PFRDA Grade A 2022

General
Phase 1 Paper 2
Exam Date: Nov 5, 2022
(Memory Based Paper)
Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

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Commerce and Accountancy

1. The Bank overdraft repayable on demand will be reported in the cash flow
statement as _____
a. Cash flow from operating activities
b. Cash flow from investing activities
c. Cash flow from financing activities
d. Cash and cash equivalents
e. Not a part of cash flow
Ans. D
Cash or cash equivalents include something which is equal to cash or can be converted into
cash readily for meeting short term commitments.
Bank overdrafts are a part of any entity’s cash management system and are included as a
component of cash equivalents.

Coverage – multiple

Refer to the following Date for Q2-Q3

Balance Sheet Amount (Rs.)
Fixed Assets 3,00,000
Cash 60,000

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

Inventory 40,000
Total Assets 4,00,000

Share Capital 2,00,000

Long term Debt 1,64,000
Trade Payables 36,000
Total Equity and Liabilities 4,00,000

2. What is the Current Ratio of JKL Ltd based on given information?

a. 0.50
b. 1.11
c. 1.67
d. 2.78
e. 3.07

Ans. D
Current Ratio = Current assets/current liabilities
= (Cash + Inventory) /trade payables
= (60,000 + 40,000) / 36,000
= 2.87

3. Calculate the Debt/Equity Ratio of the company from the above information.
a. 0.50
b. 0.82
c. 1.00
d. 1.22
e. 2.00
Ans. B
Debt/Equity = Debt/Equity
= 1,64,000/200,000
= 0.82 times

Coverage – multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

4. A company reported net profit before tax of Rs.36,100. It has raised debt
capital of Rs.250,000 through 13% debentures. What is the interest coverage ratio of
the company?
a. 6.92
b. 2.11
c. 1.11
d. 4.32
e. 3.12

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

Ans.B
Interest coverage Ratio = EBIT / Interest
Interest = 13% of 250000 = 32500
EBIT = profit before tax + interest = 36100 +32500 = 68,600

Therefore, Interest coverage ratio = 68600/32500 = 2.11 times

5. What is the minimum vesting period in case of ESOPs?

a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 15 months
d. 18 months
e. 3 years

Ans. B
There shall be a minimum period of one year between the grant of options and vesting of
option.

Coverage

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

6. An asset bought at Rs.10 lakh was sold for Rs.4 lakh after 3 years. What is
the depreciation charged on the asset per year as per straight line method?
a. 1.33 lakh
b. 2 lakh
c. 3.33 lakh
d. 6 lakh
e. None of the above

Ans. B
Depreciation = (Cost – salvage value) / life of asset
= (10 lakh – 4 lakh) / 3
= 2 lakh

Coverage - multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

7. As per the accounting standards, the impairment loss on a revalued asset is

recognised in _______
a. Profit & loss
b. Balance sheet
c. Exceptional income
d. Other comprehensive income
e. None of the above
Ans. D
An impairment loss on a non-revalued asset is recognised in profit or loss. However, an
impairment loss on a revalued asset is recognised in other comprehensive income to the
extent that the impairment loss does not exceed the amount in the revaluation surplus for
that same asset. Such an impairment loss on a revalued asset reduces the revaluation
surplus for that asset (AS 36).

Coverage – multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

8. A company has opening balance of debtors of Rs.3 lakh. If the doubtful

provision is 5% and discount is 2%, what is the net balance of debtors at the end of
the year?
a. 2,79,000
b. 2,79,300
c. 2,85,000
d. 2,85,180
e. 2,94,000

Ans. B
Net Debtors = (debtors – provision for bad debts) – discount
= (300000 – 5%) – 2% of balance
= 285,000 – 2% of 285,000
= 285,000 – 5,700
= 2,79,300

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

Finance

9. Who is the regulator of the corporate sector?

a. RBI
b. SEBI
c. IRDA
d. PFRDA
e. MCA
Ans. E
The basic charter of Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) is to promote the growth of the
Indian corporate sector through enlightened regulation. MCA is primarily concerned with
administration of the Companies Act 2013.

Coverage – multiple

10. A rupee account of a foreign bank in an Indian bank is known as _______

a. Vostro Account
b. Nostro Account
c. Loro Account
d. Foreign Account
e. None of the above
Ans. A
Vostro account refers to an correspondent bank account that a domestic bank maintains for
a foreign bank in the domestic currency. These accounts are an essential aspect of
correspondent banking in which the bank holding the funds acts as custodian for or
manages the account of a foreign counterpart.

It is referred to as "your money with us"

Coverage – multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

11. Which of the following describes a mechanism to maintain stability in price

after listing of securities?
a. Underwriting
b. Front running
c. Green-shoe option
d. Circuit breakers
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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

e. Arbitrage

Ans. C
The green Shoe Option is an option to allocate shares in excess of the shares which have
already been issued to the public. This is a price stabilizing mechanism and SEBI introduced
the Green Shoe mechanism in Indian capital markets in 2003.

Coverage –

12. As per SEBI regulations, Alternate investment Funds (AIF) have been allowed
to invest in ______
a. Overseas companies
b. Real estate companies
c. Infrastructure companies
d. Power companies
e. Agriculture companies
Ans. A
In terms of Regulation 12 (ba) of erstwhile SEBI (Venture Capital Funds)
Regulations 1996 and Regulation 15 (1)(a) of SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds)
Regulations, 2012, AIFs/VCFs may invest in securities of companies incorporated outside
India subject to such conditions or guidelines that may be stipulated or issued by the
Reserve Bank of India and SEBI from time to time.

13. Which of the following will help an exporter manage risk?

a. Insurance
b. Arbitrage
c. Hedging
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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

d. Insurance
e. Speculation
Ans. C
Hedging mainly is a risk management strategy. Hedging means strategically
using financial instruments or market strategies to offset the risk of any adverse price
movements.

Coverage – multiple

Costing

14. Which of the following is an example of contract costing?

a. Aeroplane manufacturing
b. Real estate
c. Sugar industry
d. Advertisement
e. All of the above
Ans. B
Contract costing is the tracking of costs associated with a specific contract with a
customer. For example, a company bids for a large construction project like in real estate.

Coverage – multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

15. What will be the BEP in units when the sales price is Rs.40 per unit, fixed cost
is Rs.60000 and the PV ratio is 40%?

a) 1500 units
b) 600 units
c) 3750 units
d) 1000 units
e) 2550 units
Ans. C
BEP (in Rs.) = Fixed cost/PV ratio
= 60,000/40%
= 15,00,000

BEP in units = 15,00,000/40 = 3750 units

16. If the fixed cost is Rs.43,500 and the company, the contribution is Rs.500 per
unit, how many unit sales would a company need to do to earn a profit of Rs.15,000?
a. 30 units
b. 57 units
c. 87 units
d. 100 units
e. 117 units
Ans. E
BEP = (Fixed cost + Profit)/ contribution per unit
= (43500 + 15000)/500
= 117 units

Coverage - multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

17. In six sigma under the define phase, which of the following is used to find the
root of a problem?
a. VOC
b. SIPOC
c. CPOQ
d. DPU
e. Kanban card
Ans. B
The acronym SIPOC stands for Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs and Customer. Using
information from these five areas creates a process map that gives a high-level overview of
a Six Sigma project. This is called high-level Process Map or Bird’s eye view. This tool
allows a team to view their process with respect to inputs, outputs, and suppliers. It provides
the process scope while showing the process boundaries. Also, it helps in identifying the
relationship among the supplier, inputs, and process; and gives visibility to the customers
and their requirements.

18. Which of the following is a wastage controlling technique which means

continuous improvement?
a. Just-in-Time (JIT)
b. Kaizen
c. 6 Sigma
d. Total Productive Maintenance (TPM)
e. Cellular Manufacturing/ One-Piece Flow Production Systems
Ans. b

Kaizen, means continual improvement. Continuous improvement is the continual

examination and improvement of existing processes and is very different from approaches
such as business process re-engineering (BPR), which seeks to make radical one-off
changes to improve an organization's operations and processes. This philosophy implies
that small, incremental changes routinely applied and sustained over a long period result
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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

in significant improvements. The kaizen strategy aims to involve workers from multiple
functions and levels in the organization in working together to address a problem or
improve a particular process. Some of the activities in the kaizen costing methodology
include the elimination of waste in the production, assembly, and distribution processes,
as well as the elimination of work steps in any of these areas.

19. Which of the following is a technique for waste minimization that explains how a
work space should be organized for efficiency and effectiveness by identifying and
storing the items used, maintaining the area and items, and sustaining the new
order.
a. Just-in-Time (JIT)
b. Kaizen
c. 5 S
d. Total Productive Maintenance (TPM)
e. Cellular Manufacturing/ One-Piece Flow Production Systems

Ans. c
5S is the name of a workplace organization method that uses a list of five Japanese words:
1. Seiri - Sort
2. Seiton – Set in Order
3. Seiso – Shine
4. Seiketsu - Standardize
5. Shitsuke – Sustain
5s explains how a work space should be organized for efficiency and effectiveness by
identifying and storing the items used, maintaining the area and items, and sustaining the
new order

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

20. Which of the following is not a type of lean system?

a. Just in Time
b. Pull System
c. Push System
d. Kaizen
e. None of the above
Ans. C
Lean System is an organized method for waste minimization without sacrificing
productivity within a manufacturing system.
Lean implementation emphasizes the importance of optimizing work flow through strategic
operational procedures while minimizing waste and being adaptable.

The characteristics of lean manufacturing are:

 Zero waiting time
 Zero inventory
 Pull processing
 Continuous flow of production and
 Continuous finding ways of reducing process time

Push system is not a principle in Lean manufacturing as push system means ‘make to
stcok’ in which production is not based on actual demand which may lead to high inventory,
higher overheads and over production.

Coverage - multiple

21. The cost incurred for an additional product is known as ________

a. Differential cost
b. Marginal cost
c. Absorption cost
d. Standard cost
e. Budget cost

Ans. B

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

Marginal Cost is the cost that is incurred on every marginal or additional product, i.e. if we
move from 0 units to 1 unit, the increase in total costs reflects the marginal cost of that unit.

Coverage – Multiple

22. Which of the following is not a phase under the DMADV model of six sigma?
a. Define
b. Measure
c. Analyse
d. Diagnose
e. Verify
Ans. D
DMADV: The application of these methods is aimed at creating a high-quality product
keeping in mind customer requirements at every stage of the product. It is an
improvement system which is used to develop new processes or products at Six Sigma
quality levels.
Phases are:
 Define
 Measure
 Analyze
 Design
 Verify

Coverage – multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

Companies Act

23. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall, in respect of a financial

year, appoint an auditor duly qualified to be appointed as an auditor of companies
under this Act, within a period of how many days?
a. 90 days
b. 100 days
c. 120 days
d. 180 days
e. 200 days

Ans. D
Section 139 - Appointment of auditors
In the case of a Government company or any other company owned or controlled, directly
or indirectly, by the Central Government, or by any State Government, or Governments,
or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments, the
first auditor shall be appointed by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG)
within 60 days from the date of registration of the company

Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), in the case of a Government

company or any other company owned or controlled, directly or indirectly, by the
Central Government, or by any State Government or Governments, or partly by the Central
Government and partly by one or more State Governments, the Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India shall, in respect of a financial year, appoint an auditor duly qualified to be
appointed as an auditor of companies under this Act, within a period of 180 days from the
commencement of the financial year, who shall hold office till the conclusion of the annual
general meeting.

Coverage – multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

24. How many independent directors should be there in a listed company?

a. At least ½ of total directors
b. At least 1/3 pf total directors
c. At least ¼ of total directors
d. At least 1/5 of total directors
e. None of the above

Ans. B
 Every listed public company shall have at least one-third (with fraction rounded-off as
one) of the total number of directors as independent directors
 the Central Government may prescribe the minimum number of independent directors in
case of any class or classes of public companies:
o at least 2 independent directors in case of public company having paid up
capital of at least Rs.10 crore or turnover of at least Rs.100 crore or have
aggregate outstanding loans/debentures/deposits of more than Rs.50 crore

Coverage – multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

25. As per Companies Act, 2013, in case of public companies, what should be
the time gap between two consecutive meetings of the Board?
a. Maximum 90 days
b. Maximum 100 days
c. Maximum 120 days
d. Maximum 150 days
e. Maximum 180 days
Ans. C
Companies Act, 2013 under section 173 states - The meeting of the Board of Directors
should be held in such a manner that not more than 120 days shall intervene between two
consecutive meetings of the Board

Coverage – multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

26. The red herring prospectus has to be filed with the RoC at least how many
days before the open issue opens?
a. 1 day
b. 2 days
c. 3 days
d. 5 days
e. 7 days

Ans. C
Red Herring Prospectus - (Section 32)
 issued before a prospectus
 It is an offer document used in case of a book built public issue. It contains all the
relevant details except that of price or number of shares being offered.
 It is filed with RoC at least 3 days before the issue opens
 Upon the closing of the offer of securities, the prospectus stating therein the total capital
raised, whether by way of debt or share capital, and the closing price of the securities
and any other details as are not included in the red herring prospectus shall be filed with
the Registrar and SEBI.

Coverage - multiple

27. As per section 44 of the Companies Act 2013, The shares or debenture or
other interest of any member in a company is movable property transferable in the
manner provided by the ______ of the company.
a. Articles
b. Memorandum
c. Preamble

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

d. Prospectus
e. Board of Directors

Ans. A
As per section 44 of the Companies Act 2013, The shares or debenture or other interest of
any member in a company is movable property transferable in the manner provided by
the articles of the company.

Coverage – multiple

28. For removal of the auditor before his term, the approval of __________ is
required.
a. Board of Directors
b. Shareholders
c. CAG
d. Central Government
e. All of the above

Ans. D
Section 140 - Removal of Auditor
An auditor can be removed before the completion of his/her term by:
1. passing a special resolution by the company and
2. obtaining prior approval from the central government in prescribed
manner (form ADT-2 as prescribed in Rule 7 of the Companies (Audit &
Auditors) Rules, 2014 along with prescribed fee) and
3. Before being removed by the firm, the auditor is given a fair and reasonable
chance of being heard

Coverage – Multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

29. Interim Dividend can be paid out of which of the following?

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

a. Profit and loss account

b. Balance sheet
c. Cashflow statement
d. Trading account
e. All of the above
Ans. A
Interim Dividend
Board of Directors of a company may declare interim dividend during any financial year or at
any time during the period from closure of financial year till holding of the annual general
meeting
Interim dividend can be paid out of
• surplus in the profit and loss account or
• profits of the financial year for which such interim dividend is sought to
be declared or
• profits generated in the financial year till the quarter preceding the
date of declaration of the interim dividend

Economics

30. The Phillips curve shows relation between __________

a. Inflation and GDP
b. GDP and investment
c. Inflation and investment
d. Inflation and unemployment
e. GDP and unemployment
Ans. D

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

The Phillips curve is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips stating that

inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. The short-run
Phillips curve is roughly L-shaped to reflect the initial inverse relationship between the two
variables. The theory claims that with economic growth comes inflation, which in turn should
lead to more jobs and less unemployment.
The long-run Phillips curve is a vertical line that illustrates that there is no permanent trade-
off between inflation and unemployment in the long run. The long-run Phillips curve is
vertical at the natural rate of unemployment.

Coverage – Multiple

31. MPC increases, multiplier ______

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. Becomes 1
e. None of the above

Ans. A
The larger the proportion of the additional income that gets devoted to spending rather than
saving, the greater the effect. Therefore, higher the MPC, the higher the multiplier

Coverage – multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

32. Which of the following gives the Fisher equation of money?

a. PT = MV
b. PM = KT
c. PT= MK
d. PV = MT
e. PV = IK
Ans. A
Fisher equation is given by MV=PT, and its derivation is credited to an American, Professor
Irving Fisher. It states that the money supply (M) multiplied by the velocity of circulation (V) is
equal to the number of transactions involving money payments (T) times the average price
of each transaction (P).

33. If income increase, the investment will ______

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. No change
d. None of the above
e. Any of the above
Ans. A
As per the accelerator principle, when income or consumption increases, investment will
increase by a multiple amount. The accelerator is the numerical value of the relation
between the increase in investment resulting from an increase in income.

Coverage – Multiple

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

34. Which of the following is not included in core inflation?

a. Manufactured goods
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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

b. Communication
c. Transport
d. Food
e. All are included
Ans. D
Core inflation is the change in the costs of goods and services but does not include those
from the food and energy sectors.

Coverage – multiple

35. The Direct benefit transfer scheme is related to transferring of ________

a. Indirect taxes
b. Subsidies
c. Cess
d. Income tax deductions
e. All of the above

Ans. B
Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) is a Government of India Scheme to improve
subsidy. administration.

Multiple coverage – under GA and schemes

36. Fiscal year for the government ends on _______

a. 31st December
b. 30th June
c. 31st March
d. 31st January
e. 28th February

Ans. C

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

The fiscal year followed by the government is the financial year beginning on 1st April and
ending on 31st March of next year.

Coverage – multiple

Pension Sector

37. Which of the following person are not eligible to apply to the NPS scheme?
a. Resident Indian
b. Non resident Indian
c. Overseas Citizen of India
d. Person of Indian Origin
e. All are eligible
Ans. D
An individual fulfilling the following eligibility criteria can voluntarily join in NPS:-

 Should be an Indian Citizen (resident or non-resident) or an Overseas Citizen of

India (OCI)
 Should be aged between 18 - 70 years
 Compliance of Know Your Customer (KYC) norms detailed in the Application Form

Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) and Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) are not eligible for
subscribing to NPS.

Coverage:
Similar question in Mock Test 2
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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

38. What is the upper age limit for joining the PM Vaya Vandana Yojana?
a. 60 years
b. 65 years
c. 70 years
d. 75 years
e. No maximum age

Ans E
PMVVY is a Pension Scheme announced by the Government of India exclusively for the
senior citizens aged 60 years and above which is available from May 04, 2017 to March 31,
2023

The scheme does not specify any upper age for entry for the scheme.

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39. Which of the following is not available as an investment choice under the
Active choice for NPS?
a. Equity
b. Corporate bonds
c. Alternate Funds
d. ULIPs
e. All are available

Ans. D
The Subscriber has been provided with several options to choose from Investment options
(Auto or Active) and four Asset Classes i.e. Equity, Corporate debt, Government Bonds and
Alternative Funds.

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

40. What is the name of the grievance redressal portal for pensioners?
a. Pension Ombudsman and Redressal Cell
b. Centralised Pensioners Grievance Redress And Monitoring System
c. Pension Grievance Redress System
d. Pension and Pensioners Welfare Cell
e. Umang and Anudaan Cell

Ans. B
Centralised Pensioners Grievance Redress And Monitoring System (CPENGRAMS) is
an online computerised system which has been developed with an objective of speedy
redress and effective monitoring of the grievances besides providing a fast access to the
pensioners.
Pensioners can also appeal if they are not satisfied with the redressal of their grievance.

41. Which of the following is correct with regard to default nominee for an
unmarried person in Atal Pension Yojna?
a. Any person can be made nominee
b. After marriage the same other person will continue to be nominee
c. After marriage the spouse details have to be provided
d. A and B
e. A and C
Ans. E
It is mandatory to provide nominee details in Atal Pension Yojana (APY) account. If the
subscriber is married, the spouse will be the default nominee. Unmarried subscribers can
nominate any other person as nominee & they have to provide spouse details after marriage.
The Aadhaar details of spouse and nominees may be provided.

42. As per the new rules, the processing time of withdrawal from NPS is
________
a. T+1
b. T+2
c. T+3
d. T+4
e. T+5
Ans. B
The withdrawal requests of subscribers at the time of exit have been reduced to T+2
working/settlement days from T+4 earlier. (T being the day of authorization of withdrawal
request by Nodal office/PoP/Subscriber).
The ‘T’ depends on the cut-off time for Settlement which varies between 10.30 am to 11.00
a.m. However, it may change depending upon other settlement factors.

43. In case of upgradation of pension contribution under Atal Pension Yojana, the
subscribers have to pay the differential amount of contribution at the rate of ____ on
monthly compounding basis.
a. 5%
b. 6%
c. 7%

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Memory Based Paper – PFRDA (General) 2022 – Phase 1 Paper 2

d. 8%
e. 9%
Ans. D
A subscriber of Atal Pension Yojana can opt to decrease or increase pension amount during
the course of accumulation phase, once a financial year.
 For upgradation, the subscribers have to pay the differential amount of
contribution at the rate of 8% p.a. on monthly compounding basis
 In the case of down gradation, the excess amount of contribution collected from the
subscriber would be refunded to the subscribers along with the returns generated.
For upgradation or down gradation, other than error cases, the subscribers would be
required to pay a fee of Rs. 50, which will be shared equally by PoP-APYSP and CRA.

Management

44. Which of the following style of leadership is characterised by high relationship

orientation and high task orientation?
a. Country club
b. Impoverished
c. Task management
d. Team management
e. Compromising

Ans. D
As per the Blake and Mouton’s Managerial grid, when a leader has high concern for
relationship and task, it is the team management style.

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45. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts is emphasised in which of the
following theory of management thought?
a. Administrative
b. Scientific
c. Contingency
d. Systems
e. Human
Ans. D
The whole is greater than the sum of the parts and that the parts or subsystems are related
to each other and to the whole are emphasised in the
Systems Theory states that an organization is a system consisting of a number of
interdependent parts functioning as a whole for some purpose. These parts might include:
inputs, a transformation process, outputs, feedback, and the environment. An organization is
generally considered to be open and organic with the subpart or subsystem interacting.

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46. Transformational leadership

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47. Transactional Leadership

48. Roles of Manager – 3 questions

49. Roles of Manager
50. Roles of Manager

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