THE SCHOOL OF LEGAL ILLUMINATI

(S.L.I)
PLOT NO7-JAGBANI BUILDING,SECTOR 25-D CHANDIGARH

MOCK TEST 1

1. Part IXB of the Constitution of India containing articles 243ZH to 243ZT

pertaining to cooperative societies was inserted by which of the following
constitutional amendment act?
A. Constitution, 73rd amendment act 1992.
B. Constitution, 97th amendment act 2011.
C. Constitution, 91st amendment act 2003.
D. Constitution, 95th amendment act 2010.

2. A document registered under the registration act, 1908 operates

A. From the time of its registration.
B. From the time from which it would have commence to operate, if no registration
was required.
C. Either A or B.
D. None of the above.

3. Which provision of the Rajasthan court fees and suit valuation act ,1961
provides for refund of full payment of fee where a suit is settled by anyone of the
modes provided under section 89 of the code of civil procedure?
A. section 63.
B. section 65 A
C. Section 65B
D. section 68.

4. A is in a house which is on re with a child. People below, hold out a blanket. A

drops the child from the house-top knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the
child, but not intending to kill the child and intending in good faith the child's
bene t. However, the child dies. Which o ence has been committed by A?
A. A has committed the o ence of murder.
B. A has committed the o ence of rash and negligent act, causing death.
C. A has committed no o ence
D. A has committed o ence of culpable homicide.

5. Under the sale of goods act, 1930 movable good does not include
A. stock and shares.
B. grass.
C. Money.
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 D. growing crops.

6. A being owner of a plot of land sells the same to B through a registered sale
deed in 2005. B, however, does not make full payment to A. A again sells the same
land to C in the year 2010 without informing him of the earlier transaction of 2005.
Who would be the person aggrieved in these circumstances?
A. B the rst purchaser
B. A the seller
C. C the subsequent purchaser
D. All of the above

7. In which of the following cases honourable Supreme Court has laid down that
the competent magistrate can direct a police o cer to conduct thorough and fair
investigation into an FIR?
A. Hassan bhai versus State of Gujarat.
B. Sakiri Vasu versus State of Uttar Pradesh.
C. Rashmi Bahl versus State of Uttar Pradesh.
D. Razia Begum versus State of Maharashtra.

8. Non-compliance of which of the following order passed under protect protection

of women from domestic violence act 2005 is an o ence?
A. maintenance order.
B. custody order.
C. Residence order.
D. protection order.

9. In which of the following cases the court is required to record evidence before
framing of charges?
A. summons cases.
B. cases tribal by court of session.
C. Warrant cases institute upon a complaint.
D. warrant cases instituted upon a police report.

10. A person who sends, generates, stores or transmit and electronic message or
causes an electronic message to be sent, generated stored or transmitted to any
other person is called
A. Sender
B. Originator
C. Generator
D. Intermediary

11. A Hindu wife is entitled to claim maintenance after the death of her husband
from her father-in-law, under which of the following section?
A. section 25 of the Hindu marriage act 1955.
B. section 24 of the Hindu marriage act 1955.
C. Section 19 of the Hindu adoption and maintenance act 1956.
D. section 10 of the Hindu succession act 1956.
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12. The period of three years is prescribed under article 137 of the limitation act
1963, in case where no other period of limitation is provided for the ling of any ….
A. suit.
B. appeal.
C. Application.
D. proceedings.

13. As per the Constitution of India, the executive power of the state is vested in
A. chief Secretary of the state.
B. chief minister of the state.
C. Chief executive o cer of the state.
D. governor of the state.

14. Decree for payment of money passed against a woman cannot be executed
A. by proceedings against her legal representatives, if she dies.
B. by attachment and sale of her property.
C. By appointment of receiver.
D. by arrest and detention in prison.

15. Where a plainti s to sue in respect of, or relinquishes any portion of his claim,
he shall not afterwards sue in respect of the portion so omitted or relinquished.
This principal lies in:
A. section 115 of the Indian evidence act, 1872.
B. section 11 of the code of civil procedure, 1908.
C. Order II rule 2 of the code of civil procedure, 1908
D. none of the above.

16. An agreement is executed on 1 February 2024 between the landlord and the
tenant to increase the rent of the let out premises by 4% per annum. Under section
7 of the Rajasthan rent control act 2001, such agreement is:
A. lawful.
B. voidable at the instance of tenant.
C. Voidable at instance of landlord
D. void.

17. In which order of the code of civil procedure, 1908, the expression decree
includes the nal order is provided?
A. order XLI
B. order XLIII
C. Order XLV
D. order XLVII

18. In which of the following judgement honourable Supreme Court declared the
right to privacy as a fundamental right?
A. Association for democratic reforms versus union of India.
B. Rajiv Kumar Gupta versus union of India.
C. Navtej Singh Johar versus union of India.
D. KS Puttu Swamy versus union of India.
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 19. Which of the following is not de ned under section 2 of the limitation act 1963?
A. bill of exchange.
B. bond.
C. Cheque
D. promissory note.

20. Under the Constitution of India, disquali cation on the ground of defection can
be made in
A. 9th schedule.
B. 10th schedule.
C. 11th schedule.
D. 12th schedule.

21. Which of the following statement regarding gift under the transfer of property
act 1882 is correct?
A. gift is the transfer of certain future movable property or immovable property
made voluntarily without consideration.
B. transferor is called Donee
C. If the Donee dies before the acceptance, the gift is void.
D. none of the above.

22. Any suit led under the provisions of the speci c relief act, 1963 shall be
disposed of by the court within a period of …. From the date of service of
summons to the defendant:
A. six months.
B. nine months.
C. 12 months.
D. 24 months.

23. The words and expressions used in the speci c relief act, 1963, but not
de ned in the act Have the meaning as de ned under:
A. General clauses act
B. Indian contract act.
C. Transfer of property act.
D. code of civil procedure.

24. Under the registration act, 1908, a will can be presented for registration within
A. four months of its execution.
B. six months of its execution.
C. Two months of its execution.
D. any time.

25. For an acceptance to be valid under the Indian contract act 1872, it must be
A. partial and quali ed.
B. absolute and unquali ed.
C. Absolute and quali ed.
D. partial and unquali ed.
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 26. In India under the Indian contract act, 1872, a person who is a stranger to
consideration can
A. Sue on the basis of contract.
B. cannot sue on the basis of contract.
C. Can sue depending upon the conditions only.
D. can sue with the permission of the court.

27. Hiba is an immediate unquali ed transfer of the property without any return.
This de nition was given by:
A. Durr Mukhtar.
B. Aquil Ahmed.
C. Khalid Rashid.
D. none of the above.

28. Under Muslim law ‘tuhr’ means:

A. period of impurity.
B. period of three menstruation courses.
C. Period between two menstruation courses.
D. period during which a Muslim woman cannot marry.

29. When did Hindu succession act 1956 came into force?
A. 17 June 1956.
B. 1 March 1957.
C. 1 May 1956.
D. 23 April 1957.

30. Presumption in cases of simultaneous death is provided under which section

of the Hindu succession act 1956?
A. section 24.
B. section 22.
C. Section 21.
D. section 20.

31. Rule of sapinda relationship is based on:

A. principal of endogamy.
B. principle of exogamy
C. Principle of polygamy.
D. principle of monogamy

32. When can a seller stop the goods in transit as per sale of goods act
1930?
A. when the buyer of the goods inform the seller that he will make the payment
after sometime.
B. seller has no right to stop the goods in transit
C. When the buyer of the goods has become in solvent and the goods are in
transit.
D. when the buyer informs that he is not in need of the goods.
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 33. A condition is a stipulation to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of
which gives rise to right to treat the contract as repudiated. Therefore, conditions
are:
A. collateral.
B. essential.
C. Not collateral.
D. not essential.

34. Under the Indian partnership act, 1932, an act of a rm means

A. any partner or agent of the rm, which gives rise to a right enforceable by or
against the rm.
B. any act by all the partners of the rm.
C. Any omission by all the partners of the rm.
D. both B & C

35. Who can inspect the register and led documents at the o ce of the registrar
under the Indian partnership act 1932?
A. any government servant.
B. any partner
C. Partner of other rms
D. any person.

36. Under the Rajasthan excise act, 1950 and appeal from the order passed by
excise o cer under the act lies to:
A. excise commissioner.
B. State government.
C. Division bench of Rajasthan tax board.
D. Central government.

37. Under the negotiable instrument act, 1881, when can a bill be said to be
dishonoured?
A. when presentment is excused, and the bill is not accepted.
B. one of the several drawees makes default in acceptance upon being required to
accept the bill
C. By non-acceptance by the drawee
D. all of the above.

38. Sexual harassment at workplace prevention, prohibition and redressal act 2013
applies to
A. unorganised sector only.
B. organised sector only.
C. Both organised and unorganised sector.
D. none of the above.

39. Which of the following sets out in general terms, the purpose of the statute?
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 A. preamble.
B. Long title.
C. Short title.
D. any of the above

40. Which chapter of the protection of children from sexual o ences act lays down
the procedure for recording statement of a child?
A. chapter 4.
B. chapter 5.
C. Chapter 6.
D. chapter 7.

41. Under the provisions of Rajasthan land revenue act, who has the power
to create or abolish divisions, districts, subdivisions, and tehsils?
A. Central government.
B. State government.
C. Land record o cer.
D. divisional commissioner.

42. Under which section of the indecent representation of women, Prohibition act
1986, the term indecent representation of women is de ned?
A. section 2(a)
B. section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. section 2(d)

43. Under which section of the juvenile Justice act 2015, bail to a person who is
apparently a child in con ict of law is to be granted as a general rule?
A. section 10.
B. section 11.
C. Section 12.
D. section 9.

44. As per section 27 of the juvenile Justice care and protection of children act
2015, the appointment of a person as a member of a child welfare committee is for
the maximum period of ….
A. two years.
B. three years.
C. Four years.
D. ve years.

45. In which of the following cases the constitutional validity of section 27 of

the Indian evidence act was ahead?
A. State of Uttar Pradesh versus Deoman Upadhyay.
B. Bodh Raj versus State of Jammu and Kashmir.
C. Shambhu Dayal versus Subhash Chandra.
D. none of the above.
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 46. In a criminal trial, the accused has to establish his plea mitigation or
justi cation of an o ence ….
A. Beyond reasonable doubt.
B. Prima Facie
C. Substantially.
D. either a or B.

47. Dagdu versus state of Maharashtra is related with which of the following
subject?
A. accomplice
B. burden of proof.
C. Conduct.
D. hostile witness

48. Relationship is not a factor to a ect the credibility of a witness. This was held
by the Supreme Court in which of the following case?
A. S Sudarshan Reddy versus state of Andhra Pradesh.
B. Syed Ibrahim versus state of Andhra Pradesh.
C. Renuka versus State of Maharashtra.
D. Meenu Kumari versus state of Bihar.

49. Under which of the following section of the BSA 2023, indecent and
scandalous questions are prohibited?
A. section 157.
B. section 141.
C. Section 154.
D. section 143.

50. Power of the judge to put questions or order production is provided under
which section of BSA 2023?
A. section 162.
B. section 166.
C. Section 168.
D. section 182.

51. What is the maximum period for security for keeping peace that can be asked
for under section 126 of BNSS 2023?
A. three years.
B. two years.
C. One year.
D. none of the above.

52. Monthly allowance or interim monthly allowance can be altered as per which of
the following provision of BNSS 2023?
A. section 144.
B. section 145.
C. Section 146.
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 D. section 148.

53. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to First information

report?
A. it is the earliest information of a cognizable o ence prevented by o cer
incharge of police station
B. it is the earliest information of a cognizable o ence recorded by o cer incharge
of Police Station.
C. It is the earliest information of a cognizable o ence committed by o cer
incharge of Police Station.
D. none of the above.

54. Classi cation of o ence that has been provided under BNSS 2023 includes:
A. o ences classi ed into cognizable and non-cognizable.
B. o ences classi ed into bailable and non-bailable.
C. O ences classi ed for trial into summons case and warrant case
D. all of the above.

55. The protection under section 181 of BNSS 2023 is available:

A. in civil proceedings.
B. in proceedings under article 32 or 226 of the Constitution of India.
C. Not available in rape cases.
D. only available in criminal enquiry or trial in respect of the o ence under
investigation.

56. X is accused of giving false evidence at a given time and place. Applying
section 236 of BNSS 2023:
A. the charge must set out that portion of evidence given by X which is alleged to
be true.
B. the charge must set out that portion of evidence given by X which is alleged to
be false.
C. The charge must set out to cancel all the evidence given by X.
D. none of the above.

57. X is accused of theft on one occasion and causing grievous hurt on another
occasion. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. X must be separately charged and separately tried for theft and for causing
grievous hurt.
B. X need not be separately, charged and separately tried for theft and for causing
grievous hurt
C. It depends on the facts and circumstances.
D. none of the above.

58. Which of the following is not content of a charge?

A. description of family background of the accused.
B. speci c name of the o ence as per the law which provides for the o ence.
C. Particulars of time and place of the o ence.
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D. all of the above.

59. In a summary trial, which trial procedure the court should follow?
A. procedure for session trial.
B. procedure for warrant trial
C. Procedure for summons trial.
D. no speci c procedure is provided.

60. If a person who is competent to compound, an o ence is dead, then

compounding:
A. cannot be done.
B. can be done.
C. Can be done by the legal representatives of the deceased only with the
permission of the court.
D. none of the above

61. Which of the following is not a sine qua non for making a person
criminally liable?
A. Actus Reus
B. Mens Rea
C. Motive
D. All of the above

62. Qui Peccatebrius luatsobris deals with

A. Intoxication
B. Insanity
C. Consent
D. Immaturity

63. Criminal Intimidation is de ned under which of the following provisions of

BNS, 2023?
A. Section 351
B. Section 352
C. Section 353
D. Section 354

64. A, a citizen of India, commits murder in England. He is found in Indore

and arrested accordingly. Where can A be tried?
A. At New Delhi, capital of India
B. At Bhopal, capital of Madhya Pradesh
C. At Indore, where he was found
D. At any place in India

65. For application of Section 3(5) of BNS, 2023 there must be

A. Several Persons
B. At least one person
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C. No limit
D. None of the above

66. If an o ender os sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding one

year, the term of solitary con nement shall not exceed:
A. One month
B. Two months
C. Three months
D. Four months

67. For the purpose of claiming defence, insanity means:

A. Medical Insanity
B. Legal insanity
C. Both a and b
D. Neither a nor b

68. In case of free ght between two parties:

A. Right of private defence is available to both parties
B. Right of private defence is not available to either party
C. It is decided by the court as to which party is entitled to right of private
defence
D. None of the above

69. Which order of the code of civil procedure is related to maxim ‘action
personalis moritur cum persona’?
A. Order 24
B. Order 22
C. Order 26
D. Order 19

70. A relief of injunction can be refused on which of the following ground?

A. Laches
B. applicant has not come with clean hands.
C. Where monetary compensation is an adequate relief.
D. all of the above.

71. Under order VIII, rule 6 of the code of civil procedure, 1908, seto maybe
permitted:
A. if the suit is for recovery of property.
B. if set of claimed by defendant is ascertained sum of money.
C. If value of the property recoverable is less than two lakh rupees.
D. if defendant presents a written statement of the suit

72. The property which is not liable to attachment and sale in execution of a
decree is ….
A. Government securities.
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B. promissory note.
C. Books of account.
D. bond.

73. Suits relating to immovable property may be led in a court within whose local
jurisdiction:
A. defendant carries on business.
B. defendant resides
C. Property situated.
D. none of the above.

74. Under which of the following section the power of the High Court to determine
issues of fact is provided in the code, of civil procedure 1908?
A. section 111.
B. section 105.
C. Section 108.
D. section 103.

75. The doctrine of constructive res judicata is given under:

A. section 11 explanation III of CPC.
B. section 11 explanation IV of CPC.
C. Section 11 explanation V of CP.
D. section 11 explanation VI of CPC
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