Sub.

Code: 20UBA6DE3A

JAMAL MOHAMED COLLEGE (Autonomous)

TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 020

Department of Business Administration

Semester: VI UG: III Year
Title of the paper: RETAIL MARKETING

1. The word Retail is derived from the—— word.

A. Latin. B. French.
C. English. D. German.

2. Retailer is a person who sells the goods in a———.

A. large quantities. B. small quantities.
C. both a & b. D. none of these.

3. The main objective of the management is——–.

A. profitability. B. sales growth.
C. return on investment D. all of these.

4. In retailing there is a direct interaction with——-.

A. producer. B. customer.
C. wholesaler. D. all of these.

5. Retailing creates——-.
A. time utility. B. place utility.
C. ownership utility. D. all of these.

6. ———activities performed by the retailers.

A. assortment of offerings. B. holding stock.
C. extending services. D. all of these.

7. The term stakeholders which includes——-.

A. stock holders. B. consumers.
C. suppliers. D. all the above.

8. ——represents how a retailer is perceived by consumers and others.

A. image. B. sales.
C. profit. D. none of these.

9. The functions of management start with—–.

A. buying. B. planning.
C. organizing. D. supervising.
10. ―Management is what a manager does‖ given by.
A. Henry fayol. B. F.W.Taylor.
C. Dinkar Pagare. D. none of these.

11. Human resource management process consists of ——.

A. recruitment. B. selection.
C. training. D. all of these.

12. —– is the process of seeking and attracting a pool of people from which qualified candidates for job
vacancies can be selected.
A. Selection. B. Advertisement.
C. Compensation. D. Recruitment.

13. —— gives the nature and requirements of specific jobs.

A. Human resource planning. B. Job descriptions.
C. Job analysis. D. None of these.

14. —— is a kind of internal sources of recruitment.

A. Promotion. B. Employee recommendation.
C. Transfer. D. All of these

15. Attracting potential employees is more difficult in case of ———.

A. internal recruitment. B. external of recruitment.
C. both a & b D. none of these.

16. —– is the next step after recruiting the retail personnel.

A. Supervision. B. Compensation.
C. Training. D. Selection.

17. —— test measure a person‘s capacity or potential capability to learn and perform a job.
A. Aptitude test. B. Proficiency test.
C. Interest test. D. Personality test.

18. A traditional format that sell 20-80 percent of groceries and other consumable product at discounted
prices
A. Dollar Store B. Discounted stores
C. Chain store D. off price store

19. —— component allow the retailer to offer the employees safety and security
A. Fixed component B. Fringe benefit component
C. Variable component D. All of the above.

20. ——- is the manner of providing a job environment that encourages employee‘s accomplishment.
A. Compensation B. Supervision.
C. Training D. None of the above.
21. Store security relates to —-.
A. personal security B. merchandise security.
C. both a & b. D. none of these.

22. Form of payment which a retailer may accept is —-.

A. cash only. B. cash &credit cards.
C. cash &debit cards. D. all of these

23. Many retailers have improved their operation productivity through —–.
A. computerization. B. outsourcing.
C. both a & b. D. none of these.

24. The computerized check out is used by —–.

A. large retailers. B. small retailers.
C. multi retailers D. all of these.

25. With the help of——-a retailer pays an outsider party to undertake one or more of its operating
functions
A. outsourcing. B. credit management
C. computerization. D. none of these.

26. —— helps the retailers to face the crisis situations.

A. Risk management. B. Credit management.
C. Financial management. D. All of these

27. —— is a key task for both large &small retailers.

A. Risk management. B. Crisis management.
C. Inventory management D. All of these.

28. —— helps the retailers to complete the tasks within the short period of time.
A. Computerization. B. Outsourcing.
C. Both 1 & 2. D. None of these.

29. ———is a warning to potential thieves and muggers.

A. Insurance. B. Security guards.
C. Outsourcing. D. Credit management .

30. Insurance against——–is more important due to government rules.

A. environmental risk. B. production risk.
C. both 1 & 2 D. none of these

31. The factor leading to the growth of retailing is —-.

A. changing consumer trends B. technology.
C. demographics. D. all the above.

32. Consumer buying process in retailing involves —-.

A. need recognition. B. search for information.
C. evaluation of retailers. D. all the above.
33. Atmosphere in retailing refers to —-.
A. the weather outside a store. B. The ambience, music, color scent in a store.
C. assortment of products in the store. D. display of items in a store.

34. E-tailing refers to —-.

A. sale of electronic items in a store. B. catalog shopping.
C. music store. D. retailing shopping using the inter.

35. A multi channel retailer sells merchandise —-.

A. over the telephone B. through personal selling and retail store only.
C. over the internet . D. through more than one channel.

36. Retailing is a marketing function which —-.

A. sells products to other business. B. sells products to a company that resells them.
C. sells products to final consumers. D. sells products for ones own use

37. The wheel of retailing explains the emergence of new retailing forms by —-.
A. retailers cycle through peaks of high cost price and troughs of low cost price.
B. whole sellers see retailing opportunity, enter retailing, then turn to wholesaling again.
C. new retailers emerge, grow, mature and decline.
D. low margin, low price retailers enter to compete with retailers who are high margin and high price.

38. All of the following are possible types of service that a retailer can offer except —-.
A. self service. B. self selection. C. limited service. D. all of the above.

39. The correct statement about chain stores is —-.

A. they offer economic of scale in buying.
B. they can hire good managers.
C. they integrate wholesaling and retailing function.
D. they centralize function.

40. Which of the following objectives is concerned with strategic marketing planning?
A. Day to day performance and results.
B. Over-all long term organizational growth.
C. Identifying the strengths and weaknesses of the marketing department
D. None of the above.

41. Which sources of advantage will be helpful for a firm to achieve positional advantage over its
competitors?
A. Superior skills. B. Superior resources.
C. Superior controls. D. All of the above a, b and c.

42. What are the elements that a mission statement of an organization should include?
A. Sets guidelines for business operations
B. Identifies the reasons for existence of a company and its responsibilities to the stakeholders
C. Identifies the firms customers and their needs and marches them with products and services.
D. All of the above a, b and c.
43. The term which is used to identify the major areas of business of a diversified organization is.
A. Business area. B. Business segment, group or diversion
C. Business scope. D. Diversified business.

44. Business composition is the term used while framing the following strategies. What are they?
A. Corporate strategy. B. Marketing strategy.
C. Business strategy. D. Both a and b.

45. Which of the following is not the characteristics of a strategic business unit?
A. It serves a homogenous set of markets with a limited number of related technologies
B. It serves a unique set of products.
C. It owns responsibility for its own profitability.
D. None of the above.

46. According to GE screening grid model, which strategy should a company follow when it has high
industry attractiveness and low business competitive position.
A. Invest/growth B. Selective investment /maintain position.
C. Harvest/divest D. None of the above.

47. Which of the following will act as a corner stone in maintaining the competitiveness of company
A. Market focus. B. Defining capabilities.
C. Relationships and organizational change. D. None of the above.

48. Which analysis compares the strengths and weaknesses of a firm against the opportunities and threats
in the external environment.
A. Environmental analysis. B. Business analysis.
C. SWOT analysis. D. None of the above.

49. Which of the following is not included in the list of macro-environmental variables.
A. Prevailing economic conditions and political manifestos.
B. Changes in legislation and emerging new technologies.
C. Financial conditions and culture.
D. None of the above.

50. What is the term used if management wants to audit the key management functions like salesforce,
advertising or pricing?
A. Vertical audit B. Horizontal audit.
C. External audit. D. None of the above.

51. The best way for a retailer to differentiate itself in the eyes of the consumer form the competitions is
to.
A. increase advertising of sale items.
B. offer the lowest prices in town.
C. always be well-stocked with the basic items that customers would expect to find in your store.
D. not sell any of the brand names the competition is selling.
52. The boomerang effect is a relatively new phenomenon that describes
A. the recent trend for firms to seek bankrupts protection.
B. the way styles from years ago come back as today‘s most popular styles.
C. the recent trend of children returning to live with their parents after having already moved out.
D. the recent trend of having most companies report losses for the current quarter.

53. Discretionary income is.

A. all personal income after taxes and retirement savings.
B. all personal income after savings
C. all personal income after taxes.
D. personal income after taxes minus the money needed for necessities.

54. The final stage of the consumer shopping/purchase model around which all other stages revolves is
A. buy decision stage. B. active information gathering stage.
C. purchase stage. D. post-purchase evaluation stage.

55. What type of competitive structure are most retail firms involved in?
A. horizontal competition. B. monopolistic competition.
C. vertical competition. D. pure competition.

56. Which of the following marketing functions is one the retailer could not perform?
A. selling. B. sorting.
C. location analysis. D. buying.

57. Facilitating institutions may best be described as specialists that.

A. take title but not possession of the merchandise.
B. take title to the merchandise in order to facilitate the transaction
C. manage the channel so as to increase over-all efficiency marketing functions
D. perform certain marketing functions, in which they have an expertise, for other channel members.

58. Which one of the following factors is not found on a six month merchandise budget?
A. planned gross margin. B. current liabilities.
C. planned sales percentage D. planned purchases at retail.

59. The — provides the retailer with a picture of the organization‘s profit and loss situation
A. expense report. B. index of inventory valuation.
C. statement of cash flow. D. income statement.

60. What word best describes the relationship between a retailer‘s pricing decisions and the merchandise,
location, promotion, credit, services, image and legal decisions that retailers must make?
A. independent. B. separate.
C. interactive. D. competitive.

61. If a retailer is offering the same products and quantities to different customers at different prices, the
retailer has what kind of pricing policy?
A. two-price B. customary.
C. flexible. D. leader.
62. Which of the following areas should not be taken into consideration when formulating a retailer‘s
promotional strategy?
A. the retailers credit customers. B. the price level of the merchandise.
C. merchandise inventory levels. D. the retailer‘s net worth.

63. The two objectives of institutional advertising include:.

A. creating a positive store image and public service promotion
B. publicity and sales promotions.
C. advertising a sale and generating store traffic
D. using ―other people‘s money‖ and using ―co-op‖ money.

64. Which of the following should not be part of the campus shoppe‘s advertising campaign‘s objectives.
The campus shoppe desires to increase.
A. awareness of its two locations B. sales among incoming freshmen.
C. sales to 40 percent. D. All the above belong in the retailer‘s advertising objectives

65. Consumer premiums are considered to be a form of.

A. joint-sponsored sales promotion. B. publicity that utilizes OPM.
C. advertising. D. sole-sponsored sales promotion.

66. A transient customer is a consumer who visits a retailer.

A. and finds the item desired in a matter of minutes
B. only when his or her regular retailer is closed.
C. that does not meet his or her customer service expectations.
D. while on vacation

67. Merchandise availability is an example of a.

A. cost of sales B. pretransaction service.
C. operating cost. D. transaction service.

68. Which of the following is not a factor in determining the service level to offer
A. income of target market. B. price image of the retailer.
C. services offered by the competition D. firm‘s management structure

69. Which of the following is not a factors is not one of the elements that need to be considered when
designing a sales job?
A. feedback from supervisors.
B. the number of complaints a salesperson should have to handle.
C. the amount of variety involved
D. the appropriate degree of autonomous.

70. Which of the following is not part of a visual communications program

A. Store name and logo. B. institutional signage.
C. lifestyles graphics. D. television advertising
71. In which of the following behavioural models there will be no product differentiation and brands as a
factor plays very little role in the purchase preferences.
A. Complex buying behaviour. B. Variety seeking behaviour.
C. Dissonance reducing behaviour. D. Habitual buying behaviour

72. A set of basic values, perceptions, wants and behaviour learnt by a member of society from the family
and other important constitution is called.
A. Social learning. B. Sub-culture.
C. Culture. D. Social development.

73. Which of the following factors include forces like small groups, family, social roles and status that
will have an influence on buyer‘s behaviour?
A. Cultural factors. B. Psychological factors.
C. Personal factors. D. Social factors

74. Which of the following psychological factors drive a person to satisfy his need and wants.
A. Motivation. B. Perception.
C. Learning. D. Beliefs and attitudes.

75. Which of the following buying instruments does not found in consumer buying?
A. Requests for quotations. B. Proposals.
C. Purchase contracts. D. None of the above

76. Which of the following factors influence the organizational buying decision process?
A. Buyers objectives. B. Purchasing policies and resources
C. Size and composition or buyers. D. All of the above.

77. Which method of organizational buying is suitable for the second-hand (used.vehicles, buildings etc,
that have unique characteristics, but vary depending on their condition and usage.
A. Inspection. B. Description.
C. Sampling. D. Negotiation.

78. When making ‗purchasing decisions‘, the chief considerations involved in the organizational buying
are.
A. Product quality. B. Price.
C. Service. D. All the above.

79. Which of the following do not include while in the learning process of a market-oriented organization.
A. Open-minded inquiry.
B. Synergistic information distribution.
C. Mutually informed interpretation and accessible memory.
D. None of the above.

80. Management information system (MIS. supplies information, which includes data from both internal
and external sources is useful for.
A. Order processing. B. Invoicing.
C. customer analysis and product performance. D. all of the above.
81. Marketing information system gathers information from internal sources like marketing intelligence
and marketing research to help the manager in.
A. Assessing the information needs. B. Developing the needed information.
C. Distributing the information. D. All of the above

82. Which level of organization uses management information systems data in its decision making?
A. Lower level. B. Middle level.
C. Top level. D. All of the above.

83. Which system is useful in coordinating data systems, tools and techniques with supporting software
and hardware that enable managers to take appropriate marketing decisions.
A. Sales decision support systems. B. Marketing decision support systems.
C. Standardized information systems. D. None of the above

84. Identify the correct sequence of the following marketing approaches in order of their existence.
A. Product-variety marketing; Mass marketing and Target marketing.
B. Target marketing; product, variety marketing and mass marketing.
C. Mass marketing; Product-variety marketing.
D. Mass marketing; Target marketing and product variety marketing

85. If a seller produces two or more products that have different features, styles, quality, sizes, etc it is
called .
A. Mass marketing. B. Target marketing.
C. Individual marketing. D. Product-variety marketing.

86. A form of target marketing in which companies tailor their marketing programs to the needs and
wants of narrowly defined geographic, demographic, psychographic or benefit segments is called.
A. Macro marketing B. Micro marketing.
C. Horizontal marketing. D. Mass marketing.

87. What is the term used if a market is divided into distinct groups of buyers who might require separate
products or marketing mixes.
A. Market targeting. B. Market positioning.
C. Market segmentation D. Market coordination.

88. Market positioning is a combination of marketing actions that management takes, to meet the needs
and wants of each target market. It includes.
A. Understanding consumer perceptions. B. Position products in the mind of consumer.
C. Design appropriate marketing mix. D. All of the above.

89. Which type of segmentation is commonly used for climate because of its broad impact on consumer
behavior and product needs.
A. Geographical segmentation. B. Demographic segmentation.
C. Geo-demographic segmentation. D. Geographic segmentation.
90. ‗Lifestyle‘, ‗Westside‘ and ‗Shoppers stop‘ have located their departmental shops in the areas
frequently visited by upper-income people is an example of .
A. Psychographic segmentation. B. Geo-demographic segmentation.
C. Demographic segmentation. D. Geographic segmentation.

91. Which of the demographic variables is not used by marketers for demographic segmentation?
A. Family life cycle. B. Income and occupation.
C. Gender. D. Poverty.

92. Which type of segmentation, classified consumers according to relevant needs and buying behaviour,
regardless of their countries and culture.
A. Multi-attribute segmentation. B. Inter-market segmentation.
C. Demographic segmentation D. Psychographic segmentation.

93. Before a company decides to target a particular segment, which important factors are to be examined
against organizations‘s objectives and resources?
A. Market size. B. Growth rate.
C. Structural attractiveness. D. All of the above.

94. If an organization targets to market a particular product to a variety of segments in order to build a
strong reputation in that product area is called.
A. Product specialization B. Market specialization.
C. Selective specialization. D. Single-segment concentration.

95. A positioning strategy should include the following strategies except.

A. Product strategy. B. Personnel strategy.
C. Promotion strategy. D. Advertising and sales promotion strategy.

96. Which of the following relationship strategies result into forming of a new organization.
A. Strategic alliance. B. Partnership.
C. Joint venture. D. None of the above.

97. Which type of organization consists of a small workforce, relying on independent suppliers who are
located at several parts of the world with a sophisticated linked. information system.
A. Trading company. B. Network corporation
C. International organization. D. Global corporation.

98. Hindustan Motors (HM. alliance with Mitsubishi to manufacture and market Lancer cars in India is an
example of.
A. Franchise agreement. B. Vertical relationship.
C. Technological licence agreement. D. Horizontal integrative relations.

99. In which of the following systems, management of the distribution channels will be undertaken by a
single organization.
A. Vertical management systems. B. Vertical marketing systems.
C. Conventional marketing systems. D. None of the above.
100. The difference between the total value and the corrective cost of performing the value activities is.
A. Contribution. B. Margin.
C. Revenue. D. Performance.

101. The number of product lines a company carries is called.

A. Product mix. B. Product mix depth.
C. Product mix width. D. Product mix length.

102. The number of variants of a product offered by a company is called.

A. Product mix length. B. Product mix depth.
C. Product mix width. D. Product line length.

103. If a company increases product line length by increasing its products range it is called.
A. Line increasing. B. Line stretching.
C. Line filling. D. Range stretching.

104. Companies that attack other firms including the market leader in an attempt to build market share are
called.
A. Market followers B. Market challengers.
C. Market leaders. D. Market nichers.

105. Companies that follow the market leader‘s strategy are called.
A. Market nichers. B. Market leaders.
C. Market followers. D. Market challengers.

106. Which one of the following is not an internal source of generating ideas for new product
development
A. Market research B. Directed research.
C. Need-gap analysis. D. Top management.

107. The method which generate new product ideas by analyzing the customer needs, wants and ideas is
known.
A. Directed research. B. Customer need analysis.
C. Need gap analysis. D. Market research.

108. Which method of product portfolio analysis helps in deciding which products are to be retained and
which are not to be.
A. Ansoff matrix. B. Strategic environment matrix
C. BCG matrix. D. None of the above.

109. The methods which are used for evaluating marketing performance are.
A. Sales analysis and marketing cost analysis B. Sales analysis and cost analysis
C. Market analysis and research analysis. D. Demand analysis and supply analysis.

110. The set of basic values, perceptions, wants and behaviours learned by a member of a society from
family and other important institutions is called.
A. Sub-culture. B. Social class.
C. Culture. D. Reference groups.
111. What is the framework that describes the positioning of firms database to support decisions with in
the purview of total customer loyalty strategy
A. Customer retention strategy. B. Customer bonding.
C. Customer positioning. D. Customer acquisition.

112. In which stage of product life cycle strategy, the company takes the decision whether to maintain,
harvest or drop the product.
A. Introduction. B. Growth.
C. Maturity. D. Decline.

113. The branding strategy which uses a different brand name for reach product is known as .
A. Over all family branding. B. Line family branding.
C. Individual branding. D. Brand extension.

114. Eurekha Forbes is popular for its strategy of.

A. Personal selling. B. Sales promotion.
C. Advertisement. D. Direct marketing.

115. Which one of the following is not an element of promotional mix?

A. Advertising. B. Product-mix.
C. Publicity. D. Direct marketing.

116. Which element of the promotional mix is preferable if the marketer wants to get. immediate
feedback?
A. Sales promotion. B. Public relations.
C. Personal selling. D. Direct marketing.

117. What are the factors that contribute to the corporate identity?
A. Organizational symbols. B. Advertising and publicity.
C. Customer relation programs. D. All of the above.

118. Which of the following comes under the category of external public?
A. Government. B. Press. C. Trade unions. D. All of the above.

119. Which of the following is not a contributing factor for the rapid growth of sale promotion?
A. Increase of competition. B. Decrease in advertising efficiency.
C. Retailers pressure. D. Huge profits of manufacturers.

120. is the important benefit a marketer could get from a retailer through trade promotion?
A. Advertising. B. Financial help.
C. More shelf space. D. None of the above.

121. Which one of the following is not an advantage of the personal selling?
A. It allows the seller to negotiate terms and solve problems
B. Long-term relationship.
C. Immediacy.
D. It is very expensive to maintain and recruit the sales force.
122. A competitor who does not exhibit predictable reaction pattern is known as.
A. The laid-back competitor. B. The selective competitor.
C. The tiger competitor. D. The stochastic competitor.

123. An interactive marketing system which uses one or more advertising media to effect a measurable
response and /or transactions at any location is called.
A. Direct marketing. B. Indirect marketing.
C. Database marketing. D. Meta marketing.

124. What type of conflict usually exist when the manufacturer has established two or more channels that
sell in the same market.
A. Multi-channel conflict. B. Horizontal channel conflict.
C. Vertical channel conflict. D. None of the above.

125. What are the forms of compensation that a salesperson can generally get?
A. Straight salary. B. Straight commission.
C. A combination of salary and commission. D. All of the above.

126. Which of the following items is a component of a good business plan?

A. Operating requirements. B. Description of the location/demographics.
C. Employee benefits. D. All of the above.

127. Which of the following items is required to develop a better financial plan?
A. Identify your target market. B. Consider employee lay-offs.
C. Prioritize your needs. D. Research other companies.

128. When analyzing your business and its environment it is useful to carefully inspect its:.
A. Threats. B. Strengths and weakness.
C. Opportunities. D. All of the above.

129. Which of the following is an example of an external threat?

A. Decreased competition. B. New trade regulations.
C. Global sales potential. D. Economies of scale.

130. Which of the following is an example of an internal strength?

A. Obsolete resources. B. Changing tax structure.
C. Proven management. D. Increased competition

131. Which objective gives importance to productivity, technological leadership, employee relations, etc?
A. Long-term objective. B. Short-term objective.
C. Medium-term objective. D. Annual objective.

132. Which element identifies the strategic factors that determine the future of a firm?
A. Evaluation and control. B. Environmental scanning.
C. Strategy formulation. D. Strategy implementation.
133. What bridges the gap between strategy formulation and implementation?
A. Strategic planning. B. Strategic management.
C. Decision-making. D. Organizing.

134. What describes the market, product and technological area of a business?
A. Company‘s vision. B. Company‘s mission.
C. Bumper-sticker strategy. D. Strategic plan.

135. Which factor indicates the nature and direction the economy in which a firm operates?
A. Economic environment. B. Gross national product.
C. Competitive position D. Operating environment

136. How can a firm optimize its environmental opportunities?

A. By assessing its market share.
B. By assessing the competitiveness in the industry.
C. By assessing the effectiveness of its sales distribution.
D. By assessing its competitors position in the market.

137. Which of the following helps a manager identify the opportunities and threats in the competitive
industrial environment?
A. Analyzing the competitive forces. B. Market research.
C. Market analysis. D. Sales analysis.

138. Which of the following factors plays a significant role in providing superior quality products to
customers, within a given time frame?
A. Technology. B. Fast delivery.
C. Customer convenience. D. Customer‘s choice.

139. Which one of the following represents the best long-run opportunity in a firm‘s portfolio?
A. Cash cow. B. Star.
C. Question mark. D. Dog.

140. Which business unit holds a large market share in a mature and slow-growing industry?
A. Dog. B. Cash cow.
C. Question mark. D. Star.

141. Which of the following provides a basis for monitoring and controlling organizational performance?
A. Daily reports B. Weekly reports
C. Long-term objectives D. Annual objectives

142. In which of the following pricing approaches is pricing based on consumer demand?
A. Functional approach. B. Business approach.
C. Market approach. D. Innovative approach.

143. A/an —- helps people understand the behaviour patterns that are expected of them in particular
circumstances
A. Advisory policy. B. Explicit policy.
C. Mandatory policy. D. Implicit policy.
144. Agricultural market set up by state government to procure agricultural produce directly from farmers
A. Haats B. Mandis
C. Kirana D. public distribution system

145. Consumers do their own picking; pay in cash and carry the merchandise away
A. Automated Vending B. Super market
C. The Cash and carry D. direct response retail

146. What are the major determinants of employee motivation?

A. Reward and coercive power. B. New technologies.
C. Personal power and future growth prospects. D. Information and connection power.

147. At what stage is the threat from competitors at its peak in an industry?
A. Growth stage. B. Embryonic stage.
C. Mature stage. D. Shakeout stage

148. Which marketing tool uses multiple factors to assess industry attractiveness and business strength?
A. The GE Grid. B. The BCG matrix
C. The turn around strategy. D. SWOT analysis.

149. —- forms the basis for the allocation of corporate resources.

A. Financial evaluation. B. Organizational growth.
C. Organizational structure. D. Organizational culture.

150. —- is often critical for the proper accomplishment of a divestiture and can provide comfort to the
employee as well as to potential buyers.
A. A flexible management. B. A stable management.
C. An active management D. None of the above.
MCQ ANSWER

1. A. Latin.
2. B. small quantities.
3. D. all of these.
4. D. all of these.
5. D. all of these.
6. D. all of these.
7. D. all the above.
8. A. image.
9. B. planning.
10. C. Dinkar Pagare.
11. D. all of these.
12. D. Recruitment.
13. A. Human resource planning.
14. D. All of these
15. B. external of recruitment.
16. D. Selection.
17. A. Aptitude test.
18. A. Dollar Store
19. B. Fringe benefit component
20. B. Supervision.
21. C. both a & b.
22. D. all of these
23. A. computerization.
24. A. large retailers.
25. A. outsourcing.
26. A. Risk management.
27. D. All of these.
28. A. Computerization.
29. B. Security guards.
30. A. environmental risk. A. environmental risk.
31. D. all the above.
32. D. all the above
33. B. The ambience, music, color scent in a store.
34. D. retailing shopping using the inter.
35. D. through more than one channel.
36. C. sells products to final consumers.
37. D. low margin, low price retailers enter to compete with retailers who are high margin and high
price.
38. C. limited service.
39. D. they centralize function.
40. B. Over-all long term organizational growth.
41. D. All of the above a, b and c.
42. D. All of the above a, b and c.
43. B. Business segment, group or diversion
44. D. Both 1 and b.
45. D. None of the above.
46. A. Invest/growth
47. A. Market focus.
48. C. SWOT analysis.
49. D. None of the above.
50. A. Vertical audit
51. C. always be well-stocked with the basic items that customers would expect to find in your store.
52. C. the recent trend of children returning to live with their parents after having already moved out.
53. D. personal income after taxes minus the money needed for necessities.
54. D. post-purchase evaluation stage.
55. B. monopolistic competition.
56. C. location analysis.
57. D. perform certain marketing functions, in which they have an expertise, for other channel
members.
58. B. current liabilities.
59. D. income statement.
60. C. interactive.
61. C. flexible.
62. D. the retailer‘s net worth.
63. A. creating a positive store image and public service promotion
64. D. All the above belong in the retailer‘s advertising objectives
65. D. sole-sponsored sales promotion
66. C. that does not meet his or her customer service expectations.
67. D. transaction service.
68. D. firm‘s management structure
69. B. the number of complaints a salesperson should have to handle.
70. D. television advertising
71. D. Habitual buying behaviour
72. C. Culture.
73. D. Social factors
74. A. Motivation.
75. D. None of the above
76. D. All of the above.
77. A. Inspection.
78. D. All the above.
79. D. None of the above.
80. D. all of the above.
81. D. All of the above
82. D. All of the above.
83. B. Marketing decision support systems.
84. C. Mass marketing; Product-variety marketing.
85. D. Product-variety marketing.
86. B. Micro marketing.
87. C. Market segmentation
88. D. All of the above.
89. Geographical segmentation.
90. B. Geo-demographic segmentation.
91. D. Poverty.
92. D. Psychographic segmentation.
93. D. All of the above.
94. A. Product specialization
95. B. Personnel strategy.
96. C. Joint venture.
97. B. Network corporation
98. C. Technological licence agreement.
99. B. Vertical marketing systems.
100. B. Margin.
101. C. Product mix width.
102. B. Product mix depth.
103. B. Line stretching.
104. B. Market challengers.
105. C. Market followers.
106. A. Market research
107. C. Need gap analysis.
108.C. BCG matrix.
109. A. Sales analysis and marketing cost analysis
110. C. Culture.
111. B. Customer bonding.
112. D. Decline.
113. C. Individual branding
114. D. Direct marketing.
115. B. Product-mix.
116. D. Direct marketing.
117. D. All of the above.
118. D. All of the above.
119. D. Huge profits of manufacturers.
120. C. More shelf space.
121. D. It is very expensive to maintain and recruit the sales force.
122. A. The laid-back competitor.
123. A. Direct marketing.
124. A. Multi-channel conflict.
125. D. All of the above.
126. A. Operating requirements.
127. C. Prioritize your needs.
128. D. All of the above.
129. B. New trade regulations.
130. C. Proven management.
131. A. Long-term objective.
132. B. Environmental scanning.
133. A. Strategic planning.
134. B. Company‘s mission.
135. A. Economic environment.
136. D. By assessing its competitors position in the market.
137. A. Analyzing the competitive forces.
138. A. Technology.
139. B. Star.
140. B. Cash cow.
141. D. Annual objectives
142. C. Market approach.
143. B. Explicit policy.
144. B. Mandis
145. C. The Cash and carry
146. A. Reward and coercive power.
147. A. Growth stage.
148. A. The GE Grid.
149. C. Organizational structure.
150. B. A stable management.

PREPARED BY

Dr.S.SANATHKUMAR

Assistant Professor of BBA