Mock 2

1. What happens during the exhaustion stage of General Adaptation

Syndrome?
a) The body adapts to the stressor.
b) The body's resources are depleted, and it becomes vulnerable to
illness.
c) The stress response is triggered.
d) The body enters recovery mode.

2. Who proposed the General Adaptation Syndrome model?

a) Hans Selye
b) Sigmund Freud
c) Ivan Pavlov
d) B.F. Skinner

3. Short-term memory is encoded primarily in which form?

a) Visual
b) Acoustic
c) Semantic
d) Olfactory

4. ________ refers to the rules governing the structure and sequence of

speech sounds.
a) Morphology
b) Phonology
c) Syntax
d) Semantics

5. Which of the following is an example of a variable interval

reinforcement schedule?
a) A student receives a reward for answering questions correctly after
every 10 minutes.
b) Checking your email and finding a new message at random times
throughout the day.
c) A factory worker earns payment for completing a fixed number of
products.
d) A rat receives food every 5 minutes regardless of its behavior.

6. A teacher wants to determine the impact of teaching style on quiz

scores. To do this, she divides a class into two groups and teaches
one group using one style and the other group using a second,
different style. She then administers each group the same set of
quizzes and compares results. The independent variable here is
(A) group 1
(B) group 2
(C) teaching style
(D) score on quizzes

7.If a teacher gives a test in two different classes and the scores in the
second class have a larger standard deviation, which of the following
MUST be true?
(A) The scores in both classes have the same mean.
(B) The scores in the first class have a larger mean.
(C) The scores in the second class have a larger mean.
(D) The scores in the first class are closer to the mean.

8. Which of the following would likely NOT be allowed based on

current ethical principles for doing psychological research?
(A) Participants give informed consent and are debriefed.
(B) Participants give informed consent but are deceived before being
debriefed.
(C) Participants do not give informed consent but are debriefed after
the study.
(D) Participants are given full disclosure but are not able to tell the
independent from the dependent variable.

9. Suppose a researcher finds the correlation between two variables

to be -0.98. Which of the following would then be an accurate
statement?
(A) There is a very weak relationship between the variables.
(B) There is a very strong relationship between the variables.
(C) Because the number is negative, there is almost no relationship
between the variables.
(D) Because the number is so close to -1, it is safe to conclude that
one variable causes the other variable.

10. Which of the following is a valid use for inferential statistics?

(A) Establishing the strength of a relationship between variables
(B) Establishing cause and effect between variables
(C) Generalizing about a population
(D) Describing a data set

11. The area of the brain responsible for controlling voluntary

movement is the
(A) hindbrain
(B) temporal lobe
(C) frontal lobe
(D) midbrain

12. Which of the following technologies uses an injected radioactive

dye to reveal brain functioning?
(A) PET
(B) MRI
(C) CT
(D) fMRI

13. Compared to an axon without myelin, a myelinated axon will

(A) cause an action potential to travel more slowly
(B) cause an action potential to travel more quickly
(C) release fewer neurotransmitters with each action potential
(D) be less electrically insulated
14. Which of the following ideas is NOT a part of Charles Darwin's
theory of evolution?
(A) Traits and their variations are inherited from one generation to
the next.
(B) The traits of an organism are completely determined by its genes.
(C) Fitter organisms survive more successfully and produce more
offspring.
(D) Members of a species vary with respect to their traits.

15. Which of the following glands releases hormones with the

primary function of regulating metabolism?
(A) Adrenals
(B) Thyroid
(C) Pituitary
(D) Ovaries

16. Which of the following psychologists conducted split-brain

studies with Roger Sperry?
(A) Thomas Bouchard
(B) Alois Alzheimer
(C) Michael Gazzaniga
(D) Carl Wernicke
17. Little Tommy is having trouble sleeping. Almost immediately after
falling asleep, he wakes up screaming and crying uncontrollably, and
his heart is racing. Tommy is probably suffering from
(A) enuresis
(B) nightmares
(C) cataplexy
(D) night terrors

18. John is so focused on his exam that he fails to notice the ant
crawling on his desk. Not seeing the ant is an example of
(A) a just-noticeable difference
(B) selective attention
(C) the cocktail party effect
(D) inattentional blindness

19. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic tastes?

(A) Salty
(B) Savory
(C) Bitter
(D) Spicy

20. Which of the following explains why we perceive cartoons as

fluidly moving even though they are actually a series of static
images?
(A) Gestalt psychology
(B) Phi- phenomenon
(C) Retinal disparity
(D) Stroboscopic motion

21. Which of the following is an example of a somatic sense?

(A) A teenager spits out milk after realizing it has gone bad.
(B) A baby cries when she sees her mother enter the room.
(C) A man feels himself lose his balance when he misses a step.
(D) A woman smells a burnt odor after cooking a dish for too long.

22. Suppose that Mark is able to detect when a 2-pound weight is

added to the 30-pound dumbbells he lifts, but he cannot detect any
smaller addition. If Mark were instead lifting 60-pound dumbbells,
the smallest weight he would notice being added. would be
(A) 1 pound
(B) 2 pounds
(C) 4 pounds
(D) 10 pounds
23. Artists working on flat surfaces use all of the following
environmental cues in their art to indicate depth except
(A) height in the visual field.
(B) focus
(C) light and shadow
(D) convergence

24. Farah views the neighborhood dog as threatening because she

was bitten by a dog when she younger. This is an example of
(A) top-down processing.
(B) Gestalt psychology
(C) gate-control theory
(D) bottom-up processing

25. According to Skinner, punishment is effective only under very

specific conditions. Which of the following is one of these conditions?
(A) The punishment is mild.
(B) The punishment is delayed.
(C) The punishment is threatened but not given.
(D) The punishment immediately follows the behavior.

26. Classical conditioning is a means of changing

(A) a neutral stimulus into a conditioned stimulus
(B) a conditioned stimulus into a neutral stimulus
(C) an unconditioned stimulus into a conditioned stimulus
(D) a neutral response into a conditioned response

27. Accidental reinforcement is most likely to cause

(A) superstitious behavior
(B) extinction
(C) stimulus generalization
(D) spontaneous recovery

28. The aspect of Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence that is

typically measured by traditional IQ tests is
(A) verbal-linguistic intelligence
(B) creative intelligence
(C) practical intelligence
(D) analytical intelligence

29. Suppose you want to memorize all of the countries of the world
and decide to make up a song to help you. When you do this, you
are using what psychologists call
(A) a mnemonic
(B) state-dependent learning
(C) the self-reference effect
(D) acoustic encoding

30. Individuals who are considered to be mildly intellectually disabled

are capable of reaching the level of a grade 6 education and can
often live independently. The IQ range of an individual with a mild
intellectual disability is
(A) 70 to 85
(B) 25 to 40
(C) 40 to 55
(D) 55 to 70

31. Which of the following is an example of episodic memory?

(A) Recalling how to tie your shoes
(B) Recollecting a time you visited a theme park
(C) Remembering your locker combination
(D) Visualizing the layout of your childhood home

32. Given that IQ tests are based on a normal distribution in which

100 is the average and the standard deviation is 15, approximately
what percentage of IQ scores fall between 70 and 130?
(A) 34
(B) 50
(C) 68
(D) 95
33. The two-word stage of language acquisition is the first time a
child uses which of the following linguistic concepts?
(A) Phonemes
(B) Morphemes
(C) Semantics
(D) Syntax

34. The SAT is designed to predict success in college, which makes

the SAT a(n)
(A) emotional intelligence test
(B) culture-biased test
(C) achievement test
(D) aptitude test

35. A psychologist looking to support a particular hypothesis reads a

number of research papers. He pays attention only to those results
that support his hypothesis and discards the papers that contradict
his ideas. This is most clearly an example of
(A) fixation
(B) confirmation bias
(C) functional fixedness
(D) overconfidence
36. Principal Scott created a math readiness test to give to eighth
graders prior to entering high school. He chose a representative
group of students to give the test to and compared each student's
scares on odd versus even questions. He found a strong positive
correlation between the odd and even scores, which gave him
evidence that the test he made had high
(A) split-half reliability
(B) construct validity
(C) equivalent-form reliability
(D) test-retest reliability

37. The process of culling neuronal connections to improve the

efficiency of brain activity is called
(A) pruning
(B) trimming
(C) filling
(D) scoring

38. Which of the following refers to the reflex that causes infants to
outstretch their arms and legs in response to a loud noise or other
sudden change in the environment?
(A) Rooting reflex
(B) Moro reflex
(C) Grasping reflex
(D) Babinski reflex

39. In Ainsworth's Strange Situation, an infant consistently becomes

distressed when his primary caregiver leaves the room and is not
soothed when his primary caregiver returns. The infant is
demonstrating
(A) anxious-preoccupied attachment
(B) avoidant attachment
(C) ambivalent attachment
(D) disorganized attachment.

40. Ali tells a friend that cheating in his favorite board game is wrong
because the rules clearly state that no cheating is allowed. According
to Kohlberg, Ali most likely reasons at which stage of moral
development?
(A) Pre-conventional
(B) Conventional
(C) Post-conventional
(D) Formal operational
41. Susan spends a few months trying to join a soccer team, then a
few more months hanging out with kids from the art club, before
finally finding a sense of belonging in her school's math club.
According to Erikson, Susan has been facing which of the following
conflicts?
(A) Intimacy vs. isolation
(B) Initiative vs. guilt
(C) Identity vs. role confusion.
(D) Industry vs. inferiority

42. Which of the following presents two of the most common

teratogens?
(A) LSD and marijuana
(B) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
(C) Serotonin and dopamine
(D) Alcohol and tobacco

43. Who proposed the Electra complex?

(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Mary Ainsworth
(C) Albert Bandura
(D) Carl Jung
44. During which stage of prenatal development does the
differentiation of cells begin?
(A) Conception
(B) Germinal stage
(C) Embryonic stage
(D) Fetal stage

45. Which of the following is NOT a change associated with aging?

(A) Decreased muscle mass and increased fat storage
(B) Increased asymmetrical activation of lobes in the brain
(C) Decreased sensory abilities
(D) A shift from focusing on useful information to satisfying
Information

46. Suppose you have three friends: the first is bossy and always
urging you to do random things, the second constantly judges a
good person, and the third tries to you and pesters you to be a good
help mediate between the other two. Your friends are, respectively,
like the Freudian unconscious structures of
(A) id, superego, and ego
(B) id, ego, and superego
(C) ego, superego, and id
(D) superego, id, and ego
47. Which of the following would someone from a collectivist culture
be LEAST likely to value?
(A) Honesty
(B) Family
(C) Generosity
(D) Assertiveness

48. Which of the following would most weaken the James-Lange

theory of emotion?
(A) A patient with a spinal cord injury continues to exhibit the same
level of emotion after her injuries as before.
(B) A teenager reasons that she is sad after she begins to cry.
(C) A patient experiences pain after being pricked by a needle, which
causes a feeling of sadness.
(D)A patient with a spinal cord injury exhibits a diminished level of
emotion after her injuries compared to before.

49. Emily walks through the mall food court and sees a new cafe
offering an Indian food buffet. As she gets closer, she can't help but
notice that the food smells delicious. The smell of the food is referred
to as a(n)
(A) need
(B) drive
(C) instinct
(D) incentive

50. Which of the following provides the best example of eustress?

(A) A soccer player goes through physical therapy after rupturing her
Achilles tendon during a game.
(B) A recent college graduate has trouble adjusting to life on his own.
(C) A marathon runner is confident she will beat her personal record
as she completes her fifth marathon.
(D) A teenager nervously and excitedly researches and purchases her
first car.

51. Each of the following is an example of an objective personality

assessment EXCEPT the
(A) Beck Depressive Inventory
(B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
(C) Thematic Apperception Test
(D) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

52. A person is presented with an image of a young boy looking sadly

at a violin and is asked to tell a story about the boy. This person is
most likely taking
(A) the Rorschach test
(B) the Kersey Temperament Soner
(C) the Thematic Apperception Test
(D) a word association test

53. A study shows that rats display different emotional responses to

identical stimuli depending on their prior states and environments.
This supports which of the following theories of emotion
(A) James-Lange theory
(B) Gate-control theory
(C) Cannon-Bard theory
(D) Schachter-Singer theory

54. A woman who is very frustrated with her boss's behavior spends
her entire commute home yelling at other drivers on the road .
According to the psychoanalytic perspective of personality. Which of
the following defense mechanisms is this woman employing?
(A) Displacement
(B) Projection
(C) Repression
(D) Sublimation

55. Suppose the statement "I find it easy to trust and cooperate with
others" were on an item on an objective personality inventory Which
of the following traits would this item most likely be used to
evaluate?
(A) Openness to experience
(B) Conscientiousness
(C) Extraversion
(D) Agrevableness
(E) Neuroticism

55. "An adult who lives in a city with a high population and few social
ties is more likely in develop impatience and rudeness as personality
traits." Which of the following personality theorists would be most
likely to make this statement?
(A) Karen Horney
(B) Hans and Sybil Eysenck
(C) Carl Jung
(D) B.F. Skinner

56. After learning that her robotics team made it to the final round of
competition, Zaca) jumped up on the table to do a victory dance,
which of the following theoris or concepts could NOT provide a
plausible explanation for her actions?
(A) Incentive theory
(B) Arousal theory
(C) Instinct theory
(D) Hierarchy of needs
57. A young woman decides to leave medical school in order to
pursue her dream of becoming a Hollywood actress. How could her
risk-taking behavior be explained by drive-reduction theory?
(A) Since her low-priority needs are met, she can focus on fulfilling
her needs for esteem and self-actualization.
(B) She was driven to change careers in order to fulfill her mother's
dream of being an actress.
(C) She feels excited when she is performing and she is motivated to
maintain this level of arousal.
(D) She has feelings of anxiety due to her untested potential, which
create an internal tension that she is motivated to relieve despite the
risk.

58. The DSM-5 is used to

(A) establish best practices for treating disorders
(B) provide patients with information about support groups
(C) document case studies of patients with severe disorders
(D) set guidelines for diagnosing psychological disorders

59. Which of the following is NOT a component of evidence-based

practice?
(A) The patient's specific context
(B) The patient's culture
(C) The therapist's clinical expertise
(D) The therapist's favorite therapy
60. Which of the following would NOT justify a breach of
confidentiality?
(A) A depressed patient insists repeatedly throughout the course of a
therapy session that she's going to kill herself
(B) A patient with antisocial personality disorder describes in detail
how he intends to assault a neighbor he dislikes
(C) A clinical psychologist conducts a case study that pioneers a
revolutionary treatment for a patient with a rare disorder
(D) A schizophrenic patient discusses his attempts to construct a
bomb and blow up a municipal building

61. Which of the following contributes the most to the early

termination rates of psychotherapy patients from marginalized
groups?
(A) Multicultural competence
(B) Eurocentric treatments
(C) Psychopharmacology
(D) Unconditional positive regard

62. Ricardo is having trouble moving his hip, but doctors can find
nothing wrong with it. As a track star, Ricardo is preparing for the
biggest race of the year, but his hip problem will probably keep him
from competing. Ricardo most likely suffers from
(A) schizophrenia
(B) conversion disorder
(C) dysthymia
(D) acrophobia

63. Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with bulimia

nervosa?
(A) Vomiting after meals
(B) Excessive use of laxatives
(C) Binge eating
(D) Low body mass index

64. Which of the following conceptions of the causes of abnormal

behavior is neither psychogenic nor somatogenic?
(A) Demonic possession
(B) Humoral imbalance
(C)Unconscious conflict
(D) Physiological disease

65. Which of the following perspectives maintains that psychological

disorders can vary based on time and place and are caused by a
variety of interpersonal factors?
(A) Biological model
(B) Psychoanalytic model
(C) Sociocultural model
(D) Behavioral model

66. What is the gold standard for determining whether a treatment is

evidence-based?
(A) A randomized controlled trial
(B) Multicultural competence
(C) Psychopharmacology
(D) Clinical expertise

67. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the use of

diagnostic labels?
(A) Diagnoses are more consistent between clinicians.
(B) Treatments can be targeted to particular disorders.
(C) A label is a useful lens for understanding all patient behavior
(D) Patients can be empowered by naming their problems.

68. Trait theory is often criticized because it

(A) places too great an emphasis on early childhood experiences
(B) focuses too heavily on the role of reinforcement and punishment
(C) overestimates the consistency of behavior in different situations
(D) underestimates the influence of heredity in personality
development

69. Client-centered therapy differs from psychoanalysis most

substantially in that the client centered therapist
(A) is more controlling
(B) tries to use free association to uncover hidden urges
(C) encourages expression of feelings without judgment from the
therapist
(D) forces regression to earlier ages
70. Visual illusions can be informative because they demonstrate
ways that the human visual system can be fooled. The reason people
typically see illusions is that
(A) the size of the retinal image remains constant
(B) motion parallax tends to make objects appear larger
(C) afterimages distort the true image
(D) people use prior knowledge to interpret sensory information

71. An example of a biological therapy is

(A) token economies
(B) operant conditioning
(C) electroconvulsive therapy
(D) classical conditioning

72. The first laboratory of psychology in India was established in Pune

in which year?
(A) 1915
(B) 1925
(C) 1938
(D) 1947

73. Which theory explains how the brain interprets sensory input to
form a meaningful perception?
(A) Signal detection theory
(B) Gestalt theory
(C) Opponent process theory
(D) Trichromatic theory

74. What is the phenomenon where a stationary point of light in a

dark environment appears to move?
(A) Phi phenomenon
(B) Stroboscopic motion
(C) Autokinetic effect
(D) Depth perception

75. Which Gestalt principle states that we group elements that are
close together?
(A) Similarity
(B) Closure
(C) Proximity
(D) Continuity

Answers
1. b) The body's resources are depleted, and it becomes vulnerable to
illness.
During the exhaustion stage of GAS the body can no longer maintain
its adaptive response. As a result, the individual becomes more
vulnerable to physical illnesses, emotional burnout, and even chronic
conditions like hypertension or depression.

2. a) Hans Selye
The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) model was proposed by
Hans Selye, a pioneering endocrinologist, in 1936.

3. b) Acoustic
Short-term memory primarily relies on acoustic encoding, meaning
information is stored in terms of sound. Even when information is
presented visually, people often rehearse it mentally as sounds, like
repeating words or numbers in their head.

4. b) Phonology
Phonology is the branch of linguistics concerned with the systematic
organization of sounds in spoken languages, whereas
syntax refers to the rules governing the arrangement of words and
phrases to form sentences in a language. Syntax is about sentence
structure and grammar, not individual speech sounds.

5. Answer: b) Checking your email and finding a new message at

random times throughout the day.
In a variable interval schedule, reinforcement occurs after
unpredictable intervals of time. Checking emails fits this pattern
because new messages appear at irregular times, reinforcing the
behavior of checking without a fixed pattern.

6. Answer: C) teaching style

The independent variable is the one manipulated by the researcher.
In this case, the teaching style is varied to observe its effect on quiz
scores.

7. Answer: D) The scores in the first class are closer to the mean.
A smaller standard deviation indicates that the data points (scores)
are more tightly clustered around the mean, whereas a larger
standard deviation shows more variability.

8. C) Participants do not give informed consent but are debriefed

after the study.
Ethical principles require informed consent before participation.
Debriefing cannot replace consent.

9. B) There is a very strong relationship between the variables.

A correlation of -0.98 indicates a strong inverse relationship between
the variables, even though it’s negative.

10. C) Generalizing about a population

Inferential statistics use sample data to make predictions or
generalizations about a population.

11. C) frontal lobe

The motor cortex, located in the frontal lobe, controls voluntary
movements.

12. A) PET
Explanation: Positron Emission Tomography (PET) involves injecting a
radioactive tracer to observe brain activity.

13. B) cause an action potential to travel more quickly

Myelin sheaths increase the speed of action potentials by insulating
axons and enabling saltatory conduction.

14. B) The traits of an organism are completely determined by its

genes.
Darwin acknowledged environmental influences and natural
selection, not purely genetic determinism.

15. B) Thyroid
The thyroid gland releases hormones such as thyroxine, which
regulate metabolism.

16. C) Michael Gazzaniga

Michael Gazzaniga collaborated with Roger Sperry in pioneering
split-brain research.

17. D) night terrors

Night terrors involve sudden arousals from sleep with intense fear
and physical symptoms, typical in children.

18. D) inattentional blindness

Inattentional blindness occurs when one fails to notice stimuli
because attention is focused elsewhere.
19. D) Spicy
Spiciness is not a taste but a sensation caused by irritation of pain
receptors, unlike the basic tastes (salty, sweet, sour, bitter, umami).

20. D) Stroboscopic motion

Stroboscopic motion explains the illusion of movement created by
rapidly displaying static images.

21. C) A man feels himself lose his balance when he misses a step.
Somatic senses involve body position, movement, and balance
(proprioception and vestibular senses).

22. C) 4 pounds
According to Weber’s Law, the ratio of the change in stimulus to the
original stimulus must remain constant. Doubling the weight (60 lbs)
doubles the detectable addition (4 lbs).

23. D) convergence
Convergence involves eye movement to focus on objects and cannot
be depicted in static 2D art.

24. A) top-down processing

Top-down processing relies on prior knowledge and experiences, like
associating dogs with danger due to a past bite.
25. D) The punishment immediately follows the behavior.
Immediate consequences increase the association between the
behavior and the punishment.

26. A) a neutral stimulus into a conditioned stimulus

Classical conditioning transforms a neutral stimulus (e.g., a bell) into
a conditioned stimulus (eliciting a response).

27. A) superstitious behavior

Accidental reinforcement occurs when a behavior is unintentionally
followed by reinforcement, leading to superstitious behaviors.

28. D) analytical intelligence

Analytical intelligence, involving problem-solving and logical
reasoning, is typically measured by IQ tests.

29. A) a mnemonic
Mnemonics are memory aids, such as songs or acronyms, that
enhance recall.

30. D) 55 to 70
This range represents mild intellectual disability, where individuals
can function independently with support.

31. B) Recollecting a time you visited a theme park

Episodic memory involves recalling personal experiences and specific
events.

32. D) 95
In a normal distribution, about 95% of scores fall within two standard
deviations from the mean (70–130).

33. D) Syntax
The two-word stage involves combining words in meaningful ways,
reflecting an understanding of syntax.

34. D) aptitude test

Aptitude tests predict future performance, like success in college,
while achievement tests assess knowledge already learned.

35. B) confirmation bias

Confirmation bias is the tendency to focus on evidence that supports
one’s beliefs while ignoring contradictory information.

36. (A) Split-half reliability

Explanation: Split-half reliability measures the consistency of test

results by dividing the test into two halves (e.g., odd vs. even
questions) and checking the correlation between them. A strong
positive correlation indicates high reliability of the test.

37. (A) Pruning

Explanation: Pruning is a natural process where the brain eliminates
extra synapses (connections between neurons) to make neural
pathways more efficient, especially during childhood and
adolescence.

38. (B) Moro reflex

Explanation: The Moro reflex is an infant’s startle response to

sudden stimuli, where they extend their arms and legs outward and
then bring them back in.

39. (C) Ambivalent attachment

Explanation: Ambivalent attachment is when an infant becomes

extremely distressed when the caregiver leaves and is not soothed
upon their return, reflecting inconsistent caregiver responses.

40. (B) Conventional

Explanation: At the conventional stage, moral reasoning is based on

conforming to societal rules and laws. Ali believes cheating is wrong
because rules prohibit it.

41. (C) Identity vs. Role Confusion

Explanation: This stage occurs in adolescence, where individuals

explore different roles and identities to develop a sense of self.

42. (D) Alcohol and tobacco

Explanation: Alcohol and tobacco are common substances that can
harm fetal development, causing conditions like fetal alcohol
syndrome and low birth weight.

43. (D) Carl Jung

Explanation: Carl Jung proposed the Electra complex, describing a

daughter’s unconscious attraction to her father and competition
with her mother.

44. (C) Embryonic stage

Explanation: The embryonic stage (weeks 2–8) is when cells begin to

differentiate into specific tissues and organs.

45. (B) Increased asymmetrical activation of lobes in the brain

Explanation: Aging does not inherently cause asymmetrical activation.

Common changes include decreased muscle mass, sensory abilities,
and a focus on satisfying information.

46. (A) Id, superego, and ego

Explanation: The id is impulsive (like the bossy friend), the superego

judges morality (like the critical friend), and the ego mediates
between them.

47. (D) Assertiveness

Explanation: Collectivist cultures prioritize group harmony and
interdependence over assertiveness, which emphasizes individual
expression.

48. (A) A patient with a spinal cord injury continues to exhibit the
same level of emotion after her injuries as before.

Explanation: James-Lange theory suggests emotions arise from

physiological changes. If emotions persist without these changes, it
challenges the theory.

49. (D) Incentive

Explanation: An incentive is an external stimulus that motivates

behavior, like the smell of delicious food enticing someone to eat.

50. (C) A marathon runner is confident she will beat her personal
record as she completes her fifth marathon.

Explanation: Eustress is positive stress that motivates and enhances

performance, as seen in the runner’s confidence.

51. (C) Thematic Apperception Test

Explanation: The TAT is a projective test, where responses to

ambiguous images reveal unconscious processes, unlike structured
objective assessments.

52. (C) Thematic Apperception Test

Explanation: In the TAT, individuals create stories based on pictures,
which reveal underlying thoughts and emotions.

53. (D) Schachter-Singer theory

Explanation: This theory posits that emotion arises from physiological

arousal interpreted in context, explaining varying emotions in rats.

54. (A) Displacement

Explanation: Displacement redirects negative emotions from the

original source (boss) to a safer target (drivers).

55. (D) Agreeableness

Explanation: Agreeableness involves traits like trust, kindness, and

cooperation.

56. (C) Instinct theory

Explanation: Instinct theory involves innate behaviors, which don’t

fully explain the learned behavior of celebrating through a victory
dance.

57. (D) She has feelings of anxiety due to her untested potential,
which create an internal tension that she is motivated to relieve
despite the risk.

Explanation: Drive-reduction theory explains actions taken to reduce

internal discomfort.

58. (D) Set guidelines for diagnosing psychological disorders

Explanation: The DSM-5 provides criteria for identifying and
categorizing mental disorders.

59. (D) The therapist’s favorite therapy

Explanation: Evidence-based practice focuses on research, patient

needs, and clinical expertise, not personal preferences.

60. (C) A clinical psychologist conducts a case study that pioneers a

revolutionary treatment for a patient with a rare disorder.

Explanation: Case studies can be published with proper anonymity

and patient consent.

61. (B) Eurocentric treatments

Explanation: Lack of culturally sensitive approaches can alienate

patients from marginalized groups.

62. (B) Conversion disorder

Explanation: Conversion disorder involves neurological symptoms

(e.g., mobility issues) without a medical basis, often linked to stress.

63. (D) Low body mass index

Explanation: Bulimia nervosa typically involves normal or above-

average body weight due to compensatory behaviors.

64. (A) Demonic possession

Explanation: Historically, supernatural explanations like demonic
possession were neither psychogenic (psychological) nor
somatogenic (biological).

65. (C) Sociocultural model

Explanation: This perspective examines how cultural and social factors

influence the development of disorders.

66. (A) A randomized controlled trial

Explanation: RCTs are the most rigorous way to test treatment

effectiveness, ensuring reliability and validity.

67. (C) A label is a useful lens for understanding all patient behavior

Explanation: Labels are tools for diagnosis, but they don’t

encompass all aspects of a person’s behavior or identity.

68. (C) Overestimates the consistency of behavior in different

situations

Explanation: Trait theory assumes stable traits, often neglecting

situational influences on behavior.

69. (C) Encourages expression of feelings without judgment from the

therapist

Explanation: Client-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers,

emphasizes unconditional positive regard and empathy.

70. (D) People use prior knowledge to interpret sensory information

Explanation: Visual illusions occur because our brain uses prior
experiences to fill gaps or make sense of ambiguous stimuli.

71. (C) Electroconvulsive therapy

Explanation: Biological therapies like ECT involve physical

interventions to treat mental disorders.

72. (C) 1938

Explanation: The first psychology lab in India was established at the

University of Pune in 1938.

73. (B) Gestalt theory

Explanation: Gestalt theory emphasizes holistic perception, where the

brain organizes sensory input into meaningful patterns.

74. (C) Autokinetic effect

Explanation: In a dark environment, a stationary light appears to

move because of the lack of reference points.

75. (C) Proximity

Explanation: The proximity principle states that we perceive elements

close together as part of the same group.