Cisco 200-301
Cisco 200-301
A switch receives an incoming frame with a frame check sequence that differs from the one
included from the sending station. What will the router do with this frame?
A.
Increment the frame error count by one and forward the frame.
B.
Increment the frame error count by one and drop the frame.
C.
Send a collision notification.
D.
Drop the frame without incrementing any error counters.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following message types are used to create the TCP three-way handshake? (Choose
three.)
A.
ACK
B.
FIN
C.
RST
D.
SYN/ACK
E.
ACK
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
A.
Reserved
B.
Trigger
C.
RTS
D.
Association Response
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Using virtual machines and hypervisors, which of the following hardware components can be
virtualized? (Choose two.)
A.
Disk storage
B.
Power supplies
C.
Memory
D.
Monitors
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A frame arrives on switch SW1 destined to an unknown layer 2 MAC address. What will SW1 do
with this frame?
A.
SW1 will drop the frame
B.
SW 1 will send an ICMP destination unreachable to the source.
C.
SW1 will forward the frame to all ports
D.
SW1 will forward the frame to all ports except for the one that the frame arrived on.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
You want to implement RFC 3021 to assign an IP address to router R1 on a point to point link.
Which of the following is a viable option for this?
A.
10.10.1.129/30
B.
10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
C.
10.0.0.2/31
D.
10.0.0.4 255.255.255.255
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
192.158.69.1
B.
172.15.133.1
C.
172.30.30.1
D.
100.10.10.1
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
You need to implement and manage a wireless network consisting of approximately 100 access
points. Which of the following would be the most helpful in the configuration and management of
these devices?
A.
RADIUS server
B.
WLC
C.
SIEM
D.
NMS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following protocols do Cisco devices use to manage POE devices?
A.
SNMP
B.
CDP
C.
LLDP
D.
STP
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
An incoming frame arrives on a Cisco switch and that frame is forwarded to every port on the
same VLAN except for the one in which it arrived on. What is this process known as?
A.
ARP
B.
Broadcasting
C.
Unicasting
D.
Flooding
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
Private IP address space is defined in which RFC?
A.
RFC 1918
B.
RFC 5534
C.
RFC 1819
D.
RFC 3384
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
In your 2.4 Ghz wireless network you want to configure the channels in your access points to not
overlap to reduce interference. Which 3 channels should you use in the AP’s?
A.
1, 2, 3
B.
1, 4, 7
C.
1, 6, 11
D.
1, 5, 19
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
B.
Requires acknowledgements
C.
sliding window
D.
connectionless
E.
operates at layer 5 of the OSI model.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following are used to terminate fiber optic cabling (Choose two.)
A.
BNC
B.
LC
C.
RJ-45
D.
SC
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following statements are true regarding the differences between UDP and TCP?
B.
UDP uses FCS and Discard eligible messages for reliable delivery, TCP is connectionless.
C.
TCP uses FCS and Discard eligible messages for reliable delivery, TCP is connection oriented.
D.
TCP uses acknowledgements and sequencing for reliable delivery, UDP is connectionless.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following are the three components of the Three-tier Hierarchical Networking Model
used in many Cisco based networks? (Choose three.)
A.
Distribution
B.
Core
C.
Spoke
D.
Access
E.
Leaf
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
A.
They are limited to the local link only
B.
They are used for IPV6 multicasting applications.
C.
They are used for private IPv6 networks.
D.
They are globally routable, similar to public IPv4 addresses
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
You have been tasked with assigning a subnet for each of these locations using the private
10.0.0.0/8 subnet. Which of the following addressing schemes should be used to ensure the least
amount of addressing waste, while ensuring no subnets overlap?
A.
10.0.0.0/28 for site 1, 10.0.0.16/24 for site 1, and 10.0.1.0/23 for site 3.
B.
10.0.0.0/28 for site 1, 10.0.0.16/24 for site 1, and 10.0.0.0/23 for site 3.
C.
10.0.0.0/27 for site 1, 10.0.0.16/24 for site 1, and 10.0.1.0/23 for site 3.
D.
10.0.0.0/28 for site 1, 10.0.0.0/24 for site 1, and 10.0.0.0/23 for site 3.
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following technologies can be used to logically bind multiple physical interfaces into
one single logical interface? (Choose two.)
A.
PaGP
B.
PVSTP
C.
RSTP
D.
LACP
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
You want to ensure that all access to your Cisco devices are secure and want to implement SSH
access to them. Which of the following must be done to enable this? (Choose two.)
A.
Configure a DNS domain name on the devices.
B.
Implement AAA
C.
Configure an NTP server
D.
Implement CEF
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
You are part of a network management team. You have been tasked with adding a leaf switch and
connecting the spine switch to all leaf switches in the fabric. What type of architecture is used?
A.
ACI Fabric
B.
Spine and leaf architecture
C.
ACI Container architecture
D.
Redundant architecture
Answer: B
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white-
paper-c11-737022.html
QUESTION NO: 22
Which component of a virtual architecture can virtualize memory, storage and a processor while
being hidden from guest machines?
A.
Simulator
B.
Virtual machine
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
C.
Host machine
D.
Hypervisor
Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.paessler.com/it-explained/virtualization
QUESTION NO: 23
You have been tasked with enabling Ipv6 on an interface. You execute the following command:
A.
Automatic generation of link-local address using modified EUI-64 interface ID on the MAC address
B.
Direct link-local address using EUI-64 interface ID
C.
Automatic generation of site-local address using modified EUI-64 interface ID in low order 64 bits
of address
D.
Manual generation of link-local address using modified EUI-64 interface ID on the MAC address.
Answer: A
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa72/configuration/guide/conf_gd/ipv6.html#
wp1041881
Which of the following type of addresses are used in neighbor soliciation messages when using
IPv6 multicast addressing?
A.
All nodes addresses
B.
link-local addresses
C.
Anycast addresses
D.
Solicited node addresses
Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-
multicast.html
QUESTION NO: 25
Refer to the exhibit. Which component of the VTP domain summary advertisement packet shows
the IP address of a switch that incremented the configuration revision?
A.
Update TimeStamp
B.
MD5 digest
C.
Updater identity
D.
Management Domain Name
Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/10558-21.html
There are multiple paths having equal metrics to the same destination. What should be done on
equal cost paths to have a smooth operational process?
A.
cost
B.
static route
C.
load balancing
D.
forwarding decisions
Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-
eigrp/8651-21.html
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of the following events happens before routing information is exchanged when OSPF is
initiated on a network? (Choose two.)
A.
multicast hello packets are used to discover neighbors
B.
adjacency building process is optimized by electing DR and BDR for every multi-access network
C.
unicast hello packets discover neighbors
D.
DR and BDR is elected to optimize point-to-point network
E.
Neighbor discovery is initiated by BDR
Answer: A,B
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13693-22.html
QUESTION NO: 28
Which technology, by default, uses bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate route
metric on a network?
A.
OSPF
B.
DR and BDR
C.
reference bandwidth
D.
EIGRP
Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-
eigrp/16406-eigrp-toc.html
QUESTION NO: 29
R1#Config t
R1(config)#ip routing
A.
R1 sends all traffic with matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1
B.
R1 sends all traffic without matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1
C.
R1 sends all traffic with default-route to 192.168.1.1
D.
R1 sends routing taffic with default-gateway to table entry in 192.168.1.1
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
An administrator wants to use a static route on a router to send a packet. The following command
is executed:
A.
10.10.1.20
B.
10.10.1.19
C.
10.10.1.21
D.
10.10.1.22
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 31
Which type of route can be used to enable fallback static routing in the event of dynamic routing
failure and to route traffic on secondary path automatically in case primary path fails completely?
A.
Dynamic path route
B.
Summary route
C.
Floating static route
D.
Route summarization
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
A router has three routing processes running; EIGRP, RIP and IGRP. All three processes have
learned various routes to 10.10.24.0/24. How will each process choose its best path to the
network?
A.
Using lowest administrative distance
B.
Using prefix length of the routing address
C.
Using low cost metrics
D.
Using medium administrative distance
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-
eigrp/8651-21.html
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following two conditions are triggered by LSA overload condition? (Choose two.)
A.
Critical Alert
B.
LSDB size restriction
C.
Warning
D.
OSPF MAXLSACritical
E.
overload critical alert
F.
Permanent shutdown
Answer: C,F
Reference:
https://www.arista.com/en/um-eos/eos-section-31-3-configuring-ospfv2
QUESTION NO: 34
Which commands can alter default minimum threshold, maximum threshold and MPD value
assigned by IOS when Weighted Random Early Detection is configured? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
#random-detect dscp dscp_value
C.
#random-detect (dscp-based)
D.
#random-detect (prec-based)
Answer: A,B
Reference:
https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=352991&seqNum=8
QUESTION NO: 35
A.
Warning-level message sent to a syslog server
B.
Critical-level message sent to a syslog server
C.
Notice-level message sent to a syslog server
D.
Message sent to the syslog server and emailed to administrative console
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following types of NTP pool based associations can be configured between router
and the devices connected to it? (Choose two.)
B.
Server time mode
C.
Client mode
D.
Symmetric active mode
Answer: C,D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/ncs6000/software/ncs6k-r6-3/system-
management/configuration/guide/b-system-management-cg-ncs6000-63x/b-system-management-
cg-ncs6000-63x_chapter_0111.pdf (3)
QUESTION NO: 37
An administrator is configuring Expression MIB. He wants to use counter expressions that can be
identified based on difference from one sample to the next. He also wants to continuous sampling
for the application. Which sampling should be used?
A.
Changed sampling
B.
Absolute sampling
C.
Iterative sampling
D.
Delta sampling
Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/snmp/configuration/xe-16/snmp-xe-16-book/nm-
snmp-cfg-snmp-support.html#GUID-3180DD30-BFF4-4055-84A3-E129F8A6B351
QUESTION NO: 38
Cisco DHCP FORCENEW command authenticated message based on the authentication mode
specified. Which of the following two features does FORCENEW command support? (Choose
two.)
A.
Token based authentication for basic protection against accidentally instantiated DHCP servers
B.
Change to the state of FORCENEW
C.
MD5 based authentication using single use value generated by the source as message
authentication code.
D.
Retains FORCENEW message that fails authentication for retries.
Answer: A,C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_dhcp/configuration/12-4/dhcp-12-4-
book/config-dhcp-client.html
QUESTION NO: 39
Which component of SNMP sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from
the NMS?
A.
SNMPv2
B.
SNMP agent
C.
SNMP get-next-request
D.
SNMP traps.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
Answer: B
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/service/9_0/rtmt/CUCM_BK_CCC89
2E7_00_cucm-managed-services-guide-90/CUCM_BK_CCC892E7_00_cucm-manager-
managed-services-guide_chapter_0100.html
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following two are prerequisites for configuring DHCP server? (Choose two.)
A.
Disable Cisco DHCP server and relay agent permanently
B.
Use enable service dhcp command to enable relay agent and dhcp service
C.
Open Port 67 and verify it by using show ip sockets details command
D.
Enable DHCP relay agent service by using enable DHCP relay command
E.
Enable DHCP broadcast and forward it to configured DHCP server
Answer: C,E
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_dhcp/configuration/xe-3s/dhcp-xe-3s-
book/config-dhcp-server-xe.html
QUESTION NO: 41
Which NTP command displays timestamp and date of the latest configuration update?
A.
Show ntp trusted-keys
C.
Show ntp-running-config
D.
Show running-config ntp
Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/connectedgrid/cgr1000/1_0/software/configuration/g
uide/sysmgmt/SysMgmt_Book/sm_ntp_cgr1000.html
QUESTION NO: 42
A system restart message event has occurred. Which message level will be sent to a syslog
server?
A.
Warning level message
B.
Notice level message
C.
Critical warning message
D.
System event change message
Answer: B
Reference:
https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=426638&seqNum=3
QUESTION NO: 43
A.
L2TP
B.
PPTP
C.
GRE
D.
L2F
Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-protocols/14106-
how-vpn-works.html
QUESTION NO: 44
In AAA services, which service verifies an authenticated user and grants permission for a specific
task?
A.
Authentication
B.
Authorization
C.
Accounting
D.
Authorization, Authentication and Accounting
Answer: B
Explanation:
You are conducting user awareness training at your office. As an engineer you are particularly
concerned with clickbait emails which are an example of deceptive phishing. How can an attacker
gain access to the system using clickbait?
A.
By sending an email from Microsoft that contains a link with malicious code. That code opens a
webpage and asks users to enter their credentials or other personal information
B.
By sending an email from a reliable bank with deceptive code in the URL. The URL redirect to the
original webpage of the bank and asks for credentials
C.
By sending an email with a deceptive link from an email provider. The link instructs users to do
action on their workstation
D.
By sending an email with a link that contains a real threat. It instructs users to provide certain
details that are vital for the user’s company.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
An engineer wants to configure CPU ACLs pn a Cisco WLC. To check the details of ACL, which
command should he use to display the table shown in the exhibit?
A.
Show acl detailed
C.
Show acl summary
D.
Show acl cpu
Answer: A
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/71978-acl-wlc.html
QUESTION NO: 47
What happens if you don’t use label key-label command with crypto key generate rsa configuration
mode?
A.
The fully qualified domain name of the router will be used
B.
IOS will assign a label of its own to the key pairs
C.
IOS will assign a name for the key pair that is being imported
D.
The fully qualified domain name of the server will be used
Answer: A
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-xe-3se-3850-cr-book/sec-a1-
xe-3se-3850-cr-book_chapter_0110.html
QUESTION NO: 48
A.
WPA1-PSK
B.
WPA2-PSK
C.
WPA
D.
CKIP
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
An engineer is configuring IPv4 ACLs on Cisco router. A standard ACL and an extended ACL is
configured. When the configuration is finished, the router showed a conflict in standard and
extended ACLs and all incoming traffic is allowed on the interface. What is the reason for this
conflict?
A.
Standard ACL and an extended ACL cannot have the same name
B.
Standard ACL is not working due to misconfigured VLAN maps
C.
Extended ACL for packet filters has not been configured
D.
ICMP messages are unreachable on extended ACL
Answer: A
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3.2_0_se/multibook
/configuration_guide/b_consolidated_config_guide_3850_chapter_0110100.html
QUESTION NO: 50
What does Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) does in WPA3 authentication method?
A.
SAE adds a step to a password connection that makes it impossible for brute force attackers to
expose the password
B.
SAE creates an encryption algorithm for the password during transit of the data
C.
SAE negotiates with the server and jumbles up a password so that brute force attackers cannot
figure it out.
D.
SAE uses CNSA 192-bit encryption to encrypt passphrase during the data transit
Answer: A
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-10/config-
guide/b_cg810/wlan_security.html
QUESTION NO: 51
Layer 2 MAC can be implemented in a distributed manner. Which control mechanism provides
reachability information to Layer 2 MAC?
A.
Layer-3 reachability control
B.
Centralized plane control
C.
Collocated network control
D.
Layer-2 reachability control
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/SDN/SDN.html
QUESTION NO: 52
Which network design can reduce operational costs and enable faster and reliable changes?
A.
Agile network
B.
Network automation
C.
Silo based network architecture
D.
Network orchestration
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
Which two management access tenants are available in APIC REST API? (Choose two.)
A.
Dynamic management access
B.
In-band management access
C.
Post management access
D.
Out-of-Band management access
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-
x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Co
nfiguration_Guide_chapter_010.html
QUESTION NO: 54
Which entity can perform almost all control plane functions effectively replacing devices distributed
control plane?
A.
Centralized control plane
B.
Northbound interface
C.
Southbound interface
D.
SDN controller
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the two type of attacks can be identified using the real-time monitoring and pervasive
view of Cisco Stealthwatch? (Choose two.)
A.
Brute force attack
B.
drive-by attack
C.
Cross-site scripting attack
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
D.
Zero-day attack
E.
Malware
Answer: D,E
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dna-center/nb-06-
dna-center-faq-cte-en.html
QUESTION NO: 56
Which of the following two software is required for North bound client application? (Choose two.)
A.
Cisco PTC
B.
Cisco Meraki
C.
JDK kit 1.3
D.
Python IDE
E.
XML DTD
Answer: A,C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/packet_telephony_center_virtual_switch/2-
1/developer/guide/VSchap1.html
QUESTION NO: 57
Which Cisco API does not intertact directly with the managed network?
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
A.
PTC southbound interface
B.
Synchronization interface
C.
PTC northbound interface
D.
REST interface
Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/packet_telephony_center_virtual_switch/2-
0/developer/guide/VSchap1.pdf (2)
QUESTION NO: 58
A company wants to deploy complex application on cloud. Which cloud service can they use to
develop and deploy applications without the restrictions of a platform?
A.
Software-as-a-service
B.
Infrastructure-as-a-service
C.
platform-as-a-service
D.
container-as-a-service
Answer: D
Reference:
https://blogs.cisco.com/cloud/the-next-evolution-of-paas
QUESTION NO: 59
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
Which type of network can replace configuring ports with access VLAN and updating IP ACLs with
endpoint groups and policies?
A.
Traditional networks
B.
Cisco DNA Center
C.
Siloed networks
D.
Agile networks
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
What is the main job of Southbound interface in a software defined networking environment?
A.
It elaborates the way SDN controller interact with application plane.
B.
It creates an external network that can be used for load-balancing applications.
C.
It defines a way SDN controllers interact with forwarding plane.
D.
It defines a way SDN controllers can interact with control plane
Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.econfigs.com/ccna-7-7-c-northbound-and-southbound-apis/
QUESTION NO: 61
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
How does Control plane process in controller-based networking controls the data plane?
A.
By creating IP routing table, an ARP table and switch MAC address table
B.
By adding or removing entries on individual devices
C.
By creating OSPF on each data plane on a router
D.
By matching packet destination address and forwarding it to the the matched route.
Answer: A
Reference:
https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2995354&seqNum=2
QUESTION NO: 62
Which Cisco campus management product supports a variety of extensibility option including
cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs?
A.
Cisco Meraki
B.
Cisco Digital Architecture
C.
Cisco DNA Center
D.
Cisco SDN
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
Which of the following are main principals of Cisco DNA?
A.
Analytics, open platform, physical and virtual infrastructure
B.
Business intent, policy, digital transformation
C.
digital transformation automation, cloud
D.
Extended enterprise, automation and policy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
Which technology provides a system for logical network devices to pass traffic between virtual
machines and the physical network and have multiple operating systems and applications running
independently on one physical server?
A.
Agile network
B.
Virtualization
C.
Cloud-native
D.
network-as-a-service
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
A.
Cisco User defined network (UDN)
B.
Cisco group-based policy telemetry (GPT)
C.
Cisco AI endpoint analytics (AI)
D.
Cisco automated endpoint detection analytics (EDA)
Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dna-center/nb-06-
dna-center-faq-cte-en.html
QUESTION NO: 66
Which command is used to lists the commands currently held in history buffer?
A.
Show command history
B.
Show history
C.
Show history | include command
D.
Show configure terminal
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a network engineer try to access router using, which command forces Cisco IOS to prompt
for username and password, and to check these credential against local database of router?
A.
Login
B.
Login local
C.
Login username local
D.
Login local telnet
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
What are the prerequisites for the physical ports to become a single L3 etherchannel? (Choose
three.)
A.
Physical ports must use same speed
B.
Physical ports must use same vlan
C.
Physical ports must use same Trunking protocol
D.
Physical ports must use same duplex
E.
Physical ports must configured with "no switchport" command
F.
Physical ports must configured with "switchport mode l3" command
QUESTION NO: 69
How much difference we can see in between two consecutive configurable root bridge priority
values which we assign in STP/RSTP configuration?
A.
1024
B.
2048
C.
4096
D.
8192
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
A.
STP
B.
PVST+
C.
RSTP
D.
MSTP
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 71
A.
Network
B.
Transport
C.
Physical
D.
Data-Link
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
Which misconfiguration in trunk link causes frames to jump from one vlan to another while
crossing the trunk link?
A.
Mismatched Trunk Encapusaltion
B.
Mismatched Allowed VLAN
C.
Mismatched Native VLAN
D.
Mismatched VLAN Trunking Protocol
E.
Mismatched DTP configuration
QUESTION NO: 73
By which command an engineer change the default DR/BDR election process in OSPF?
A.
ip ospf DR
B.
ip ospf priority
C.
ip ospf designated DR
D.
ip ospf secondary
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
Which command can be used to check the Hello and Dead timers value in an OSPF process?
A.
Show ip ospf
B.
Show ip ospf interface
C.
Show ip ospf timers
D.
Show interface ospf timers
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75
Which of these statements are true regarding the syslog logging service?
A.
Its primary function is the ability to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting.
B.
Its primary function is the ability to gather configuration information for monitoring and
troubleshooting.
C.
It cannot select the type of logging information that is captured
D.
It can only works with L3 devices.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
A.
Logging buffer
B.
TFTP Server
C.
FTP Server
D.
TFTP Client
E.
Syslog Server
F.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
Console Line
Answer: A,E,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
Which syslog level generates system messages that do not affect device functionality?
A.
Level 1
B.
Level 3
C.
Level 6
D.
Level 8
E.
Level 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
An engineer wants to view logs generated during offices hours. Which command he configure to
force logged events to display the date and time?
A.
service time log date time
B.
syslog timestamps log datetime
C.
service timestamps log datetime
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
D.
logging timestamps date time
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
An engineer wanta to configure a router R1 to send log messages of levels 4 and lower to the
syslog server at 10.10.10.187. How it can be achieved?
A.
R1(config)# logging 10.10.10.0/24
B.
R1(config)# logging 10.10.10.187
C.
R1(config)# logging 10.10.10.187
D.
R1(config)# logging 10.10.10.187
Answer: D
Explanation:
An network engineer wants to take backup of a running config of a router using USB drive. Which
command is used to verify that the USB drive is there and confirm the name?
A.
show file systems
B.
dir file systems
C.
show file systems usb
D.
show file systems disk0
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
Which configuration register value informs the router to ignore the startup config file on bootup?
A.
0x2142
B.
0x2042
C.
0x2242
D.
0x2141
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
Which commands ensures that the router uses the startup config file on bootup?
A.
config-register 0x2142 global configuration mode command
B.
config-register 0x2102 Interface configuration mode command
C.
config-register 0x2102 global configuration mode command
D.
config-register 0x2102 Romman mode command
E.
config-register 0x2202 global configuration mode command
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
Which command is used to know whether router's system clock is synchronized with ntp server or
not?
A.
show ntp status
B.
show ntp sync
C.
show ntp server status
D.
show ntp
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
224.0.0.3
B.
224.0.0.4
C.
224.0.0.5
D.
224.0.0.6
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
During OSPF neighborship process, after which neighborship state, routers can immediately move
on to the process of database exchange ?
A.
ExStart
B.
Exchange
C.
2-Way
D.
Loading
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
What is the role of the BDR in OSPF?
A.
BDR watches the status of the DR and takes over for the DR if it fails.
B.
DR watches the status of the BDR and takes over for the BDR if it fails
C.
BDR watches the status of the DR and takes over for the DR after neighborship state FULL.
D.
BDR and DR both are responsible to exchange data in a multiaccess network.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
Which of the following statements regarding the OSPF cost is true? (Choose two.)
A.
OSPF adds the cost for incoming interfaces in the route
B.
OSPF does not add the cost for incoming interfaces in the route
C.
OSPF does not add the cost for Outgoing interfaces in each route
D.
OSPF adds the cost for Outgoing interfaces in each route
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
B.
DR and BDR IP addresses, subnet ID, mask
C.
Subnet ID, mask, RID of ABR that advertises the LSA
D.
interfaces, IP address/mask ,Subnet ID
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
A.
Neighbor state is 2-way, and the neighbor is neither the DR nor BDR
B.
Local router is also a DROther router
C.
Local router is also a DR router
D.
Local router is also a BDR router
E.
Neighbor state is 2-way, and the neighbor is either the DR or BDR
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
B.
Ethernet- 10 and FastEthernet- 1
C.
Ethernet- 100 and FastEthernet- 10
D.
Ethernet- 1 and FastEthernet- 10
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
An engineer want to change the reference bandwidth of OSPF, what is the Cisco recommended
method of doing this?
A.
OSPF reference bandwidth setting the different on all OSPF routers in an enterprise network
B.
OSPF reference bandwidth setting the same on all OSPF routers in an area
C.
OSPF reference bandwidth setting the same on all OSPF routers in backbone area
D.
OSPF reference bandwidth setting the same on all OSPF routers in an enterprise network
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
Which command is used to change number of equal cost routes in routing table?
A.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
maximum-paths number
B.
maximum-equal-paths number
C.
maximum-routes number
D.
max-paths number
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
A.
Phishing
B.
DOS-attack
C.
Man-in-middle attack
D.
Social Engineering
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
Which feature in NGFW looks deep into the application layer data to identify the application?
A.
AMP
C.
URL Filtering
D.
NGIPS
E.
APP Flitering
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95
An engineer wants to bind MAC address of the device dynamically with the switchport, whenever
device get connected. Which command will fulfil this task?
A.
switchport portsecurity mac-address bind-dynamic
B.
switchport portsecurity mac-address dynamic
C.
switchport portsecurity mac-address mac-address
D.
switchport portsecurity mac-address sticky
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96
Which port-security violation mode Disables the interface by putting it in an err disabled state,
discarding all traffic?
B.
Restrict
C.
Shutdown
D.
Disable
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
How do you recover a port from an err-disabled state caused by Port-security? (Choose two.)
A.
Go to that interface and use "no shutdown "
B.
Go to that interface and use "shutdown " and then "no shutdown"
C.
Configure automatic recovery using "errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation" and "errdisable
recovery interval" commands
D.
Configure automatic recovery using "errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation" and "errdisable
recovery timer" commands
E.
Configure automatic recovery using "errdisable recovery cause port-secure-violation" and
"errdisable recovery timer" commands
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
Which tab in the WLAN configuration screen of a WLC configures VLAN mapping?
A.
Advanced
B.
Policy-Mapping
C.
General
D.
Security
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
Which set of commands should be used to enable DHCP snooping in the topology shown in the
exhibit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
The transport input command is missing.
B.
The service password-encryption feature is not enabled.
C.
The privilege level is misconfigured.
D.
CEF is disabled.
Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 fails to access the internet. What is misconfigured in the network?
A.
PC1
B.
G1
C.
ACL
D.
G0
E.
The NAT statement
What must be configured to allow network connectivity between the two IP addresses?
A.
Set the gateway of last resort to 192.168.100.1 on router0.
B.
Disable OSPF on router0.
C.
Change the IP address of the user's device to 10.10.10.101.
D.
Set the default route on the user's device to 192.168.100.1.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which ports should be configured as trunks in the wireless topology shown in the exhibit?
A.
G0/1 only
B.
G0/1, G0/15, and G0/16
C.
G0/15 and G0/16
D.
G0/15 only
E.
G0/16 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Refer to the exhibit. What will be displayed in the CDP table on Router2?
A.
Device ID: Router1, Port ID: Gig 0/1
B.
Device ID: Router2, Port ID: Gig 0/2
C.
Device ID: Router1, Port ID: Gig 0/2
D.
Device ID: Router2, Port ID: Gig 0/1
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
A.
Core and distribution
B.
Distribution
C.
Core
D.
Core and access
E.
Access
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
Router
B.
Access point
C.
Perimeter firewall
D.
Switch
Answer: A
Explanation:
A workstation is powered on and connected to a Cisco switch. The switch port LED does not turn
amber or green. All other port switches are blinking green.
A.
Replace the cable with a crossover cable.
B.
Reboot the switch.
C.
Reseat the network cable.
D.
Reboot the workstation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Which IPv6 command is used to define a static host name-to-address mapping in the host name
cache?
A.
IPv6 host
B.
IPv6 local
C.
IPv6 unicast-routing
D.
IPv6 address
A.
The IPv6 address is f0:18:98:1f:bc:01.
B.
The IP address is 192.168.1.101/24.
C.
The default route is 192.168.1.255.
D.
The IP address is 192.168.1.101/25.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B.
switchport mode trunk
C.
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
D.
switchport mode access
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which ports will become the root ports in the RSTP topology shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A.
G0/1 on SW1
B.
G0/1 on SW2
C.
F0/1 on SW2
D.
F0/1 on SW1
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E.
G0/2 on SW3
F.
G0/1 on SW3
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
Which wireless deployment option offers a controllerless infrastructure for up to 100 APs?
A.
Mobility Express
B.
Unified
C.
Autonomous
D.
Cloud
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
B.
C.
Answer: C
Explanation:
HSRP has been enabled on R1 under Gi0/1 and R2 under Gi0/1 using the following parameters:
A.
R1: backup
R2: master
B.
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R1: master
R2: backup
C.
R1: standby
R2: active
D.
R1: active
R2: standby
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Cisco switch is being configured for SSH access. What command is needed to prevent non-SSH
connections?
A.
no transport input telnet
B.
transport input telnet
C.
transport input ssh
D.
line vty 0 7
Answer: C
Explanation:
A company implements a AAA solution. What can the company use for accounting?
B.
MFA
C.
QoS
D.
Local authentication database
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer:
A.
URI
B.
API
C.
YANG
D.
JSON and XML
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
{[type,code]: [1,2]}
B.
[{"type","code"}: {1","2"}]
D.
{"type","code": "1","2"}
E.
{["type","code"]: ["1 ","2"]}
Answer: C
Explanation:
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 should be the only device from VLAN 2 that is allowed to access Srv1.
Network traffic should be limited to a minimum.
A.
CoreB G0/1 out
B.
CoreB G0/1 in
D.
CoreA G0/2 out
Answer: C
Explanation:
What NAT configuration has been accomplished with the configuration shown below?
A.
Twice NAT
B.
Static one-to-one NAT
C.
Static PAT
D.
Dynamic PAT
Answer: C
Explanation:
What is missing in the LACP configuration to enable it as the main interface to the WAN?
A.
Port channel 1 has no IP configuration set.
B.
The reboot command was not issued next.
C.
The LACP administrative key is not set.
D.
Port channel 1 has no ports in passive mode.
Answer: A
Explanation:
What is the primary reason behind implementing the RFC 1918 standard in a company?
A.
Mitigating an MitM attack
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B.
Multiple devices behind a firewall trying to access the internet
C.
Enhancing the standard STP protocol
D.
Several switches creating a full mesh topology with potential loops
Answer: B
Explanation:
What will be the result of installing an IPS sensor using the promiscuous mode?
A.
The sensor can actively block a network attack.
B.
Signatures cannot be updated.
C.
End users will be impacted due to slow network transfers.
D.
The sensor receives a copy of the traffic only.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
The interface IPv6 address is 00d0.ba84.6002.
B.
The interface has jumbo frames configured.
C.
The interface is operational.
D.
The interface frame rate is 125000 KBs.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
SW0 and SW1 have four VLANs configured: 1, 2, 7, and 8. There is a trunk enabled, as shown in
the exhibit.
What will be the result of executing the switchport trunk allowed vlan 5 command under interface
Gi0/1 on SW0?
A.
VLANs 1, 2, 5, 7, and 8 will be allowed on the trunk. Only VLAN 5 will be active on the trunk.
B.
Only VLAN 5 will be allowed on the trunk. There will be no active VLANs on the trunk.
C.
D.
Only VLAN 5 will be allowed and active on the trunk.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Which IP address on the internal network is serving the HTTP content to the outside hosts?
A.
127.0.0.1
B.
10.1.1.5
C.
192.168.2.23
D.
192.168.2.3
Answer: B
Explanation:
How should the router be configured to ensure that the highest detailed logs are passed to the
syslog server?
A.
Enable Buffer logging.
B.
Set Trap logging to emergencies.
C.
Set Monitor logging to errors.
D.
Set Trap logging to debugging.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A WLC has been configured to allow both local and RADIUS-based administrators. What will
happen if the same user exists both locally and in the RADIUS database?
A.
WLC reports an error.
B.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
WLC allows an administrator to choose the logon option.
C.
WLC uses the local database.
D.
WLC contacts the RADIUS server using the Authentication-Challenge message.
Answer: C
Explanation:
One port is not visible in the output of the show vlan command on a production switch. What is the
most likely reason?
A.
The port has been converted into a trunk port.
B.
The port is down.
C.
There are no devices connected.
D.
The port has been shut down.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which feature of an NGFW is designed to protect the network against malware infections?
A.
SPI
B.
NGIPS
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
C.
AMP
D.
AVC
Answer: C
Explanation:
A virtual machine (VM) requires Layer 2 transport to another virtual machine on a different
physical host.
A.
Virtualization Service Client
B.
Virtual switch
C.
VMFS
D.
HBA
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
show flash
B.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
show running-config
C.
show ip route
D.
show boot-config
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
2001:db8:1:130g:ab9:C0a8:102b
B.
2001.db8.1..ab9.C0a8.102b
C.
2001:db8:1::ab9:C0a8:102b
D.
2001:db8:1:130h:ab9:C0a8:102b
Answer: C
Explanation:
A user reports that they are unable to access a file share (\\fileserver01.baylyparker.local) on a
colleague’s workstation. The output of the ipconfig /all command on their Microsoft Windows 10
workstation is as follows:
A.
The DNS server address is incorrect.
B.
The default gateway is incorrect.
D.
The node type is incorrect.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which feature is available in both TCP and UDP and is designed to combine multiple data streams
by using source and destination port numbers?
A.
Multiplexing
B.
CRC
C.
Encapsulation
D.
Windowing
Answer: A
Explanation:
What are two main requirements for implementing the spine-leaf topology? (Choose two.)
A.
The leaf switches are not interconnected.
B.
The 802.1d protocol should be enabled on the leaf switches only.
C.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
The spine switches are not interconnected.
D.
There should be at least two hops between the leaf and spine switches.
E.
The leaf switches should be the root bridges of the network.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
What two types of integration does Cisco DNA Center offer? (Choose two.)
A.
Ensure silos of wired, wireless, and WAN networks.
B.
Enforce and monitor common policies.
C.
Disable integration with other 3rd party vendors.
D.
Disable IBN across the WAN.
E.
Ensure end-to-end compliance with regulations.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
A.
3 minutes
C.
10 minutes
D.
15 minutes
Answer: B
Explanation:
A routing table has two routes to the same destination. The administrative distance is 110.
Which routing protocol would the router use by default to determine which route to take?
A.
IS-IS
B.
Connected interface
C.
OSPF
D.
BGP
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
/24
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
B.
/32
C.
/128
D.
/0
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which SNMP message is initiated by an agent and sent to an NMS if an error occurs?
A.
Trap
B.
GetNext
C.
Get
D.
Walk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which three steps are required to enable SSH on a Cisco device? (Choose three.)
A.
Create an RSA key pair using the crypto key generate rsa command in the privileged EXEC mode.
B.
Create an RSA key pair using the crypto key generate rsa command in the global configuration
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
mode.
C.
Create an RSA key pair using the ip ssh command in the global configuration mode.
D.
Configure a hostname and domain name in the global configuration mode.
E.
Allow SSH connections using the transport input command in the line configuration mode.
F.
Configure a hostname and domain name in the privileged EXEC mode.
G.
Allow SSH connections using the transport input command in the global configuration mode.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
Which two combinations of authentication methods are considered MFA? (Choose two.)
A.
PIN and password
B.
Username and password
C.
Password and fingerprint
D.
PIN and smart card
E.
Fingerprint and retina
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
A.
Interaction with the data plane
B.
Communication between the controller and an application
C.
Control plane isolation
D.
Application plane management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which feature of the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is an advancement from traditional wireless
setups?
A.
Support for all Lightweight Access Points
B.
Port mirroring
C.
Access Point out-of-bound management
D.
Centralized device configuration
Answer: D
Explanation:
What command should the administrator run as the last step in configuring link aggregation on the
Cisco Wireless Controller?
A.
reset peer-system
B.
transfer download port
C.
save config
D.
reset system
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
To have addresses that do not use DHCP
B.
To have addresses that are registered by IANA
C.
To have addresses that are available for local networks
D.
To have addresses directly routable through the public internet
Answer: C
Explanation:
Refer to the exhibit. What will be entered in the CAM table of SW1 after receiving FRAME1?
A.
IP ADDRESS: 192.168.1.8; TYPE: DYNAMIC; PORT: G0/1
B.
MAC ADDRESS: 6E12.2101.A4C8; TYPE: DYNAMIC; PORT: F0/24
C.
MAC ADDRESS: 1A32.2401 .E4A1; TYPE: DYNAMIC; PORT: G0/1
D.
MAC ADDRESS: 6E12.2101.A4C8; TYPE: DYNAMIC; PORT: G0/1
E.
IP ADDRESS: 192.168.1.8; TYPE: DYNAMIC; PORT: F0/24
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
There are three directly connected routes.
B.
One route has been defined as a static route.
C.
There are no EIGRP routes defined.
D.
172.18.10.70 is reachable by a directly connected route.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 should be allowed to telnet to Srv1. All other ports and services should
be blocked for any traffic destined for Srv1 from PC1. Which set of commands should be used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a switchport is configured with sticky MAC address learning, which three statements are
true? (Choose three.)
A.
The default maximum number of MAC addresses to be sticky learned is one.
B.
Sticky learned MAC addresses will appear in the output of the show mac address-table dynamic
command.
C.
Sticky learned MAC addresses will appear in the output of the show mac address-table static
command.
D.
The default maximum number of MAC addresses to be sticky learned is eight.
F.
Sticky learned MAC addresses will appear in the output of the show mac address-table secure
command.
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
R1-R2
B.
R3-R6-R5
C.
R7-R6-R5
D.
R3-R4-R5
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which RSTP feature shuts down an access port once it receives a superior BPDU?
A.
PortFast
B.
Port security
C.
Loop guard
D.
BPDU guard
Answer: D
Explanation:
What will be the result of executing the following command in a Windows command-line session?
A.
It discards the IP configuration for all NICs with an adapter name including the letter s.
B.
It sends the DHCPNACK message to the DHCP server with the s parameter.
C.
It sends the DHCPInform message to the DHCP server with the s parameter.
D.
It discards the IP configuration for all NICs with an adapter name of * and s.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
A.
1.2.0.0/8
B.
127.1.2.3/8
C.
225.1.2.3/24
D.
192.168.1.47/28
The GUI of a WLC offers five options when editing a WLAN profile: Security, General, QoS,
Policy-mapping, and Advanced. Which tab should be used to configure the WLC to override the
default AAA servers for the WLAN?
A.
QoS
B.
Advanced
C.
Security
D.
Policy-Mapping
E.
General
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
IP address
B.
Severity
C.
Timestamp
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
The OSPF cost to get to 172.16.1.4 will be 110.
B.
G0/0 will show no OSPF neighbors.
C.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
The gateway of last resort will be used to access a remote host with the IP address 192.168.15.1.
D.
The administrative distance of OSPF will be 90.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A network administrator discovers a traffic loop that is causing slow inter VLAN connectivity.
A.
PMTUD black hole
B.
Lack of trunk port on a switch
C.
Packet corruption
D.
Asymmetrically configured EtherChannel
Answer: D
Explanation:
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 cannot ping PC2. Which device has been misconfigured?
A.
G0/1 on R1
B.
PC2
C.
PC1
D.
G0/2 on R1
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
Switch1
B.
Switch2
C.
Switch3
D.
Switch0
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
Fast UDP connection
B.
No need for a username and password
C.
Full packet encryption
D.
Centralized AAA
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which router will become the DR in the multiaccess broadcast topology of the five routers shown
below?
A.
Router1
B.
Router2
C.
Router3
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D.
Router4
E.
Router5
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
A
B.
MX
C.
NS
D.
AAAA
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a wireless network protected by WPA3, which algorithm is used to check the integrity of a
message?
A.
GMAC
B.
CBC-MAC
C.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
AES
D.
SHA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which two features differentiate a controller-based network from a traditional network? (Choose
two.)
A.
Centralized data planes
B.
Centralized SBI and NBI
C.
More programmability options
D.
Centralized control planes
E.
No need for the OpenFlow and OpFlex protocols
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
A switch rejects the crypto key command in the process of enabling SSH. What should be done to
fix the problem?
A.
Change the configuration register value to 0x2142.
B.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
Update the IOS.
C.
Reload the switch.
D.
Use the ip ssh command instead of the crypto key command.
Answer: B
Explanation:
What is NOT true about the role of administrative distance in forwarding decision making on a
router?
A.
All supported protocols have default administrative distances.
B.
Administrative distance decides which route is the backup route when the primary fails.
C.
Administrative distance can change after flushing the routing table.
D.
Administrative distance prioritizes routes when multiple routes to the same network are known.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
Layer 3 Down
B.
Layer 2 Fully operational
C.
Layer 3 Fully operational
D.
Layer 2 Down
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which statement is true about configuring a default VLAN on Cisco Catalyst Switches?
A.
The default VLAN is VLAN 0 and cannot be changed.
B.
The default VLAN is VLAN 1 and can be changed in switch-config mode.
C.
The default VLAN is VLAN 1 and cannot be changed.
D.
The default VLAN is VLAN 0 and can be changed in switch-config mode.
Answer: C
SW01 and SW02 are configured as shown in the exhibit. What will be the result of this
configuration?
A.
SW01 and SW02 will switch to full duplex after receiving the first frame.
B.
SW01 will not report a duplex mismatch. SW02 will renegotiate all parameters.
C.
SW01 will report a duplex mismatch. Network performance might be affected.
D.
Both switches will drop all frames in the network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
SW1 and SW2 have formed a trunk as shown in the exhibit. VLAN 5 is the only VLAN allowed and
active.
What will SW1 do with a frame coming from PC1 and destined to PC2?
A.
SW1 will report a collision.
B.
SW1 will add a VLAN tag of 5 and forward it to PC1.
C.
SW1 will drop the frame.
D.
SW1 will add a VLAN tag of 5 and forward it to SW2.
E.
SW1 will send the frame untagged to SW2.
Answer: E
Explanation:
A.
Git
B.
Puppet
C.
NETCONFAPIs
D.
RESTful APIs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Gratuitous ARP messages can be exploited to make which two kinds of attacks? (Choose two.)
A.
DDoS
B.
Spoofing attack
C.
DoS
D.
Reconnaissance attack
E.
Eavesdropping
F.
Amplification attack
Configuration change is required on a Cisco 2500 Series Wireless Controller (WLC) over a
wireless network using Cisco WLAN Express. After unplugging an existing Access Point (AP) and
plugging in a new AP into the WLC port 4, the administrator notices the lack of a CiscoAirProvision
SSID.
A.
The WLC has to be reset to factory defaults for WLAN Express to work
B.
WLAN Express should only be used to configure a WLC over a wired connection
C.
The AP has to be reset to factory defaults for WLAN Express to work
D.
The AP will only broadcast a CiscoAirProvision SSID when it is connected to port 1 on a WLC
Answer: A
Explanation:
SW1 is configured as shown below. How many IPv6 addresses will be visible after executing the
show ipv6 interface brief on SW1 for interface VLAN 1?
B.
3
C.
2
D.
1
Answer: C
Explanation:
What framework integrates with the port-based access control system and is commonly used to
deploy secure enterprise wireless networks?
A.
EAP
B.
MD5
C.
TLS
D.
FAST
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which of the following is a benefit of migrating a farm of on-premises email virtual servers to an
SAAS solution?
B.
No need to manage the VMs
C.
No need to monitor available disk space for emails
D.
No need to manage user permissions
Answer: B
Explanation:
A network has experienced a number of MitM attacks. Which three mitigation techniques could be
used to secure the network? (Choose three.)
A.
VACL
B.
Encryption
C.
QoS
D.
DAI
E.
User training
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
A.
L2TP
B.
C.
IPsec
D.
SSL
Answer: D
Explanation:
Match an AAA concept with its basic usage. Not all options are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
In the topology shown in the exhibit, which interface should be configured using the ip helper
command?
A.
CoreA G0/2
B.
SW1 G0/2
C.
DHCP_Srv G0/1
D.
CoreA G0/1
E.
SW1 G0/1
Answer: A
Explanation:
Match each QoS profile with its default application assignment on a WLC.
Answer:
Explanation:
A.
QoS
B.
CDP
C.
FTP
D.
TFTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
What will a switch do with a frame destined for the MAC address of FFFF.FFFF.FFFF?
A.
Drop the frame due to an invalid destination MAC address
B.
Send the frame out all ports in the particular VLAN
C.
Send the frame out all ports in all VLANs
D.
Add the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address as a dynamic entry
Answer: B
Explanation:
What will be the cost of the root path on SW0 for the network shown in the exhibit?
A.
4
B.
8
C.
19
D.
23
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
Cryptographic authentication is required, but not encrypted packets.
B.
Cryptographic authentication is required, and the packets are encrypted.
C.
There is no cryptographic authentication, but there are encrypted packets.
D.
There is no cryptographic authentication or encrypted packets.
Answer: B
Explanation:
What is the correct syntax of the command to validate whether Dynamic ARP Inspection is
enabled on VLAN1?
A.
show ip arp inspection vlan1
B.
ip arp inspection 1
C.
ip arp inspection vlan1
D.
show ip arp inspection vlan 1
What command would exclude the first block of 10 IP addresses from being assigned by DHCP?
A.
ip dhcp database 192.168.3.2-11
B.
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.10
C.
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.3.2 192.168.3.11
D.
ip dhcp database 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.10
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which two encryption methods are available when configuring a new WLAN with WPA2? (Choose
two.)
B.
AES
C.
IPsec
D.
RC4
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The LAN behind a firewall has been configured using the network address 172.31.0.0/16. What is
the outcome of this configuration?
A.
The LAN network has an incorrect subnet mask.
B.
Devices in the LAN can access the internet directly.
C.
The firewall must have NAT enabled for LAN devices to access the internet.
D.
The firewall will use the LAN address as its inside and outside IP address.
Answer: C
Explanation:
What is the main security reason behind deprecating the wireless TKIP standard?
A.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
Using a 32-bit key
B.
Using AES-128
C.
Having no re-keying mechanism
D.
Using RC4
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
show ip route
B.
netstat
C.
ipconfig
D.
ifconfig
Answer: B
Explanation:
What will the show ip route command display for this route?
A.
10.11.10.0/24 [1/110] via 1.1.1.1,18:23:28, GigabitEthernet0/1
B.
10.11.10.0/24 [110/1] via 1.1.1.1,18:23:28, GigabitEthernet0/1
C.
10.11.10.0/24 [110/2] via 1.1.1.1,18:23:28, GigabitEthernet0/1
D.
R 10.11.10.0/24 [110/1] via 1.1.1.1,18:23:28, GigabitEthernet0/1
E.
10.11.10.0/24 [2/110] via 1.1.1.1,18:23:28, GigabitEthernet0/1
F.
R 10.11.10.0/24 [110/2] via 1.1.1.1,18:23:28, GigabitEthernet0/1
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
IS-IS
B.
SDA edge node
D.
VLAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about voice ports? (Choose three.)
A.
The switch should consider incoming tagged traffic as data VLAN traffic. It should consider
incoming untagged traffic as voice VLAN traffic.
B.
If interface e0/4 is a voice port, it will appear in the output of the show interfaces trunk command.
C.
If interface e0/4 is a voice port, it will appear in the output of the show interfaces e0/4 trunk
command.
D.
The switch should consider incoming untagged traffic as data VLAN traffic. It should consider
incoming tagged traffic as voice VLAN traffic.
E.
If port security is configured on a voice port, the default maximum MAC number should be used.
F.
A switch's CDP configurations can be left to the default settings.
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:
Refer to the exhibit. The network admin reports that PC A fails to ping PC B. Which of the
following options can solve this issue? (Choose two.)
A.
Remove switchport port-security mac-address from switch A.
B.
Remove switchport voice vlan 11 from switch A.
C.
Remove switchport voice vlan 11 from switch B.
D.
Add switchport port-security maximum 2 to interface e0/1 on switch B.
E.
Add switchport port-security maximum 2 to interface e0/1 on switch A.
F.
Remove switchport port-security mac-address from switch B.
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
Which of the following features represents a great advantage of DNAC as a network manager
compared to traditional network managers?
B.
Path trace
C.
Single-pane-of-glass
D.
Plug and Play
Answer: B
Explanation:
R1 has been configured using the point-to-point OSPF topology. What is the result of this
configuration?
A.
R1 will not send hello messages.
B.
R1 will report a mismatch error.
C.
R1 will not form a neighbor automatically.
D.
R1 will not use the DR/BDR concept.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When building an ESS wireless topology, what should match across all access points?
A.
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
Virtual MAC address
B.
BSSID
C.
Virtual IP address
D.
SSID
E.
IBSS
Answer: D
Explanation:
What should be used by end devices as the default gateway in a network supported by VRRP?
A.
Master
B.
Backup
C.
Secondary IP
D.
VIP
Answer: D
Explanation:
B.
Passive and active mode
C.
File transfers
D.
3-way handshake
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
Python
B.
REST API
C.
JSON
D.
OpenFlow
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
To authenticate the time sources to which local devices synchronize
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B.
To provide an option for a username and password for NTP masters
C.
To provide an SHA-based authentication key
D.
To authenticate an administrator trying to modify NTP settings
Answer: A
Explanation:
SW01 and SW02 have formed an EtherChannel. Based on a partial output of the show
etherchannel detail command from SW01 shown below, what EtherChannel mode has been
configured on the other switch?
A.
Passive
B.
Active
C.
Auto
Answer: B
Explanation:
What is the minimum set of one-way QoS values for a VoIP exchange?
A.
Latency: 300ms; Jitter: 30ms; Loss: 1%
B.
Latency: 150ms; Jitter: 30ms; Loss: 10%
C.
Latency: 150ms; Jitter: 30ms; Loss: 1%
D.
Latency: 150ms; Jitter: 100ms; Loss: 1%
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
No APIs needed
B.
Ability to control the network devices via southbound APIs
C.
Less compute capacity required
D.
Less scripting required
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Which two pieces of information can be found in the output of the ifconfig command in Linux?
(Choose two.)
A.
Active network connections
B.
Default gateway
C.
CLOSE_WAIT sessions
D.
MTU
E.
Physical address
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
A.
The hold time before a MAC address is entered into the MAC table
B.
How long before a MAC address is converted into CAM
C.
How long before the MAC table is cleared
D.
How long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the MAC table
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
An SSID can use up to 64 alphanumeric characters.
B.
An SSID can include any alphanumeric character.
C.
Characters in an SSID are case-sensitive.
D.
An SSID can include spaces.
Answer: C
Explanation:
SW1 has LLDP enabled globally. Port Gi0/7 should not receive or send any LLDP updates. Which
commands should be used to configure the switch?
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Cisco 200-301 Exam
A.
interface GigabitEthernet0/7
no lldp run
B.
interface GigabitEthernet0/7
no lldp transmit
no lldp receive
C.
interface GigabitEthernet0/7
D.
interface GigabitEthernet0/7
Answer: B
Explanation: