01-12-2024

2404CMD303032240011 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) Two identical balls moving with a speed of 6 m/s in opposite direction, collides. If for collision,

; the speed of each ball after collision will be :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 1 m/s

2) A ball strikes a horizontal floor at 45º and 25% of its kinetic energy is lost in collision. Find the
coefficient of restitution :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free space
with initial separation between their centres equal to 12 R. It they attract each other due to
gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision is-

(1) 2.5 R
(2) 4.5 R
(3) 7.5 R
(4) 1.5 R

4) In figure, determine the character of the collision. The masses of the blocks, and the velocities

before and after are given. The collision is

(1) perfectly elastic

(2) partially inelastic
(3) completely inelastic
(4) this collision is not possible

5) A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v strikes a block of mass M at rest and gets embedded
into it. The kinetic energy of the composite block will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Consider the following two statements :

(A) linear momentum of the system remains constant
(B) centre of mass of the system remains at rest.

(1) A implies B and B implies A

(2) A does not imply B and B does not imply A
(3) A implies B but B does not imply A
(4) B implies A but A does not imply B

7) A metal ball falls from a height of 32 m on a steel plate of the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, to
what height will the ball rise after second bounce.

(1) 2m
(2) 4m
(3) 8m
(4) 16m

8) A ball after falling from rest through a height a 5m collides elastically with the roof of a lift
moving upwards with a velocity of 2m/s. Find out velocity of ball after collision.

(1) 11 m/s upwards

(2) 14 m/s upwards
(3) 11 m/s downwards
(4) 14 m/s downwards

9) A long block A is at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A small block B, whose mass is half of A,
is placed on A at one end and projected along A with velocity u then the final common velocity of the
blocks is If the coefficient of friction between them is μ.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) u

10) In the situation shown in figure. If the collision between ball and the wall is elastic then change

in the kinetic energy of ball is.

(1) 30 J
(2) 60 J
(3) 90 J
(4) 120 J

11) Two masses mA and mB moving with velocities VA and VB in opposite direction collide elastically.
After that the masses mA and mB move with velocity VB and VA respectively. The ratio mA/mB is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A body of mass m having an initial velocity v makes head on elastic collision with a stationary
body of mass M. After the collision, the body of mass m comes to rest and only the body having mass
M moves. This will happen only when :-

(1) m >> M
(2) m << M
(3) m = M
(4) m = M/2

13) A 10 g bullet, moving with a velocity of 500 m/s. enters a stationary piece of ice of mass 10 kg
and stops. If the piece of ice is lying on a frictionless plane, then its velocity will be

(1) 5 cm/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 0·5 m/s
(4) 0·5 cm/s

14) A sphere of mass m moving with some velocity enters in a hanging bag of sand of mass M and
stops. If the system (bag + sphere) raised by height h, then the velocity of the sphere was.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The radius of a flywheel increases by 1%. What will be percentage increase in moment of inertia
about axis of symmetry- (mass remains same) :-

(1) 2%
(2) 4%
(3) 6%
(4) 8%

16)

Two point particle of mass 2 kg and 3 kg are placed at distance 5 meter. Find moment of inertia
about the axis passing through their center of mass and perpendicular to the line joining them.

(1) 10 kg-m2
(2) 20 kg-m2
(3) 30 kg-m2
(4) 40 kg-m2

17)

A wheel is rotating at 900 r.p.m. about its axis. When power is cut off, it comes to rest in 1 minute.
The angular retardation in rad/s2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A circular loop of radius r is carrying current I A. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of
circular loop and at a distance r from the center of the loop on its axis is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) The magnetic induction at a point P which is at a distance of 4 cm from a long current-carrying
wire is 10–3 T. The field of induction at a distance of 12 cm from the current-carrying wire will be :

(1) 3.33 × 10–4 T

(2) 1.11 × 10–4 T
(3) 3 × 10–3 T
(4) 9 × 10–3 T

20) Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of the same materials and same length from a square in
the three different ways P, Q and R as shown in figure with current connections as shown. The
magnetic field at the centre of the square is zero in cases :-

(1) P only
(2) P and Q only
(3) P and R only
(4) P, Q and R all

21)
In the given figure magnetic induction at a point midway between the wire is :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is
doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is :-

(1) B/2
(2) B
(3) 2B
(4) 4B

23) The average radius of an air core toroid is 0.1 m and it has 500 turns. If it carries 0.5 ampere
current, then the magnetic field inside it is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge –2µC in a magnetic field of 2T acting
in y-direction, when the particle velocity is × 106 ms–1 is

(1) 8N in z-direction
(2) 4N in z-direction
(3) 8N in y-direction
(4) 8N in z-direction

25) Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each
other. The currents flowing in them are I and 2I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction
at the centre will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) If magnetic field at point P is zero. Find relation between x and y of coordinate of point P.

(1)
y= x

(2)
y= x
(3) xy = I1I2
(4) None of these

27) For an infinite long solid cylindrical current carrying conductor if magnetic field at a point P as
shown in figure is B0, then the magnetic field at point R will be (uniformly distributed current)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The position of point from wire 'B', where net magnetic field is zero due to following current

distribution.

(1) 6/7 cm
(2) 12/7 cm
(3) 18/17
(4) 16/7 cm

29) A charged particle of mass m and charge q travels on a circular path of radius r that is
perpendicular to a magnetic field B. The time taken by the particle to complete one revolution is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Work done by magnetic field of 1 tesla on a particle of charge 1C moving with speed 5 m/s in one
second.

(1) 5 J
(2) 15 J
(3) 0 J
(4) 10 J

31) Force between A and B is F. If 75% charge of A is transferred to B then force between A and B

is:-

(1)

(2) 4F
(3) F
(4) None

32) Two identical spherical conductors A and B have charge 2q and 3q respectively and repel each
other with a force F when kept at a large distance. A third identical but uncharged sphere C is
brought in contact with A then brought in contact with B and finally removed away from the system.
The new force of repulsion between A and B is :-

(1) F
(2) 2F

(3)

(4)

33) A charge Q is placed at the corner of a cube. The net out going electric flux through all the six
faces of the cube is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The ratio of electric flux through surfaces S1 and S2 is:

(1) 1 : 1
(2) –3 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) –1 : 3

35) A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb at its center. If ϕ is the electric flux associated with

the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION - B

1) A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 3 m/sec collides head on with a body of mass 1 kg
moving in opposite direction with a velocity of 4 m/sec. After collision, two bodies stick together and
move with a common velocity which in m/sec is equal to

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/3
(3) 2/3
(4) 3/4

2) The collision of two balls of equal mass takes place at the origin of coordinates. Before collision,
the components of velocities are (vx = 50 cm/s, vy = 0) and (Vx = –40 cm/s and Vy = 30 cm/s). The
first ball comes to rest after collision. The velocity components (Vx and Vy respectively) of the second
ball are :-

(1) 10 and 30 cm/s

(2) 30 and 10 cm/s
(3) 5 and 15 cm/s
(4) 15 and 5 cm/s

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4

A 60 kg girl and her 45 kg brother are at rest at the centre of a frozen pond. He pushes her so that

she slides away at 2.4 m/s.

3) A 60 kg girl and her 45 kg brother are at rest at the centre of a frozen pond. He pushes her so
that she slides away at 2.4 m/s.

How much total work is done approximately ? (Ignore friction).

(1) 58 J
(2) 170 J
(3) 350 J
(4) 400 J

4) A particle of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of collides head on with another particle of
mass 3 kg moving with a velocity of . After the collision, the velocity of first particle is
then coefficient of restitution for the collision is (Assume that the collision is taking place
on smooth horizontal floor)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) In head on elastic collision of two bodies of equal masses

(a) the velocities are interchanged
(b) the speeds are interchanged
(c) the momentum are interchanged
(d) the faster body slows down and the slower body speeds up.
Select correct alternative.

(1) Only a and b

(2) Only b and d
(3) Only a, b and c
(4) All are correct

6) Statement-I : In all types of collision linear momentum of system just before, just after and
during the collision are conserved.
Statement-II : K.E. of system will be conserved just before, just after and during the colllision only
if collision is elastic.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given
below.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

7)

A man, starts walking on rough platform placed on smooth surface towards right, the platform will
move

(1) towards right

(2) towards left
(3) it does not move
(4) no idea

8) If I1 is the moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis perpendicualr to its length and passing
through its centre of mass and I2 is the moment of inertia of the ring about an axis perpendicualr to
plane of ring and passing through its centre formed by bending the rod, then –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A long wire is bent into the shape PQRST as shown in the following figure with QRS being a
semicircle with centre O and radius r metre. A current of I ampere flows through it in the direction P
→ Q → R → S → T. Then, the magnetic induction at the point O of the figure in vacuumn is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) Find net magnetic field at point O.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A current i ampere flows in a circular arc of wire whose radius is R, subtend an angle
radian at its centre. The magnetic induction B at the centre is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

Assertion: Ampere's laws used for the closed loop shown in figure is written as

Right side of it does not include because it produces no magnetic field at

the loop.
Reason : The line integral of magnetic field produced by over the close loop is zero.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect' reason is correct

13) The figure shown has a hypothetical amperian loop with the direction of movement marked. Six
infinitely long wires having direction of current as shown and magnitude as follows are placed

perpendicular to the loop :- I1 = 1A I4 = 1A

I2 = 2A I5 = 5A
I3 = 3A I6 = 4A

The value of around the closed amperian loop will be :-

(1) μ0 Wb/m
(2) –μ0 Wb/m
(3) 4μ0 Wb/m
(4) –4μ0 Wb/m

14) Figure below shows regular hexagon, with different charges placed at the vertices. In which of

the following cases is the electric field at the centre zero?

(1) IV
(2) III
(3) I
(4) II
15) Two metal spheres of same mass are suspended from a common point by a light insulating
string. The length of each string is same. The spheres are having electric charges +q on one and
+4q on the other. Which of the following diagrams best shows the resulting position of spheres?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) The volume of oxygen required for complete oxidation of 8L of CO at NTP will be :-

(1) 8 L
(2) 16 L
(3) 4 L
(4) 2 L

2) Total number of valance electrons in 1.6 gram of CH4 is

(1) NA
(2) 10 NA
(3) 20 NA
(4) 1/2 NA

3) Amount of oxygen required for complete combustion of 27 g Al is :-

(1) 24 g
(2) 12 g
(3) 20 g
(4) 6 g
4) If 10 moles of CH4 reacts with 21 mol O2 at STP. The no. of moles of excess reactant that remains
unreacted after the completion of reaction will be :-

(1) 1 mol O2
(2) 2 mol O2
(3) 1 mol CH4
(4) 2 mol CH4

5) Number of atoms in 34 amu of NH3 is :-

(1) 2 NA
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 8 NA

6) Which of the following contains minimum number of H atom :-

(1) 0.2 g H2
(2) 0.2 g NH3
(3) 0.2 g CH4
(4) 0.2 g H2O

7) 5.6 L of oxygen gas at STP is equivalent to:-

(1) 1 mol

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 mol

8) One molecule of CH4 contains

(1) 4 atoms of hydrogen

(2) 3 g atoms of carbon
(3) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of hydrogen
23
(4) 1.81 × 10 molecules of CH4

9) Assertion (A) : Empirical formula represents the simplest ratio of atoms in a molecule of a
compound.
Reason (R) : Empirical formula is always different from molecular formula.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
10) Caffience has a molecular mass of 194. If it contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen, number of
atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of caffeine is :

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 3

11) Assertion (A) :- Mass of 1 gram molecule of H2SO4 is 98 gm.

Reason (R) :- One gram atom contains NA atoms.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

12) The law of multiple proportions is illustrated by the pair of compounds:

(1) sodium chloride and sodium bromide

(2) water and heavy water
(3) sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
(4) magnesium hydroxide and magnesium oxide

13)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

The product of oxidation of I– with MnO4– in alkaline medium is :

–
(1) IO3
(2) I2
(3) IO–
 –
(4) IO4

15) Amongst the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state ?

(1)
–3
(2) [Cr(CN)6]
(3) CrO2Cl2
(4) Cr2O3

16) Which compound does not exist :-

(1) MnF7
(2) MnF4
(3) MnO3F
–2
(4) MnO4

17) Most stable oxidation state of lanthanoid

(1) +5
(2) +3
(3) +5
(4) +7

18) Identify the pair of Lanthanoides with one strong oxidant and one strong reductant.

(1) Yb(II), Eu(II)

(2) Eu(IV), Lu(III)
(3) Ce(IV), Eu(II)
(4) Ce(IV), Tb(IV)

19) When neutral or faintly alkaline KMnO4 is treated with potassium iodide, iodide ion is converted
into 'X'. 'X' is-

(1) I2
–
(2) IO4
–
(3) IO3
(4) IO–

20) The oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is :

(1) –6
(2) +12
(3) +6
(4) +4
21) KMnO4 oxidises I– in acidic and neutral/faintly alkaline solution, respectively to

(1) I2 &
(2) & I2

(3) &

(4) I2 & I2

22) Element of highest melting point among the following is

(1) Hf
(2) W
(3) Re
(4) Os

23) The correct increasing order of density of the elements Ti, V, Cr and Cu is

(1) Ti < V < Cr < Cu

(2) Ti < V < Cu < Cr
(3) Cu < Cr < V < Ti
(4) Cr < Cu < V < Ti

24) Which is most reactive for SN ?

1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Which among the following will undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction faster ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Consider the following statements ;

A In SN1 reaction, carbocation intermediate is formed

B SN1 reactions are generally carried out in polar protic solvents

C Greater the stability of carbocation faster is SN1 rate of reaction

The correct statemen are
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) A, B and C

27) Which follows Hoffmann's Rule?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

Mechanism of following reaction is :

+ SO2 + HCl
(1) SN i

(2) SN2
(3) SN1
(4) E1

29) The major product of following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
30) In the reaction A & B are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Statement-1 : Victor-Meyer's test can be used to distinguish primary and secondary alcohols.
Statement-2 : Under Victor-Meyer's condition these alcohols give different colouration.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

32) Identify the reaction condition for the reaction to occur.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Product is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) CH2 = CH – COOH Product ?

(1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH

(2) CH3 – CH2 – COOH
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH
(4) Reaction is not possible

35)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

SECTION - B

1)

200 gm CaCO3 heated and it decomposed into CaO and CO2. What is the weight of residue -(Atomic
weight of Ca= 40)

(1) 56 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 100 gm
(4) 112 gm

2) When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g) each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to :-

(1) 1 mol of HCl(g)

(2) 2 mol of HCl(g)
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl(g)
(4) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

3) The number of molecules of CO2 present in 44 g of CO2 is :-

(1) 6 × 1023
(2) 3 × 1023
(3) 12 × 1023
(4) 3 × 1022

4) Calculate the no. of atoms in 24g of carbon :-

(1) NA
(2) 2NA
(3) 3NA
(4) 6NA

5) Assertion : 1 amu represents a mass equal to 1.66 × 10–27 kg.

Reason : 1 amu represents the actual mass of one atom of carbon –12.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

6) Arrange the following compound in correct order of reactivity towards aromatic nucleophilic

substitution reaction.

(1) c > d > b > a

(2) c > b > a > d
(3) d > c > b > a
(4) a > d > b > c

7) Compare the rate of dehydration in the given alcohol :-

(1) a > b > c

(2) b > c > a
(3) b > a > c
(4) c > b > a

8) Which of the following reaction is correctly matched?

(1)

(2)

(3) C6H5–CH2–O–CH3 SN1

(4) CH3-CH2-O-CH2-CH=CH2 SN2

9) Final product of the reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3) Ph–I, CH3–I

(4) Ph–OH, CH3–I
10) In weak alkaline medium, MnO4– changes to

2–
(1) MnO4
(2) MnO2
(3) Mn2O3
(4) MnO

11)

Arrange the following in decreasing order of ionic size

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Decrease in size from left to right in actinoid series is greater and gradual than that in
lanthanoid series due to :

(1) 4 f orbitals are penultimate

(2) 4 f orbitals have greater shielding effect
(3) 5 f orbitals have poor shielding effect
(4) 5 f orbitals have greater shielding effect

13) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

Element which exhibits +3

(a) (i) Mn
oxidation state only

Element which exhibits

(b) (ii) Zn
more number of oxidation states

Element which is a
(c) reducing agent in its (iii) Sc
+2 oxidation state

Element which is not considered

(d) (iv) Cr
as a transition element

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

14) The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral, due to

(1) The π–bonding involves overlap of p–orbitals of oxygen with d–orbitals of manganese
(2) There is no π–bonding
(3) The π–bonding involves overlap of p–orbitals of oxygen with p–orbitals of managanese
(4) The π–bonding involves overlap of d–orbitals of oxygen with d–orbitals of manganese

15) Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
Column II and assign the correct code :

Coloum I Coloum II

a. Co3+ i. B.M.

b. Cr3+ ii. B.M.

c. Fe3+ iii. B.M.

d. Ni2+ iv. B.M.

v. B.M.

a b c d

1 iv v ii i

2 i ii iii iv

3 iv i ii iii

4 iii v i ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) The number of mitotic nuclear divisions required to form a mature embryo sac from functional
megaspore in most of the flowering plants is

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

2) Which part of the reproductive structure produces both enzyme & hormone

(1) Archesporium
(2) Middle layer
(3) Tapetum
(4) Endothecium

3) The embryo sac of an Angiosperm is made up of:-

(1) 8 cells
(2) 7 cells and 8 nuclei
(3) 8 nuclei
(4) 7 cells and 7 nuclei

4) How many meiosis are needed for the formation of 400 embryosac in most of the angiosperm
plants ?

(1) 400
(2) 800
(3) 200
(4) 100

5) Find out the correct matches from the following table:

Column-I Column-II Coulmn-III

(A) Female gametophyte Embryosac 8 Celled + 7 nucleated
(B) Integumented megasporangium Ovule Seed
(C) Scutellum Diploid Cotyledon
(1) A, B, C
(2) A and C
(3) B and C
(4) A and B

6) Monoecious plant with unisexual flowers, prevents :-

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

7) Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Main plant body of angiosperm is a gametophyte.
(ii) Flower is a modified shoot.
(iii) Nodes and Internodes are absent on thalamus. (iv) Wheat is an annual and monocarpic plant.

(1) i, iii
(2) Only ii
(3) ii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv

8) The sequence of developments of embryo sac.

(1) Archesporium → Megaspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac.
(2) Archesporium → Megaspore → Megaspore mother cell → Embryo sac.
(3) Archesporium → Megaspore mother cell → Microspore → Embryo sac.
(4) Archesporium → Microspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac.

9)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only.
(a) Pollen grains are spherical and measure 25-50 micrometer in diameter.
(b) At germpore sporopollenin is absent.
(c) Pollen grain consumption increase performance of athletes and race horses.
(d) Pollen grain are shed at 3-celled stage in more than 60% angiospermic plants.

Option :-
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

10) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) All aquatic plants use water for pollination.
(b) Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
(c) Vallisneria flowers are pollinated by water under the water surface.
(d) Water hyacinth and water lily are pollinated by insects. Option:

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d).

(2) Statements (b) and (d).
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d).
(4) Statements (a) and (c).

11) During an experiment, vegetative nucleus was destroyed inside the pollen tube. Immediately
afterwards it was observed that the growth of pollen tube was stopped and pollen tube could not
reach up to ovule, because-

(1) Male gametes were not developed

(2) Growth of pollen tube is controlled by vegetative nucleus
(3) Vegetative nucleus secretes chemicals
(4) All of the above

12) Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by mitotic division in :-

(1) Microspore mother cell

(2) Body cell
(3) Generative cell
(4) Vegetative cell
13) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n

14) Which of the following is not nutritive ?

(1) Tapetum
(2) Endosperm
(3) Integument
(4) Nucellus

15) Regarding to viability of pollen grains select out the odd one :-

(1) Rosaceae
(2) Poaceae
(3) Leguminosae
(4) Solanaceae

16) Egg apparatus is present towards:

(1) Micropylar end

(2) Chalazal end
(3) Integument
(4) Both (2) and (3)

17) The main body of the ovule consists of the parenchymatous tissue, called :-

(1) Integument
(2) Nucellus
(3) Funiculus
(4) Vascular strand

18)

The figure given below represents the various steps of microgametogenesis. Select the option giving
correct identification together with what it represents?
(1) (C) represents mature male gametophyte
(2) (A) Represents mature pollen grain
(3) (E) Represents mature male gametophyte
(4) (B) Represents mature male gametophyte

19)

Given figure 'a' is transverse section of anther and diagram 'b' is enlarged view of one
microsporangium showing wall layers.In which labelled structures A to F are :

A → Epidermis, B → Exothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(1)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
A → Epidermis, B → Endothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(2)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
A → Endothecium, B → Epidermis,
C → Tapetum, D → Middle layer,
(3)
E → Connective,
F → Microspore mother cells
A → Middle layer, B → Epidermis,
C → Endothecium, D → Tapetum,
(4)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective

20) Zostera is an angiospermic plant and their pollen grains transfer with the help of :-
(1) Wind
(2) Water
(3) Birds
(4) Insects

21) Which of the following device prevents self pollination.

(1) Self sterility

(2) Dicliny
(3) Dichogamy
(4) All of the above

22) Which of the following structure is not present in germ pore ?

(1) Sporopollenin
(2) Pectocellulose
(3) Cellulose
(4) Protein

23) Parthenium was introduced in India as contaminant with.

(1) Rice
(2) Mango
(3) Wheat
(4) Sugarcane

24) In 60% of Angiosperm pollen grain pollinated in:-

(1) 3 celled stage

(2) 2 celled stage
(3) 4 celled stage
(4) 1 celled stage

25) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of same plant is called.

(1) Xenogamy
(2) Autogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Chasmogamy

26) In 80% of the angiospermic families, ovule is :-

(1) Orthotropous
(2) Amphitropous
(3) Anatropous
(4) Circinotropous
27) Cleistogamous flowers are present in:

(1) Commelina
(2) Mustard
(3) Mirabilis
(4) Catharanthus

28) In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by

(1) Insects or wind

(2) Water currents only
(3) Wind and water
(4) Insects and water

29) Choose correct statements for pollination in Vallisneria.

(i) Female flower reach surface of water.
(ii) Female flower remain submerged.
(iii) Pollen released on water surface.
(iv) Pollen released inside water.
(v) Pollen grains are carried passively by water.
(vi) Pollen grains are carried actively in water.
(vii) Most of the pollen grain reach stigma.
(viii) Some of the pollen grain reach stigma.

(1) (i), (iii), (v), (vii)

(2) (ii), (iv), (vi), (vii)
(3) (i), (iii), (v), (viii)
(4) (ii), (iv), (v), (viii)

30) Which of the following is correct with respect to figure given?

(1) Ovule found in most of the angiosperms having normal embryo sac.
Megasporangia, characteristic of gymnosperms and also present in primitive angiospermic
(2)
families like Brassicaceae and Poaceae.
(3) Megasporophyll of angiosperms and few gymnosperms like Gnetum, Ephedra and Welwetschia.
(4) Megasporangia of few angiospermic families like Butomaceae, Alismaceae and Fabaceae.

31) In glycolysis there is one step where NADH+H+ is formed from NAD+; this is when :-

(1) PGAL is converted to BPGA

(2) Fructose-1, 6-BIS-P is converted to PGAL
(3) 3-PGA is converted to 2-PGA
(4) PEP is converted to pyruvic acid

32) During respiration 3C acid is formed in :-

(1) Mitochondrial matrix

(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Chloroplast of mesophyll cell
(4) Inner membrane of mitohondria

33) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Grana of chloroplast i. Krebs cycle

B. Stroma of chloroplast ii. Light reaction

C. Cytoplasm iii. Kelvin cycle

D. Mitochondrial matrix iv. Glycolysis

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

34) Phosphorylation in mitochondria and chloroplast differ on the basis of requirment of:-

(1) A membrane
(2) ATPase
(3) Proton gradient
(4) Light

35) Read the following five statements (A-E) :-

(A) Process of photosynthesis in plants takes place only in the stroma part of the chloroplast
(B) When light is falling on plant, only produce ATP, NADPH2 & O2 in its chloroplast stroma.
(C) Glucose is produced from CO2, ATP & NADH2 in the stroma of chloroplast, which are produced
from light.
(D) Chlorophyll 'a' absorbs more red light than Chlorophyll 'b'.
(E) Carotenoids absorbs more in the 400-500 nm wavelength.
In the above statements which statements are wrong ?

(1) A, B & C
(2) A, B, C, & D
(3) A, B, & D
(4) All, except D & E

SECTION - B
1) ATP is formed in

(1) Respiration
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Photophosphorylation
(4) All of the above

2)

Match the column:-

Column-I Column-II
(a) Oxidation decarboxylation (i) Synthesis of ATP in mitochondria
(b) Oxidative phosphorylation (ii) Curing of leaves of tea by bacteria
(c) Substrate level phosphorylation (iii) Synthesis of ATP in chloroplast
Direct synthesis of ATP without
(d) Photophosphorylation (iv)
ETS.
(e) Fermentation (v) Formation of Acetyl CO-A
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-v, e-iv
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-v, d-i, e-ii
(3) a-v, b-i, c-iv, d-iii, e-ii
(4) a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-i, e-ii

3) In addition to the 12 molecules of NADPH(H+) the energy required for the synthesis of one mole
of hexose by C3 and C4 pathway is

(1) 18 molecules of ATP

(2) 30 molecules of ATP
(3) 18 & 30 molecules of ATP respectively
(4) 30 & 18 molecules of ATP respectively

4) Read the following statements and state them as True(T) or False(F).

a. In both Wheat and Rice, Calvin cycle operates in bundle sheath cells.
b. Both RuBisCO and PEPcase catalyze the process of carboxylation.
c. Dark reaction is not dependent directly on presence of light.
d. Calvin cycle operates in all plants, be they C3, C4 or CAM.

a b c d

(1) F T T F

(2) F T F F

(3) F T T T

(4) T F T F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Horizontal growth of seedling, swelling of axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedling are
associated with:-

(1) Photoperiodism
(2) Vernalisation
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

6) (i) The cell walls are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal
connections.
(ii) Protoplasmic modifications
(iii) Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition
Above characteristics represent respectively which phase of growth in plants ?
Choose the correct option from the following-

(1) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Elongation phase (iii) Maturation phase
(2) (i) Maturation phase (ii) Meristematic phase (iii) Elongation phase
(3) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Elongation phase
(4) (i) Elongation phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Meristematic phase

7) Which plant growth regulator promotes female flowers in cucumbers there by increasing the yield
:

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Abscisic acid

8) (A) GA – Extend market period of fruits

(B) Ethylene – Increase surface area of absorption
(C) CK – Apical hook formation
(D) GA – Internodal elongation in deep water rice plant
How many matches are incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

9) Which one of the following hormone play important role in seed development, maturation and
dormancy :-

(1) ABA
(2) IAA
(3) GA
(4) CK

10) Abscission is promoted with :-

(1) decreases in concentration of ABA in mature leaves.

(2) decreases in concentration of GA
(3) decreases in concentration of Auxin in mature leaves.
(4) increases in concentration of cytokinin

11) Number of glucose molecules required to produces 38 ATP molecules under anaerobic
conditions is:

(1) 2
(2) 12
(3) 19
(4) 38

12) Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol, after it
enters mitochondrial matrix and undergoes :-

(1) Reductive amination

(2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) Reductive carboxylation
(4) Reductive decarboxylation

13) In glycolysis there is one step where NADH+H+ is formed from NAD+, this is when -

(1) PGAL is converted to BPGA

(2) Fructose-1,6-Bis-P is converted to PGAL
(3) 3-PGA is converted to 2-PGA
(4) PEP is converted to pyruvic acid

14) In lactic acid fermentation :-

(1) There is no glycolysis

(2) There is no reduction
(3) There is no regeneration
(4) There is no decarboxylation

15) A - Occur in the cytoplasm of the cell.

B - Process is independent of oxygen.
C - It can occur in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions.
Choose the correct option for given statements A to C :-

(1) Krebs cycle

(2) Link reaction
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Fermentation

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Match the list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Dura mater (i) Fibres of tracts covered with myelin sheath

(B) Grey matter (ii) Inner cranial meninge

(C) White matter (iii) Neuron cell bodies are concentrated

(D) Pia mater (iv) Outer cranial meninge

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)

2) Statement-I :- Myelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal and cranial nerves. Statement-II :-
Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath around
the axon.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I is incorrect while Statement-II is correct.
(3) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct while Statement-II is incorrect.

3) Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Thalamus
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Medulla oblongata

4) The nerve fibres that transmit impulses from CNS to the concerned peripheral tissues/organs.

(1) Afferent fibres

(2) Efferent fibres
(3) Visceral fibres
(4) Spinal fibres

5) The _____transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body to a synapse.
(1) Dendrites
(2) Nodes of ranvier
(3) Axons
(4) Neurotransmitters

6) Sodium-Potassium pump across membrane transports

(1) 2 Na ions outwards and 3 K ions into the cell.

(2) 3 Na ions outwards and 2 K ions into the cell.
(3) 2 K ions outwards and 3 Na ions into the cell.
(4) 3 K ions outwards and 2 Na ions into the cell

7) Which one is not a secondary messenger?

(1) IP3
(2) Ca+2
(3) cAMP
(4) ATP

8) Macrophages of brain are :-

(1) Dust cell

(2) Kuffer cell
(3) Monocytes
(4) Microgleal cell

9) Association areas are responsible for combined functions like :-

(1) Memory
(2) Communication
(3) Intersensory association
(4) All of the above

10) Which of the following is excitatory neurotransmitter?

(1) GABA
(2) Dopamine
(3) Serotonin
(4) Glutamate

11) You are watching a horror movie and suddenly you feel increased heart beats and alertness. This
response is generated by

(1) Adrenaline
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Sympathetic nervous system
(4) Both (1) and (3)

12) Statement A : ADH mainly acts of kidney and is synthesised by posterior pituitary.
Statement B : Melatonin affects the pigmentation and immune system both.

(1) only statement A is correct

(2) only statement B is correct
(3) Both statement A and B are correct
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect

13) Amino acid derivative hormones are :-

(1) Glucagon, Adrenaline, Nor adrenaline

(2) Insulin, Nor adrenaline, MSH
(3) Adrenaline, Nor-Adrenaline, Thyroxine
(4) Thyroxine, Nor adrenaline, ACTH

14) A person with diabetes mellitus will not have:-

(1) Glycosuria
(2) Ketonuria
(3) Excessive urination
(4) Tasteless urine

15)

Calcium homeostasis is maintained by a group of hormones. Which hormone increases Calcium in

bones?

(1) T3
(2) Calcitonin
(3) Thyroxine
(4) PTH

16) Hormones are :-

(1) Intra cellular, nutritive substance

(2) Intercellular, Non nutritive substance
(3) Maximum secreted always
(4) Species specific, Non nutritive substance

17) Glucagon is secreted by :-

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Islets of langerhans
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Glisson's capsule

18) Philips Collip discovered which of the following hormones ?

(1) Parathyroid hormone

(2) Thyroxine
(3) A.D.H.
(4) Oxytocin

19) Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched ?

(1) PTH - Bone resorption

(2) Thymosin - Cell mediated immunity
(3) Cortisol - Suppresses the immune response
(4) Adrenaline - Glycogensis

20)

Which hormone is secreted by growing ovarian follicles?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) GnRH
(4) Estrogen

21) Which hormone is responsible for vigorous contraction of uterus at the time of child birth ?

(1) Vasopressin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Relaxin
(4) Progestrone

22) Low secretion of Thyroxine results in

(1) Grave's disease

(2) Gigantism
(3) Cretinism
(4) Pituitary dwarfism

23) There is national eradication programme for a disease caused by the deficiency of an element

(1) Iodine
(2) Boron
(3) Copper
(4) Chlorine

24) Hormone which is more active than T4 is :-

(1) T1
(2) T2
(3) T3
(4) T5

25) "Brain sand" is found in :-

(1) Thyroid
(2) Thymus
(3) Pineal body
(4) All

26) The hormone released by Adenohypophysis which is responsible for increased lipolysis,
Hyperglycemia and protein synthesis :-

(1) Follicle stimulating hormone

(2) Somatotrophic hormone
(3) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(4) ACTH

27) Assertion : The scrotum helps in maintaining a temperature of 2 - 2.5°C lower than the normal
internal body temperature.
Reason : Low temperature is necessary for spermatogenesis.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

28) Which is a correct statement :

a- Leydig cells synthesize and secrete estrogen hormone
b- Rete testis is a male accessory duct
c- Vasa efferentia are the accessory ducts of female
d- Urethral meatus is the external opening of penis

(1) a&b
(2) b&d
(3) a&c
(4) a&d

29) What procedure follows for functional maturation of sperms in epididymis ?

(1) Cholesterol layer covers the acrosome of sperm

(2) Inhibitory proteins are released by epididymis which conserve the energy of sperms
(3) Epididymis provides more ATP energy to sperms
(4) Both (1) and (2)
30) Sperm are temporarily stored and matured in :-

(1) Prostate
(2) Epididymis
(3) Ampulla
(4) Rete testis

31) Which statement is wrong about testosterone hormone?

(1) It gives (–) ve feed back to hypothalamus and anterior pituitary in its excess concentration
(2) It causes descent of testis in scrotum
(3) It is responsible for production of sperm and secondary sex characters of male.
(4) It is not responsible for controlling the emotional responses & muscle growth

32)

Select the correct anatomical sequence.

(1) Seminiferous tubules Rete testis Vasa efferentia Vasa deferens Epididymis
(2) Seminiferous tubules Rete testis Vasa efferentia Epididymis Vasa deferens
(3) Seminiferous tubules Vasa efferentia Rete testis Vasa deferens Epididymis
(4) None of these

33) The fluid which is rich in citric acid, calcium phosphate, profibrinolysins and contributes about
30% of the total volume of semen is released by:-

(1) Cowpers gland

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Seminal vessicle
(4) Bulbourethral gland

34) During sexual arousal, _________________ impulses cause vasodilation of the arterioles of the
penis.

(1) parasympathetic
(2) sympathetic
(3) somatic
(4) None of these - vasodilation is the result of hormonal influences.

35) The correct sequence of coverings around the testes of human from outside to inside is:
A – Tunica vaginalis
B – Tunica albuginea
C – Tunica vasculosa

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, A, C
(3) C, B, A
(4) C, A, B

SECTION - B

1) Assertion: Nervous system and endocrine system jointly coordinate and integrate activities of
organs.
Reason: Endocrine system regulate all the activities of nervous system.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

2) Identify X and the correct statement associated with the X :-

(1) Cell body – contain nissl’s granules

(2) Synaptic cleft – a gap between pre-synaptic neuron and a post-synaptic neuron.
(3) Neurotransmitters–present in electrical synapses.
(4) Axon – transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body.

3) Assertion : Steroid hormone binds with receptors which are present within the cells and regulate
gene expression.
Reason : Binding of hormones to its receptor leads to the formation of a hormone-receptor complex.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) Identify the structure labelled as A,B,C and D in the following figure, showing the mode of action
of a hormone.

(1) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Receptor protein, C-CAMP

(2) A-Ovarian cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, D-ovarian growth
(3) B-CAMP, C-Protein, D-Tissue growth and differentiation
(4) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, D-Tissue growth and differentiation

5) Choose the correct answer among the following options :-

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-i

(2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

6) Read the following statements.

Statement I : Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and structure the process of bone resorption.
Statement II : Parathyroid hormone also stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules and
increases Ca2+ absorption from the digested food.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

7) Read the following statements :-

(A) Stimulates proteolysis
(B) Provide relief when used in allergic disease
(C) Can be used as immunosuppressive agent after kidney transplantation
Which of the following chemical performs all the above functions.

(1) Thyroxine
(2) Prostanglandin
(3) Cortisol
(4) Adrenaline

8)

I. GH II. PRL
III. TSH IV. ACTH
V. LH VI. Oxytocin

Which of the above hormones are secreted by anterior lobe of pituitary ?

(1) I, II, III , IV and V
(2) III, IV, V and VI
(3) I, II, V and VI
(4) I, II, III, IV and VI

9) Which one of the following options is correct regarding the given below scatch ?

Options

(1) A = PTH (Hypercalcemia) ; B = Calcitonin (Hypocalcemia)

(2) A = PTH (Hypocalcemia) ; B = Calcitonin (Hypercalcemia)
(3) A = Calcitonin (Hypercalcemia) ; B = PTH (Hypocalcemia)
(4) A = Calcitonin (Hypocalcemia) ; B = PTH (Hypercalcemia)

10) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram. Which of the following among these has been

correctlly identified along with its function-

(1) (A) Epididymis - Formation of sperm

(2) (B) Rete testis - Functional maturation of sperms
(3) (C) Seminal vesicle - store and transport the sperms
(4) (D) Bulbourithral gland - helps in the lubrication of penis

11) Statement I : Prostate is a paired gland which secrete calcium, clotting enzyme.
Statement II : Secretion of prostate liquifies semen after ejaculation.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

12) Match the column-A with column-B : -

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

13) Read the following statement and find out the incorrect statement ?
(a) Each testicular lobule contain one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which sperms
are produced.
(b) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells called leydig cells and sertoli
cells.
(c) The region outside the seminiferous tubule called interstitial space, contain small blood vessels
and spermatogonia.
(d) In testes immunologically competent cells are present.
(e) The seminiferous tubules of the testes open into the rete testes through vasa efferentia.

(1) b and c
(2) b and d
(3) d and e
(4) b, c and e

14) Which of the following contributes in the formation of seminal plasma?

(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Seminal vesicle
(c) Spermatogonia
(d) Leydig cells
(e) Bulbourethral gland
(f) Prostate gland
(1) b, c, e, f
(2) a, b, c, f
(3) b, c, d, e, f
(4) only b, e, f

15) Which acid occur in semen ?

(1) Citric acid

(2) Malic acid
(3) Oxalo acetic acid
(4) Succinic acid
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 2 2 1 3 3 1 1 3 1 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 2

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 1 4 4 4 2 2 4 1 3 4 4 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 1 1 1 3 4 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 1 3 1 2 3 3 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 1 2 4 4 1 2 1 4 1 3 2 4 4

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 1 1 2 3 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 3 1 1

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 3 2 1 3 1 3 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 3 2 3 3 1 1 3 1 1 2 3 4 1

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 3 3 2 1 4 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 4 4 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 3 1 3 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 1

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 1 4 4 4 3 4 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) .......(1)

⇒ v1 = –2 m/s and v2 = 2 m/s

So, |v1| = |v2| = 2 m/s

2)

... (1)

u sin 45 = v sin θ

v sin θ = ... (2)

v cos θ = (3)

2 2 + 32

by equation (1)

3)
5M (9R–x1) = M × x1
45R – 5x1 = x1
45R = 6x1
7.5R = x1

4) =
velocity of approach = 1.8 + 0.2 = 2
velocity of separation = 1.4 + 0.6 = 2

5)
By C.O.L.M.

6) If COM is in rest = constant

It COM may be in rest or moving with constant velocity.

7) hn = e2n h. ⇒ h2 = e4h

8) m1 → ball, m2 → lift,

m1 << m2, m1≈0

= –(10) + 2(2) = 14 m/s

9)
because friction between them is internal force.

10) m1 = 50g, m2 → wall

,

m1 << m2, m1 ≈ 0
= –(–10) + 2 (20) = 50 m/sec.

[2400] = 60 J

11)

12) Velocity interchange when m = M

13) ⇒ v = 0.5 m/s

14) mu = (m + M)V ...(i)

So,

15)

=2 × (1) = 2%

16)

I = 2(x1)2 +3(x2)2
= 2(3)2 + 3(2)2
= 18 + 12
= 30 kg–m2

17)

18) Magnetic field due to current carrying circular loop on its axis is given as
At centre, x = 0,

At x = r,

21)

24) Magnetic Lorentz force, F = q(v × B)

= 8 N along negative Z-axis

25)

26)

⇒y= x

27)
28)

30) Magnetic force is perpendicular to velocity.

34) By Gauss law:

35) (∵ ϕA = ϕC )

2 ϕA + ϕ =

36)

(2 × 3) + (1 × 4) = (2 + 1)

m/s

37)

m (50i + 0j) + m(–40i + 30j) = m(0) + mv'

v' = 10i + 30 j
= 10, 30

38) W = ΔK = × 60 × 2.42 + × 45 × 3.22

= 403.8 J

39)
40) In head on elastic collision of same mass velocity get exchanged.

41)

During the collision due to deformation some energy is stored as potential energy

42)

Fext = 0
center of mass does not change position.

43)
ℓ = 2πR

45)

∵ BAB = BPQ = BRS = 0

 47)

The magnetic field at any point on the closed loop is due to all the three currents, but line
integral of over the closed loop will be zero.

48)

Loop orientation is clockwise

CHEMISTRY

56)

Number of H atoms = Number of molecules × Atomicity

(1) Number of H atoms =

(2) Number of H atoms =

(3) Number of H atoms =

(4) Number of H atoms =

61)

62)

(Fact)

63)

64)

Concept

65)
66)

Due to small size of Mn+7 (Steric hindrance)

68)

63Eu = [Xe]4f7 6s2

Eu2+ is a strong reducing agent changing to common +3 state.
1 1 2
58Ce = [Xe] 4f 5d 6s

Ce(IV) is a strong oxidant.

E° of Ce4+/Ce3+ = 1.74 V
The of Ce suggests that it can oxidise water.

69)

KMnO4 + I– + OH– —→ MnO2 + IO3– + H2O

(x)

70)

In CrO5 it has four O atoms as peroxide bearing –1 (charge) and one oxide having –2 (charge)
So, In CrO5 it has four O atoms as peroxide bearing –1 (charge) and one oxide having –2
(charge) So,
O.S. ⇒⇒ x + 4(–1) + 1 × (–2) = 0
[x = +6]

71) In acidic medium

In neutral/faintly alkaline solution

72) NCERT Reference: XII, Part-I, Page No. 218

73) Ncert , Class12th , Part-I, Page No.94 , Edition-2023-2024.

79)

89) NCERT Pg # 25

Moles of C = = 2 mol
No. of C atoms = 2NA ​

91) Rate of SNAr (Aromatic nucleophilic substitution)

reaction depends on the stability of carbanion

92)

93)

94)

95)
 96)

Size decreases along a period

97)

5f have poor shielding effect so more will be Zeff At. size

98)

Element which
exhibits +3 Sc[1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1]
(a) (iii) 0 0
oxidation state Sc+3 [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d ]
only
Element which
exhibits
Mn [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d5]
(b) more number of (i)
(oxidation state from +2 so +7)
oxidation
states
Element which is a Cr [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5]
reducing 0
Cr+2 [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d4]
(c) agent in (iv) Cr+2 acts as a reducing agent, Cr+3 is
its +2 oxidation
state stable because of its configuration - .
Element which is
Zn [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10]
not considered 0
(d) (ii) Zn+2 [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d10]
as a transition
as it is pseudo transition element.
element

99)

Manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to formation π bond involving p orbital
of oxygen with d orbital of manganese.

100)

Magnetic moment (μ) = B.M.

3+ 2 2 6 2 6 0 6
(a) Co → 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d

n=4
B. M
0
(b) Cr+3 → 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d3

n=3
B.M.
 0
(c) Fe3+ → 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d5

n=5
B. M.
0
(d) Ni+2 → 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d8

n=2
B. M.

BOTANY

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg#10

105) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 76, 77

106)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 11-12

109)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23,24

110) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29

112)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23 (E), 25(H)

113)

NCERT-XIIth, Page 26 (E), 27 (H)

114)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 21,25,35 (E), 22,27,37(H)

115)

NCERT - Pg. 8
116) NCERT-XII Pg # 27(E), 28(H)

117)

NCERT XII Pg. # 25

119)

XII NCERT Pg # 22

120)

NCERT XII Page # 13

121)

NCERT XII Page # 31

122)

NCERT PG. No.7

123)

NCERT XII Page No. # 7

124)

NCERT XII Page # 23

125)

NCERT XII Page # 28

128)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 11 (III para)

129) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29 last para

130) NCERT Page # 25

134) NCERT XI, Pg # 215

 137) Module # 3, Page # 217, 224 and 189

140) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230

141)

NCERT (XIth) (E) Pg. # 241 and 242

(Topic = Phases of growth)

142) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 250

143)

NCERT XI Pg. # 249, 250

144)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 178

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 158

148)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 229

149)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 230

150) Module Pg. # 205

ZOOLOGY

152)

NCERT Page No. 317 (E), 318 (H)

153) NCERT XI Page # 236

154) NCERT XI Page # 231

155) NCERT XI Page # 232

156) NCERT XI Page # 232

161) NCERT Pg no.340-341

162) NCERT Pg. # 241, 242

163) NCERT 337, 338

164)

NCERT - 2023 -24 . Pg. 246

166)

NCERT Pg. No. # 330

169) NCERT XI Pg. # 335 to 337

170) NCERT, Page No. 338

171) NCERT, Page No. 334

172) NCERT Pg # 332, 22.2.2

177) NCERT - Pg. # 43

182)

186) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 230

188) NCERT Pg. # 338-339

191) NCERT XI page # 243

196)

NCERT Pg # 26-27

199)
NCERT, Pg. # 28