NEET

SAMPLE PAPER

Max. Marks: 180 Duration: 3 Hrs

This paper consists of Chemistry, Physics and Biology

Chemistry
• Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 1 to 45. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks.
Physics
• Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 46 to 90. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks.
Biology
• Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 91 to 180. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks.

Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207
Physical constants:
h = 6.62610−34J.sec , Na = 6.0221023mol-1 , C = 2.998108ms-1 , m e = 9.110−31kg

Chemistry

1. Which alkene will give meso form with Br2 ?

H3C CH3 H3C H

(a) (b)

H H H CH3

H5C6 H
H5C6 COOH
(c) (d)
H COOH
H H

2. Tautomerism is exhibited by

1
 (a) (b) O O
CH = CH - OH

CH3
O
O
OH
(c) (d) HO
H CH3

3. An alkene on reductive ozonolysis gives 2 molecules of CH2 (CHO)2 . The compound is

(a) 2,4-Hexadiene (b) 1,3-Cyclohexadiene

(c) 1,4-Cyclohexadiene (d) 1-Methyl-1,3-cyclopentadiene

4. Which of the following reagents can distinguish between ethylene and ethane?
(a) Dilute KMnO4 solution (b) Ammoniacal AgNO3 solution

(c) Ammoniacal CuCl Solution (d) Fehling’s solution

5. The major product obtained on the monobromination (with Br2 / FeBr3 ) of the following
OCH3
compound ‘A’ is

OCH3 'A' CH3 OCH3

Br

(a) (b)

CH3 CH3
Br
OCH3
OCH3
Br
(c) (d)

Br CH3
CH3

- +
6. In the following reaction Br + HC the halide substrate is
CNa
transformed into
(a) (b) CH2
C CH

2
 (c) (d) C C CH3

7. Which of the following undergoes esterification with acetic acid at the faster rate?
(a) (CH3 )3 COH (b) C2H5OH

(c) (CH3 )2 CHOH (d) CH3OH

8. p − Cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give the compound (A) which adds
hydrogen cyanide to form, the compound (B). The latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral
carboxylic acid. The structure of carboxylic acid is

CH3 CH3
CH(OH)COOH

(a) (b)

CH(OH)COOH
OH OH

CH3 CH3
CH2COOH

(c) (d)

CH2COOH
OH OH

9. The molecular radius of O2 is 3.6110−10 m. Calculate the excluded volume per mol of O 2.

(a) 0.24dm3 (b) 0.48dm3 (c) 0.024dm3 (d) 0.048dm3

10. The de Boglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10m / sec is

approximately (h = 6.6310−34 J sec)

(a) 10−33 m (b) 10−31 m (c) 10−16 m (d) 10−25 m

11. Which of the following pairs have identical values of bond order?
−
(a) N and O 2− (b) NO+ and N (c) CN− and O (d) CO and O
2 2 2 2 2

12. The enthalpy of combustion of cyclohexane, cyclohexene and H 2 are respectively -3920, -3800 and

-241 kJ mol−1 . The heat of hydrogenation cyclohexene is

(a) −121kJ mol−1 (b) +21kJ mol−1 (c) −242 kJ mol−1 (d) +242 kJ mol−1

13. If a molecule PQ undergoes dimerization in benzene, its Van’t Hoff factor is found to be 0.60. The
degree of association of PQ is
(a) 20% (b) 60% (c) 80% (d) 50%

3
14. Which one of the following is NOT a buffer solution?
(a) 0.8M H S + 0.8M KHS (b) 2 M C H NH + 2 M C H +
2 6 5 2 6 5 − N H3Br −

(c) 3M H2CO3 + 3M KHCO3 (d) 0.05M KCIO4 + 0.05M HCIO4

15. The pKa of HCN is 9.30. The pH of a solution prepared by mixing 2.5 moles of KCN and 2.5 moles

of HCN in water and making upto total volume to 500 mL is

(a) 9.30 (b) 7.30 (c) 10.30 (d) 8.30

16. The specific conductance of a saturated AgCl solution is found to be 1.8610−6 S cm−1 and that for

(
water is 6.010−8 Scm−1. The solubility of AgCl is  0 = 137.2 S equi v−1 cm2 )
(a) 1.710−3 mol L−1 (b) 1.310−5 mol L−1 (c) 1.310−4 mol L−1 (d) 1.310−6 mol L−1

17. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as, k = Ae−E/RT . In this reaction, E
represents
(a) The energy above which all the colliding molecules will react
(b) The energy below which colliding molecules will not react
(c) The total energy of the reacting molecules at a temperature T
(d) The fraction of molecules with energy greater that the activating energy of the reaction

18. Which of the following mixtures is called copper matte?

(a) CuO + Cu2S (b) PbS + PbSO4 (c) Cu2S + FeO (d) Cu2S + FeS
19. A metal X on heating in nitrogen gas gives Y.Y on treatment with H2O gives a colourless gas

which when passed through CuSO4 solution gives a blue colour. Y is

(a) Mg (NO3 )2 (b) Mg3 N2 (c) NH3 (d) MgO

20. In which of the following compound transition metal has zero oxidation state?
(a) CrO (b) Ni (NH .NH (c) Co(CIO ) (d) Fe(CO) 
)
2+
5  2 2 2 4 2  5

21. Which is a planar molecule?

(a) XeO4 (b) XeF4 (c) XeOF4 (d) XeO2 F2
22. Which among the following is paramagnetic ?
(a) Cl2O (b) ClO2 (c) Cl2O7 (d) Cl2O6
23. What is the shape of Fe(CO) 5 molecule?

(a) Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral

(c) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) Square pyramidal
24. Cupellation is a process used for the refining of
(a) Silver (b) Lead (c) Copper (d) Iron
25. In the reaction (CH )3 CCHO
3 + HCHO ⎯N⎯aO⎯H,H⎯eat→ A+ B the products (A) and (b) are, respectively.
(a) (CH 3 ) CCH2OH and HCOONa (b) (CH 3 ) CCOONa and CH3OH
3 3

4
 (c) (CH 3 ) CCH2OH and CH3OH (d) (CH 3 ) COONa and HCOONa
3 3

26. G and H for a reaction at 300 K is -66.9 kJ mol−1 and -41.8 kJ mol−1 respectively. G for the
same reaction at 330 K is
(a) -25.1 kJ mol−1 (b) +25.1 kJ mol−1 (c) 18.7 kJ mol−1 (d) -69.4 kJ mol−1

27. Which of the following is not a bidentate ligand?

(a) Oxalate (b) Diethylene triamine
(c) DMG (d) 1, 10-Phenanthroline
28. 3.92 g of ferrous ammonium sulphate (Mohr’s salt) is dissolved in 100 mL of water. 20 mL of this
solution requires 18 mL of acidified potassium permanganate during titration for complete
oxidation. The weight of KMnO4 present in one litre of the solution is

(a) 34.76 g (b) 12.38 g (c) 1.238 g (d) 3.476 g

29. Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule at 298 K. The average kinetic energy
of helium is :
(a) four times that of hydrogen molecules (b) Half that of hydrogen molecule
(c) Two times that of hydrogen molecules (d) Same as that of hydrogen molecules
30. In the equation of state of an ideal gas PV = nRT , the value of the universal gas constant would
depend only on
(a) the nature of the gas (b) the pressure of the gas
(c) the units of the measurement (d) the volume of the gas

( )
31. The solubility product Ksp of silver chloride is 1.810−10 at 298 K. The solubility of AgCl in

0.01 M HCl solution in mol L−1 is

(a) 2.410−9 (b) 3.610−8 (c) 0.910−10 (d) 1.810−8

32. In a face centred cubic arrangement of A and B atoms whose A atoms are at the corners of the unit
cell and B atoms at the face centres. One of the A atom is missing from one corner in unit cell. The
simplest formula of compound is
(a) A7B3 (b) A7B24 (c) AB3 (d) A7B4

33. The dissociation energy of CH4 and C2H6 are respectively 360 and 620 k cal/mol. The bond

energy of C – C is
(a) 260 k cal/mol (b) 180 kcal/mole (c) 360 kcal/mole (d) 80 kcal/mol
34. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Work is a state function
(b) temperature is a state function
(c) change of state is completely defined when initial and final states are specified.
(d) Work is path function.
35. Sulphur has highest oxidation state in

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 (a) SO2 (b) H2SO4 (c) Na2S2O3 (d) H2S

36. Equivalent masses of MnO4−1 in acidic, strong basic and neutral media are in the ratio of

(a) 1 : 3 : 5 (b) 3 : 15 : 5 (c) 3 : 5 : 3 (d) 3 : 2 : 5

37. A buffer solution has equal volumes of 0.2 M NH4OH and 0.02 M NH4Cl . The pKb of the base

is 5. The pH is
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) 4
38. Aluminium displaces hydrogen in dil. HCl whereas silver does not. The emf of a cell prepared by

combining Al / Al3+ and Ag / Ag+ is 2.46 V. The reduction potential of silver electrode is 0.80 V.
The reduction potential of aluminium electrode is
(a) + 1.66 V (b) -3.26 V (c) 3.26 V (d) -1.66 V
39. Smallest among these species is
(a) Hydrogen atom (b) Helium atom (c) Lithium atom (d) sodium ion
40. Froth floatation process is used for the metallurgy of
(a) Chloride ores (b) Amalgams (c) Oxide ores (d) Sulphide Ores
41. PbCl4 exists while PbBr4 and PbI4 do not because of

(a) Inability of bromine and iodine to oxidize Pb2+ to Pb4+

(b) Br− and I − ions are smaller in size

(c) More electronegative nature of bromine and iodine
(d) Chlorine is a gas
42. The H − O − H bond angle in water is
(a) 104.5 (b) 180 (c) 90 (d) 109.5

43. When N2 changes to N2+, the N − N bond length …… and when O2 changes to O2+, O − O bond

length ……………
(a) Increases, decreases (b) Decreases, increases
(c) Increases in both cases (d) Decreases in both cases
44. Mond’s process is used
(a) To extract Ag using NaCN
(b) To extract Ag from argentiferous lead by adding zinc
(c) To extract Cu by forming amalgam
(d) To extract Ni using carbonyls
45. What happens when a solution of sodium chromate is treated with sulphuric acid?
(a) CrO2− is reduced to + 3 state of Cr (b) CrO2− is oxidized to + 7 state of Cr
4 4

(c) Cr 3+
and Cr O 2−
are formed (d) Cr O2− and H2O are formed
2 7 2 7

6
 Physics
 a 
46. The equation P + (V − b) = constant. The units of a are
 2
 V 
(b) Dyne cm4
(a) Dyne cm5 (c) Dyne cm3 (d) Dyne cm2

47. The resultant C of A and B is perpendicular to A. Also, A = C . The angle between A and B is

 3 5 7
(a) radian (b) radian (c) radian (d) radian
4 4 4 4
48. A person holds a bucket of weight 60N. He walks 7m along the horizontal path and then climbs
up a vertical distance of 5m. The work done by the man is
(a) 300J (b) 420J (c) 720J (d) none of these
49. Two bodies A and B initially at rest are attracted towards each other due to gravitation. Given
that A is much heavier than B which of the following correctly describes the relative motion of the
centre of mass of the bodies?
(a) it moves towards A
(b) it moves towards B
(c) it moves perpendicular to the line joining the particles
(d) it remains at rest
50. The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of length L about an axis passing through its centre of
mass and perpendicular to its length is
L L2 L L
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12 2 3 2
51. Force of gravitational attraction is least
(a) at the equator (b) at the poles
(c) at a point in between equator and poles (d) none of these
52. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the earth’s surface is v. For
a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the earth’s radius, the orbital velocity is

(a) (3 / 2)v (b) (3 / 2)v (c) (2 / 3) v (d) (2 / 3) v

53. The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from the sun are r1 and r2 . Its distance from the

sun when it is at the perpendicular to the major axis of the orbit drawn from the sun

(a) (r1 + r2 ) /4 (b) (r1 + r2 ) / (r1 + r2 ) (c) (2r1 r2 ) / (r1 + r2 ) (d) (r1 + r2 ) /3

54. 10gm of ice at −20 C is dropped into a calorimeter containing 10gm of water at 10 C; the specific

heat of water is twice that of ice. When equilibrium is reached, the calorimeter will contain:
(a) 20gm of water (b) 20gm of ice

(c) 10gm ice and 10gm of water (d) 5gm ice and 15gm of water

7
55. In the following figures (1) to (4), variation of volume by
change of pressure is shown. A gas in taken along the path
ABCDA. The change in internal energy of the gas will be

(a) Positive in all cases from (1) to 4

(b) Positive in cases (1),(2) and (3) but zero in case (4)
(c) Negative in case (1),(2) and (3) but zero in case (4)
(d) zero in all the four cases

56. If a given mass of gas occupies a volume of 100cm3 at one atmospheric pressure and temperature

of 100 C, what will be its volume at 4 atmospheric pressure, the temperature being the same?

(a) 10cm3 (b) 400cm3 (c) 25cm3 (d) 104cm3

57. A flask is filled with 4g of a gas at 12 C and then heated to 50 C. Owing to the escape of the gas,
the pressure in the flask is the same at the beginning as well as at the end of the experiment. Then
the mass of the gas that has escapes is nearly
(a) 4g (b) 3.53g (c) 0.47g (d) 3.06g

58. A simple harmonic wave having amplitude A and time period T is represented by the equation

y = 5sin (t + 4)m. The values of A (in m) and T (in s) are

(a) A = 5,T = 2 (b) A =10,T = 1 (c) A = 5,T = 1 (d) A = 10,T = 2

59. Five capacitors each of capacitance10F are connected to a

dc potential of 100V as shown in the figure. The equivalent

A B
capacitance between the points A and B will be equal to • •

(a) 40F (b) 20F

(c) 30F (d) 10F

60. A battery of internal resistance 4 is connected to the network

of resistances as shown. In order that the maximum power can
be delivered to the network, the value of R in  should be

4 8
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) 18
9 3
61. A current-carrying coil is subjected to uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its plane
becomes

(a) Inclined at 45 to the magnetic field

(b) Inclined at any arbitrary angle to the field

8
 (c) Parallel to the magnetic field
(d) Perpendicular to the magnetic field

62. A proton, a deuteron and an  − particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular
trajectories in a constant magnetic field. If rp , rd and r denote respectively the radii of the

trajectories of these particles then

(a) r = rp  rd (b) r  rd  rp (c) r = rd  rp (d) rp = rd = r

1
63. Two convex lenses of powers 4D and 6D are separated by a distance of m. The power of the
6
optical system so formed is
(a) −6D (b) +6D (c) 10D (d) 2D
64. The image formed by convex mirror of focal length 30cm is a quarter of the size of the object. Then
the distance of the object from the mirror is
(a) 30cm (b) 90cm (c) 120cm (d) 60cm
65. What is the ratio of the wavelength of a photon and that of an electron of the same energy?
2m 2m m
(a) C (b) (c) (d) mE
E E E

66. In hydrogen atom, the transition takes place from n = 3 to n = 2. If Rydberg’s constant is 1.09107
per metre, the wavelength of the limit emitted is
o o o o
(a) 6606A (b) 4861A (c) 4340A (d) 4101A

67. The ratio of the surface areas of the nuclei (assuming spherical shape) Zn64 and Al27 is
(a) 9 :16 (b) 16 : 9 (c) 64 : 27 (d) 4 : 3
68. A transistor oscillator unit consists of a tuned circuit containing an inductance of 5mH and a
capacitance of 5pF . The frequency of the oscillator is

(a) 100kHz (b) 1GHz (c) 10MHz (d) 1MHz

2
1 e
69. The dimensions are ( e → charge, 0 → permittivity of free space, h → plank’s constant
0 hc

c → speed of the light)

(a) M −1L−3T 4 A2 (b) ML3T −4 A−2 (c) M 0L0T 0 A0 (d) M −1L−3T 2 A
70. A block of mass M is placed on the top of a bigger block of M
mass 10 M as shown in figure. All the surfaces are

frictionless. If the system is released from rest, then the

distance moved by the bigger block at the instant the smaller 10 M
block reaches the ground is
(a) 0.2m (b) 2m 2.2 m

(c) 2.2 m (d) 1.1m

9
71. A man running on a horizontal road at 8km h finds the rain falling vertically. He increases his

speed to 12km h and finds that the drops make angle 30 with the vertical. The speed of the rain

with respect to the road is

3
(a) 4 7 km / h (b) 4 2 km / h (c) 4 km / h (d) km / h
2

72. A cubical block of side a is moving with velocity v on a

horizontal smooth plane as shown in the figure. It hits a
ridge at point O. The angular speed of the block after it hits
O is

(a) 3v / (4a) (b) 3v / (2a)

(c) 3v / 2 a (d) Zero

73. A tube has two area of cross-sections as shown in

figure. The diameters of the tube are 8 mm and 2 mm . 8 mm 2 mm

Find range of water falling on horizontal surface, if

piston is moving with a constant velocity of 0.25 m s ,
h

(
h = 1.25 m g = 10 m s 2
).
(a) 1.25m (b) 2m
(c) 5m (d) 8m
74. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centres are
initially 8 cm apart are moving towards each other as shown in the
figure. The speed of each pulse is 2 cm/s. After 2 second, the total
energy of the pulses will be
(a) zero 8 cm
(b) purely kinetic
(c) purely potential
(d) partly kinetic and partly potential
75. A tuning fork vibrating with a frequency of 512Hz is kept close
to the open end of a tube filled with water (fig.) The water level
in the tube is gradually lowered. When the water level is 17 cm
below the open end, maximum intensity of sound (first
resonance) is heard. If the water in the tube is replaced with
mercury, then
(a) the first resonance will be observed at more than 17cm length of air column
(b) the first resonance will be observed at less than 17cm length of air column

10
 (c) the intensity of sound heard is more
(d) the intensity of sound heard is less
76. A body starts from rest from a point distance R0 from the center of the earth. The velocity acquired

by the body when it reaches the surface of the earth will be (R represents radius of the earth).
1 1   1 1 1 1 
(a) 2GM − (b) 2GM − (c) GM − (d) 2GM  1 − 1 
       
R R R R R R R R
 0   0   0   0 

77. The length of a metal is 1 when the tension in it is T1 and is 2 when the tension is T2. The original

length of the wire is

+ 1T2 + 1T2 −
(a) 1 2
(b) T
2 1 (c) 2 1 T (d) TT
2 T +T T −T 1 2 1 2
1 2 2 1

78. The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of radii r1 and
r2 are kept at temperatures T1 and T2 respectively. The radial rate of
flow of heat in a substance between the two concentric sphere is
proportional to

(a) In
 r2  (r2 − r1 )
  (b)
 r1  (r1r2 )
r1r2
(c) (r2 − r1 ) (d)
(r2 − r1 )
3
79. The ratio of molecular mass of two radioactive substances is and the ratio of their decay
2
4
constants is . Then the ratio of their activity per mole will be
3
8 4 9
(a) 2 (b) (c) (d)
9 3 8

80. In the circuit shown, which of the following statements

is true if V1 (potential across C1 ) is 30 V and V2 (potential

across C2 ) is 20 V.

(a) With S1 closed, V1 =15 V, V2 = 25 V

(b) With S3 closed, V1 = V2 =25 V

(c) With S1 S2 closed, V1 = V2 = 0

(d) With S1 and S3 closed, V1 = 30 V, V2 = 20 V

81. A battery of internal resistance 4 is

connected to the network of resistances as
shown. In order that the maximum power

11
 can be delivered to the network, the value of R in  should be
8
4 (b) 2 (c)
(a) 3 (d) 18
9
82. Two circular coils X and Y having equal number of
turns and carry equal currents in the same sense and
subtend same solid angle at point O. If the smaller
coil X is midway between O and Y, then if we
O
represent the magnetic induction due to bigger coil Y
at O as BY and due to smaller coil X at O as BX then
BY BY
(a) =1 (b) =2
BX BX

BY 1 BY 1
(c) = (d) =
BX 2 BX 4

83. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B, a wire in the form of a semicircle of radius r rotates
about the diameter of the circle with an angular frequency . The axis of rotation is perpendicular
to the field. If the total resistance of the circuit is R, the mean power generated per period of
rotation is

(a)
(Br )
2

(b)
(Br  ) 2
2

(c)
Br2
(d)
(Br ) 2 2

2R 2R 2R 2R

84. An alternating voltage is given by

e = e1 sint + e2 cost

Then the root mean square value of voltage is given by

e2 + e22 e2 + e22
(a) e1 + e2
2 2
(b) e1e2 (c) 1
(d) 1
2 2

85. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because

(a) there is a minimum frequency of light above which no photoelectrons are emitted
(b) the maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons depends only on the frequency of light and
not on its intensity
(c) even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photoelectrons leave the surface
immediately
(d) electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantized

86. Energy levels, A, B, C of a certain atom correspondence to increasing values of energy

i.e.EA  EB  EC . If 1,2,3 are the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the transitions C to

B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of the following relations is correct?

12
 (a)  =  +  (b)  = 12 (c)  +  +  = 0 (d) 3 = 2 + 2
1 + 2
3 1 2 3 1 2 3 3 1 2

87. The radius of curvature of a thin plano-convex lens is 10 cm (of curved surface) and the refractive
index is 1.5. If the plane surface is silvered, then it behaves like a concave mirror of focal length
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 5 cm
88. A beam of unpolarised light passes through a tourmaline crystals A and then through another
such crystal B oriented so that the principal plane is parallel to A. The intensity of emergent light
is I0 . Now B is rotated by 450 about the ray. The emergent light will have intensity

(a) I0 /2 (b) I0 / 2 (c) I0 2 (d) 2I0

89. A small mass of 10 gm lies in a hemispherical bowl of radius 0.5

m at a height of 0.2 m from the bottom of the bowl. The mass
will be in equilibrium if the bowl rotates at an angular speed of

(g = 10m / sec2 )
(a) 10 / 3 rad/sec (b) 10 / 3 rad/sec

(c) 10 rad/sec (d) 20 rad/sec

90. An electric dipole is placed along the x-axis at the origin O. A point P is at a distance of 20 cm from
this origin such that OP makes an angle  /3 with the x-axis. If the electric field at P makes an
angle  with the x-axis, the value of  would be
   3 2  3
(a) (b) + tan−1 (c) (d) tan−1
3 3  2  3  2 
   

Biology

91. The technique of PCR was invented by

(a) Kary Mullis (b) Cohen (c) Boyer (d) Sanger
92. DNA fingerprinting was invented by Sir Alec Jeffreys. It is also known as
(a) DNA typing (b) DNA profiling
(c) Genetic fingerprinting (d) All of these
93. Christian Hansen (1874) purified ‘rennet’ enzyme from
(a) Calf stomach for large scale industrial use (b) E. coli
(c) Lactobacillus (d) Saccharomyes
94. Lenticels help in gaseous exchange and lenticular transpiration. Lenticles are the characteristics of
(a) herb stem (b) shrub stem
(c) woody stem (d) none of the above
95. Anomalous secondary growth is found in
(a) Yucca (b) Dracaena (c) Aloe (d) All of these

13
96. Maximum absorption of water takes place in
(a) zone of root cap (b) zone of elongation
(c) zone of root hairs (d) zone of cell division
97. The most accepted theory of ascent of sap is
(a) Pulsatory force theory proposed by J C Bose
(b) Capillary force theory proposed by Boehm
(c) Transcription pull theory proposed by Dixon and Jolly
(d) Imbibitional force theory proposed by Sachss
98. In 1971, T O Diener discovered a new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses and known as
viroid. Which of the following disease is caused by viroids?
(a) Bunchy top of banana (b) Witches broom
(c) Potato spindle tuber disease (d) None of these
99. Which of the following micro-organism is the smallest living cell without cell wall?
(a) Virus (b) Archaebacteria (c) Mycoplasma (d) Eubacteria
100. What is common among diatoms, desmids, dinoflagellates, euglena, Trypanosoma, Plasmodium

and slime moulds?

(a) All are prokaryotic in nature
(b) All have non-historic protein and lack histone protein
(c) All are in single celled, eukaryotes which comes under kingdom-protista
(d) All are multicellular eukaryotes which comes under kingdom-Fungi
101. Slime moulds are

(a) Parasitic protists which form Plasmodium

(b) Saprophytic protists which under suitable conditions form Plasmodium
(c) Parasitic monerans which form sores
(d) Saprophytic monerans which are dispersed by air currents
102. Which of the following is not correct about slime moulds?

(a) Under suitable conditions, they form Plasmodium

(b) Under unfavourable conditions Plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies
bearing spores at their tips
(c) The spores of slime moulds lack true cell wall
(d) The spores are dispersed by air currents
103. Which of the following step is not involved in sexual life-cycle of fungus?

(a) Fusion of male and female gametes resulted in prothallus

(b) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
(c) Fusion of two nuclei is called karyogamy
(d) Meiosis in zygote results in haploid spores.
104. Which of the following group represents the members of same class?

14
 (a) Mucor, Rhizopus, Penicillium (b) Yeast, Albugo, Pencillium
(c) Aspergillus, Claviceps, Neurospora (d) Agaricus, Colletotrichum, Ustilago
105. Which of the following is not correct about Deuteromycetes?

(a) Alternaira, Puccinia, Collectotrichum and Trichoderma are members of Deuteromycetes

(b) Deuteromycetes are known as imperfect fungi because only the asexual or vegetative
phases of these fungi are known
(c) Deuteromycetes reproduce only by asexual spores known as conidia
(d) Many members of Deuteromycetes are transferred to Ascomycetes or Basidiomycetes
106. Which of the following is not correct about algae?

(a) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are edible algae

(b) Agar-agar, which is used to grow microbes in culture media, is obtained from Gelidium and
Gracilaria
(c) Algin is obtained from red algae while careagreen from brown algae
(d) Chlorella and Spirullina are unicellular algae, rich in protein
107. Which of the following group represents all members of Phaeophyceae?

(a) Chara, Spirogyra and Fucus (b) Ectocarpus, Laminaria and Sargassum
(c) Dictyota, Polysiphonia and Porphyra (d) Gracilaria, Gelidium and Volvox
108. The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is

(a) Sporophyte (b) gametophyte (c) Triploid (d) diploid

109. A moss which provides peat that is used as fuel and useful for packing material for plants, is

(a) Funaria (b) Sphagnum (c) Riccia (d) Marchantia

110. In the diagram below the stele region of dicot and monocot root are given ,Identify the correct

difference between the two ‘a’ and ‘b ’in the choices given

(a) Presence of pith in ‘b’ and absence in ‘a’; tetrarch xylem in ‘a’ and polyarch xylem in ‘b’
(b) Absence of pith in ‘a’ and presence of pith in ‘b’; tetrarch xylem in ‘a’ and polyarch in ‘b’

15
 (c) Absence of pith in ‘b’ and presence of pith in ‘a’ ; polyarch xylem in ‘a’ and tetrarch xylem
in ‘b’
(d) Presence of pith in ‘a’ and absence of pith in ‘b’ ; triarch xylem in ‘a’ and polyarch in ‘b’
111. In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small, multicellular free living,

photosynthetic, thalloid gametophyte called

(a) Protonema (b) Prothallus (c) Archaegonia (d) Ovule
112. The female gametophyte of angiospermic plants is called

(a) Embryo (b) Embryo sac (c) Egg apparatus (d) Synergids

113. In angiosperms each embryosac has a three-celled egg apparatus which contains

(a) One egg cell (b) two synergids

(c) Three antipodals and two polar bodies (d) All of these
114. The largest percentage of molecules that make up the cell membrane are

(a) Carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and proteins (b) Carbohydrates, water and nucleic acids
(c) Phospholipids, cholesterol and proteins (d) Nucleic acids, amino acids and fatty acids
115. In the fluid mosaic model, the double layer (bilayer) of molecules found in the cell membrane is

made up of
(a) Cholesterol (b) Phospholipids (c) Carbohydrates (d) Nucleic acids
116. A group of cells with similar structure and function, together with the extracellular substances

located between them, form a/an

(a) Organism (b) Organelle (c) Tissue (d) Organ
117. The basic living unit of all plants and animals is the

(a) Cell (b) Chemical (c) Organ (d) Organelle

118. In the vast marine ecosystem, certain sea develop red colouration. This red colour is due to the

presence of large population of which one of the following organisms?

(a) certain members of rhodophyta (b) physarium
(c) dinoflagellates (d) diatoms and members of red algae.
119. Food chain is the

(a) large number of human being forming a human chain

(b) series of different food items
(c) transfer of food and energy from green plants to other organisms
(d) large number of animals near a source of food
120. Keystone species deserve protection because these

(a) are capable of surviving in harsh environmental conditions

(b) indicate presence of certain minerals in the soil
(c) have become rare due to overexploitation
(d) play an important role in supporting other species

16
121. Refer the given figure on photoperiodism and select the correct option
(a) A: no correlation between light period and
flowering
B: long light exposure period
C: short light exposure period
(b) A: long light exposure period
B: no correlation between light period and
flowering
C: short light exposure period
(c) A: short light exposure period
B: long light exposure period
C: no correlation between light period and flowering
(d) A: no correlation between light period and flowering
B: short light exposure period
C: long light exposure period

122. If the DNA codons are CAT CAT CAT and a guanine base is added at the beginning, which of the

following would result?

(a) CAT CAT CAT G (b) A frameshift mutation
(c) GCA TCA TCAT (d) Both (b) and (c)
123. The following DNA sequence occurs at the start of a DNA strand. Which of the sequence below

would most likely bind to this sequence to initiate DNA replication?

3’AATTGCAGATTCA 5’
(a) 3’ UUAACGUCUAAGU 5’ (b) 5’ UUAACGUCUAAGU 3’
(c) 3’ TTAACGTCTAAGT 5’ (d) 5’ TTAACGTCTAAGT 3’
124. Which of the following enzymes is correctly matched to its function?

(a) Helicases―stabilize single-stranded DNA

(b) Topoisomerases―break bonds between nucleotides
(c) DNA polymerase-III―adds nucleotides to the lagging strand
(d) DNA polymerase-I―closes gaps between Okazaki fragments

125. Why is ATP such a good energy currency molecule?

(a) It is very stable.

(b) Its negatively charged phosphate, groups repel one another
(c) It has three phosphate that repel one another, forming an unstable molecule
(d) It has double covalent bonds, which store twice as much energy

17
126. Which of the following factors is not involved in determining whether light is absorbed by a

molecule?
(a) The chemical structure of the molecule
(b) The wavelengths of the light
(c) The intensity of the light
(d) The potential energy levels of electron shells in the molecule
127. What is the evidence for the photosystem?

(a) Chlorophyll absorbs light of two different wavelengths: blue and red
(b) The combination of light at 680 and 700 nm is such more effective at stimulating
photosynthesis than either of the wavelength alone
(c) Microscopy reveals two colours of chloroplast within the same leaf cells
(d) Two different high-energy molecules are produced during the light-dependent reactions of
photosynthesis: ATP and NADPH
128. Binomial system of nomenclature uses two words for a name denoting

(a) family and genus (b) genus and species

(c) order and family (d) class and order
129. Which of the following are the two growth forms that fungi have?

(a) Mycelia and chytrids (b) Chytrids and Zygomycota

(c) Yeasts and mycelia (d) Hyphae and mycelia
130. Which of the following is a phyllode?

(a) Eichhornia (b) Parkinsonia (c) Passiflora (d) Opuntia

131. The G2 phase of the cell cycle is characterised by the presence of

(a)Normal diploid chromosome

(b) Single chromatid
(c) Abundant RNA without any difference in the amount of DNA from the S-phase
(d) Double the amount of DNA than present in S-Phase
132. Identify what is true about anaphase II

(a) It is the second meiotic division (b) Sister chromatids separate

(c) Homologous chromosomes separate (d) Division of centromere occurs
133. During meiosis crossing over occurs

(a) Between non-homologous chromosomes (b) Between sister chromatids

(c) Between non-sister chromatids (d) none of these
134. Colchicine interferes with cell division by

(a) Non-spindle formation (b) Replication of DNA

(c) Non-pairing of chromosome (d) Splitting of sister chromatids
135. The DNA that is transcribes to mRNA is

(a) Antisense strand (b) Sense strand

18
 (c) Both sense and antisense strand (d) Parts of antisense and sense strand
136. Which of the following is correct statement with respect to examples :

(a) Oligochaeta – Leech (b) Insecta – Spider

(c) Cephalopoda – Tusk shell (d) Crustacea – Prawn
137. Which of the following is wrongly matched :

(a) Mysoin – contractile protein (b) Tendon – Connective tissue

(c) Troponin – Fibrous protein (d) smooth muscle – Involuntary muscle
138. Phallic gland of cockroach mainly helps in :

(a) Spermatophore wall formation (b) Forms Follicles

(c) Provides Nutrition (d) Act as External genitalia
139. In the mouth parts of cockroach the galea and lacinia form parts of the :

(a) Mandible (b) Maxilla (c) Labium (d) Labrum

140. Phallomere word is related to to cockroach
(a) Developing ova (b) Bundle of sperms
(c) The external genitalia (d) Opening of ejaculatory duct
141. HCl is secreted by gastric glands present in :

(a) Cardiac part of stomach (b) Fundic part of stomach

(c) Pyloric part of stomach (d) All of these
142. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Vitamin B6 – Loss of appetite (b) Vitamin B1 – Beriberi

(c) Vitamin B2 - Pellagra (d) Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anaemia
143. The Purplish red pigment contained in the rods type of Photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a

derivative of :
(a) Vitamin – A (b) Vitamin B1 (c) Vitamin-C (d) Vitamin-D
144. In silicosis the silica particles accumulate in lung alveoli and the particles are ingested by

macrophages. Find the add one :

(a) When macrophages die inflammatory reaction is caused
(b) Fibrosis develops
(c) Tumour is formed
(d) There is right sided heart failure
145. The urge to inhale in humans result from :

(a) Rising PCO2 (b) Rising PO2 (c) Falling PCO2 (d) Falling PO2
146. Read the following statements and select the correct one :

(a) The H+ released from carbonic acid combines with Hb to form haemoglobinic acid
(b) Oxyhaemoglobin of erythrocytes is alkaline
(c) More than 70% of CO2 is transferred from tissues to lungs in the form of carbamino
compounds

19
 (d) In lungs, the O2 from alveolus reaches the blood through active transport
147. The opening of post-caval in heart of man is guarded by :

(a) Semilunar valve (b) Bicuspid valve (c) Tricuspid valve (d) Eustachian valve
148. Co Cardiac output is :

(a) Co = Pulse rate x stroke volume (b) Co = Stroke volume x Blood volume
(c) Co = stroke volume x heart rate (d) Co = Heart rate x pulse rate
149. Arrhythmia is irregular beats. It is indicated in ECG by

(a) Enlarged & wave (b) A normal T wave

(c) Missing or inverted P wave (d) Enlarge R wave
150. Loop of Henle in mammals is a :

(a) Special place of urea absorption

(b) Place of sodium and potassium absorption
(c) Special place of ammonia absorption
(d) Special place of conservation and balance of water
151. After ultrafiltration, glucose is reabsorbed from :

(a) Henle’s loop (b) Proximal convoluted tubule

(c) Distal convoluted tubule (d) Collecting ducts
152. Which of the following is purely a motor nerve?

(a) Vagus (b) Olfactory (c) Abducens (d) Trigeminal

153. The anterior choroid plexus secretes cerebro spinal fluid in ………

(a) 1st ventricle (b) 2nd ventricle (c) 3rd ventricle (d) 4th ventricle
154. In the cerebral hemispheres................is present between parietal and temporal lobes.

(a) Central sulcus (b) Lateral sulcus (c) Parieto occipital (d) ventral sulcus
155. Which of the following hormones regulate growth and metarmorphosis in insect?

(a) Juvenile hormone (b) Brain hormone

(c) Ecdysone (d) Prothoracicotropic hormone
156. Compare the statement A and B.

Statement – A : Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy

Statement – B : The glycogen of the liver is the principle source of blood sugar. Select the correct
description
(a) Statement A is wrong B is correct
(b) Both statements A and B are correct and B is not reason for A
(c) Both statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
(d) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
157. The chemical nature of hormones secreted by  and  cells of pancreas is
(a) Glycolipid (b) Glycoprotein (c) Steroid (d) Polypeptide
158. Which of the following hormones stimulate the secretion of milk from female?

20
 (a) LH (b) Prolactin (c) Oxytocin (d) Progesterone
159. Mr. John falls from scooter and suffers hair line fracture in wrist. Which bones are involved?

(a) Tarsals (b) Metatarsals (c) Carpals (d) Metacarpals

160. Out of 7 cervical vertebrae in man one of the following set represent atypical cervical vertebrae:

(a) 1st, 2nd, 3rd vertebrae (b) 3rd, 4th, 5th vertebrae
(c) 5th, 6th, 7th vertebrae (d) 1st, 2nd, 7th vertebrae
161. Male sacrum is longer than broader and is heavier, its sacral index is :

(a) Less than female (b) More than female

(c) Equal to female sacral index (d) none of these
162. Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five

children. It shows the inheritance of attached

earlobes as opposed to the free ones. The squares
represent the male individuals and circles the female
individuals. Which one of the following conclusions
drawn is correct?
Attached
Ear-lobe
Free
Ear-lobe

(a) The parents are homozygous recessive (b) The trait is Y – linked
(c) The parents are homozygous dominant (d) The parents are heterozygous

163. Given below is a representation of a kind of chromosomal mutation. What is the kind of mutation

represented?
A B C D E F G H A E F G H

D C B

(a) Deletion (b) Duplication (c) Inversion (d) Reciprocal translocation

164. Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our

country?
(a) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch (b) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal
(c) Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats (d) Kerala and Punjab
165. One of the ex-situ conservation methods for endangered species is

(a) Wildlife sanctuaries (b) Biosphere reserves

(b) Cryopreservation (d) National Parks
166. In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even

shelf life. The large variation is on account of

21
 (a) Species diversity (b) Induced mutations (c) Genetic diversity (d) Hybridization
167. Positive pollution of soil is due to

(a) Excessive use of fertilizers (b) Reduction in soil productivity

(c) Addition of wastes on soil (d) All of these
168. The carnivorous fish, Gambusia, which is introduced in the lakes and ponds to control a deadly

disease in India, feds on the larva of

(a) Dragon fly (b) Nepenthes (c) Anopheles (d) All of these
169. Quill feathers at the base of wings are called

(a) Coverts (b) Remiges (c) Down feathers (d) Barbules

170. Sporogony of malarial parasite occurs in

(a) Stomach wall of mosquito (b) Salivary glands of mosquito

(c) RBCs of man (d) Live of man
171. While dissecting a rat, when you are pinning the rat in the dissecting tray, which side should face

you?
(a) Dorsal (b) ventral (c) Anterior (d) Lateral
172. Cumulus oophorus covers

(a) Ovum (b) Ovary (c) Embryo (d) all of these

173. An oocyte is released from the ovary under the influence of LH

(a) After completing meiosis and before polar bodies are released
(b) After completing meiosis I and before the release of polar bodies
(c) After completing meiosis
(d) After completing meiosis I and after the release of polar bodies
174. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that can last for 7 – 8 days, is

(a) Follicular phase (b) Ovulatory phase (c) Luteal phase (d) Menstruation
175. Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during early months of

pregnancy gave birth to children with

(a) No spleen (b) Hare-lip
(c) Extra fingers and toes (d) underdeveloped limbs
176. Marks the sexually transmitted diseases caused by virus

(a) Genital warts (b) Genital herpes (c) Syphilis (d) both (a) & (b)
177. Which of the following is a viral glycoprotein that plays a role in the infection of human cells by

HIV
(a) GP 120 (b) CD 4 (c) CCR5 (d) both (b) & (c)
178. The drug AZT and its analogues function by

(a) Inhibiting the replication of viral nucleic acid

(b) Blocking the production of envelope proteins
(c) Blocking the production of capsid proteins

22
 (d) Blocking the binding of the virus to human cell receptors
179. Lysis of foreign cell is mediated through

(a) IgM only (b) IgM and IgG (c) IgA only (d) IgD and IgE
180. Just as Xenopsylla is to Yersenia pestis, so is

(a) Glossina Palpalis to Wuchereria bancrofti (b) Culex to Plamodium falciparum

(c) Homo Sapiens to Taenia solium (d) Phlebotomus to Leishmania donovani

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