CEE Probable Model Set: 12 of 15

Total Questions: 180 (Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology)

PHYSICS (Questions 1 - 50)

1. A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by s = (t³ -
6t² + 3t + 4) meters. The velocity when the acceleration is zero is:
a. 3 m/s
b. -12 m/s
c. 42 m/s
d. -9 m/s

The dimensions of surface tension are:

a. [M L T⁻²]
b. [M L⁰ T⁻²]
c. [M L⁻¹ T⁻¹]
d. [M L T⁻¹]

A 100 µF capacitor in series with a 40 Ω resistance is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The

maximum current in the circuit is approximately:
a. 1.8 A
b. 2.5 A
c. 3.2 A
d. 4.1 A

A thin prism of angle 4° gives a deviation of 2.4°. The refractive index of the material of the prism
is:
a. 1.4
b. 1.5
c. 1.6
d. 1.66

The penetrating power of beta particles is about 100 times that of alpha particles, but their
ionization power is about 1/100th that of alpha particles. This is because:
a. Beta particles are lighter and have less charge.
b. Beta particles travel at the speed of light.
c. Alpha particles are helium nuclei.
d. Beta particles are not affected by electric fields.

Imagine a planet that has the same mass as Earth but a radius that is half of Earth's radius. The
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this planet would be:
a. g/2
b. g
c. 2g
d. 4g

A steel wire of length 2 m and cross-sectional area 2 x 10⁻⁶ m² is stretched by 1 mm. The work
done is (Y for steel = 2 x 10¹¹ N/m²):
a. 0.1 J
b. 0.2 J
c. 0.4 J
d. 0.8 J

In an AC circuit, the rms value of the current, I_rms, is related to the peak current, I₀, by:
a. I_rms = I₀ / 2
b. I_rms = I₀ / √2
c. I_rms = I₀ √2
d. I_rms = I₀

A double convex lens made of a material with a refractive index of 1.5 has two surfaces of equal
radii of curvature of 20 cm each. The focal length of this lens is:
a. 10 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 30 cm
d. 40 cm

When impurities are added to a liquid, the surface tension generally:

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains unchanged
d. First increases, then decreases

A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a velocity of 10 m/s. It collides with another body of mass 20
kg at rest and comes to rest. The velocity of the second body after the collision is:
a. 1 m/s
b. 2.5 m/s
c. 5 m/s
d. 10 m/s

The half-life of a radioactive element is 6 hours. After 24 hours, the fraction of the initial quantity
that has decayed is:
a. 1/16
b. 1/8
c. 7/8
d. 15/16

The main function of the collector in a transistor is to:

a. Emit charge carriers
b. Pass the charge carriers to the base
c. Collect the majority of charge carriers from the emitter
d. Control the flow of current

A man stands with his nose on the pole of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. If he moves 1
m away from the mirror, the magnification of his image will be:
a. -1/4
b. -1/5
c. +1/4
d. +1/5

Which of the following processes is irreversible?

a. A very slow compression of a gas in a cylinder
b. The transfer of heat between two bodies at the same temperature
c. The diffusion of gases into each other
d. The electrolysis of water, if the electrodes are reversible

The capacitance of a spherical conductor of radius R is proportional to:

a. R
b. R²
c. 1/R
d. 1/R²

The ratio of the angular momentum of an electron in the first orbit to that in the second orbit of a
hydrogen atom is:
a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 1:4
d. 4:1

On a hypothetical temperature scale X, the freezing point of water is -20°X and the boiling point is
180°X. The temperature on the Celsius scale corresponding to 80°X is:
a. 40°C
b. 50°C
c. 60°C
d. 80°C

In the photoelectric effect, the threshold frequency is the minimum frequency of incident light
required to cause photoemission. This implies that the incident photon must have enough energy
to:
a. Overcome the work function of the metal
b. Excite the atom to a higher energy level
c. Vibrate the crystal lattice
d. Cause thermionic emission

A two-input AND gate is followed by a NOT gate. The resulting gate is a:

a. NOR gate
b. OR gate
c. XOR gate
d. NAND gate

A body is in a state of rotational equilibrium. This implies that:

a. The net force acting on it is zero
b. The net torque acting on it is zero
c. The body is at rest
d. The body is moving with constant velocity

A force F = (5i + 3j) N displaces a particle by s = (2i - j) m. The work done by the force is:
a. 13 J
b. 7 J
c. 10 J
d. -3 J

A stationary wave is set up on a string. The distance between two consecutive nodes is:
a. λ/4
b. λ/2
c. λ
d. 2λ

A proton moving with a velocity 'v' enters a region of uniform electric field 'E' and magnetic field
'B', both acting in the same direction. The proton will:
a. Continue to move with velocity 'v'
b. Move in a circular path
c. Move in a helical path with increasing pitch
d. Be deflected towards the E field

The resistance of a conductor increases with temperature because:

a. The number of free electrons decreases
b. The mass of the electrons increases
c. The relaxation time between electron collisions decreases
d. The length of the conductor increases

The ability of an optical instrument to show two adjacent objects as separate is its resolving
power. The resolving power of a telescope is limited by:
a. The focal length of the eyepiece
b. The magnification of the telescope
c. The diffraction of light at the objective lens
d. The chromatic aberration of the lenses

A solid sphere, a disc, and a ring of the same mass and radius are released from the same height
on an inclined plane. The body that will take the longest time to reach the bottom is the:
a. Solid sphere
b. Disc
c. Ring
d. All will take the same time

The magnetic susceptibility is small and positive for:

a. Diamagnetic materials
b. Paramagnetic materials
c. Ferromagnetic materials
d. All of the above

According to Bohr's model, the velocity of an electron in the nth orbit of a hydrogen atom is:
a. Proportional to n
b. Proportional to 1/n
c. Proportional to n²
d. Independent of n

In a series LCR circuit, the capacitive reactance is 25 Ω and the inductive reactance is 10 Ω. The
resistance is 20 Ω. The impedance of the circuit is:
a. 25 Ω
b. 35 Ω
c. 15 Ω
d. 55 Ω

A particle A of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' collides with a particle B of mass '2m' at rest. If
the collision is perfectly inelastic, the loss in kinetic energy of the system is:
a. 1/2 of the initial kinetic energy
b. 1/3 of the initial kinetic energy
c. 2/3 of the initial kinetic energy
d. 1/4 of the initial kinetic energy

The unit of pressure, Pascal, is equivalent to:

a. N m²
b. N / m
c. N / m²
d. N m

A ray of light is incident normally on one face of an equilateral prism. The ray will undergo total
internal reflection at the second face if the refractive index of the prism is:
a. Equal to √2
b. Less than 2
c. Greater than 2
d. Greater than or equal to 2/sin(60°)

A potentiometer has a wire of length 10 m and a resistance of 10 Ω. It is connected to a 2V

battery. The potential gradient along the wire is:
a. 0.2 V/m
b. 2 V/m
c. 0.02 V/m
d. 0.5 V/m

A radioactive nucleus decays to form a stable nucleus. The rate of decay:

a. Is constant throughout the process
b. Increases as time passes
c. Decreases exponentially as time passes
d. Is zero initially

An ideal gas is taken through a cycle A B C as

A shown on a P-V diagram. The net work done by
the gas is:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. Dependent on the path from C to A

The phenomenon of interference demonstrates that light has a:

a. Particle nature
b. Wave nature
c. Transverse nature
d. Quantum nature

The force experienced by a stationary charge in a magnetic field is:

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Zero
d. Dependent on the field strength

In a common-emitter amplifier, the input signal is applied across the emitter-base junction and the
output is taken across the:
a. Emitter-base junction
b. Collector-base junction
c. Collector-emitter circuit
d. Base circuit

A force is required to keep a body moving in a circle at a constant speed. This is because:
a. The body's speed is changing.
b. The body's velocity is continuously changing its direction.
c. The body's mass is increasing.
d. There is friction.

A capillary tube is dipped in water, and water rises to a height 'h'. If the experiment is performed in
a freely falling elevator, the height 'h' will be:
a. Zero
b. The same
c. Less than h
d. The water will fill the entire length of the tube

The existence of a cut-off frequency in the photoelectric effect is best explained by:
a. The wave theory of light
b. Einstein's particle theory of light, where light consists of photons
c. The principle of conservation of momentum
d. The continuous nature of light energy

Which logic gate has an output that is the inverse of its input?
a. AND
b. OR
c. NOT
d. XOR

An electric dipole is placed in a non-uniform electric field. It experiences:

a. A force only
b. A torque only
c. Both a force and a torque
d. Neither a force nor a torque

In a diffraction pattern, the intensity of the secondary maxima:

a. Is the same as the central maximum
b. Decreases as we move away from the center
c. Increases as we move away from the center
d. Is randomly distributed

The property of a body to resist a change in its state of rest or of uniform motion is called:
a. Momentum
b. Force
c. Inertia
d. Work

A child is sitting on a swing. If another child joins her, the time period of the swing will:
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain unchanged
d. Become zero

A vector quantity is one that has:

a. Magnitude only
b. Direction only
c. Both magnitude and direction
d. Both magnitude and direction and obeys the laws of vector addition

A virtual image larger than the object can be formed by:

a. A convex mirror
b. A concave mirror
c. A plane mirror
d. A concave lens
 The self-inductance of a coil is a measure of its ability to:
a. Store charge
b. Oppose a change in the current flowing through it
c. Generate a magnetic field
d. Dissipate heat

CHEMISTRY (Questions 51 - 100)

1. An organic compound X (C₄H₈O) is optically active. It gives a positive iodoform test but does not
react with Tollen's reagent. The structure of X is:
a. Butan-1-ol
b. Butan-2-ol
c. Butan-2-one
d. Butanal

The pH of a 10⁻³ M aqueous solution of H₂SO₄ is approximately:

a. 3.0
b. 2.7
c. 3.3
d. 2.0

According to MOT, the bond order in the N₂⁺ ion is:

a. 2
b. 2.5
c. 3
d. 1.5

A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and nitrogen in the ratio of 1:4 by weight. The ratio of the
number of their molecules is:
a. 1:4
b. 1:8
c. 7:32
d. 3:16

For the reaction PCl₅(g) PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g), an increase in pressure at constant temperature will:
a. Shift the equilibrium to the right
b. Shift the equilibrium to the left
c. Not affect the equilibrium
d. Increase the value of Kp

Cellulose is a linear polysaccharide composed of repeating units of β-D-glucose linked by β-1,4

glycosidic bonds. It is the primary structural component of:
a. Plant cell walls
b. Fungal cell walls
c. Bacterial cell walls
d. Animal exoskeletons

The reaction of an aldehyde or a ketone with a Grignard reagent, followed by hydrolysis, gives an
alcohol. The reaction is an example of:
a. Nucleophilic substitution
b. Electrophilic addition
c. Nucleophilic addition
d. Free radical addition

The coagulation of a negatively charged sol (like As₂S₃) is most effectively caused by:
a. Na⁺
b. Mg²⁺
c. Al³⁺
d. SO₄²⁻

In the Dow's process for the manufacture of phenol, chlorobenzene is hydrolyzed with aqueous
NaOH at high temperature and pressure. This is an example of:
a. Electrophilic aromatic substitution
b. Nucleophilic aromatic substitution
c. Free radical substitution
d. Elimination-addition mechanism

Aniline is a weaker base than ammonia, but it is a stronger base than diphenylamine. This is
because:
a. The phenyl group is electron-donating.
b. In diphenylamine, the lone pair on nitrogen is delocalized over two phenyl rings, making it less
available.
c. Aniline has a higher molecular weight.
d. Diphenylamine is not aromatic.

Match the polymer with its monomer(s):

| Column I (Polymer) | Column II (Monomer) |
|---|---|
| A. Teflon | 1. Caprolactam |
| B. Nylon 6 | 2. Phenol and Formaldehyde |
| C. Bakelite | 3. Acrylonitrile |
| D. Orlon | 4. Tetrafluoroethene |

a. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

b. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
c. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
d. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

What is the pH of a solution obtained by mixing 100 mL of 0.2 M HCl with 100 mL of 0.1 M
NaOH?
a. 1.0
b. 1.3
c. 7.0
d. 13.0

The dehydration of 2-methyl-2-butanol with concentrated H₂SO₄ gives 2-methyl-2-butene as the

major product. This reaction follows:
a. Markovnikov's rule
b. Hofmann's rule
c. Saytzeff's (Zaitsev's) rule
d. The peroxide effect

The Reimer-Tiemann reaction involves the reaction of phenol with chloroform in an aqueous
sodium hydroxide solution. The electrophile in this reaction is:
a. CHCl₃
b. :CCl₂ (Dichlorocarbene)
c. CHCl₂⁻
d. CCl₃⁻

The van't Hoff factor (i) for a solute that undergoes association in a solvent is:
a. Equal to 1
b. Greater than 1
c. Less than 1
d. Zero

The process of removing impurities like sand (SiO₂) from an ore is called:
a. Smelting
b. Concentration or Ore Dressing
c. Roasting
d. Calcination

Which of the following species can act as both a Bronsted acid and a Bronsted base?
a. H₃O⁺
b. OH⁻
c. Cl⁻
d. HCO₃⁻

The rate of a reaction is found to be proportional to the square of the concentration of reactant 'A'.
If the concentration of 'A' is tripled, the rate of reaction will increase by a factor of:
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12

The set of quantum numbers n=3, l=1, m=+1 describes an electron in which orbital?
a. 3s
b. 3p
c. 3d
d. 4p

The reaction of a primary amine with chloroform and alcoholic KOH to give an offensive smell is
known as the:
a. Carbylamine test
b. Hinsberg test
c. Diazotization test
d. Tollen's test

The inert pair effect is most prominent in:

a. Group 1
b. Group 2
c. Group 13
d. Group 15

Natural rubber has:

a. All cis-configuration
b. All trans-configuration
c. Alternate cis- and trans-configuration
d. Random cis- and trans-configuration

The Wolff-Kishner reduction uses which of the following reagents?

a. Zn-Hg / HCl
b. LiAlH₄
c. H₂ / Ni
d. Hydrazine / KOH in ethylene glycol

The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following
graphs?
a. ln k vs T
b. ln k vs 1/T
c. k vs T
d. k vs 1/T

The molecule with a T-shape is:

a. BCl₃
b. PCl₃
c. ClF₃
d. NH₃

The gas responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer is:
a. CO₂
b. SO₂
c. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
d. Methane

A colloidal solution in which a solid is dispersed in a liquid is called a:

a. Gel
b. Sol
c. Emulsion
d. Foam

The phenomenon of reverse osmosis is used in:

a. The preservation of fruits
b. The desalination of seawater
c. The measurement of osmotic pressure
d. The manufacture of soft drinks

The complex [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is an example of:

a. An inner orbital complex
b. An outer orbital complex
c. A high spin complex
d. A tetrahedral complex

A process in which the temperature of the system remains constant is called:

a. An isothermal process
b. An adiabatic process
c. An isobaric process
d. An isochoric process

Phenol is converted to benzene on heating with:

a. Zn dust
b. Na metal
c. Red P / HI
d. Conc. H₂SO₄

The aufbau principle states that:

a. No two electrons can have the same set of four quantum numbers
b. The orbitals of an atom are filled in order of increasing energy
c. Electron pairing occurs only after all degenerate orbitals are singly filled
d. Half-filled and fully-filled orbitals have extra stability

The linkage that connects nucleotides in a nucleic acid is a:

a. Peptide bond
b. Glycosidic bond
c. Hydrogen bond
d. Phosphodiester bond

The compound that is optically active is:

a. 2-Propanol
b. 2-Butanol
c. 1-Butanol
d. 2-Methyl-2-propanol

Which of the following is a synthetic detergent?

a. Sodium stearate
b. Sodium palmitate
c. Sodium lauryl sulphate
d. Glyceryl oleate

The correct electronic configuration of Cu (Z=29) is:

a. [Ar] 4s² 3d⁹
b. [Ar] 4s¹ 3d¹⁰
c. [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁹ 4p¹
d. [Ar] 4s² 3d⁸ 4p¹

The correct order of atomic size is:

a. F > O > N > C
b. C > N > O > F
c. F > Cl > Br > I
d. I > Br > Cl > F

The element with the lowest ionization enthalpy is:

a. Li
b. Na
c. K
d. Cs

An example of a heterogeneous catalyst is:

a. H⁺ in the inversion of cane sugar
b. NO in the lead chamber process
c. Finely divided iron in the Haber's process
d. Enzymes in biological processes

The IUPAC name for CH₃-CH₂-CHO is:

a. Propan-1-al
b. Propanal
c. Ethanal
d. Propanone

The compound commonly known as Chile saltpetre is:

a. NaNO₃
b. KNO₃
c. Na₂SO₄
d. K₂SO₄

The hybridization of the carbon atoms in graphite is:

a. sp³
b. sp²
c. sp
d. dsp²

The extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with:

a. HCl
b. NaCN
c. H₂SO₄
d. NaOH

Which of the following is non-polar but contains polar bonds?

a. H₂O
b. SO₂
c. NH₃
d. CCl₄

An analgesic is a drug that:

a. Reduces fever
b. Relieves pain
c. Kills microbes
d. Prevents infection

The hydrolysis of sucrose gives an equimolar mixture of:

a. Glucose and Glucose
b. Glucose and Maltose
c. Glucose and Fructose
d. Fructose and Fructose

Smelting is the process of:

a. Heating an ore in the absence of air
b. Heating an ore in the presence of air
c. Reducing a roasted ore with a reducing agent like carbon
d. Purifying a metal by electrolysis

An azeotropic mixture is a liquid mixture that:

a. Boils at a constant temperature
b. Shows a large positive deviation from Raoult's law
c. Can be separated by fractional distillation
d. Has a very low boiling point

The Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction is used to prepare amines from:

a. Alcohols
b. Nitriles
c. Amides
d. Nitro compounds

Match the chemical substance with its common use:

 | Column I (Substance) | Column II (Use) |
|---|---|
| A. Chloroform | 1. Artificial sweetener |
| B. Aspartame | 2. Antiseptic |
| C. Iodoform | 3. Fire extinguisher |
| D. Carbon tetrachloride | 4. Anesthetic |

a. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

b. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
c. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
d. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

BOTANY (Questions 101 - 140)

1. A botanist is studying a plant that has a thallus-like body, lacks true roots, stems, and leaves, and
has a dominant gametophytic generation. The sporophyte is dependent on the gametophyte. This
plant belongs to the group:
a. Algae
b. Fungi
c. Bryophyta
d. Pteridophyta

The entry of the pollen tube into the ovule through the micropyle is termed:
a. Porogamy
b. Chalazogamy
c. Mesogamy
d. Syngamy

The primary difference between C₃ and C₄ plants is the initial carboxylation step. In C₄ plants, the
primary acceptor of CO₂ is:
a. RuBP in mesophyll cells
b. PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate) in mesophyll cells
c. RuBP in bundle sheath cells
d. OAA in bundle sheath cells

A flower that has its stamens fused into a single bundle or tube is described as:
a. Monadelphous
b. Diadelphous
c. Polyadelphous
d. Syngenesious

The cohesion-tension theory of water transport in plants relies on the property of water molecules
to stick to each other (cohesion) and to the walls of the xylem vessels (adhesion). These
properties are due to:
a. Covalent bonds
b. Ionic bonds
c. Hydrogen bonds
d. van der Waals forces

When a wilted plant is watered, its leaves become firm and erect again. This recovery is due to the
process of:
a. Plasmolysis
b. Imbibition
c. Deplasmolysis, as cells regain turgidity
d. Guttation

When the F₁ generation of a dihybrid cross resembles both parents, as in the case of human AB
blood group, this phenomenon is known as:
a. Incomplete dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Law of dominance
d. Pleiotropy
 The 'one gene-one enzyme' hypothesis, which states that each gene is responsible for producing
a single enzyme that affects a step in a metabolic pathway, was proposed by:
a. Watson and Crick
b. Jacob and Monod
c. Beadle and Tatum
d. Hershey and Chase

A pineapple can be induced to flower out of season by applying the plant hormone:
a. Gibberellin
b. Cytokinin
c. Auxin
d. Abscisic acid

Which of the following statements about the vascular tissues of a dicot root is correct?
a. Vascular bundles are conjoint and collateral.
b. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.
c. Xylem is endarch.
d. Xylem and phloem are on different radii (radial arrangement).

The antibiotic Penicillin, the first to be discovered, was extracted from a:

a. Bacterium
b. Virus
c. Fungus (Penicillium notatum)
d. Lichen

The number of ATP molecules produced and consumed during glycolysis from one molecule of
glucose are, respectively:
a. 4 and 2
b. 2 and 4
c. 2 and 2
d. 4 and 4

A fruit that develops from the ovary of a single flower and can be dry or fleshy is a:
a. Simple fruit
b. Aggregate fruit
c. Multiple fruit
d. Composite fruit

The scientific classification of organisms into a hierarchical series of groups (taxa) on the basis
of their relationships is known as:
a. Nomenclature
b. Taxonomy
c. Systematics
d. Identification

A virus that infects bacteria is known as a bacteriophage. Its genetic material is typically:
a. Single-stranded RNA
b. Double-stranded RNA
c. Single-stranded DNA
d. Double-stranded DNA

Match the type of placentation with a characteristic example:

| Column I (Placentation) | Column II (Example) |
|---|---|
| A. Marginal | 1. Argemone |
| B. Axile | 2. Dianthus |
| C. Parietal | 3. Pea |
| D. Free central | 4. Tomato |

a. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

b. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
c. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
d. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

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1. The primary succession on a bare rock starts with pioneer organisms like lichens. The final,
stable community that is in equilibrium with the environment is called the:
a. Sere
b. Climax community
c. Ecotone
d. Pioneer species

A segment of DNA has the sequence 3'-TAC GGT-5'. The anticodon on the tRNA that would pair
with the mRNA transcribed from this segment would be:
a. 3'-UAC GGU-5'
b. 5'-AUG CCA-3'
c. 3'-UAC GGU-5'
d. 3'-AUG CCA-5'

A flower that cannot be divided into two similar halves by any vertical plane passing through the
center is:
a. Actinomorphic
b. Zygomorphic
c. Asymmetric
d. Isomerous

In a cereal grain like wheat or maize, the seed coat is fused with the fruit wall (pericarp). This type
of fruit is called a:
a. Drupe
b. Berry
c. Caryopsis
d. Nut

The most abundant lipid in the cell membrane is:

a. Steroid
b. Phospholipid
c. Cutin
d. Wax

The statement "Omnis cellula-e-cellula" (all cells arise from pre-existing cells) was given by:
a. Robert Hooke
b. Schleiden
c. Schwann
d. Rudolf Virchow

The synthesis of ATP during the passage of protons across the thylakoid membrane is explained
by the:
a. Chemiosmotic hypothesis
b. Law of limiting factors
c. Emerson enhancement effect
d. Z-scheme

The thorns in Citrus are modified:

a. Axillary buds
b. Leaves
c. Stipules
d. Roots

The cohesive and adhesive properties of water are crucial for the ascent of sap. These properties
are due to:
a. The covalent bonds within the water molecule
b. The non-polar nature of water
c. The hydrogen bonds between water molecules and with xylem walls
d. The high specific heat of water

A change in a single base pair of a DNA sequence is known as a:

a. Chromosomal aberration
b. Frameshift mutation
c. Point mutation
d. Polyploidy

The aleurone layer in cereal grains is important because it synthesizes enzymes during
germination. This layer is:
a. Part of the embryo
b. The outermost layer of the endosperm
c. The seed coat
d. The pericarp

An orchid growing on the branch of a mango tree is an example of commensalism because:

a. Both the orchid and the mango tree benefit.
b. The orchid benefits, while the mango tree is harmed.
c. The orchid is harmed, while the mango tree is unaffected.
d. The orchid benefits, while the mango tree is largely unaffected.

The cross-pollination between two different plants is genetically more advantageous because it
promotes:
a. Self-incompatibility
b. Homozygosity
c. Inbreeding depression
d. Genetic recombination and variation

A plant that requires a dark period longer than a critical length to flower is more accurately
described as a:
a. Short-day plant
b. Long-day plant
c. Short-night plant
d. Long-night plant

The pigment system I (PS I) is characterized by a reaction center chlorophyll 'a' molecule that
absorbs light maximally at:
a. 680 nm
b. 700 nm
c. 650 nm
d. 720 nm

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about Pteridophytes?

a. The main plant body is a sporophyte.
b. They possess vascular tissues.
c. The gametophyte is called a prothallus.
d. They produce seeds but no fruits.

The enzyme that is often called "molecular scissors" because it cuts DNA at specific recognition
sites is:
a. DNA ligase
b. DNA polymerase
c. Restriction endonuclease
d. RNA polymerase

A probe used in molecular biology is a:

a. Vector used to transfer a gene
b. A single-stranded DNA or RNA molecule tagged with a radioactive marker, used to find its
complementary sequence
c. An enzyme that cuts DNA
d. A protein produced by a recombinant gene

The type of placentation where the ovules are arranged along the central axis in a multilocular
ovary, as seen in tomato and lemon, is:
a. Marginal
b. Axile
c. Parietal
d. Free central
 A man and a woman, both heterozygous for sickle-cell anemia (an autosomal recessive trait), get
married. What is the probability that their first child will be affected by the disease?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%

The vascular cambium in a dicot stem is an example of a lateral meristem. It is responsible for:
a. Primary growth (increase in length)
b. Secondary growth (increase in girth)
c. Formation of bark
d. Formation of root hairs

The process by which a gene's information is used in the synthesis of a functional gene product,
such as a protein, is called:
a. Gene regulation
b. Gene expression
c. Gene mutation
d. Gene amplification

Plants with succulent stems and leaves reduced to spines, which perform CAM photosynthesis,
are typically:
a. Hydrophytes
b. Xerophytes
c. Mesophytes
d. Halophytes

A man with blood group AB marries a woman with blood group O. The possible blood groups of
their children are:
a. A and B only
b. AB and O only
c. A, B, and AB
d. A, B, AB, and O

ZOOLOGY (Questions 141 - 180)

1. The final digestion and absorption of nutrients primarily occur in the small intestine. The structure
that vastly increases the surface area for absorption is the:
a. Rugae in the stomach
b. Villi and microvilli
c. Haustra of the large intestine
d. Cecum

A person with an AB blood group has which antigens on their RBCs and which antibodies in their
plasma?
a. A and B antigens; no antibodies
b. No antigens; anti-A and anti-B antibodies
c. A antigen only; anti-B antibody
d. B antigen only; anti-A antibody

The first heart sound ("lubb") is longer and of lower pitch than the second heart sound ("dub"). It is
associated with the:
a. Closure of the semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole
b. Closure of the atrioventricular valves at the beginning of ventricular systole
c. Rushing of blood into the ventricles
d. Opening of the AV valves

The human vertebral column is formed by 26 serially arranged units called vertebrae. The
vertebrae in the thoracic region are characterized by having:
a. A transverse foramen
b. A large, thick body
c. Articular facets for the ribs
d. Being fused into a single unit
 Which of the following is an incorrect match between the animal and its respiratory organ?
a. Earthworm - Moist cuticle
b. Insect - Tracheal system
c. Prawn - Gills
d. Spider - Lungs

A patient is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus, characterized by excessive thirst and the excretion
of large volumes of dilute urine. This is caused by a deficiency of the hormone:
a. Insulin
b. Aldosterone
c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d. Glucagon

The structure that provides a connection between the developing fetus and the mother,
facilitating the exchange of nutrients, gases, and waste products, is the:
a. Amnion
b. Yolk sac
c. Chorion
d. Placenta

The wings of a bat (a mammal) and the wings of a butterfly are:

a. Homologous structures
b. Analogous structures
c. Vestigial structures
d. Atavistic structures

Which of the following statements correctly describes sickle-cell anemia?

a. It is an X-linked disorder causing a defect in hemoglobin.
b. It is an autosomal dominant disorder leading to anemia.
c. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a point mutation in the beta-globin gene.
d. It provides protection against typhoid but makes the person susceptible to malaria.

Match the animal with its correct class:

| Column I (Animal) | Column II (Class) |
|---|---|
| A. Dogfish (Shark) | 1. Osteichthyes |
| B. Sea horse | 2. Chondrichthyes |
| C. Hagfish | 3. Amphibia |
| D. Salamander | 4. Cyclostomata |

a. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

b. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
c. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
d. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

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1. The morula, a solid ball of cells, undergoes a process of rearrangement to form a blastocyst,
which has an outer layer called the trophoblast and an inner cell mass. The cavity of the
blastocyst is the:
a. Blastocoel
b. Archenteron
c. Coelom
d. Amniotic cavity

A person bitten by a venomous snake is given an injection of anti-venom, which contains pre-
formed antibodies. This is an example of:
a. Natural active immunity
b. Artificial active immunity
c. Natural passive immunity
d. Artificial passive immunity

The volume of air that can be inspired over and above the normal tidal inspiration is called the:
a. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
b. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
c. Residual Volume (RV)
d. Vital Capacity (VC)

The joint between the atlas (first vertebra) and the occipital condyles of the skull allows for the
nodding "yes" motion. This is a type of:
a. Pivot joint
b. Hinge joint
c. Condyloid joint
d. Saddle joint

The evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and radiating
to other habitats is called adaptive radiation. A classic example is:
a. The wings of a bat and a bird
b. The eye of an octopus and a mammal
c. The flippers of a penguin and a dolphin
d. The beaks of Darwin's finches

The part of the human brain that is the main coordinating center for sensory and motor signaling
is the:
a. Hypothalamus
b. Thalamus
c. Pons
d. Cerebellum

The pathogen Ascaris lumbricoides causes ascariasis. Humans typically get infected by:
a. The bite of an insect vector
b. Ingesting food and water contaminated with embryonated eggs
c. Skin penetration by the larva
d. Inhaling the spores

The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction states that during contraction:
a. The thick filaments slide over the thin filaments.
b. The thin filaments slide over the thick filaments.
c. Both filaments shorten in length.
d. The Z-lines move further apart.

The part of the human eye that contains a high concentration of cones and is the site of most
acute vision is the:
a. Blind spot
b. Optic nerve
c. Fovea centralis
d. Ciliary body

The class of antibodies that is involved in mediating allergic responses by causing mast cells to
release histamine is:
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

The deficiency of niacin (Vitamin B3) leads to the disease pellagra, which is characterized by the
"3 Ds": dermatitis, diarrhea, and:
a. Dyspnea
b. Dementia
c. Diplopia
d. Dehydration

Erythroblastosis foetalis can occur if an Rh-negative mother is carrying an Rh-positive fetus. This
can be prevented by administering:
a. Anti-Rh antibodies (RhoGAM) to the mother immediately after the first delivery
b. A blood transfusion to the fetus
c. Anti-Rh antibodies to the baby immediately after birth
d. A vaccination to the mother during pregnancy
The hormone that promotes glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen to glucose) in the liver and
thus increases blood sugar levels is:
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Somatostatin
d. Aldosterone

The cell organelle that is the site of aerobic respiration and ATP synthesis is the:
a. Ribosome
b. Lysosome
c. Golgi complex
d. Mitochondrion

The organ of excretion in annelids like the earthworm is a coiled tubular structure called the:
a. Malpighian tubule
b. Flame cell
c. Nephridium
d. Green gland

Which of the following is a feature of monotremes (like the platypus) that distinguishes them
from other mammals?
a. They are warm-blooded.
b. They possess hair on their body.
c. They lay eggs.
d. They have a four-chambered heart.

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is likely to be disturbed by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Gene flow
b. Genetic drift
c. Random mating
d. Mutation

The Leydig cells (interstitial cells) of the testes are responsible for synthesizing:
a. Sperms
b. Inhibin
c. Androgens (Testosterone)
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone

The glenoid cavity is a depression in the pectoral girdle that articulates with the:
a. Head of the femur
b. Head of the humerus
c. Clavicle
d. Sternum

The theory that life on Earth originated from non-living organic molecules is known as:
a. Spontaneous generation
b. Biogenesis
c. Panspermia
d. Chemical evolution (Abiogenesis)

A patient's urine analysis shows the presence of glucose (glycosuria). This is a strong indicator
of:
a. Kidney failure
b. Liver damage
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. A urinary tract infection

The pulmonary vein is unique among veins because it carries:

a. Deoxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium
b. Oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium
c. Deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atrium
d. Oxygenated blood from the aorta to the body

The immunity conferred to an infant through its mother's milk is an example of:
a. Natural active immunity
 b. Artificial active immunity
c. Natural passive immunity
d. Artificial passive immunity

The larval stage of an earthworm is:

a. Nymph
b. Tadpole
c. Trochophore
d. There is no larval stage; development is direct

The germ layer that forms the lining of the digestive tract and respiratory system is the:
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Trophoblast

Which of the following animals exhibits bioluminescence and belongs to the phylum Ctenophora?
a. Hydra
b. Aurelia (Jellyfish)
c. Pleurobrachia (Sea walnut)
d. Adamsia (Sea anemone)

During muscle contraction, the Z-lines move closer together, and the I-band shortens. The length
of the A-band:
a. Also shortens
b. Increases
c. Remains constant
d. Disappears

The study of the causes of diseases is known as:

a. Pathology
b. Etiology
c. Epidemiology
d. Immunology

The hormone inhibin is secreted by the Sertoli cells in males and granulosa cells in females. Its
primary function is to:
a. Stimulate the release of LH
b. Stimulate the release of GnRH
c. Inhibit the secretion of FSH
d. Promote spermatogenesis

The hormone insulin is a:

a. Steroid
b. Amino acid derivative
c. Peptide hormone
d. Fatty acid derivative

COMPLETE ANSWER KEY: CEE MODEL SET 12

Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans Q. Ans
1 c 46 c 91 a 136 b
2 b 47 a 92 b 137 b
3 c 48 b 93 c 138 b
4 c 49 b 94 d 139 b
5 c 50 b 95 b 140 a
6 d 51 c 96 c 141 b
7 c 52 b 97 c 142 a
8 c 53 d 98 b 143 b
9 c 54 b 99 c 144 c
10 b 55 b 100 a 145 d
11 c 56 a 101 c 146 c
12 d 57 c 102 a 147 d
13 a 58 c 103 b 148 b
14 a 59 a 104 a 149 b
15 a 60 a 105 c 150 a
16 c 61 a 106 c 151 a
17 a 62 c 107 b 152 d
18 a 63 b 108 c 153 b
19 b 64 c 109 c 154 c
20 a 65 c 110 d 155 b
21 a 66 c 111 c 156 b
22 a 67 d 112 a 157 b
23 b 68 c 113 a 158 b
24 b 69 b 114 c 159 c
25 c 70 a 115 d 160 d
26 a 71 d 116 a 161 b
27 d 72 c 117 b 162 a
28 b 73 d 118 b 163 b
29 c 74 c 119 b 164 d
30 c 75 c 120 c 165 c
31 c 76 b 121 b 166 c
32 c 77 d 122 d 167 c
33 b 78 a 123 a 168 c
34 c 79 a 124 a 169 b
35 b 80 c 125 c 170 d
36 a 81 b 126 b 171 a
37 a 82 c 127 b 172 b
38 d 83 c 128 d 173 d
39 b 84 b 129 b 174 d
40 c 85 b 130 d 175 c
41 c 86 c 131 b 176 c
42 b 87 c 132 d 177 c
43 b 88 c 133 c 178 b
44 c 89 c 134 a 179 c
45 b 90 b 135 b 180 c