Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

Q1. Which of the following statements

about the Two Phase Locking (2PL) Q4. Let ri(z) and wi(z) denote read and
protocol is NOT TRUE? write operations respectively on a data
item z by a transaction T. Consider the
(A) 2PL permits only serializable following two schedules.
schedules
(B) With 2PL, a transaction always locks S1: r1(x),r1(y),r2(x),r2(y),w2(y),w1(x)
the data item being read or written
just before every operation and ​ S2: r1(x),r2(x),r2(y),w2(y),r1(y),w1(x)
always releases the lock just after
the operation ​ Which one of the following options is
(C) with 2PL, once a lock is released on correct?
any data item inside a transaction, no
(A) S1 is conflict serializable, and S2 is
more locks on any data item can be
not conflict serializable
obtained inside that transaction
(B) S1 is not conflict serializable, and S2
(D) A deadlock is possible with 2PL
is conflict serializable
Q2. Once the DBMS informs the user (C) Both S1 and S2 are conflict
that a transaction has been successfully serializable
completed, its effect should persist even (D) Neither S1 or S2 is conflict
if the system crashes before all its serializable
changes are reflected on disk. This
Q5. Which SQL command is used
property is called
to define a point to which a
(A) durability (B) atomicity transaction can be rolled back?
(C) consistency (D) isolation
(A) COMMIT (B) ROLLBACK
Q3. Let Ri(z) and Wi(z) denote read and (C) SAVEPOINT (D) RESTORE
write operations on a data element z by a
Q6. Suppose a database system crashes
transaction Ti respectively. Consider the
again while recovering from a previous
schedule S with four transactions.
crash. Assume checkpointing is not
S:R4(x),R2(x),R3(x),R1(y),W1(y),W2(x),​ done by the database either during the
W3(y),R4(y) transactions or during recovery.​
Which of the following statements is/are
Which one of the following serial correct?
schedules is conflict equivalent to S ?
(A) The same undo and redo list will be
(A) T1 → T3 → T4 → T2 used while recovering again
(B) T1 → T4 → T3 → T2 (B) The system cannot recover any
(C) T4 → T1 → T3 → T2 further
(D) T3 → T1 → T4 → T2
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Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

(C) All the transactions that are already Step 1. T acquires exclusive locks to
undone and redone will not be O1,...,Ok in increasing order of their
recovered again addresses.​
(D) The database will become Step 2. The required operations are
inconsistent performed.​
Step 3. All locks are released.​
Q7. Consider the following two This protocol will_________ .
statements about database transaction
schedules: (A) guarantee serializability and
deadlock- freedom
I. Strict two-phase locking protocol (B) guarantee neither serializability nor
generates conflict serializable schedules deadlock-freedom
that are also recoverable. (C) guarantee serializability but not
deadlock-freedom
II. Timestamp-ordering concurrency (D) guarantee deadlock-freedom but not
control protocol with Thomas' Write serializability
Rule can generate view serializable
schedules that are not conflict Q10. Which one of the following is NOT a
serializable. part of the ACID properties of database
Which of the above statements is/are transactions?
TRUE?
(A) Atomicity (B) Consistency
(A) I only (B) II only (C) Isolation (D) Deadlock-freedom
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
Q11. Which one of the following state
Q8. Which of the following concurrency transition is made when the transaction​
control protocols ensure both conflict has been rolled back and the database is
and free from deadlock? restored to the state prior to the start of
the transition?
(A) Timestamp ordering
(B) 2 Phase locking (A) Active →Partially Committed
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Active →Committed
(D) None of the above (C) Active →Aborted
(D) None of these
Q9. Consider the following two phase
locking protocol. Suppose a transaction
T accesses (for read or write operations)
a certain set of objects (O1,...,Ok). This is
done in the following manner:
 Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

Q12. What is the equivalent serial T1 T2 T3

schedule for the following transactions?
Read (X)

Read (Y)

Read (Y)

Write (Y)

Write (X)

Write (X)

Read (X)

Write (X)

(A) T1 → T2 → T3 (B) T3 → T1 →T2 Which one of the schedules below is the

(C) T2 → T1 → T3 (D) T1 → T3 → T2 correct serialization of the above?
Q13. Consider the following transaction (A) T1 → T3 → T2 (B) T2 → T1 → T3
involving two bank accounts x and y. (C) T2 → T3 → T1 (D) T3 → T1 → T2
read(x); ​
x := x-50; Q15. Which of the following scenarios
write(x); may lead to an irrecoverable error in a
read(y); database system?
y := y+50;
write(y)​ (A) A transaction writes a data item after
The constraint that the sum of the it is read by an uncommitted
accounts x and y should remain constant transaction
is that of? (B) A transaction reads a data item after
it is read by an uncommitted
(A) Atomicity transaction
(B) Consistency (C) A transaction reads a data item after
(C) Isolation it is written by a committed
(D) Durability transaction
(D)A transaction reads a data item after
Q14. Consider the following schedule for it is written by an uncommitted
transactions T1, T2 and T3: transaction
 Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

Q16. Which of the following is correct Given a transaction in active state during
with respect to Two phase commit its execution, ûnd its next transitioned
protocol? state from the options given below:

(A) Ensures serializability (A) A only (B) C only

(B) Prevents Deadlock (C) D only (D) Either A or C only
(C) Detects Deadlock
(D) Recover from Deadlock Q19. Two concurrent executing
transactions T1 and T2 are allowed to
Q17. Given below are two statements: update the same stock item, say 'A' in an
uncontrolled manner. In such a scenario,
Which of the following concurrency following problems may occur: occur:
control protocols ensures both conflict
serializability and freedom from (i) Dirty read problem
deadlock? (ii) Lost update problem
(iii) Transaction failure
Statement (I): Two phase locking​ (iv) Inconsistent database state
Statement (II): Timestamp ordering Which of the following options is correct
if the database system has no
In the light of the above statements, concurrency module and allows
choose the most appropriate answer concurrent execution of above two
from the options given below: transactions?
(A) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
are correct (B) (iii) and (iv) only
(B) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) (C) (i) and (ii) only
are incorrect (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(C) Statement (I) is correct but
Statement (II) is incorrect Q20. Suppose a database schedule S
(D) Statement (I) is incorrect but involves transactions T1, T2, .......... Tn.​
Statement (II) is correct Consider the precedence graph of S with
vertices representing the transactions
Q18. A transaction may be in one of the and edges representing the conflicts. If
following states during its execution life S is serializable, which one of the
cycle in a concurrent execution following orderings of the vertices of the
environment. precedence graph is guaranteed to yield
a serial schedule?
A. FAILED
B. TERMINATED (A) Topological order
C. PARTIALLY COMMITTED (B) Depth - first order
D. COMMITTED (C) Breadth - first order
E. ACTIVE (D) Ascending order of transaction
indices
 Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

Q21. The Transport Layer is responsible Q26. A client program normally uses
for: ________ port number. A server program
normally uses__________ port number.
(A) Physical addressing of data.
(B) Establishing connections between (A) a well-known; an ephemeral
devices. (B) an ephemeral; a well-known
(C) Formatting and converting data for (C) a private; a well-known
presentation. (D) None of the choices are correct
(D) Reliable data delivery between end
systems. Q27. In TCP, a FIN + ACK segment
consumes ________ sequence number(s) if
Q22. Which of the following is not a it does not carry data.
function of the Transport Layer?
(A) two (B) three
(A) Segmenting and reassembling data. (C) one (D) no
(B) Establishing and terminating
connections. Q28. A socket address is a combination
(C) Encrypting and decrypting data. of…………?
(D) Multiplexing and demultiplexing data
(A) A MAC address and a logical address
Q23. At the transport layer, to define the (B) A MAC address and a port number
processes, we need two identifiers (C) a user-specific address and a logical
called…………? address​
(D) None of the choices are correct
(A) logical addresses
(B) physical addresses Q29. Clark's solution can solve the silly​
(C) port addresses window syndrome created by the…………?
(D) None of the choices are correct
(A) sender
Q24. UDP packets have a fixed-size (B) receiver
header of………bytes. (C) both sender and receiver
(D) None of the choices are correct
(A) 16 (B) 8
(C) 40 (D) 32 Q30. We need to multiply the header length
field by _____ to find the total number of
Q25. The connection establishment bytes in the TCP header.
procedure in TCP is susceptible to a
serious security problem called (A) 2 (B) 4
the......... attack. (C) 6 (D) None of the choices are correct

(A) ACK flooding Q31. In TCP's _____ algorithm the size

(B) FIN flooding of the congestion window increases
(C) SYN flooding additively until congestion is
(D) None of the choices are correct detected.
 Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

(A) congestion avoidance Q35. Consider a TCP connection in a state

(B) congestion detection where there are no outstanding ACKs. The
(C) slow start sender sends two segments back to back.
(D) None of the choices are correct The sequence numbers of the first and
second segments are 220 and 250
Q32. What is the maximum size of data respectively. The first segment was lost,
that the application layer can pass on to but the second segment was received
the TCP layer below? correctly by the receiver. Let X be the
amount of data carried in the first segment
(A) Any size (in bytes), and Y be the ACK number sent
(B) 216 bytes – size of TCP header by the receiver. The values of X and Y (in
(C) 216 bytes that order) are
(D) 1500 bytes
(A) 30 and 250 (B) 220 and 251
Q33. In TCP, a unique sequence number is (C) 30 and 221 (D) 30 and 220
assigned to each
Q36. In the slow start phase of the TCP
(A) byte (B) word congestion algorithm, the size of the
(C) segment (D) message congestion window ?
Q34. Consider the three-way handshake (A) does not increase
mechanism followed during TCP (B) increase linearly
connection establishment between hosts P (C) increases quadratically
and Q. ​ (D) increases exponentially
Let X and Y be two random 32-bit starting
sequence numbers chosen by P and Q Q37. Consider an instance of TCP’s
respectively. ​ Additive Increase Multiplicative Decrease
Suppose P sends a TCP connection (AIMD) algorithm where the window size at
request message to Q with a TCP segment the start of the slow start phase is 2 MSS
having SYN bit =1, SEQ number =X, and and the threshold at the start of the first
ACK bit =0. Suppose Q accepts the transmission is 8 MSS. Assume that a
connection request. Which one of the timeout occurs during the fifth
following choices represents the transmission. Find the congestion window
information present in the TCP segment size at the end of the tenth transmission.
header that is sent by Q to P?
(A) 8 MSS (B) 14 MSS
(A) SYN bit =1, SEQ number =X+1, (C) 7 MSS (D) 12 MSS
ACK bit =0, ACK number =Y, FIN bit =0
(B) SYN bit =0, SEQ number =X+1, Q38. Identify the correct order in which a
ACK bit =0, ACK number =Y, FIN bit =1 server process must invoke the function
(C) SYN bit =1, SEQ number =Y, ACK bit =1, calls accept, bind, listen, and recv
ACK number =X+1, FIN bit =0 according to UNIX socket API.
(D) SYN bit =1, SEQ number =Y, ACK bit =1,
ACK number =X, FIN bit =0
 Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

(A) listen, accept, bind recv Q43. What does the term 'regression
(B) bind, listen, accept, recv testing' refer to?
(C) bind, accept, listen, recv
(D) accept, listen, bind, recv (A) Testing the software for the first time
(B) Testing after changes to ensure existing
Q39. Which of the following statements are functionality works
TRUE? ​ (C) Testing that is done manually
(S1) TCP handles both congestion and flow (D) Testing that is done by end-users
control
(S2) UDP handles congestion but not flow Q44. In which testing phase is the software
control product verified against the requirements?
(S3) Fast retransmit deals with congestion
but not flow control (A) Unit Testing
(S4) Slow start mechanism deals with both (B) System Testing
congestion and flow control (C) Acceptance Testing
(D) Integration Testing
(A) S1, S2 and S3 only
(B) S1 and S3 only Q45. What is the difference between
(C) S3 and S4 only white-box testing and black-box testing?
(D) S1, S3 and S4 only
(A) White-box testing is done by end-users,
Q40. Packets of the same session may be black box testing is done by
routed through different paths in: developers.
(B) White-box testing examines internal
(A) TCP, but not UDP code structure, black-box testing
(B) TCP and UDP focuses on functionality.
(C) UDP, but not TCP (C) White-box testing is faster than
(D) Neither TCP nor UDP black-box testing.
(D) There is no difference.
Q41. What is the primary purpose of
software testing? Q46. Which of the following tools is
primarily used for automated testing?
(A) To ensure the software is developed on
time (A) Selenium (B) JIRA
(B) To find and fix defects in the software (C) Git (D) Visual Studio
(C) To improve the user interface
(D) To reduce the development cost Q47. What does a test case typically
include?
Q42. Which of the following is a type of
non-functional testing? ​ (A) Test ID, description, preconditions, and
(A) Unit Testing expected results
(B) Integration Testing (B) Only expected results
(C) Performance Testing (C) Only a description
(D) System Testing (D) Test ID and a checklist
 Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

Q48. What is a 'bug life cycle"? Q53. What is a 'defect density"?

(A) The stages a bug goes through from (A) The number of defects per test case
discovery to resolution (B) The number of defects per lines of
(B) The testing phases of a software code
application (C) The severity of defects found
(C) The development cycle of a software (D) The total number of defects reported
project
(D) The various types of bugs Q54. Which of the following is NOT a
encountered testing method?

Q49. What is the purpose of user (A) Manual Testing

acceptance testing (UAT)? (B) Automated Testing
(C) Document Testing
(A) To test the code quality (D) Performance Testing
(B) To validate the software against
business requirements Q55. What is static testing?
(C) To test system performance
(D) To check security vulnerabilities (A) Testing performed while the software
is running
Q50. What does the acronym 'SRS' stand (B) Testing done without executing the
for in software testing? code
(C) Testing done in a production
(A) Software Requirement Specification environment
(B) Software Review Standard (D) Testing that requires user interaction
(C) Software Release System
(D) System Requirement Specification Q56. Which testing type focuses on
individual components of the software?
Q51. What is exploratory testing?
(A) System Testing
(A) Testing based on predefined test (B) Unit Testing
cases (C) Integration Testing
(B) Testing without a formal test plan (D) Acceptance Testing
(C) Automated testing of exploratory
features Q57. What is the main goal of
(D) Testing performed by automated performance testing?
tools
(A) To check the security of the software
Q52. What does 'test coverage' refer to? (B) To ensure the software meets
performance benchmarks
(A) The percentage of code that is tested (C) To find functional defects
(B) The number of test cases created (D) To validate user requirements
(C) The time taken to execute test cases
(D) The total number of bugs found
 Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

Q58. Which of the following best Q62. Which of the following components
describes 'smoke testing" ? is not typically included in an SQA plan?

(A) A thorough testing of all features (A) Quality goals

(B) Basic tests to check if the software (B) Risk management plan
build is stable enough for further (C) Test procedures and responsibilities
testing (D) Code refactoring strategy
(C) Testing to identify performance
issues Q63. Which of the following best defines
(D) Testing for security vulnerabilities verification in the SQA context?

Q59. What is 'alpha testing"? (A) Checking whether the software

meets customer expectations
(A) Testing performed by external users (B) Ensuring the software conforms to
(B) Initial testing done by developers the requirements specification
before beta testing (C) Performing usability testing with
(C) Testing performed in a production end-users
environment (D) Deploying software into the
(D) Automated testing of the entire production environment
system
Q64. Which ISO standard is most directly
Q60. What does 'test automation' help to related to Software Quality Assurance
achieve? practices?

(A) Increased manual testing effort (A) ISO 27001 (B) ISO 9001
(B) Faster execution of repetitive tests (C) ISO 12207 (D) ISO 14001
(C) Eliminating the need for testing
(D) More bugs in the software Q65. In the Context of Software quality
assurance, Which is not a main category
Q61. Which of the following best of quality factor.
represents the primary goal of
incorporating Software Quality (A) Project Operation Factor
Assurance (SQA) in software project (B) Project Transition Factor
planning? (C) Project Testing Factor
(D) Project Revision Factor
(A) To reduce the number of developers
required for a project Q66. How does SQA contribute during
(B) To ensure software adheres to software project planning?
customer budget and deadlines
(C) To define standards and procedures (A) By defining algorithms to optimize
to ensure quality objectives are met code performance
(D) To increase the number of features in (B) By reviewing software architecture
the software product only after coding begins
 Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

(C) By identifying quality objectives and Q71. What is the key difference between
integrating them into the project plan validation and verification as SQA
(D) By delegating quality activities to techniques?
external vendors only
(A) Validation checks for errors in
Q67. What is the relationship between documentation; verification checks
SQA and risk management in project only source code
planning? (B) Validation ensures requirements are
met; verification checks if the
(A) SQA eliminates all project risks product is built correctly
(B) SQA reduces risk by ensuring proper (C) Validation occurs before
validation, verification, and implementation; verification happens
compliance after deployment
(C) Risk management replaces the need (D) Verification includes testing;
for SQA validation excludes testing
(D) SQA is only applied after risk events
occur Q72. In terms of quality assurance,
Pareto analysis is used to:
Q68. Which of the following is a direct
benefit of implementing SQA early in (A) Rank team members by productivity
project planning? (B) Prioritize defect fixing based on
frequency and impact
(A) Reduced need for documentation (C) Predict project completion time
(B) Elimination of code-level bugs (D) Conduct security audits
(C) Early identification of process
inefficiencies Q73. What is the primary objective of a
(D) Faster release cycles by skipping software quality audit during project
testing planning?

Q69. Which one is not a part of Project (A) To test performance metrics
Operation Factor. (B) To measure customer satisfaction
(C) To ensure SQA processes and
(A) Efficiency (B) Flexibility policies are correctly followed
(C) Usability (D) Integrity (D) To gather user feedback for design
improvements
Q70. Which of the following SQA
techniques is most suitable for Q74. Which one is not a part of Project
preventing defects before they occur? Transition Factor.

(A) Beta testing (A) Portability

(B) Code walkthrough (B) Reusability
(C) Fault injection (C) Interoperability
(D) Formal technical reviews (D) Maintainability
 Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

Q75. Which of the following is not Q79. One major challenge in implement
considered a core element of an -ing SQA in Agile environments is:
effective SQA system?
(A) Lack of team members
(A) Software engineering standards (B) SQA contradicts iterative
(B) Formal technical reviews development and adaptive planning
(C) Debugging tools (C) SQA tools are not compatible with
(D) Measurement and reporting Agile
mechanisms (D) Agile eliminates the need for quality
control
Q76. Which of the following is the most
strategic benefit of incorporating SQA in Q80. Excessive focus on formal SQA
software project planning? documentation during project planning
can result in:
(A) It guarantees zero bugs in final
delivery (A) Enhanced code modularity
(B) It helps deliver projects faster (B) Team demotivation and reduced
regardless of scope agility
(C) It ensures systematic prevention and (C) Improved software portability
early detection of defects (D) Higher runtime performance
(D) It eliminates the need for formal
documentation Q81. How many triangles are there in the
given figure?
Q77. Which of the following is a
long-term benefit of integrating SQA in
multiple software projects?

(A) Faster hardware installation

(B) Building a reusable repository of
quality practices and metrics
(C) Improved desktop aesthetics (A) 30 (B) 36
(D) Eliminating the QA department (C) 38 (D) 40

Q82. How many triangles are there in the

Q78. What is the cumulative benefit of given figure?
SQA across the entire software
lifecycle?

(A) Maximum team independence

(B) Reduced need for version control
(C) Improved product reliability,
maintainability, and user satisfaction
(D) Lower code complexity
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Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

(A) 48 (B) 60 Q86. What will happen on the face

(C) 56 (D) 52 opposite to 2 in the given dice?

Q83. Find the number of squares in the

given figure?

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4 या 3 या 5 में से कोई एक
(A) 10 (B) 11
(D) 1 या 4 या 3 में से कोई एक
(C) 15 (D) 14
Q87. Two positions of a dice are given
Q84. Find the number of squares in the
below. If @ is on the upper surface, what
given figure?
will happen on the lower surface ?

(A) # (B) ©
(C) + (D) *

(A) 26 (B) 35 Q88. What will happen opposite to # if

(C) 38 (D) 40 two positions of a dice are given ?

Q85. How many rectangles are there in

the given figure?

(A) (B) +
(C) - (D) $

(A) 20 (B) 18
(C) 25 (D) 40
 Analyst cum programmer tOPIC TEST -06

Time: 02:00 Hours No. of Questions: 100 Total Marks : 100

Q89. Two positions of a dice are given. (A) हाथ की कढ़ाई (B) पॉटरी का निर्माण
What will happen on the face opposite to (C) टाई एवं डाई (D) पेन्टिंग
4?
Q95. राजस्थान के किस रजवाड़े ने ब्ल-ू पॉटरी को
आश्रय दिया है ?

(A) जयपरु (B) धौलपरु

(C) करौली (D) हिन्डौन
(A) 5 (B) 6 Q96. कोटा डोरिया साड़ी बन ु ाई में उत्कृष्ट कार्य
(C) 1 (D) 3 के लिए राष्ट्रीय परु स्कार किसे दिया गया?
Q90. What will come in the blank space (A) मेहताब बानो (B) नसीम बानो
of the given dice? (C) श्रीमती जैनब (D) बन्नो बेगम

Q97. राज्य के किस कलाकार को पद्मश्री,

मास्टर क्राफ्ट्समैन का राष्ट्रपति परु स्कार और
राजस्थान ललित कला अकादमी फैलोशिप
सम्मान मिला?
(A) 1 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 4 (A) उषारानी हूजा (B) दे वकीनन्दन शर्मा
(C) श्रीलाल जोशी (D) कृपालसिंह शेखावत
Q91. पश-ु पक्षी को जिस चित्रकला में विशेष
स्थान मिला है , वह है - Q98. किस व्यक्ति को क्लोथ आर्ट का जन्मदाता
माना जाता है ?
(A) बंद
ू ी (B) किशनगढ़
(C) नाथद्वारा (D) अलवर शैली (A) कैलास जागोटिया (B) इन्द्रप्रकाश
(C) रूपसिंह (D) रामगोपाल शर्मा
Q92. नाथद्वारा शैली के पें टिग्स को कहा जाता
है - ू या हस्तशिल्प के लिए
Q99. राज्य में तड़ि
प्रसिद्ध जिला है -
(A) पिछवाई (B) लहरिया
(C) बणी-ठणी (D) रस-माला (A) जालोर (B) धौलपरु
(C) बीकानेर (D) झालावाड़
Q93. पश्चिमी राजस्थान के ख्याती प्राप्त
कलाकारों को आवश्यक प्रशिक्षण दे ने हे तु 'मरू Q100. सांगानेर छपाई एवं बगरू प्रिन्ट की तरह
कला ग्राम' की स्थापना कहाँ की गई है ? पारम्परिक 'मैशा छपाई' किस जिले की विशेषता
है ?
(A) बीकानेर (B) जोधपरु
(C) जैसलमेर (D) अलवर (A) कोटा (B) बंद
ू ी
(C) सवाई माधोपरु (D) टोंक
Q94. राजस्थान के कोटा और बारां जिले में बनाई
जाने वाली चंद
ु ड़ी' का कार्य……… प्रकार का है ।