AIM CIVILS PRELIMS cum

MAINS TEST SERIES

POLITY

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

2000 - 2024

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CONSTITUTION - SALIENT FEATURES
2024
1. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra
Prasad took over?
a) C. Rajagopalachari
b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) T.T. Krishnamachari
d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Ans: D
Explanation:
 Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the Provisional President of the Constituent
Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over as the permanent President.

2. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in fu Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the
Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct. Constitution (Seventy Forth Amendment) Act, 1992 has
introduced a new Part IXA in the Constitution, which deals with Municipalities in an
article 243 P to 243 ZG. Art 243 W under this Part deals with Powers, authority and
responsibilities of Municipalities.
 Statement 2 is correct. Part XVIII of the Constitution of India contains emergency
provisions.
 Statement 3 is correct. Part XX of the Constitution of India contains provisions
related to the amendments.
2023
3. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the
‘Constitution’ of a country?
a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security

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Ans: C
Explanation:
 The chief purpose of a constitution is to establish the fundamental principles,
structure, and functions of a government and to define the rights and freedoms of
individuals within a country. Constitutions serve as the supreme law of the land and
provide a framework for governance, ensuring the balance of power, protecting
individual rights, and guiding the functioning of the state. Hence, option (c) is
correct.
2021
4. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our
model differ from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India,
the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of
Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Parliamentary sovereignty is the most important part of the
UK constitution. It makes the UK’s Parliament the supreme legal authority that can
create or end any law. Therefore, the UK constitution is often described as ‘partly
written and wholly uncodified’. (Uncodified means that the UK does not have a
single, written constitution.)
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976, curtails both
directly and indirectly, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to
review the constitutionality of laws. The Constitution of India is been formed on the
principles of the rule of law, so the Legislature in India has been vested with its
constitutional functions and powers and so has limitations too.

5. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it
is federal in character?
a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

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Ans: A
Explanation:
 The establishment of an independent judiciary indicates the federal character of
Indian polity. The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the
Supreme Court to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or
between the states.
Key features of Federalism
 There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
 Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own
jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation, and administration. The
jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the
Constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is
constitutionally guaranteed. The fundamental provisions of the Constitution cannot
be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the
consent of both levels of government. Courts have the power to interpret the
Constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court
acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the
exercise of their respective powers

6. Constitutional government means

a) a representative government of the nation with a federal structure
b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
Ans: D
Explanation:
 Constitutional government is by definition limited government. It means
government conducted according to rules and principles, which are binding on all
political actors, and which therefore help to constrain the unfettered exercise of
power by separating or dividing it. The contemporary political systems that
combine constitutionalism and democracy share a common basis in that they
accord to the will of the majority of the people as expressed in free elections. In all
such systems, political parties are key institutions, for they are the agencies by
which majority opinion in a modern mass electorate is mobilized and expressed.

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2020
7. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism,
secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’
liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
Explanation:
The Basic Structure of the Constitution of India
 The Constitution of India does not explicitly define its ‘basic structure’. The concept
of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution was evolved by the Supreme Court of
India in the landmark case of KesavanandaBharati v. State of Kerala in 1973.
 In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that while the Parliament has wide powers to
amend the Constitution, it cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution. The
Court did not provide an exhaustive list of features constituting the basic structure
but mentioned a few examples such as federalism, secularism, fundamental rights,
and democracy, among others.
 Therefore, the statement that the Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in
terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy is incorrect
because it is the interpretation of the Supreme Court, not a definition provided by
the Constitution itself.
Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution
 The term “judicial review” itself is not explicitly mentioned in the text of the Indian
Constitution. However, the power of judicial review is implicitly enshrined within
various provisions of the Constitution, making it a fundamental aspect of the Indian
legal system.

8. A constitutional government by definition is a

a) government by legislature
b) popular government
c) multi-party government
d) limited government

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Ans: D
Explanation:
 The Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949, adopted, enacted and gave
citizens their own Constitution.
 The Constitutional status of India on 26th January,1950 was a Sovereign Democratic
Republic as the words- Socialist and Secular were added to the Preamble by the
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
 Presently, the Preamble to the Indian Constitution defines India to be a Sovereign,
Socialist, Secular and Democratic Republic.
 Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

2014
9. Consider the following statements : A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual
liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
Explanation:
What is a Constitutional Government?
 A constitution is a set of established principles according to which a state is
governed. A constitutional government is a government that runs according to the
Constitution of the land. It refers to a government which is limited by the
Constitution which might be written or unwritten. The rules and policies of the
government are limited by a constitution which describes the basic law of the
land. Hence, a constitution limits the powers of the government and safeguards
individual freedoms in a constitutional government.
 Statement 1 is Incorrect: A constitutional government does not place restrictions on
individual liberty solely for the interest of state authority. Instead, it aims to protect
liberties while ensuring that the government operates within its constitutional
boundaries.
 Statement 2 is Correct: A key feature of Constitutional Governments is the
establishment of checks and balances to prevent the abuse of power by the state.
This includes protecting individual liberties through mechanisms like fundamental
rights, separation of powers, and the rule of law.

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2013
10. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the
Provinces were (2013)
a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
b) nominated by the
c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Ans: C
Explanation:
 The Constituent Assembly of India, which drafted the Indian Constitution, was
formed based on the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.
Representation and Composition of The Constituent Assembly of India:
Election Process:
i. Members of the Constituent Assembly were indirectly elected using the system
of proportional representation with single transferable vote by the members of
the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
ii. The Assembly was not elected on the basis of universal adult suffrage, and
Muslims and Sikhs received special representation as minorities.
iii. Seats were distributed among provinces and princely states, with the total
number being 389 members initially (296 from British Indian provinces and 93
from princely states).
iv. Seats were allocated to provinces based on their population, roughly in the ratio
of one seat per million population.
Party Representation:
i. Indian National Congress (INC): Held a dominant position with approximately
208 seats.
ii. All India Muslim League (AIML): Secured around 73 seats , but after the League's
call for Pakistan and its boycott of the Constituent Assembly, its representation
diminished in influence within the Assembly.
iii. Others: Including the Hindu Mahasabha, Communist Party of India, and
independents, occupied the remaining seats.
Women's Representation:
There were 15 women in the Constituent Assembly, a remarkable figure for that
time. Prominent women members included Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Hansa Mehta,
Durgabai Deshmukh, and Sarojini Naidu.
Sessions and Time Taken:
i. The Assembly took 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to draft the Constitution. In
total, there were 11 sessions held over 165 days of meetings.
ii. The first session of the Assembly took place on 9th December 1946.
Interestingly, only 207 members were present during this first meeting due to
the Muslim League’s boycott.

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Final Adoption and Historic Dates:
The Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949, but it came into effect on 26th
January 1950, chosen to honor the Purna Swaraj Declaration of 1930 made on the
same day.
2006
11. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in
the year 1946 ? (2006)
a) Defence
b) External Affairs and Commonwealth
c) Food and Agriculture
d) None
Ans: C
Explanation:
 The Interim Government of India was formed on September 2, 1946, as a temporary
executive council during the transition period from British rule to independence.
Food and Agriculture was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the interim government
formed in the year 1946. After the Indian independence in 1947, Dr. Rajendra Prasad
became the first Indian President of India.
Interim Government 1946
S.NO Leader Portfolio
External Affairs and Commonwealth
1 Jawaharlal Nehru Relations
Sardar Vallabhbhai
2 Patel Home Affairs, Information and Broadcasting
3 Dr. John Mathai Railways and Transport
4 C. Rajagopalachari Education and Arts
5 Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Law and Justice
6 Liaquat Ali Khan Finance
7 I. I. Chundrigar Commerce
8 Jagjivan Ram Labour
9 Baldev Singh Defence
10 Asaf Ali Post and Air
11 C.H. Bhabha Works, Mines, and Power
12 Rajendra Prasad Food and Agriculture

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2005
12. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of
the Constitution Assembly?
a) B. R. Ambedkar
b) J. B. Kripalani
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Ans: C
Explanation:
 An idea for a Constituent Assembly of India was proposed in 1934 by M. N. Roy, a
pioneer of the Communist movement in India and an advocate of radical
democracy. Under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, elections were held for the first
time for the Constituent Assembly. The Constitution of India was drafted by the
Constituent assembly, and it was implemented under the Cabinet Mission Plan on
16 May 1946.
 The Constituent Assembly took almost three years (two years, eleven months and
seventeen days to be precise) to complete its historic task of drafting the
Constitution for Independent India. During this period, it held eleven sessions
covering a total of 165 days. Of these, 114 days were spent on the consideration of
the Draft Constitution. Jawaharlal Nehru was chairman of Union Constitution
Committee, Union Powers Committee and States Committee for negotiating with
states.

S.NO Committee Name Chairman

1 Drafting Committee Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
2 Union Powers Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
3 Union Constitution Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
4 Provincial Constitution Committee Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
5 Advisory Committee on Fundamental Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and
Excluded Areas
6 Steering Committee Dr. Rajendra Prasad
7 Rules of Procedure Committee Dr. Rajendra Prasad
8 Finance and Staff Committee Dr. Rajendra Prasad
9 Credential Committee Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
10 House Committee B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
11 Order of Business Committee K.M. Munshi
12 Committee on the Functions of the G.V. Mavalankar
Constituent Assembly
13 Committee for Negotiating with States V.P. Menon

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13. Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Article in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth schedules were added to the Constitution of India
by the Constitution (Amendments) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Explanation:
 Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in
the world, containing 448 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules and 106 amendments. At
the time of commencement, the constitution had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8
schedules. Additional articles and parts are inserted later through various
amendments.
 The Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh, and Twelfth schedules were indeed added to the
Constitution through various amendment acts:
 Ninth Schedule: Added by the First Amendment Act, 1951
 Tenth Schedule: Added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 (Anti-defection law)
 Eleventh Schedule: Added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 (Panchayati Raj)
 Twelfth Schedule: Added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992 (Municipalities)

2004
14. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2004)
a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial assemblies in the
year 1946.
b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the
Constituent Assembly of India.
c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947.
d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950.
Ans: A
EXPLANATION:
 The Constitution of India was drafted by the Constituent Assembly, and it was
implemented under the Cabinet Mission Plan on 16 May 1946. The members of the
Constituent Assembly were elected by the provincial assemblies by a single
transferable-vote system of proportional representation. The first meeting of the
Constituent Assembly of India took place in Constitutional Hall, New Delhi, on 9th
December 1946. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first president of the

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Constituent Assembly. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected its president.The
Republic is governed in terms of the Constitution of India which was adopted by the
Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949 and came into force on 26th
January, 1950.
 While Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members, M.A. Jinnah
was not. Jinnah had moved towards advocating for the creation of Pakistan and
did not participate in the Constituent Assembly of India.

15. Consider the following statements:

Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the:
1. Abolition of diarchy in the Governors’ provinces
2. Power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own
3. Abolition of the principle of communal representation
Which of the statements given above is are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation:
 The Government of India Act, 1935 laid the foundation for many features that were
later incorporated into the Constitution of India.
Significant features of the GOI Act 1935:
 Federal Structure: The Act proposed a Federation of India, which would include
both the British Indian provinces and princely states. However, this federation was
not fully realized because the princely states never joined.
 List System: The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of
three lists—Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with
54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). Residuary powers were
given to the Viceroy.
 Provincial Autonomy: It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced
‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. The provinces were allowed to act as
autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. Moreover, the Act
introduced responsible governments in provinces, that is, the governor was
required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature.
 Bicameral Legislature: Introduced a bicameral legislature at the Centre, consisting
of the Federal Assembly (Lower House) and the Council of States (Upper House). It
introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces. Thus, the legislatures of
Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces were made
bicameral.
 Dyarchy at Centre: It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre.
Consequently, the federal subjects were divided into reserved subjects and

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transferred subjects. However, this provision of the Act did not come into operation
at all.
 Communal Electorate: It further extended the principle of communal
representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled
castes), women and labour (workers).
 Federal Court: Established a Federal Court for the first time, with the authority to
resolve disputes between provinces and between provinces and the Centre, a
precursor to the modern Supreme Court of India.
2003
16. Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was
derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list. (2003)
List I (Item in the India Constitution) List II (Country from which it was
derived)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy 1. Australia
B. Fundamental Rights 2. Canada
C. Concurrent List in Union State Relations 3. Ireland
D. India as a Union of States with greater 4. United kingdom
powers to the Union
5. USA
Codes:
A B C D
a) 5 4 1 2
b) 3 5 2 1
c) 5 4 2 1
d) 3 5 1 2
Ans: D
Explanation:
S.NO Borrowed From Provisions Borrowed
Government of India The Federal system Office of Governor Judiciary
1
Act, 1935 Public Service Commission Emergency powers
Parliamentary government Rule of Law Legislative
procedure Single citizenship Cabinet system
2 Britain
Prerogative writs Parliamentary privileges
Bicameralism Speaker in Lok Sabha
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
Method of Election of the President
3 Ireland
Members' nomination to the Rajya Sabha by the
President

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Impeachment of the president Functions of
president and vice-president Removal of
Supreme Court and High Court judges
United States of
4 Fundamental Rights Judicial review
America
Independence of judiciary
The preamble of the constitution Written
Constitution Provision of States
Centrifugal form of federalism where the center is
stronger than the states Residuary powers vest
5 Canada with the center Center appoints the Governors at
the states Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court
Concept of Concurrent List Article 108 (Joint
6 Australia sitting of the two houses) Freedom of trade and
commerce
Fundamental Duties
7 USSR (Now Russia) The ideals of justice (social, economic, and
political) expressed in the Preamble
Concept of “Republic” Ideals of Liberty, Equality,
8 France
and Fraternity (contained in the Preamble)
Fundamental Rights are suspended during
9 Germany
Emergency
Election of members of the Rajya Sabha
10 South Africa
Amendment of the Constitution
11 Japan Concept of “procedure established by Law”

2002
17. Match List I (Acts of Colonial Government of India) with List II (Provisions) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: historical background
List I List II
(Acts of colonial government of India) (Provisions)
A. Charter Act, 1813 1. Set up a Board of Control in Britain to fully
regulate the east India Company’s affairs
in India
B. Regulating Act 1773 2. Company’s trade monopoly in India was
ended
C. Act of 1858 3. The power to govern was transferred
from the East India Company to the
British Crown
D. Pitt’s India Act , 1784 4. The Company’s directors were asked to
present to the British government all

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correspondence and documents
pertaining to the administration of the
company
Codes:
A B C D
a) 2 4 3 1
b) 1 3 4 2
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
Regulating Act 1773:
1) First step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of
the East India Company in India; it recognised, for the first time, the political and
administrative functions of the Company and laid the foundations of central
administration in India.
2) It designated the Governor of Bengal as the Governor-General of Bengal and
created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such
Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings.
3) It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the
governor-general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were
independent of one another.
Pitt's India Act 1784:
1) It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the
Company.
2) It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a
new body called Board of Control in Britain to manage the political affairs. Thus,
it established a system of double government.
3) It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the
civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
Charter Act of 1813:
1) The company was allowed to continued territorial possession for period of 20
years i.e. from 1833 to 1853. The company was held in trust to the Crown.
2) It ended the East India Company's trade monopoly in India (except trade with
China and tea), opening up Indian markets.
Government of Act 1858:
1) It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her
Majesty . It changed the designation of the Governor- General of India to that of
Viceroy of India. He (viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in
India. Lord Canning thus became the first Viceroy of India.
2) It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control

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and Court of Directors.
3) It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete
authority and control over Indian administration. The secretary of state was a
member of the British cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British
Parliament.

18. The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India
were
a) nominated by the British Parliament
b) nominated by the Governor General
c) elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces
d) elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League
Ans: C
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly of India, which drafted the Indian Constitution, was formed
based on the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. The members were chosen through a
specific process:
 Provincial representation: Members were elected by the Provincial Legislative
Assemblies. This was done through indirect election, not direct popular vote.
 Allocation: Seats were allocated to provinces based on their population, roughly in
the ratio of one seat per million population.
 Voting method: The elections in Provincial Legislatures were held using the system
of proportional representation with single transferable vote.
 Princely States: Representatives from Princely States were nominated by the rulers
of those states.

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
PREAMBLE
2021
1. Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal
democracy?
a) A committed judiciary
b) Centralization of powers
c) Elected government
d) Separation of powers
Ans: D
Explanation:
 The Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the
judiciary constitute an important safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy. The
doctrine of Separation of powers entails the division of the legislative, executive,
and judicial functions of government among different organs. This
separation minimises the possibility of arbitrary excesses by the
government, since all the three organs acts as check and balance on the powers
of each other. Therefore, none of the three organs can usurp the essential functions
of other organs.
 This demarcation prevents the concentration of excessive power by any branch of
the Government. It thus helps to safeguard the liberty and rights of the people in a
democracy.

2. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
a) A Democratic Republic
b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Ans: B
Explanation:
 The Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949, adopted, enacted and gave
citizens their own Constitution.
 The Constitutional status of India on 26th January,1950 was a Sovereign Democratic
Republic as the words- Socialist and Secular were added to the Preamble by the
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
 Presently, the Preamble to the Indian Constitution defines India to be a Sovereign,
Socialist, Secular and Democratic Republic.
 Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
2020
3. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
c) part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Ans: D
Explanation:
 The Preamble is considered a component of the Constitution but lacks legal
standing on its own. In the KesavanandaBharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court
affirmed the Preamble’s inclusion as part of the Constitution, highlighting its role in
articulating the goals and desires of the populace, which are reflected in different
constitutional provisions. However, it cannot be enforced independently in a court
of law.
2017
4. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the
Constitution of India?
a) Liberty of thought
b) Economic liberty
c) Liberty of expression
d) Liberty of belief
Ans: B
Explanation:
 LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;” mentioned in the
Preamble.

5. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the
following?
a) The Preamble
b) The Fundamental Rights
c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
d) The Fundamental Duties
Ans: A
Explanation:
 In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows
the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is hence
a key to the minds of the Constitution-makers

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
6. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity (2017)
a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Ans: A
Explanation:
 Democracy is a form of government that empowers the people and promotes their
participation in the decision-making process. The superior virtue of democracy is
rooted in its ability to engage the intelligence and character of ordinary men and
women. This principle aligns with the foundational ideas of democratic theory,
highlighting the importance of public participation.
 This concept emphasizes that democracy is not just about governance by a select
few but involves the active participation of the populace in the decision-making
process. This means that people are given the opportunity to express their opinions,
debate issues, and make informed decisions. By empowering citizens, democracy
fosters a sense of responsibility, enhances civic engagement, and ensures that
diverse perspectives are considered in governance. Some of the other superior
virtues of democracy are inclusivity, accountability, rule of law, political equality
and peaceful conflict resolution.
2013
7. ‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian
provided in (2013)
a) the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
d) None of the above
Ans: B
Explanation:
 Directive Principles strive for the 'economic democracy and justice
 Preamble provides JUSTICE of social, economic and political

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
UNION AND ITS TERRITORY
2017
1. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Ans: D
Explanation:
 Federalism is a system of government in which power is divided between a central
(national) authority and various constituent units (such as states or provinces). In a
federal structure, both the central and regional governments operate directly upon
the people, and both are constitutionally established entities, meaning their powers
are protected by the Constitution.
 India has a "Quasi-Federal" system, often described as federal in structure but
unitary in spirit. While the Constitution of India establishes a division of powers
between the Centre and the States, it also provides for a strong central
government, especially during emergencies.
 The phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two
reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the
states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede
from the federation.
2006
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Sikkim has the minimum area among the 28 Indian States (Delhi and Pondicherry
not included).
2. Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate among Pondicherry, NCT of Delhi and
other Union Territories.
3. Maharashtra has the highest population after Uttar Pradesh among the 28 Indian
States (Delhi and Pondicherry not included).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 only
d) 3 only

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
Ans: D
EXPLANATION:
 Statement 1 is Incorrect: Goa is the smallest state based on area (i.e., 3702 sq km),
not the Sikkim(7096 sq km). While Rajasthan is the largest state based on area and
followed by Madhya Pradesh.
 Statement 2 is Incorrect: Highest literacy rate is of Union territory is Lakshadweep
i.e. 91.8%.As per Census 2011, the literacy rate at all India level is 72.98% and the
literacy rate for females and males are 64.63% and 80.9% respectively. In 2011,
among the State/ UTs, the male and female literacy rate is highest in Kerala (male:
96.1%, female 92.1%) and lowest in Bihar (male: 71.2%, female: 51.5%).
S.NO Union Territory Literacy Rate (As per Census 2011)
1 Andaman & Nicobar Islands 86.6
2 Chandigarh 86
3 Dadra & Nagar Haveli 76.2
4 Daman & Diu 87.1
5 Delhi 86.2
6 Lakshadweep 91.8
7 Puducherry 85.8
 Statement 3 is Correct: After Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra has the highest
population among the Indian states which is followed by Bihar.While Sikkim is the
least populated state in India.

3. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) States Reorganization Act : Andhra Pradesh
b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a State
Ans: D
EXPLANTION:
 First pair is Correct: The States Reorganization Act of 1956 led to the formation of
several states based on linguistic lines. Andhra Pradesh was formed after the
merging of the Telugu-speaking areas of Hyderabad with Andhra State.
 Second pair is Correct: The Treaty of Yandabo (1826) ended the First Anglo-
Burmese War and led to the annexation of Assam (and other regions) by the British.
 Third pair is Correct: The princely state of Bilaspur was merged into Himachal
Pradesh in 1954.
 Fourth pair is Incorrect: Agitation by both Gujarati and Marathi nationalists for their
own linguistic states led to the split of Bombay state on linguistic lines and on 1 May
1960, it became the new states of Gujarat and Maharastra. In 1966, Haryana was
carved out of Punjab as a separate state.

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
2004
4. Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
a) 2-1-4-3
b) 4-3-2-1
c) 2-3-4-1
d) 4-1-2-3
Answer:(a) 2-1-4-3
EXPLANATION:
 Haryana was founded in 1966 when the former state of Punjab was divided into
Haryana and the modern Punjab.
 The 1967 general elections or the 4th Lok Sabha was held in February.
States Reorganization Act, 1956:
 The creation of the first linguistically-based state occurred with the formation of
Andhra Pradesh in 1953, following the death of Potti Sriramulu, a freedom fighter
who fasted to death demanding a separate Telugu-speaking state. This was the
major turning point in the reorganization of states.
 The States Reorganization Commission (SRC) was set up in 1953 under the
chairmanship of Fazal Ali to examine the issue of reorganization based on linguistic
lines. The States Reorganization Act, 1956, implemented on 1st November 1956,
reorganized the boundaries of Indian states based largely on linguistic
demographics. It lead to formation of 14 states and 6 union territories.
 Tripura, Manipur and Meghalaya became full-fledged states on Jan 21, 1972.
Mysore state was renamed Karnataka in 1973.

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
CITIZENSHIP
2018
1. Consider the following statements: (2018)
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship ordomicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated oromitted by the Issuing
Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
Explanation:
 Aadhaar can be deactivated under various circumstances. An Aadhaar with mixed
or anomalous biometric information or multiple names in single name is a good
REASON for deactivation.
 As per Calcutta HC decision Aadhar Card is not a proof of citizenship.

2005
2. Consider the following statements (2005)
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional
demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram,
Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual polity
(The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 only
Ans: D
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is Correct: These articles fall under Part XXI of the Constitution, which
deals with "Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions". Articles 371 to 371 J in
Part XXI of the constitution contain special provisions for eleven states viz,
Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram,
Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka. The intention behind them is to meet the

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
aspirations of the people of backward regions of the states or to protect the cultural
and economic interests of the tribal people of the states or to deal with the
disturbed law and order condition in some parts of the states or to protect the local
people of the states. Originally, the constitution did not make any special provisions
for these states. They have been incorporated by the various subsequent
amendments made in the context of reorganization of the states or conferment of
statehood on the Union Territories.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India provides for a dual polity (Union
and States) but single citizenship, as outlined in Part II (Articles 5-11). The US
Constitution, in contrast, provides for dual citizenship.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Naturalized Citizen is a person who acquires citizenship of
a country other than their birth through a legal process. A person can acquire
citizenship by naturalization if he/she is ordinarily resident of India for 12 years
(throughout 12 months preceding the date of application and 11 years in the
aggregate) and fulfils all qualifications in the third schedule of the Citizenship Act.
The Citizenship Amendment Act of 2019 (CAA) reduced the 11-year requirement to
five years for certain categories of people. In India, a naturalized citizen can be
deprived of citizenship under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, such as if they
have obtained citizenship through fraud, acted disloyally towards the Constitution,
or shown disaffection towards India. However, this must be done following due
process as per Article 21 of the Constitution.

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