfield Unit (HU)

52. What imaging technique allows for 3D visualization of CT scan data?


A) Maximum Intensity Projection (MIP)
B) Simple back projection
C) Gamma-ray reflection imaging
D) Linear regression analysis

Correct Answer: A – Maximum Intensity Projection (MIP)

53. What term describes image blurring caused by inconsistent detector calibration?
A) Motion artifacts
B) Ring artifacts
C) Beam divergence
D) Spatial misalignment

Correct Answer: B – Ring artifacts

54. Which component helps prevent excessive heating in CT X-ray tubes?


A) Rotating anode
B) High-voltage generator
C) Pulse height analyzer
D) Detector assembly

Correct Answer: A – Rotating anode

55. What feature of solid-state detectors improves image acquisition efficiency?


A) High photon absorption
B) Slow response times
C) Narrow X-ray beam collimation
D) Low contrast resolution

Correct Answer: A – High photon absorption

56. Which CT reconstruction technique eliminates streak artifacts?


A) Neural network processing
B) Filtered back projection
C) Linear smoothing
D) Beam hardening correction

Correct Answer: B – Filtered back projection

57. What quality control parameter ensures uniform tissue attenuation measurements?
A) Noise suppression
B) Linearity
C) Detector recalibration
D) Contrast optimization

Correct Answer: B – Linearity

58. What scanning method provides continuous data acquisition during patient movement?
A) Step-and-shoot CT
B) Helical CT
C) Ultrasound CT
D) Gamma-ray tomography

Correct Answer: B – Helical CT

59. Which system component reduces X-ray exposure to the patient?


A) Lead shielding
B) Bowtie filter
C) Collimator
D) Contrast agent

Correct Answer: B – Bowtie filter

60. What innovation in third-generation CT scanners significantly improved scan speed?


A) Fan-beam geometry
B) Slip-ring technology
C) Stationary detector ring
D) Gas-filled detector arrays

Correct Answer: A – Fan-beam geometry

61. What feature of multi-slice CT improves patient throughput?


A) Faster scan duration
B) Reduced tissue resolution
C) Increased scatter radiation
D) Lower detector sensitivity

Correct Answer: A – Faster scan duration

62. What principle allows CT scanners to measure tissue densities?


A) X-ray attenuation
B) Gamma-ray fluorescence
C) Ultrasound reflection
D) Magnetic field resonance

Correct Answer: A – X-ray attenuation

63. What imaging technique reduces motion artifacts in cardiac scanning?


A) Electron Beam CT (EBCT)
B) Magnetic resonance imaging
C) Ultrasound tomography
D) Parallel-beam scanning

Correct Answer: A – Electron Beam CT (EBCT)

64. What type of resolution refers to the ability to differentiate objects of similar densities?
A) Spatial resolution
B) Contrast resolution
C) Temporal resolution
D) Image uniformity

Correct Answer: B – Contrast resolution

65. What CT image processing method enhances visibility of bone structures?


A) High-pass filtering
B) Spatial resolution adjustment
C) Bone window setting
D) Detector array expansion

Correct Answer: C – Bone window setting

66. What defines temporal resolution in CT imaging?


A) The speed at which scan data is acquired
B) The differentiation of tissues with similar densities
C) The ability to reconstruct images with fewer artifacts
D) The arrangement of detector rows

Correct Answer: A – The speed at which scan data is acquired

67. What innovation allowed modern CT scanners to reconstruct images almost instantly?
A) Array processors
B) Low-energy X-ray filtering
C) Parallel detector scanning
D) Gas-filled detector arrays

Correct Answer: A – Array processors

68. What CT scanning approach captures images in different planes beyond axial slices?
A) Multiplanar reconstruction (MPR)
B) Gamma-ray fluorescence analysis
C) Electron beam CT scanning
D) Parallel projection mapping

Correct Answer: A – Multiplanar reconstruction (MPR)

69. Which generation of CT scanners introduced multiple detector rows?


A) Fourth-generation
B) Fifth-generation
C) Sixth-generation
D) Seventh-generation

Correct Answer: D – Seventh-generation

70. What CT scanning method enables precise visualization of arteries?


A) CT angiography
B) Cone-beam tomography
C) Step-and-shoot imaging
D) X-ray contrast suppression

Correct Answer: A – CT angiography

71. What component helps reduce scatter radiation in CT imaging?


A) Bowtie filter
B) Collimator
C) Lead shielding
D) High-frequency generator

Correct Answer: B – Collimator

72. What factor determines the sharpness of a CT image?


A) Spatial resolution
B) Temporal resolution
C) Contrast resolution
D) Scan field of view

Correct Answer: A – Spatial resolution

73. Which term describes unwanted distortions in CT images?


A) Artifacts
B) Pixel density variations
C) Hounsfield calibration errors
D) Beam divergence

Correct Answer: A – Artifacts

74. What software correction reduces ring artifacts?


A) Image processing algorithm
B) Filtered back projection
C) Contrast enhancement
D) Pixel interpolation mapping

Correct Answer: A – Image processing algorithm

75. What component defines the brightness and contrast of CT images?


A) Window level
B) Spatial resolution settings
C) X-ray filtration
D) Detector calibration

Correct Answer: A – Window level

76. What artifact occurs when two tissues with similar densities overlap?
A) Partial volume artifact
B) Beam hardening artifact
C) Motion blur
D) Image distortion

Correct Answer: A – Partial volume artifact

77. What feature ensures accurate contrast enhancement in CT scans?


A) Optimal window width
B) High-energy X-ray filtering
C) Gantry speed control
D) Gamma-ray suppression

Correct Answer: A – Optimal window width

78. What technology ensures CT imaging clarity in obese patients?


A) Adaptive filtering algorithms
B) Bowtie filter adjustments
C) Enhanced collimation
D) X-ray dose modulation

Correct Answer: D – X-ray dose modulation

79. What is another term for a scanogram in CT imaging?


A) Calibration scan
B) Pilot scan
C) Contrast scan
D) Fluoroscopic scan

Correct Answer: B – Pilot scan

80. What factor affects the resolution of a scanogram in CT imaging?


A) Tube voltage and contrast level
B) Scan speed and exposure output
C) Detector sensitivity and collimator width
D) Image matrix and pixel intensity

Correct Answer: B – Scan speed and exposure output

81. What is the primary role of grid application in CT imaging?


A) Adjust contrast resolution
B) Confirm exact centering of the patient
C) Reduce scatter radiation
D) Minimize artifacts in reconstruction

Correct Answer: B – Confirm exact centering of the patient

82. What feature in CT allows an area of interest to be outlined?


A) Suppression
B) Cursor
C) Histogram
D) Reverse display

Correct Answer: B – Cursor

83. Which function in CT imaging permits the removal of surgical clip interference?
A) Image annotation
B) Grid alignment
C) Suppression
D) Window leveling

Correct Answer: C – Suppression

84. What imaging technique helps determine tissue density distributions?


A) Spatial resolution mapping
B) Histogram analysis
C) Multi-planar reconstruction
D) X-ray contrast enhancement

Correct Answer: B – Histogram analysis

85. What is the primary advantage of spiral CT imaging?


A) Reduces radiation exposure
B) Images larger tissue volumes in a single breath-hold
C) Requires less contrast agent
D) Eliminates the need for collimation

Correct Answer: B – Images larger tissue volumes in a single breath-hold

86. What is another term for Scan Field of View (SFOV)?


A) Calibration Field of View
B) Image Processing Field
C) Contrast Adjustment Field
D) Detector Input Field

Correct Answer: A – Calibration Field of View

87. What issue arises when parts of the patient extend beyond the SFOV?
A) Spatial resolution loss
B) Motion blur
C) Out-of-field artifacts
D) Detector saturation

Correct Answer: C – Out-of-field artifacts

88. What is another term for Display Field of View (DFOV)?


A) Pixel Density Ratio
B) Target or Zoom Field
C) Reconstruction Model
D) Contrast Enhancement Zone

Correct Answer: B – Target or Zoom Field

89. What function does an interpolation algorithm perform in CT scanning?


A) Enhances scan speed
B) Reconstructs an image at any z-axis position
C) Determines contrast resolution
D) Aligns scan projections

Correct Answer: B – Reconstructs an image at any z-axis position

90. What interpolation algorithm was first used in spiral CT reconstruction?


A) 180-degree interpolation
B) Gaussian smoothening
C) Linear regression filtering
D) 360-degree linear interpolation

Correct Answer: D – 360-degree linear interpolation

91. What is the disadvantage of 180-degree interpolation in spiral CT?


A) Increased image noise
B) Lower contrast resolution
C) Poor sagittal and coronal reconstruction
D) Increased motion artifacts

Correct Answer: A – Increased image noise

92. What effect does a pitch greater than 2.0 have on CT imaging?
A) Poor z-axis resolution
B) Reduced spatial resolution
C) Increased contrast accuracy
D) High radiation absorption

Correct Answer: A – Poor z-axis resolution

93. What happens when pitch is increased beyond optimal levels?


A) Overlapping images and higher radiation dose
B) Decreased spatial resolution and lower scan efficiency
C) Reduced patient exposure and improved contrast resolution
D) Enhanced structural detail but higher processing delays

Correct Answer: A – Overlapping images and higher radiation dose

94. What material is used as slip ring brush components?


A) Carbon fiber
B) Silver graphite alloy
C) Aluminum oxide
D) Tungsten carbide

Correct Answer: B – Silver graphite alloy

95. What scan modification helps reduce heat buildup in spiral CT tubes?
A) Lowering tube voltage
B) Using two focal spots
C) Increasing collimator width
D) Reducing scan field size

Correct Answer: B – Using two focal spots

96. What component ensures high heat capacity in spiral CT x-ray tubes?
A) Thermal cooling fans
B) Increased slip ring conductivity
C) High-power voltage generators
D) 8 MHU heat capacity systems

Correct Answer: D – 8 MHU heat capacity systems

97. What effect does low pitch have on spiral CT scanning?


A) Extended imaging and reduced patient dose
B) Poor contrast resolution and high image noise
C) Faster scan acquisition with increased motion artifacts
D) Overlapping images and improper reconstruction

Correct Answer: A – Extended imaging and reduced patient dose

98. What CT feature ensures contrast filling observations in vascular studies?


A) Dynamic scanning
B) Filtered back projection
C) Beam hardening correction
D) Out-of-field artifact suppression

Correct Answer: A – Dynamic scanning

99. What CT feature provides depth to a 3D reconstructed image?


A) Shaded Volume Display (SVD)
B) Step-and-shoot analysis
C) Gamma-ray suppression mapping
D) Contrast ratio realignment

Correct Answer: A – Shaded Volume Display (SVD)

100. What defines transverse (y-axis) resolution in CT imaging?


A) Reconstruction matrix and field of view
B) Window width setting and contrast ratio
C) Patient positioning and exposure time
D) Table motion and scan projection speed

Correct Answer: A – Reconstruction matrix and field of view

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