INSTA PRELIMS TEST

SERIES 1.0
PRELIMS -TEST – 33
International Relations
& Schemes (FLT) Test

DELHI BENGALURU LUCKNOW HYDERABAD SRINAGAR DHARWAD MYSURU

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1. The initiative “Tax Inspectors Without Bor- 5. Consider the following statements regard-
ders” (TIWB) is a joint effort by which of ing the World Telecommunication Stand-
the following organizations? ardization Assembly (WTSA):
(a) UNDP and OECD 1. It is organized every four years.
2. WTSA 2024 was held in Geneva, Switzer-
(b) IMF and World Bank
land.
(c) UNDP and World Trade Organization 3. The assembly is a part of the International
(d) OECD and International Monetary Fund Telecommunication Union (ITU).
How many of the statements given above is/
2. Consider the following Indian rescue oper- are correct?
ations with their respective locations: (a) Only one
Rescue Operation Location (b) Only two
(c) All three
A. Operation Maitri 1. Nepal (d) None
B. Operation Raahat 2. Yemen
C. Operation Sankat 6. Consider the following statements regard-
3. Russia-Ukraine ing the Global Family Farming Forum
Mochan
(GFFF):
D. Operation Ganga 4. South Sudan 1. The GFFF is organized by the Food and
E. Operation Devi Agriculture Organization (FAO) in collab-
5. Afghanistan
Shakti oration with the International Fund for
How many pairs is/are correctly matched? Agricultural Development (IFAD).
(a) Only two pairs 2. The forum aims to promote sustainable
(b) Only three pairs family farming to address global food se-
(c) Only four pairs curity and environmental challenges.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
3. How many of the following countries is/are (b) 2 only
members of the Indian Ocean Rim Associ- (c) Both 1 and 2
ation (IORA)? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Sri Lanka
2. USA 7. The 29th Conference of the Parties (COP29)
3. China to the UNFCCC was hosted by Azerbaijan in
its capital, Baku. This city is located on the
4. Bhutan
coast of which of the following seas?
Select the correct answer using the code giv- (a) Black Sea
en below: (b) Caspian Sea
(a) Only one (c) Mediterranean Sea
(b) Only two (d) Red Sea
(c) Only three
(d) All four 8. Consider the following pairs of the coun-
tries with their joint military exercises
with India
4. The Indian Ocean Basin-Wide (IOBW) Index
Country Exercise
is primarily used to measure variations in (a) Seychelles 1. Lamitye
which of the following parameters? (b) France 2. Varuna
(a) Air pressure across the Indian Ocean (c) Russia 3. Indra
(b) Sea surface temperature (SST) anomalies (d) Maldives 4. Ekuverin
in the Indian Ocean basin How many of the pairs given above is/are cor-
(c) Rainfall distribution over the Indian sub- rectly matched?
continent (a) Only one pair
(d) Ocean salinity levels in the Northern Hem- (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
isphere
(d) All four pairs

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9. Which of the following strategies are em- 12. How many of the following counties is/are
phasized under the Global Cooling Pledge? members of the Comprehensive and Pro-
-
1. -
nership (CPTPP)?
tioning systems. 1. USA
2. Promotion of natural refrigerants with 2. United Kingdom
low global warming potential (GWP). 3. Peru
3. Development of passive cooling technolo- 4. Japan
Select the correct answer using the codes giv-
gies to reduce dependency on mechanical
en below:
systems. (a) Only one
4. Subsidies for fossil fuel-based cooling sys- (b) Only two
tems in low-income countries. (c) Only three
Select the correct answer using the code giv- (d) All four
en below:
(a) 1 and 2 only the Nelson Mandela Lifetime Achievement
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only Award?
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only (a) Bhartuhari Mahtab
(b) Ruchira Kamboj
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) Vinod Ganatra
(d) APJ Abdul kalam
10. Which of the following statements is cor-
rect regarding the Paris Club? 15. How many of the following sectors are in-
(a) It is a formal organization of creditor na- itially covered under the EU’s Carbon Bor-
der Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)?
tions to resolve debt-related issues with 1. Cement
debtor countries. 2. Steel
(b) India is a founding member of the Paris 3. Fossil Fuels
Club. 4. Fertilizers
Select the correct answer using the code giv-
(c) It functions on the principle that each
en below:
debtor nation is treated on a case-by-case (a) Only one
basis. (b) Only two
(d) The Paris Club operates as a part of the (c) Only three
G20 group of nations. (d) All four

16. Consider the following statements regard-

11. Consider the following statements regard- ing the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Mul-
ing Interpol (International Criminal Police ti-Sectoral Technical and Economic Coop-
Organization): eration (BIMSTEC):
1. BIMSTEC was established to promote eco-
1. Interpol is a specialized agency of the Unit-
nomic and technical cooperation among
ed Nations. countries bordering the Bay of Bengal.
2. It facilitates international police coopera- 2. BIMSTEC has a permanent Secretariat lo-
tion among its member countries. cated in Bangkok, Thailand.
3. Interpol can make arrests and prosecute 3. The BIMSTEC Charter was signed at the
5th BIMSTEC Summit held in Colombo, Sri
criminals across international borders. Lanka.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? How many of the above statements is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (d) None

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17. Consider the following statements regard- 20. Consider the following statements regard-
ing the Five Eyes Alliance: ing the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC):
1. It is an intelligence-sharing alliance that 1. The CSC is a sub-regional grouping fo-
includes the United States, the United cused on maritime security and coun-
Kingdom, Canada, Australia, and New Zea- ter-terrorism in the Indian Ocean Region.
land. 2. Its founding members include India, Sri
2. The alliance was originally formed during Lanka, and Maldives.
3. CSC is a military alliance similar to NATO,
Which of the statements given above is/are focusing on collective defense of its mem-
correct? ber countries.
(a) 1 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
18. Consider the following statements regard-
ing the Codex Alimentarius Commission 21. The Manama Dialogue, recently in news, is
(CAC): organised annually by :
1. The Codex Alimentarius Commission was (a) International Rescue Committee
established by the Food and Agriculture (b) International Institute for Strategic Stud-
Organization (FAO) and the World Health ies
Organization (WHO). (c) Human Rights Watch
2. It develops international food standards, (d) Reporters Without Borders
guidelines, and codes of practice to pro-
tect consumer health and ensure fair prac- 22. Consider the following statements :
tices in the food trade. 1. The Asian Buddhist Summit was organised
3. Codex standards are legally binding on -
member countries under World Trade Or- dhist Confederation in India.
ganization (WTO) agreements. 2. The Asian Buddhist Summit recognised Pali
How many of the above statements is/are as a classical language in India.
correct? 3. The Asian Buddhist Summit promotes In-
(a) Only one dia’s Act East policy.
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) All three correct?
(d) None (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
99 of the UN Charter? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) It empowers the UN Secretary-General to
bring issues to the Security Council’s at- 23. Recently, the ‘Global Alliance against
tention. Hunger and Poverty’ has been launched
(b) It outlines the voting procedures within by which of the following International
the General Assembly. groupings?
(c) It establishes the International Court of (a) G20
Justice as a principal organ of the UN. (b) NATO
(c) G7
member states to the UN. (d) BRICS

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24. Consider the following statements regard- 27. Consider the following information re-
ing CARICOM : garding recent joint exercises of India with
other countries :
1. It was formed by the Treaty of Chaguara-
Exercise Country Place of Event
mas.
1.Nomadic El- Maldives Manipur
2. It is a collaboration between all the devel- ephant
oping Island Nations of the world. 2. Dessert Saudi Arabia Rajasthan
3. It’s Secretariat at Guyana is the principle Knight
administrative organ headed a Secretary 3. Vajra Pra- United States Idaho
General. har
4. India is an observer nation of the grouping. 4.Mitra Shakti Sri Lanka Maduruoya
How many of the above statements are cor- In which of the above rows is the given infor-
mation correctly matched ?
rect? (a) 1 and 4 only
(a) Only one (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
(c) Only three
(d) All four 28. Consider the following statements :
1. The World Telecommunication Standardi-
sation Assembly (WTSA) is the governing
25. Dhudmaras, a village recently in news is conference of the International Telecom-
situated in the state of : munication Union (ITU).
(a) Odisha 2. ITU is a specialised agency of the United
Nations.
(b) Chattisgarh
3. ‘AI Bharat 5G/6G Sandbox’ initiative to
(c) Bihar -
(d) Jharkhand gence has been launched by India under
the WTSA.
Which of the statements given above is/are
26. Consider the following statements regard- correct?
ing United Nations Security Council : (a) 1 and 3 only
1. The ‘Right to Veto’ power is applicable only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
for the Permanent members of the Coun- (d) 1, 2 and 3
cil.
2. The Permanent members nominate mem- 29. Consider the following statements regard-
ing Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisec-
ber states, out of which ten Non-perma- toral Technical and Economic Cooperation :
nent members are selected for one year 1. It was originally formed by Bangladesh,
term. India and Myanmar for technical and eco-
nomic cooperation.
3. The proceedings of the Council can be at- 2. Within the group, India is responsible
tended only by its selected members, ei- promotion of Environment and climate
ther Permanent or Non-permanent. change related issues.
3. The BIMSTEC Energy Centre has been es-
Which of the statements given above is/are
tablished in India to facilitate transnation-
correct? al natural gas pipelines.
(a) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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30. Consider the following countries: 33. Consider the following statements :
1. United States Statement – I :
2. France More than 50% of India’s demand for lithium
ion batteries is made through imports from
3. Germany
China.
4. South Korea Statement – II :
5. Japan China is the top most lithium producing coun-
How many of the above are members of ‘G4 try in the world.
Nations’? Which of the following is correct in respect of
(a) Only two the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are
(b) Only three
correct and Statement -II explains State-
(c) Only four ment -I
(d) (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are
correct but Statement -II does not explain
31. Consider the following statements : Statement -I
1. The International Labour Conference is re- (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is
incorrect
sponsible for providing international la- (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II
bour standards. is correct
2. The Governing Body of the International
34. Consider the following statements regard-
Director General for International Labour
1. It is a free trade agreement launched jointly
Organisation (ILO ) .
by India and the European Union.
3. The RISE For Impact Programme has been 2. The Framework is based on the two broad
launched by ILO to promote rights at work pillars of Multilateral trade and Transpor-
for sustainable cotton supply chain in In- tation.
dia. 3. The Framework is non binding on the mem-
Which of the statements given above is/are bers.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 only
(c) All three (c) 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

35. Consider the following statements :

32. Consider the following statements :
1. The Global Refugees Forum is organised by
1. The Commission on Narcotic Drugs was the United Nations Refugee Agency every
established by UN Economic and Social four years.
Council to supervise application of drug 2. The Global Refugees Forum supports the
control treaties globally. implementation of Global Compact on
2. The Commission on Narcotic Drugs func- Refugees.
3. The Cartegena Declaration was adopted by
tion as the governing body of the United
interests of refugees in Latin America and
Which of the statements given above is/are Caribbean.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

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36. Consider the following statements : 42. The World Government Summit primarily
1. The Triton Island is a part of the Paracel Is- focuses on:
lands. 1. Innovative governance practices.
2. The Paracel Islands is a disputed territory 2. Strengthening bilateral relations between
between China and Japan. countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Addressing global challenges like climate
correct? change and AI.
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code giv-
(b) 2 only en below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
37. Kazan Declaration, recently in news, was
adopted by :
43. The Kaladan Multimodal Transit Trans-
(a) Asian Development Bank
port Project connects which Indian state
(b) BRICS
with Myanmar?
(c) SAARC (a) Assam
(d) United Nations Development Programme (b) Mizoram
(c) Manipur
38. The Land port Darranga, recently in news, (d) Nagaland
is located near India’s border with which
of the following countries ? 44. Which of the following countries is not a
(a) Bhutan Baltic Sea littoral state?
(b) Bangladesh (a) Lithuania
(c) Myanmar (b) Norway
(d) Nepal (c) Finland
(d) Denmark
39. Recently the Eastern Maritime Corridor
was in news; which of the following ports 45. The Duqm Port is strategically located
in India is associated with the project? along which of the following seas?
(a) Paradeep (a) Red Sea
(b) Kolkata (b) Arabian Sea
(c) Chennai (c) Persian Gulf
(d) Visakhapatnam (d) Gulf of Oman

40. Recently Path to Peace Summit was in 46. Consider the following statements re-
garding the World Customs Organization
news, it was organised by :
(WCO):
(a) United Nations Peacekeeping
1. The WCO was established in 1952 to pro-
(b) International Energy Agency
mote international customs cooperation.
(c) International Atomic Energy Agency
2. It developed the Revised Kyoto Conven-
(d) None of the above
tion (RKC) to simplify and harmonize cus-
toms procedures.
41. Sendai Framework, sometimes seen in Which of the statements given above is/are
news, is related to? correct?
(a) Organic Farming (a) 1 only
(b) Climate Change (b) 2 only
(c) Forced Migration (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Disaster Management (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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47. Consider the following statements regard- 51. The Philadelphi Corridor, sometimes seen
ing the US Presidential Election: in news, lies between the border of :
1. The election is conducted under an indi- (a) Mexico-United States
rect electoral system where voters elect (b) Gaza – Egypt
members of the Electoral College. (c) Russia – Ukraine
2. Each state has an equal number of elec- (d) Syria- Lebanon
tors in the Electoral College.
3. The presidential candidate must secure 52. Consider the following statements regard-
a majority of the total Electoral College ing DiGi Framework :
votes to win. 1. It has been launched by Japan, South Korea
How many of the above statements is/are and United States jointly.
correct? 2. It is aimed to support projects for develop-
(a) Only one ment of Quantum Technology in India.
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) All three correct?
(d) None (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
48. The Mediterranean Dialogues (MED) is (c) Both 1 and 2
primarily aimed at addressing: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Maritime boundary disputes in the Medi-
terranean Sea. 53. Which of the following best describes the
(b) Global challenges such as climate change, term Anaconda Strategy ?
energy security, and migration in the Med- (a) A Political strategy adopted by a govern-
iterranean region. ment against its civilians by stopping pub-
(c) Counter-terrorism operations in North Af-
rica. (b) A strategy adopted by a country by stop-
(d) Establishing a free trade zone among Med- ping humanitarian assistance to another
iterranean countries. country with which it is engaged in a civil
war
49. The India-CARICOM Summit focuses on co- (c) A trade employed by a nation to increase
operation in which of the following areas? its exports at minimum price to collapse
1. Climate change mitigation. the market in other countries
2. Renewable energy development. (d) Employment of military tactics along with
3. Trade and investment promotion. other strategies by a country to weaken
Select the correct answer using the code giv- defences of another country.
en below:
(a) 1 and 2 only 54. Consider the following statements :
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. The Organisation for Prohibition of Chem-
(c) 1, 2, and 3 ical Weapons (OPCW) is the sole imple-
(d) 1 and 3 only menting body for the Chemical Weapons
Convention.
50. Which of the following is a key objective 2. India is a original signatory of the Chemical
of South Asian Telecommunication Regu- Weapons Convention.
lators’ Council (SATRC) ? 3. The Indian Chemical Council was estab-
(a) Promoting uniform telecommunication lished under the mandate of OPCW.
tariffs across South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Encouraging collaboration on emerging correct?
technologies like 5G and AI. (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) Establishing a single telecommunication (b) 1 and 2 only
regulatory body for South Asia. (c) 3 only
(d) Funding telecommunication infrastruc- (d) 1, 2 and 3
ture in least developed countries

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55. Consider the following statements : 59. Kursk city was recently in news; it is locat-
1. The Global Cooperative Conference was or- ed in :
ganised by the International Cooperative (a) Ukraine
Alliance along with Indian Farmers Ferti- (b) Tajikistan
lizer Cooperative Limited. (c) Uzbekistan
2. The United Nations ‘International Year of (d) Russia
Cooperatives- 2025’ has been launched at
the Global Cooperative Conference by In- 60. St. Martins Island, often seen in news is
dia. under the administrative control of :
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Bangladesh
correct? (b) New Zealand
(a) 1 only (c) South Africa
(b) 2 only (d) Thailand
(c) Both 1 and 2
61. MAHASAGAR Initiative, just sently in news
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
is related to :
(a) Development of Major ports
56. Consider the following statements : (b) Mitigation of maritime challenges in Indi-
1. The Pandemic Fund Project has been an Ocean Region
launched by India in partnership with the (c) Exploration of minerals beyond Exclusive
World Health Organisation. Economic Zone of India
2. The Pandemic Fund project aims to support (d) Research and development of deep sea oil
vaccine development and disease surveil- exploration
lance in developing countries in Southeast
Asia. 62. Consider the following statements regard-
Which of the statements given above is/are ing International Criminal Court :
correct? 1. It was established under Article 33 of the
(a) 1 only United Nations Charter.
(b) 2 only 2. The Assembly of State Parties is the legisla-
(c) Both 1 and 2 tive body of the court.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. It can only consider rarest of rare criminal
cases committed by an individual against
57. ‘Voice of the Global South Summit’, some- another individual.
times seen in news, is an initiative of : Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Japan correct?
(b) Singapore (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) India (b) 2 only
(d) Australia (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
58. Consider the following statements regard-
ing Indian Community Welfare Fund : 63. With reference to Colombo Process, con-
sider the following statements :
1. It has been launched as a support system
1. It is a regional forum of all South Asian
for evacuation of Indian nationals from
countries to discuss issues related to Ref-
ugees and forced migration.
disasters. 2. The International Organisation for Migra-
2. It can be utilized only by Persons of Indian tion provides administrative support to
Origin or holders of Overseas Citizens of the process.
India card. 3. It is mandatory for the signatories to follow
Which of the statements given above is/are any decision taken by majority.
correct? How many of the statements given above are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
(d) None

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64. Consider the following statement regard- 67. Match the following advanced farming
techniques with their descriptions:
ing International Centre for Integrated
List I (Tech-
Mountain Development : List II (Description)
nique)
1. It is the only intergovernmental organisa-
A .Ver tic al and soil-free plant
tion for protection of Mountain environ- Farming cultivation for mutual
ment globally.
2. A data-driven approach
2. It Secretariat is based in Nepal.
to optimize input use
B. Aquaponics
3. Along with the International Food Policy for maximizing crop
yield.
Research Institute, it works to promote
3. Stacked cultivation
climate resiliant agriculture in the Hindu C. Precision Ag- method using con-
riculture trolled environments
Kush Himalaya region.
Which of the statements given above are cor- 4. Soil-free cultivation
in nutrient-rich wa-
rect? D. Hydroponics
ter solutions for con-
(a) 2 only trolled growth.
Select the correct answer code:
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

68. Consider the following statements regard-

65. Galathea Bay, an International Container ing Brihadeeswarar Temple’s architectur-
Transshipment port is located in : al features:
1. The stupika on the vimana is square-shaped,
(a) South China Sea
2. The temple lacks any gopuras (gateway
(b) Bay of Bengal
towers) in its complex.
(c) Gulf of Mexico 3. Its inscriptions primarily document myths
and legends, with no references to histori-
(d) Mediterranean Sea
cal events or rituals.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
66. Which of the following is a key ecological (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
Wetlands? (d) None
(a) It is located in the Western Ghats Bio-
69. Which of the following best explains the
sphere Reserve.
- rice milling?
(a) It tracks the foreign matter removed dur-
ment. ing milling to ensure purity.
(b) It indicates the percentage of rice yield ob-
(c) It is a major stopover for birds along the
tained from paddy after milling, impacting
Central Asian Flyway.
(c) It measures the moisture content in rice
(d) It prevents saline intrusion into the Ara-
post-milling for quality assurance.
bian Sea. (d) It measures the average weight of paddy
required to produce one kilogram of rice.

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70. Consider the following statements regard- 74. Consider the following statements regard-
ing the International Cooperative Alliance ing the National Mission on Natural Farm-
(ICA): ing (NMNF):
1. It organizes global summits to address co- 1. It aims to promote chemical-free farming
operative challenges. practices.
2. Its mission includes promoting sustainable 2. The mission involves establishing Bio-input
development.
Resource Centres (BRCs) across India.
3. Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Swit-
zerland. 3. Real-time geo-tagged monitoring of clus-
How many of the above statements is/are ters is enabled through an online portal.
correct? How many of the above statements is/are
a) Only one correct?
b) Only two a) Only one
c) All three b) Only two
d) None c) All three
d) None
71. Consider the following statements about
the princely state of Junagadh and Sardar 75. Consider the following statements about
Patel’s role in its integration:
gamma rays:
1. Patel allowed the Nawab of Junagadh to ac-
cede to Pakistan as a gesture of diplomatic 1. Gamma rays can penetrate Earth’s atmos-
goodwill. phere and reach the surface without being
2. Patel encouraged a public referendum in blocked.
Junagadh, which resulted in a majority 2. Gamma rays are visible to the naked eye as
vote for remaining independent. faint blue light.
3. Patel’s approach to Junagadh was purely 3. Gamma rays are produced only during nu-
diplomatic, avoiding any form of force or clear reactions within stars.
coercion. How many of the above statements is/are
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one
b) Only two
b) Only two
c) All three c) All three
d) None d) None

72. Kanhaiyalal Maneklal Munshi was asso- 76. Consider the following statements about
ciated with which of the following move- the 30-by-30 target discussed at COP-16
ments? to the Convention on Biological Diversity
a) Swadeshi Movement (CBD):
b) Quit India Movement 1. The 30-by-30 target aims to conserve 30%
c) Non-Cooperation Movement of the world’s land and marine areas by
d) Civil Disobedience Movement 2030.
73. Consider the following statements regard- 2. The 30-by-30 target is exclusively focused
ing peripheral urbanisation: on marine biodiversity conservation.
1. It is characterised by the expansion of ur- 3. COP-16 emphasized integrating this target
ban centres into nearby rural areas. into national policies and aligning it with
2. This process can lead to the development climate change actions.
of peri-urban zones that merge urban and 4. The target is intended to be implemented
rural characteristics. only in developed countries.
3. Peripheral urbanisation does not involve How many of the above statements is/are in-
any increase in urban infrastructure. correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one
a) 1 only b) Only two
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 only c) Only three
d) 1 and 2 only d) All four

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77.Consider the following statements about 81. Consider the following:
the Places of Worship Act, 1991: Statement-I: Atal Innovation Mission 2.0 in-
1. The Act maintains the religious character of cludes a State Innovation Mission (SIM) to
places of worship as they existed on Janu- integrate state-level innovation ecosystems
ary 26, 1950.
2. It prohibits conversion of religious sites to with NITI Aayog’s framework.
different denominations or segments. Statement-II: State Innovation Mission (SIM)
- focuses on bilateral collaborations with other
ed from the Act’s provisions. countries to foster innovation and entrepre-
How many of the above statements is/are in- neurship.
correct? Which one of the following is correct in re-
a) Only one spect of the above statements?
b) Only two
c) All three a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are cor-
d) None rect and Statement-II is the correct expla-
nation for Statement-I
78. Consider the following statements about b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are cor-
polio disease and its effects: rect and Statement-II is not the correct ex-
1. Polio primarily affects adults and is rarely planation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
2. Polio is highly infectious and affects the
nervous system, potentially causing paral- incorrect
ysis. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
3. All types of polio infections lead to visible is correct
symptoms and paralysis in infected indi-
viduals. 82. Which of the following best describes the
4. Polio has no known impact on the respira- unique features of Dal Lake?
tory system. a) A lake with no islands or notable scenic
How many of the above statements is/are
correct? landmarks
a) Only one b) Known for its expansive sand dunes and
b) Only two
c) Only three -
d) All four kets, and Mughal gardens along its shore
d) A dry lake located in the desert region of
79. Which Indian satellite series is used to Jammu and Kashmir
track stubble burning with varying spatial
resolutions?
a) Megha-Tropiques 83. Consider the following statements regard-
b) CARTOSAT ing space junk and its impact on Earth’s at-
c) RESOURCESAT Series mosphere:
d) INSAT-3DR 1. It predominantly consists of natural space
materials like asteroids and meteoroids.
80. Consider the following statements about 2. Burning space debris releases nitrogen ox-
Nal Sarovar:
1. Nal Sarovar is a saline lake located in the ides, aluminum, and black carbon into the
state of Gujarat. stratosphere.
2. It is known for its migratory bird popula- 3. Soot particles from space junk absorption
tion and has been designated a Ramsar disrupt natural climate patterns by warm-
site. ing the atmosphere.
3. Nal Sarovar is the largest lake in Northeast 4. Pollutants from space debris can alter cloud
India. formation and atmospheric chemistry.
4. It is primarily a freshwater lake, with mini-
mal saline properties. How many of the above statements is/are
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) Only three
c) Only three d) All four
d) All four

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84. Consider the following statements regard- 88. Consider the following statements regard-
ing the Gadgil, Kasturirangan, and Sanjay ing the objectives of the Convention on Bi-
Kumar Committees on the Western Ghats: ological Diversity (CBD).
1. The Gadgil Committee recommended des- 1. The CBD’s sole focus is on conserving en-
ignating only 37% of the Western Ghats as dangered species.
an ESA.
2. Sustainable use of biodiversity resources is
2. The Kasturirangan Committee proposed a
not included in the CBD’s goals.
more moderate approach to ESA designa-
tion, allowing limited development. -
3. The Sanjay Kumar Committee was formed netic resources as part of its framework.
to implement the Gadgil Committee’s rec- 4. The CBD does not address biodiversity-re-
ommendations. lated issues in national policies.
4. The Gadgil Committee’s report was fully How many of the above statements is/are in-
adopted by the government. correct?
How many of the above statements is/are a) Only two
correct? b) Only three
a) Only one c) All four
b) Only two d) None
c) Only three
d) All four
89. Consider the following statements regard-
85. Which of the following states contributed ing the Riyadh Design Law Treaty (DLT):
the highest share to India’s milk produc- 1. The treaty was adopted by the World In-
tion in 2023-24? tellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
a) Madhya Pradesh member states.
b) Rajasthan 2. It requires all industrial designs to be regis-
c) Gujarat tered separately for each jurisdiction.
d) Uttar Pradesh 3. The treaty encourages electronic systems
and the exchange of priority documents.
86. Which of the following Articles of the In- 4. India has signed the treaty to enhance its
dian Constitution allows the State to make global competitiveness in design protec-
special provisions for backward classes?
tion.
a) Article 14
How many of the above statements is/are in-
b) Article 15(4) and Article 16(4)
c) Article 19(1)(a) correct?
d) Article 21 a) Only one
b) Only two
87. Consider the following statements about c) Only three
the Song River: d) All four
1. It originates in the Shivalik Hills.
2. It is a perennial tributary of the Ganga Riv- 90. What is a primary limitation of millimeter
er. wave (mmWave) transceiver technology in
wireless communication?
a seasonal feeder to the Ganga River sys- a) It is incompatible with Internet of Things
tem. (IoT) devices due to its size.
How many of the above statements is/are
b) It has limited range and is easily blocked by
correct?
a) Only one physical obstructions.
b) Only two c) It can only transmit data at low speeds over
c) All three long distances.
d) None d) It is highly susceptible to interference from
other wireless systems.

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91. Consider the following statements regard- 94. Consider the following statements about
ing Permanent Account Numbers (PAN) microplastics:
2.0: 1. Primary microplastics are exclusively
1. PAN 2.0 introduces a centralized data vault formed by the degradation of larger plas-
for cybersecurity. tics.
2. Grievance redressal will remain decentral- 2. Secondary microplastics are intentionally
ized, as in the current system. manufactured for industrial and cosmetic
3. Existing PAN cards will become invalid with
uses.
the launch of PAN 2.0.
3. Microplastics are used in drug delivery sys-
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only tems due to their chemical absorption and
b) 1 and 2 only release capabilities.
c) 1 and 3 only How many of the above statements is/are
d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
a) Only one
92. Consider the following statements about b) Only two
the Cartagena and Nagoya Protocols under c) All three
the CBD: d) None
1. The Cartagena Protocol solely addresses
climate change adaptation in biodiversity 95. Consider the following statements about
conservation. the Periyar River:
2. The Nagoya Protocol emphasizes marine 1. The Periyar River originates in the Sivagiri
biodiversity conservation exclusively.
Hills and empties into the Arabian Sea.
3. Both protocols are independent of the CBD
and do not require CBD membership for 2. It powers the Idukki Dam, which is one of
participation. the largest hydroelectric projects in Ker-
How many of the above statements is/are ala.
correct? -
a) Only one gal after passing through the Vembanad
b) Only two Lake.
c) All three How many of the above statements is/are
d) None correct?
a) Only one
93. Consider the following Statements: b) Only two
Statement-I: Peatlands contribute approxi- c) All three
d) None
annually due to degradation.
Statement-II: The Global Peatland Hotspot
96. Consider the following statements about
-
Lothal:
emissions. 1. Lothal is the northernmost Indus Valley
Which one of the following is correct in re- Civilization site.
spect of the above statements? 2. It was known for its bead-making and mar-
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are cor- itime trade industries.
rect and Statement-II is the correct expla- 3. The dockyard at Lothal linked it to ancient
nation for Statement-I trade routes.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are cor- 4. Lothal is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
rect and Statement-II is not the correct ex- How many of the above statements is/are
planation for Statement-I correct?
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is a) Only one
incorrect b) Only two
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II c) Only three
is correct
d) All four

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97. Consider the following statements regard-
ing ISKCON:
1. ISKCON was founded in New York City.
2. It follows the Advaita Vedanta philosophy
of Shankara.
3. The movement is involved in free food dis-
tribution and eco-village initiatives.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

98. The Baltic Sea connects to the Atlantic

Ocean through which straits?
a) Malacca Strait
b) Strait of Hormuz
c) Strait of Gibraltar
d) Danish Straits

99. Consider the following statements about

the Asiatic Lion:
1. They are listed as “Vulnerable” on the
IUCN Red List.
2. They are protected under Appendix I of
CITES and Schedule I of the Wildlife Pro-
tection Act (India).
3. They historically ranged from southwest
Asia to northern India.
How many of the above statements is/are in-
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

100. Samjiyon region, recently in the news, is

located in which country?
a) South Korea
b) North Korea
c) Japan
d) China

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 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33

1. Solution: A
Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) is a joint initiative of the United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP) and the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
TIWB was launched in July 2015 with the primary goal of supporting developing countries in building their
tax audit capacity. This initiative aims to strengthen the ability of developing nations to effectively audit
multinational enterprises and boost domestic revenue mobilization.
 TIWB is designed to support developing countries in building tax audit capacity and improving their
ability to tax multinational enterprises effectively
 The program deploys expert tax auditors to assist tax administrations in developing countries. These
experts work alongside local officials on tax audit and related issues
 TIWB uses a practical, hands-on approach to transfer technical knowledge and skills to tax auditors
in developing countries
 TIWB programs typically last between 12-18 months
 The initiative covers various areas including pre-audit risk assessment, investigatory techniques,
audit cases involving transfer pricing, anti-avoidance rules, and sector-specific issues

2. Solution: B
Operation Maitri was a rescue and relief operation conducted by the Indian government and armed
forces in Nepal following the April 2015 earthquake.
Operation Raahat was an evacuation operation carried out by the Indian Armed Forces to evacuate
Indian citizens and foreign nationals from Yemen during the 2015 military intervention.
Hence, pair 1 and pair 2 are correct.
Operation Sankat Mochan was launched in July 2016 to evacuate Indian citizens and other foreign
nationals from South Sudan during the South Sudanese Civil War.
Operation Ganga was an evacuation mission carried out by the Indian government to rescue its
citizens stranded in neighboring countries of Ukraine during the 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine.
Hence, pair 3 and pair 4 are incorrect.
Operation Devi Shakti was an evacuation operation conducted by the Indian Armed Forces to evacuate
Indian citizens and foreign nationals from Afghanistan after the fall of Kabul to the Taliban in August
2021
Hence, pair 5 is correct.

3. Solution: A
The Indian Ocean Rim Association is an inter-governmental organisation which was established on 7 March
1997.
The vision for IORA originated during a visit by late President Nelson Mandela of South Africa to India in
1995. This sentiment and rationale underpinned the Indian Ocean Rim Initiative in March 1995, and the
creation of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (then known as the Indian Ocean Rim Association for
Regional Co-operation) two years later, in March 1997..
All sovereign States of the Indian Ocean Rim are eligible for membership of the Association. To become
members, States must adhere to the principles and objectives enshrined in the Charter of the Association..
IORA currently has 23 member states, all of which border the Indian Ocean. The organization
focuses on fostering cooperation in areas such as maritime security, trade facilitation, fisheries
management, disaster risk management, and cultural exchanges among countries in the Indian Ocean
region.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
 Current 23 Member States:
 Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, France/Reunion, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar,
Malaysia, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia,South Africa, Sri
Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, United Arab Emirates and Yemen.
Sri Lanka is currently the Chair of IORA for the period 2023-2025.
It's worth noting that IORA also has 11 dialogue partners, including countries like China, the United
States, Japan, and Germany, which, while not full members, participate in IORA activities and
discussions.

4. Solution: B

The Indian Ocean Basin-Wide (IOBW) Index is primarily used to measure variations in sea surface
temperature (SST) anomalies across the Indian Ocean basin. This index serves as a climatological tool that
reflects the average fluctuations in SST, which are crucial for understanding climate variability and its
impacts on regional weather patterns, including phenomena like the Indian Ocean Dipole.
The IOBW Index is designed to monitor and predict climate variability specifically within the Indian Ocean
region. It captures deviations from average sea surface temperatures, which can have significant
implications for global weather patterns and local climate conditions.
Variations in SST can influence atmospheric circulation, which in turn affects rainfall distribution
and temperature patterns across regions bordering the Indian Ocean. For example, higher SSTs are
linked to increased mosquito breeding conditions, thereby enhancing the risk of dengue outbreaks in
affected areas.
Research has shown that the IOBW Index correlates closely with dengue fever outbreaks. By analyzing
historical data, scientists have established that fluctuations in SST can predict the timing and severity of
these outbreaks, offering a critical lead time for public health responses

5. Solution: B
The World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA) is the governing conference of
the ITU Standardization Sector (ITU-T), one of the three world conferences of the International
Telecommunication Union, and as such, the United Nations system.
The World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA) is held every four years. It serves as a
critical platform for setting the agenda and shaping the future of international telecommunication standards
for the next study period of the ITU Telecommunication Standardization Sector (ITU-T).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
WTSA-24 took place from 15 to 24 October 2024 in New Delhi, India. This wasthe first time the ITU-
WTSA is hosted in India and the Asia-Pacific region.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
WTSA is the governing conference for the standardization work of the International Telecommunication
Union (ITU), which is the United Nations Agency for Digital Technologies. It is one of the three world
conferences organized by the ITU.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
6. Solution: C
Both statements are correct.
The Global Family Farming Forum (GFFF) is a joint initiative of FAO and IFAD. It was launched at the
World Food Forum (WFF) and is co-organized by these two UN agencies.
The GFFF was held from 15 to 18 October 2024 at the FAO Headquarters in Rome, Italy
The GFFF has several key objectives:
 It celebrates the essential role of family farmers in building sustainable agrifood systems and tackling
the impacts of the climate crisis
 The forum aims to identify policy innovations that support family farming and showcase successful
experiences worldwide
 It focuses on empowering family farmers to lead the charge in creating resilient and sustainable food
systems

7. Solution: B
Baku is situated on the southern shore of the Absheron Peninsula, which juts out into the Caspian
Sea. This strategic position has made Baku an important port city and a hub for oil and gas industries.
Baku is the largest city on the Caspian Sea and in the Caucasus region. It is 28 meters (92 ft) below sea
level, making it the lowest lying national capital in the world and the largest city below sea level.
Being on the Caspian Sea coast has made Baku a crucial center for Azerbaijan's oil industry. The city
has long been known for its oil resources, with the Caspian Sea region being rich in oil and gas deposits.
The Caspian Sea is the world's largest inland body of water, often described as the world's largest lake or
a full-fledged sea.

8. Solution: D
All pairs are correctly matched.
The joint military exercise between India and Seychelles is called "Lamitye" (also spelled
"Lamitiye"). The 10th edition of this exercise was conducted in Seychelles from 18 to 27 March 2024. It is
a biennial exercise aimed at enhancing military cooperation between the two countries.
Varuna" is the name of the joint naval exercise between India and France. It is regularly conducted to
enhance interoperability and mutual understanding between the two navies.
"Indra" is the joint military exercise between India and Russia. It is a biennial exercise that covers
various aspects of military cooperation. The exercise has been conducted since 2003 and includes
components for the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
"Ekuverin" is the name of the joint military exercise between India and Maldives. It focuses on
enhancing interoperability and sharing best practices between the two armies.

9. Solution: B
The Global Cooling Pledge is a significant initiative launched at COP28 in Dubai, aimed at addressing the
growing challenge of cooling in a warming world while simultaneously reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
This pledge represents a collective commitment by countries and organizations to implement sustainable
cooling practices and technologies.
The pledge aims to increase the global average efficiency of new air conditioning equipment by 50% by
2030. This commitment to energy efficiency is crucial for reducing cooling-related emissions while meeting
growing cooling demands.
The pledge strongly emphasizes the transition to environmentally-friendly low-GWP refrigerants. This
includes supporting the implementation of the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, which aims to
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). The pledge also commits to supporting research and development
of cooling systems using refrigerants with GWP less than 150
Passive cooling is a significant component of the Global Cooling Pledge. The UNEP Global Cooling Watch
Report indicates that passive cooling measures alone could cut cooling demand by 24% by 2050, avoiding
1.3 billion tons of CO2 emissions annually. The pledge includes commitments to incorporate passive
cooling approaches in buildings and urban planning.
Hence, statement 1, statement 2 and statement 3 are correct.
The pledge focuses on sustainable cooling solutions and reducing emissions, which is incompatible with
promoting fossil fuel-based systems.
Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
The Global Cooling Pledge also emphasizes other important strategies, such as:
 Developing National Cooling Action Plans
 Incorporating cooling considerations into Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the
Paris Agreement
 Promoting nature-based solutions for cooling, such as increasing green and blue spaces in urban
areas
 Supporting collaborative research and innovation in sustainable cooling technologies
 Addressing the entire life cycle of cooling systems, including the management of refrigerant banks

10. Solution: C
The Paris Club is an informal group of creditor nations that aims to find sustainable solutions to debt
problems faced by debtor countries. Established in 1956, it has played a significant role in international debt
management for decades.
The Paris Club is an informal group of creditor nations that aims to find sustainable solutions to debt
problems faced by debtor countries. Established in 1956, it has played a significant role in international debt
management for decades. This allows for tailored solutions that best fit the specific circumstances of each
debtor nation.

11. Solution: B
Interpol, or the International Criminal Police Organization, is the world's largest international police
organization, facilitating cooperation among law enforcement agencies from its 195 member
countries. Established in 1923, Interpol aims to combat transnational crime, including terrorism, drug
trafficking, cybercrime, and human trafficking, by providing a platform for sharing information and
coordinating efforts among its member states. It operates through a network of National Central Bureaus
(NCBs) in each member country that serve as points of contact for international police cooperation.
While Interpol has a special relationship with the United Nations and holds the status of a Permanent
Observer at the UN, it is not a specialized agency of the UN. Specialized agencies are autonomous
organizations that work with the UN but are established independently. Interpol operates independently of
the UN system.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
One of Interpol's primary functions is to facilitate international police cooperation. It provides tools and
services that enable member countries to share information about crimes and criminals, coordinate
investigations, and assist in law enforcement efforts across borders..
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Interpol does not have the authority to make arrests or prosecute individuals; it does not function as a law
enforcement agency in that capacity. Instead, Interpol issues notices (such as Red Notices) to alert member
countries about wanted persons based on national arrest warrants, but actual arrests must be carried out by
national law enforcement agencies according to their own laws.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33

12. Solution: C
The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) is a significant free
trade agreement that has gained prominence in recent years, particularly with the United Kingdom's
accession in 2024. This agreement aims to promote economic integration and reduce trade barriers among its
member countries in the Asia-Pacific region.
The CPTPP currently comprises 12 member nations:
Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, Vietnam and
United Kingdom.

13. Solution: C
The Nelson Mandela Lifetime Achievement Award is a prestigious honor awarded to individuals who
have made exceptional contributions in their respective fields, reflecting the values and legacy of Nelson
Mandela, such as equality, freedom, and social justice. In 2024, Vinod Ganatra, an eminent children's
filmmaker from India, became the first Indian to receive this award.

14. Solution: C
The European Union's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a significant climate policy
initiative designed to prevent carbon leakage and ensure that the EU's efforts to reduce greenhouse gas
emissions are not undermined by the relocation of carbon-intensive industries to countries with less stringent
environmental regulations.
Initially, the CBAM covers six key sectors:
1. Cement
2. Iron and Steel
3. Aluminum
4. Fertilizers
5. Electricity
6. Hydrogen

15. Solution: B
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a
regional organization that aims to foster cooperation and integration among countries in the Bay of Bengal
region. Established in 1997, BIMSTEC has evolved to become an important platform for regional
collaboration in South and Southeast Asia.
It currently has seven member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and
Thailand
BIMSTEC was formed in 1997 with the aim of promoting multifaceted technical and economic cooperation
among the countries of the Bay of Bengal region. The organization focuses on various sectors including
trade, technology, energy, transport, tourism, and fisheries, among others.
The BIMSTEC Permanent Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh, not in Bangkok. It was established
following the signing of the Memorandum of Association on March 4, 2014, during the Third BIMSTEC
Summit in Myanmar. The Secretariat was inaugurated on September 13, 2014, by the Prime Minister of
Bangladesh.
The BIMSTEC Charter was indeed signed and adopted during the Fifth BIMSTEC Summit held in
Colombo, Sri Lanka, on March 30, 2022. This Charter provides BIMSTEC with a formal framework and
legal personality, marking a significant milestone in the organization's development
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33

16. Solution: A
The Five Eyes Alliance is indeed an intelligence-sharing alliance that includes the United States, the United
Kingdom, Canada, Australia, and New Zealand. This alliance facilitates cooperation and sharing of signals
intelligence (SIGINT) among these five English-speaking countries. The member countries collaborate on
intelligence gathering and sharing to enhance their collective security and intelligence capabilities.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Five Eyes Alliance (FVEY) originated from secret meetings between British and American
codebreakers during World War II. The alliance was formalized after the war in 1946 with the UKUSA
Agreement, which established a cooperative arrangement for sharing signals intelligence (SIGINT).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

17. Solution: B
The Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) is an international body established to develop food standards,
guidelines, and codes of practice. It plays a crucial role in ensuring food safety and promoting fair practices
in international food trade. The CAC was created in 1963 as a joint initiative of the Food and
Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO). This collaboration
between these two United Nations organizations has been key to the success of the Codex Alimentarius.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The primary purpose of the Codex Alimentarius Commission is to protect consumer health and
ensure fair practices in food trade. The CAC develops food standards, guidelines, and codes of practice
that cover various aspects of food safety and quality, including food additives, contaminants, labelling,
hygiene, and methods of analysis and sampling.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Codex standards are not legally binding on member countries. They are voluntary in nature.
However, the World Trade Organization (WTO) recognizes Codex standards as international benchmarks
for food safety under its Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Agreement. While WTO members are
encouraged to harmonize their national regulations with Codex standards, they are not legally obligated to
do so.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

18. Solution: A
Article 99 of the UN Charter is a significant provision that grants the UN Secretary-General a unique and
independent political role within the United Nations system. This article is particularly noteworthy for its
potential impact on international peace and security..
Article 99 of the UN Charter states: "The Secretary-General may bring to the attention of the Security
Council any matter which in his opinion may threaten the maintenance of international peace and security."
This provision was designed to give the Security Council early warnings about potential threats to peace,
enabling it to take preventive action.
While Article 99 is a powerful tool, it has been formally invoked only a few times in UN history, including
during crises in Congo (1960), Iran (1979), and Lebanon (1989). Most recently, in December 2023,
Secretary-General António Guterres invoked Article 99 regarding the humanitarian crisis in Gaza.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
19. Solution: A
The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) is a significant regional security grouping in the Indian Ocean
Region that focuses on addressing transnational threats and promoting cooperation among its member states.
The CSC's core objective is to promote regional security by addressing transnational threats and challenges
of common concern to the member states. It focuses on five key pillars of cooperation, including maritime
safety and security, and countering terrorism and radicalization.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The CSC evolved from the 2011 trilateral maritime security grouping of India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.
It was initially known as the NSA Trilateral on Maritime Security.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The CSC is not a military alliance like NATO. It is a regional security grouping that focuses on
cooperation in areas such as maritime security, counter-terrorism, cyber security, and humanitarian
assistance. Unlike NATO, which is primarily a collective defense organization, the CSC's objectives
are broader and more focused on addressing regional security challenges through cooperation rather
than military means.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

20. Solution : B
 The Manama Dialogue is an international security summit that is held annually since 2004
 it is organised by International Institute for Strategic Studies
 It is a central element of Middle East’s security architecture
 The Summit includes participants from Middle East, North America, Europe, Asia and Africa.
 The Summit is held with an aim to provide a platform for national leaders, policy makers and
strategic thinkers to address trending regional security issues as well as facilitate policy discussions
on geopolitics, security trends and conflict resolution.
 Recently the 2024 Summit was held in Bahrain with the theme ‘Middle East leadership in Shaping
regional prosperity and security’.
 In the recent summit, External Affairs minister Dr S. Jayashankar participated from India.
Hence option B is correct

21. Solution: A
 Recently to celebrate the rich heritage of India, the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, in
collaboration with the International Buddhist Confederation, hosted the first Asian Buddhist
Summit in New Delhi in November 2024
 The theme of the Summit was – ‘Role of Buddha Dhamma in strengthening Asia’, featured
prominent leaders, scholars and practitioners from across Asia, fostering dialogue and understanding
while addressing contemporary challenges faced by the Buddhist community.
 The International Buddhist Confederation is a Buddhist umbrella body with its base in New Delhi
 The Confederation, that serves as a common platform for Buddhists worldwide, was established
under patronage of supreme Buddhist religious hierarchy
 it currently has a membership comprising more than 320 organizations in 39 countries.
Hence statement 1 is correct
 Recently the Union cabinet has approved recognition of Pali, Prakrit, Marathi, Assamese and
Bengali as classical languages in India.
 The Asian Buddhist Summit was not related to recognition of any language as classical
language in India.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
 The Asian Buddhist Summit aligns with India's Act East policy and Neighbourhood First Policy and
focuses on collective, inclusive and spiritual development in Asia.
Hence statement 3 is correct

22. Solution : A
 The Global Alliance against Hunger and Poverty has been recently launched at the G20 leader’s
summit in Brazil with an aim to eradicate poverty and hunger worldwide
 The alliance is a voluntary coalition of international organisations, governments, NGOs and others
stakeholders who aim to eradicate hunger, poverty and reduce inequalities and support other
sustainable development goals adopted by the United Nations.
 The alliance has three pillars – knowledge, finance and knowledge at the country level.
 The alliance is open to all United Nations member and observer States, development partners as well
as knowledge institutions
 International organisations like UNICEF, WFP, World Bank are key contributors of the alliance.
 the alliance is a major step towards implementation of the Deccan High level principles on food
security and nutrition 2023, adopted at the G20 New Delhi Summit 2023.
Hence option A is correct

23. Solution: B
 CARICOM or the Caribbean Community is the oldest surviving integration Movement in the
developing world
 It is an organisation of the Caribbean countries and dependencies originally established as the
Caribbean community and Commons Market in 1973 by the Treaty of Chaguaramas .
Hence statement 1 is correct
 CARICOM has 15 members - Antigua and Barbuda, the Bahamas , Barbados, Belize, Dominica,
Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saint Kitts and Nevis, Saint Lucia, Saint Vincent and
the Grenadines, Suriname, Trinidad and Tobago.
 Most of the members are Caribbean Sea Nations.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
 The secretariat for CARICOM is located in Guyana
 it is the principle administrative organ of the Community and is headed by a secretary general who
is the chief executive officer of the community.
Hence statement 3 is correct
 Anguilla, Bermuda, the British virgin Islands Cayman Islands, the Turks and Caicos islands have
associate member status with the grouping
 Columbia, Dominican republic, Aruba Puerto Rico, Venezuela and Mexico have observer
status
 India is not a member or observer nation for the community.
Hence statement 4 is incorrect

24. Solution : B
 Dhudhmara is a village in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh
 Recently the village has been selected to participate in the Best tourism village upgrade programme
under the United Nations Tourism for Rural development program
 the program is run by the UN World Tourism Organisation
 This selection by the organisation marks it's potential as a hub for eco tourism and sustainable
development.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
 Dhudhmara is located in the Kaner valley National park, surrounded by dense forest, the Kanger
river; rich biodiversity here attracts several tourist
 the village is home to Durwa tribe who are part of the Gond tribe.
Hence option B is correct

25. Solution: C
 United Nations Security Council is one of the six major organs of the United Nations
 It is aimed at maintaining international peace and security.
 It has 15 members and each member has one vote.
 The five permanent members at present are United States, United Kingdom, Russia, France and
China
 These five permanent members hold veto power which allows them to block any substantive
resolution.
Hence statement 1 is correct
 The Council has ten non permanent members
 these members are elected by the United Nations General Assembly for 2 year term.
 Each year the general assembly elects five non permanent members for a two year term.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
 More than 50 United Nations member states have never been members of the Security Council
 a state which is a member of the United Nations but not of the security council may participate in its
proceeding but without the right to vote when the Council considers that the country’s interests are
affected
 Both members and non members of the United Nations, if they are parties to dispute being
considered by the Council, maybe invited to take part without a vote in the council’s discussions
 The council sets conditions for participation by a non member state.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect

26. Solution : D
 The Nomadic elephant is a joint military exercise between India and Mongolia the 16th edition
of the exercise was held in July 2024 in Meghalaya
 The aim of the exercise is to enhance joint military capability of both sides to undertake counter
insurgency operations in a subconventional scenario under chapter VII of the United Nations
mandate.
Hence option 1 is incorrect
 Recently the Indian Air Force along with the French Air Force and United Arab Emirates Air Force
conducted the Desert Knight exercise
 it is a joint military exercise that took place over the Arabian sea with the Indian Air Force operating
from bases in India.
Hence option 2 is incorrect
 Vajra Prahar is a joint special forces exercise between Indian Army and US forces
 The recent or 15th edition of the exercise took place in November 2024 in Idaho, USA.
 The aim of the exercise is to promote military cooperation between the countries along with mutual
exchange of special operations tatics.
Hence option 3 is correct
 Mitra Shakti is a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka
 this annual exercise is based on counter insurgency and counter terrorism operations in semi urban
terrain
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
 recently the 10th edition of the exercise (which is the largest bilateral exercise undertaken by the Sri
Lanka Army), took place in Maduruoya, Sri Lanka.
Hence option 4 is correct

27. Solution: D
 Recently, in 2024, the World Telecommunication Standardisation Assembly concluded in New
Delhi.
 It is the governing conference for the standardisation work of the International
Telecommunication Union that is organised every 4 years
 for the first time, this assembly was organised in India and Asia Pacific.
Hence statement 1 is correct
 ITU is a specialised agency of the United Nations for Information and communication Technology
 it was established in 1865 to facilitate Global connectivity in communications network.
Hence statement 2 is correct
 AI Bharat 5G/6G Sandbox’ was launched by India as a part of the WTSA 2024.
 It is designed to profile Innovation and harness the power of Artificial intelligence and machine
learning in the next generation of communication network.
Hence statement 3 is correct

28. Solution: C
 The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation or BIMSTEC
was established by the Bangkok Declaration in 1997
 it was originally named as BIST-EC (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand Economic
Cooperation)
 it initially included these four countries and later expanded to include Myanmar, Bhutan and Nepal.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
 The BIMSTEC operates in a sector driven manner with areas of cooperation being divided among
members.
 India is responsible for promotion of Security with sub-sectors- counter terrorism and
transnational crime, disaster management and Energy
 On the other hand, Bhutan is responsible for environment and climate change sectors with sub
sector - mountain economy.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
 The BIMSTEC Energy Centre is located in Bengaluru India within the premises of Central
Power Research Institute
 The centre aims to provide transnational natural gas pipelines, promote overall development of hydro
potential and supply energy to member states , research on new and other renewable sources of
energy, among other functions.
Hence statement 3 is correct

29. Solution : A
 The G4 Nations include India, Brazil, Germany and Japan.
 These are the four countries that support each others bids for permanent seats on the United Nations
Security Council.
 These countries are aspiring to become permanent members of the UNSC
 These Nations traditionally meet on the sidelines of annual high level United Nations General
Assembly sessions.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
 They also agree on the need for enhanced role and presence of developing countries and of major
contributors to the United Nations to enhance the capacity of the Council to respond effectively to
the evolving challenges in the context of International Security.
Hence option A is correct

30. Solution: C
 The International Labour Organisation is devoted to promoting Social justice and internationally
recognise human and Labour rights.
 The International Labour Conference sets the International Labour standards and broad
policies of the ILO
 It meets annually in Geneva and is often called an international parliament of labour since it is a
forum for discussion of key issues related to labour.
Hence statement 1 is correct
 The Governing Body of the International Labour office is the executive body of the International
Labour Organisation
 it meets thrice a year and takes decisions on ILO policies the sets agenda of the International Labour
Conference
 it also adopts draft program and budget of the organisation for submission to the conference
and election of Director General of ILO.
Hence statement 2 is correct
 RISE For Impact project has been launched by the International Labour Organisation
 the project aimsto enhance respect for fundamental principles and rights at work for a
sustainable cotton supply chain in India, Pakistan and Uzbekistan.
Hence statement 3 is correct

31. Solution: C
 The United Nations Commission on Narcotic Drugs was established in 1946 by an Economic and
Social Council resolution to assist the council in supervising the application of international
drug control Treaties.
 In 1991 the United Nations General Assembly expanded the mandate of the CND to function as
governing body of United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC).
 The CND’s agenda has two distinct segments : a normative segment for discharging treaty- based
and normative functions; and an operational segment for exercising the role as governing body of
UNODC.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

32. Solution : C
 India imports almost 70 to 80% of its lithium and 70% of its lithium ion from China.
 Currently nearly all of 15 GWh lithium ion battery demand of India is met through these inports.
 However to shift the scenario, India accelerates its push towards renewable energy aiming meet 50%
of its energy need from renewable sources by 2030.
Hence statement 1 is correct
 As of now, Australia is the largest lithium producer in the world
 It is followed by Chile, China and Argentina.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33

33. Solution: C
 The Indo Pacific Economic Framework was launched jointly by the United States and other
partner countries of the Indo Pacific region in 2022
 the 14 members of the partnership are Australia, Brunei, Darussalam, Fiji , India, Indonesia , Japan,
Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam
 the framework aims to advance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth and
competitiveness for the economies.
 It is not a free trade agreement.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
The Framework began discussions of future negotiations based on four pillars which include:
 Trade
 Supply chain
 Clean Energy Decarbonization and infrastructure
 Tax and anti corruption
All partners are not required to join all the four pillars.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
 Unlike other multinational trade deals, free trade agreements, this Framework is not binding on the
State parties.
Hence statement 3 is correct

34. Solution: B
 The Global Refugees Forum is the largest International gathering on refugees in the world
 it is organised by the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees, the UN Refugee
Agency.
 Held every 4 years it brings together states, refugees and host Communities, private sector, civil
society, International organisations, local authorities, scholars, parliaments and others who have a
role in supporting refugees globally.
 The first forum took place in Geneva in December 2019 and the second was held in December 2023.
Hence statement 1 is correct
 The Global refugees forum was established to support the practical implementation of the Global
Compact on Refugees
 the compact seeks to transform the way the world responds to Refugee situations.
Hence statement 2 is correct
 The Cartegena declaration on Refugees was adopted by colloquium on the International
Protection of Refugees in Central America, Mexico and Panama, Cartegena Declaration India’s,
Columbia on 22nd November 1984.
 2024 marks 40th anniversary of the Cartagena Declaration on refugees; while the first Global
Refugees Forum was organised in 2019.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
35. Solution: A
 The Triton Island is a tiny and mostly uninhabited Island
 It is a part of the Paracel islands chain in the South China sea
 it covers and area of about 1.2 square kilometre and is located Southwest of the main island in the
group
 Although uninhabited, the island plays a strategic role due to its location in the South China sea in an
area which is known for its rich fishing ground and potential natural gas and oil Reserves.
Hence statement 1 is correct
 The Paracel Islands are currently occupied by China
 China, Taiwan and Vietnam claim rights over the Paracel Islands.
Hence statement 2 is Incorrect

36. Solution: B
 Recently the 16th BRICS Summit concluded with adoption of the Kazan declaration.
 It is a comprehensive document that outlines major areas of cooperation and BRICS agenda on
global issues
 The theme of the recent Summit was Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and
Security.
 The declaration made a commitment to cooperate for International financial architecture reforms ; it
also aims to promote economic cooperation among the members.
Hence option B is correct

37. Solution : A
 Darranga is a land port located in Assam.
 Recently in a bid to strengthen India-Bhutan relations the Immigration Check Post at Darranga in
Assam’s Tamulpur district along Indo-Bhutan border has been inaugurated
 This pivotal land port is positioned just 700 m from the Bhutanese border to enhance regional
connectivity and economic growth
 the new check post is equipped with state of the art facilities to streamline cross border travel and
trade.
 The check post is strategically located to leverage the improved connectivity offered by National
Highway 27 and the reinforced customs infrastructure in Bhutan ensuring efficient operations.
Hence option A is correct

38. Solution : C
 The Eastern Maritime Corridor is a sea link connecting Chennai port in the eastern coast of India
with ports in the far east region of Russia, the Vladivostok port.
 The link passes through the Sea of Japan, South China sea and the Malacca Strait.
 The new route is crucial for enhancing trade in sectors like coal, fertilizer, metal, crude oil, with
India becoming largest importer of Russian oil
 the corridor will significantly promote bilateral trade dynamics and economic and strategic
cooperation between India and Russia.
Hence option C is correct
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
39. Solution: D
 Recently a Summit on Peace in Ukraine was held in Switzerland that concluded with hopes for an
end to Russia Ukraine conflict
 Out of 100 delegations, 80 countries and 4 organisation supported final joint communique from the
Path to Peace Summit which focused on finding ways to terminate the Russia-Ukraine war that has
been on going since two years.
 The Swiss Summit or the Summit on Peace is an international conference aimed at addressing and
finding solutions to the ongoing conflict between Russia and Ukraine.
 The Summit witnessed participation from a wide range of participants including representatives from
numerous countries, International organisations and peace advocacy groups.
 The Summit also promoted importance of providing humanitarian assistance to those affected by the
conflict.
 India was represented by Secretary (West) in the Ministry of External Affairs in the Summit.
Hence option D is correct

40. Solution: D
The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 (Sendai Framework) is the first major
agreement of the post-2015 development agenda, with seven targets and four priorities for action. It was
endorsed by the UN General Assembly following the 2015 Third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk
Reduction (WCDRR).

41. Solution: B
The World Government Summit (WGS) is an annual global event held in Dubai, United Arab Emirates,
that brings together world leaders, policymakers, experts, and thought leaders to discuss and address
pressing global issues and shape the future of governance.
The WGS focuses heavily on innovative governance practices. The summit serves as a platform for sharing
knowledge, best practices, and innovative solutions among participating nations and organizations. It
explores themes such as government acceleration and transformation, digital transformation, and the use of
technology in governance.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

While networking and collaboration among leaders do occur, the summit's main objective is not to
strengthen bilateral relations. Instead, it aims to foster global cooperation and address shared challenges on a
multilateral level
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
he WGS consistently addresses major global challenges, including climate change and artificial intelligence.
For instance, the 2024 summit's agenda includes themes such as "Artificial Intelligence and The Next
Frontiers" and "Sustainability and The New Global Shifts". The summit also covers topics like urbanization,
global health priorities, and future economies.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
42. Solution: B
The Kaladan Multimodal Transit
Transport Project is a significant
infrastructure initiative aimed at enhancing
connectivity between India and Myanmar.
Launched in 2008, the project seeks to create
a seamless transport corridor that links the
eastern Indian port of Kolkata with Sittwe
Port in Myanmar and further connects to the
northeastern Indian state of Mizoram through
a combination of sea, river, and road
transport.

43. Solution: B
The Baltic Sea is a significant body of water
in Northern Europe, surrounded by several
countries collectively known as the Baltic Sea littoral states. These nations play crucial roles in the region's
geopolitics, economy, and environmental management.The Baltic Sea littoral states include:
1. Denmark
2. Estonia
3. Finland
4. Germany
5. Latvia
6. Lithuania
7. Poland
8. Russia
9. Sweden
Norway, while geographically close to the Baltic Sea region and often associated with Nordic and
Scandinavian countries, does not have a coastline on the Baltic Sea itself. Norway's coast primarily faces the
North Sea and the Norwegian Sea, which are part of the Atlantic Ocean.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
44. Solution: B
The Duqm Port is a strategically significant deep-sea port
located in Oman, offering vital access to key maritime
routes in the region. This port has gained considerable
attention due to its strategic location and its potential to
enhance India's maritime presence in the Indian Ocean
region.

45. Solution: C
Both statements are correct.
The World Customs Organization (WCO) is a key
intergovernmental organization that plays a crucial role in international trade facilitation and customs
procedures.
The WCO was established in 1952, originally as the Customs Co-operation Council (CCC). It was
founded with the aim of improving the efficiency and effectiveness of customs administrations worldwide.
The organization's history dates back to 1947 when a study group was set up to examine the possibility of
establishing European Customs Unions. This led to the creation of the CCC in 1952, which later became
known as the World Customs Organization in 1994.

The WCO developed the International Convention on the Simplification and Harmonization of
Customs Procedures, known as the Kyoto Convention, which entered into force in 1974. The
convention was later revised and updated to meet the current demands of international trade,
resulting in the Revised Kyoto Convention (RKC). The RKC was adopted by the WCO in June 1999 and
entered into force in 2006. Its primary purpose is to simplify and harmonize customs procedures globally.
The RKC promotes trade facilitation and effective controls through its legal provisions that detail the
application of simple yet efficient procedures. It serves as a blueprint for modern and efficient customs
procedures in the 21st century.
Key features of the RKC include:
 Standardization and simplification of goods declaration and supporting documents
 Maximum use of information technology
 Use of risk management and audit-based controls
 Coordinated interventions with other border agencies
 Partnership approach between customs and trade

46. Solution: B
The United States Presidential Election is a complex process that utilizes an indirect electoral system known
as the Electoral College. This system, established by the Founding Fathers in the Constitution, serves as a
compromise between electing the President by popular vote and by a vote in Congress.
In the U.S. presidential election, voters in each state cast ballots for electors who are pledged to vote for
specific candidates. These electors then meet in their respective state capitals to cast their votes for President
and Vice President.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The number of electors for each state is not equal, but rather is determined by the state's
congressional representation. Each state receives a number of electors equal to its total number of
Senators (always two) and Representatives in the U.S. House of Representatives (which varies based on
the state's population).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
To win the presidency, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of electoral votes, which is at least 270
out of the total 538 electoral votes.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

47. Solution: B
The Mediterranean Dialogues (MED) is an annual high-level conference focused on addressing key
challenges and promoting cooperation in the Mediterranean region. Launched in 2015, this event has
become a significant platform for discussing and developing strategies to tackle pressing issues affecting the
broader Mediterranean area.
Recent editions of MED have placed a strong emphasis on sustainable development issues, including
climate change adaptation and resilience in various Mediterranean territories such as coastal, urban, rural,
and maritime areas. The conference aims to rethink traditional approaches to the Mediterranean area and
draft a "positive agenda" for addressing common security and socio-economic challenges.

48. Solution: C
The India-CARICOM Summit is a significant diplomatic event that brings together India and the
Caribbean Community (CARICOM) nations to discuss and enhance cooperation in various sectors.
CARICOM comprises 21 countries, including 15 member states and six associate members, and focuses on
promoting economic integration and cooperation among its members. The summit aims to strengthen ties
and address shared challenges faced by both India and CARICOM nations.

At the recent second India-CARICOM Summit held in November 2024, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
outlined several key areas for cooperation, which include:
1. Climate Change Mitigation:
 The summit emphasized the importance of addressing climate change as a critical issue for both
India and CARICOM countries. Collaborative efforts were proposed to tackle climate-related
challenges, particularly through initiatives such as the International Solar Alliance and Mission
LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment). This indicates a strong commitment to climate change
mitigation strategies.
2. Renewable Energy Development:
 Renewable energy was highlighted as a priority area for cooperation. The summit discussed
enhancing collaboration on renewable energy projects, with an emphasis on sustainable energy
solutions that can benefit both regions. This includes sharing technology and best practices in
renewable energy development.
3. Trade and Investment Promotion:
 The summit also focused on promoting trade and investment between India and CARICOM
nations. By enhancing economic ties, both regions aim to create opportunities for mutual growth
and development. This aligns with India's broader strategy to strengthen its presence in the
Caribbean region.

49. Solution: B
The South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ Council (SATRC) is a collaborative platform
established in 1997 under the auspices of the Asia-Pacific Telecommunity (APT). Its primary goal is to
facilitate cooperation among telecommunications regulators in South Asia, which includes countries such as
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Iran, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. SATRC serves as a
forum for discussing regulatory challenges and promoting harmonized practices in the telecommunications
sector.
Key Objectives of SATRC
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
1. Promoting Regional Cooperation: SATRC aims to foster collaboration among member countries
on various regulatory issues related to telecommunications and information and communication
technology (ICT). This includes sharing best practices and experiences among regulators.
2. Harmonization of Standards: One of the significant objectives of SATRC is to promote the
establishment of common standards in telecommunications across member countries. This
harmonization is crucial for ensuring compatibility and interoperability of services and technologies.
3. Encouraging Collaboration on Emerging Technologies: SATRC focuses on facilitating
discussions around emerging technologies such as 5G, artificial intelligence (AI), and other
innovations in telecommunications. This objective is particularly relevant as countries seek to
enhance their digital infrastructure and leverage new technologies for economic growth.
4. Addressing Regulatory Trends: The council discusses current regulatory trends and issues that
affect the telecommunications landscape in South Asia. This includes addressing challenges posed
by technological advancements and market dynamics.
5. Capacity Building: SATRC also emphasizes capacity building among member countries to enhance
their regulatory capabilities and adapt to the rapidly changing telecommunications environment.

50. Solution : B
 The Philadelphi Corridor is a narrow stretch of land along the Gaza- Egypt border
 This hundred metre wide stretch runs for about 14 km.
 It was established by Israel as a buffer zone after the 1967 war to monitor and control movement
between Gaza and Egypt.
 At present time the corridor has become a strategic point in negotiations as it is a major route for
smuggling of goods, food, weapons and fighters through tunnels dug beneath it.
 Recently the Israeli prime minister Benjamin Netanyahu spoke of permanently controlling the
corridor to Limit activities including smuggling of arms
 however authorities in Palestine and Egypt demand that Israel withdraw from the corridor in line
with previous agreements.
Hence option B is correct

51. Solution: C
 The Digital Framework or DiGi has been launched by United States, Japan and South Korea.
 The Framework aims to support projects across Information and communication Technology sector
in India with target on critical areas like 5G, Open RAN, submarine cables, optical fibre network,
data centre, Smart City, E-Commerce, Artificial intelligence and Quantum Technology
 the collaboration between these countries and Indian private sector partners seeks to boost
connectivity , digital infrastructure and Technology innovations in India.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

52. Solution : D
 Anaconda strategy refers to the military strategy that primarily seeks to suffocate a Confederacy
economically and using military power , similar to how an Anaconda coils around an asphyxiates its
prey.
 The Strategy was first proposed by union general Winfield Scott during the early stages of American
Civil War.
 Recently Taiwan has claimed that China is using this strategy towards Taiwan.
 China is following this strategy against Taiwan by encycling the nation by both air and sea,
increasing the number of incursions in Taiwan Strait and employing ships to operate around the
country. Hence option D is correct
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33

53. Solution: B
 The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons is an intergovernmental Organisation
established in 1997
 it is the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention.
 The organisation has its headquarter in the Hague, Netherlands and oversees the Global efforts to
eliminate chemical weapons.
Hence statement 1 is correct
 The Chemical Weapons Convention is the world's first multilateral disarmament agreement to
provide for the elimination of an entire category of Weapons of mass destruction within a fixed time
period
 India was an original signatory of the convention.
Hence statement 2 is correct
 The Indian Chemical Council was established in 1938 much before the inception of OPCW.
 The Council is dedicated to the growth and promotion of the chemical industry in India
 It promotes all branches of the industry through a variety of events, awards , training, policy advice
and other related activities.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect

54. Solution: C
 Recently, the Indian Farmers Fertilizers Cooperative Limited hosted the Global Cooperative
Conference.
 The Global Cooperative Conference is organised by the international Cooperative Alliance; it
was established in 1895 to promote the cooperative model globally.
 The members of ICA are International and national Cooperative organisations from all sectors of the
economy
 More than 300 organisations from about 105 countries are members of the ICA which operates from
its central office in Brussels, Belgium.
 The Conference provides a platform for leaders, policy makers and stakeholders to address issues,
share policies and strategies for advancing the Cooperative movement.
 The conference in India marked the official launch of the UN International year of Cooperative 2025
by Indian prime minister with the theme ‘Cooperatives build a better world ’
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

55. Solution: D
 Recently the Government of India has announced a USD 25 million G20 Pandemic Fund.
 The initiative comes in response to pandemic such as the recent co-ed 19 which can transmit from
animals to human
 The fund has been developed in partnership with the Asian Development Bank, World Bank,
Food and Agriculture Organisation.
 The plan is to utilize the fund by August 2026.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
 The fund has been launched to create a Framework for monitoring and managing diseases that
originate in animals and spread from animals to humans i.e., zoonotic diseases.
 Under it disease surveillance including environmental monitoring, strengthening cross border
collaboration will be undertaken.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33

56. Solution: C
 Voice of Global South Summit is an India led initiative that envisages to bring together countries
of the Global south and share their perspectives and priorities on a common platform on several
issues.
 Recent Global developments including the outbreak of the pandemic, debt issues, food and energy
security challenges have impacted the developing world and concerns of these countries do not
receive proper attention on the Global stage.
 The first Voice of Global South Summit was held in January 2023 and the second in November 2023
 Rcently India hosted the third summit in 2024 in virtual format.
Hence option C is correct

57. Solution: A
 The Indian Community Welfare Fund was set up in 2009 to assist Overseas Indian nationals in times
of emergency and distress in the most deserving cases on a ‘means tested’ basis
 It includes critical support in emergency evacuation of Indian nationals from conflict zones,
countries affected by natural disasters and other challenging situations.
Hence statement 1 is correct
 ICWF funds can be used to assist only Indian citizens residing in host country or those in distress
while visiting a foreign country.
 Persons of Indian Origin and Overseas Citizens of India card holders are not eligible for
financial assistance from the fund.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect

58. Solution : D
 Kursk is a city and administrative Centre located on the South Western border of Russia, in
the centre of the European part of the country.
 It is characterized by its fertile soil and is located in the area known as Black Earth territory.
 It is one of the oldest cities in Russia.
 It has many industries including machine building, food processing, manufacture of electronic
equipment and synthetic rubbers.
Hence option D is correct

59. Solution : A
 St. Martins Island is a coral island under control of Bangladesh
 It is the country’s only coral island and a breeding ground for sea turtles
 The Island is located in the North Eastern region of the Bay of Bengal close to Bangladesh Myanmar
border
 The island is 7.3 km long and is about 3.6 m above the mean sea level.
 Recently after former Bangladesh prime minister resigned, the island came into controversy over the
issue of its lease authority to USA.
Hence option A is correct
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
60. Solution : B
 Maritime Heads for Active Security and Growth for All in the Region or MAHASAGAR is a
flagship initiative of Indian Navy to promote high level virtual interaction among the leaders of
the Indian Ocean Region.
 Initiative is conducted biannually the participating countries are Bangladesh, Comoros , Kenya,
Madagascar, Maldives , Mauritius, Mozambique, Sri Lanka, Seychelles and Tanzania.
 Recently the third edition was conducted by Indian Navy in 2024.
 The theme of this edition was ‘Training Cooperation to mitigate common Maritime security
challenges in the Indian Ocean region’, which highlights the present and necessary imperatives for
training cooperation towards mitigation of common Maritime challenges in the region.
Hence option B is correct

61. Solution : B
 The International Court of Justice was created under the United Nations charter as the principle
judicial arm of the UN.
 The International Criminal Court is governed by an international Treaty called the Rome
statute.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
 The Assembly of State Parties or the Assembly is the court’s management oversight and
legislative body
 It is composed of representatives of the states which have ratified or acceded to the Rome Statute.
Hence statement 2 is correct
The Rome Statute brands the ICC jurisdiction over four main crimes :
 Crime of genocide to destroy in whole or in part of a national , ethnic, religious or racial group by
killing its members or by any other means
 It can prosecute crimes against humanity which are serious violations committed as part of a large
scale attack against any civilian population
 War Crimes that are grave breaches of the Geneva Convention in the context of armed conflict
including use of child soldiers, killing or torture of person such as civilians or prisoners of war,
attack against hospitals, historical monuments or buildings dedicated to art, religion or charitable
purposes
 Crime of aggression including use of armed force by a State against the sovereignty integrity or
independence of another state.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect

62. Solution : A
 The Colombo Process is a grouping of 12 Asian member states including India, Afghanistan,
Bangladesh, Cambodia , China, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand and
Vietnam.
 It serves as a regional consultative platform to promote sharing of best practices related to
overseas employment for countries in the South and South East Asia who sent migrant workers to
other countries.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
 The International Organisation for Migration provides technical and administrative support to the
Colombo process.
 The Colombo Process Technical support provides technical support in its thematic areas of focus.
Hence statement 2 is correct
 Any decision taken by the members under the Colombo process are made by consensus
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
 all such decisions are non binding on the member parties.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect

63. Solution : C
 The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development is an intergovernmental knowledge
and learning centre working on behalf of the people of the Hindu Kush Himalaya region
 the organisation work in and for the 8 regional member countries- Afghanistan, Bangladesh,
Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan.
 The organisation works to improve the lives and livelihood s of the region and protect Himalayan
environment and cultures.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
 ICIMOD is based in Kathmandu, Nepal.
Hence statement 2 is correct
 The International Food Policy Research Institute and the International Centre for Integrated
Mountain Development recently signed a memorandum of understanding pledging a 5 year
collaboration to bolster climate resiliant agriculture and sustainable development in the Hindu Kush
Himalaya region
 the region is characterized by unique extreme landscapes, diverse population impacted by climate
change, pollution and biodiversity loss
 the partnership leverages IFPRI’s policy expertise related to agriculture and food systems and
ICIMOD’s experience and knowledge sharing about the region for holistic development of the
region.
Hence statement 3 is correct

64. Solution : B
 Recently the Government of India has notified the International Container Transshipment hub at
Galathea Bay as a major port.
 It is located in the great Nicobar island of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
 It is eligible for Central funding and will be developed under public private partnership model
 It will help capture a large share of Transshipped cargo which is handled usually at ports outside
India.
Hence option B is correct

65. Solution: c)
Justification: The wetlands are part of the Central Asian Flyway and serve as an important stopover
for migratory bird species.
About Thrissur-Ponnani Kole Wetlands:
 Location: Spreads across Thrissur and Malappuram districts in Kerala, India.
 Significance:
 Provides 40% of Kerala’s rice requirement.
 Acts as a natural drainage system for Thrissur city, Ponnani city, and surrounding districts.
 Part of the Central Asian Flyway, supporting migratory bird species.
 Boundaries: Lies between Chalakudy River (South) and Bharathappuzha River (North), extending
to Ponnani Taluk.
 Hydrological Network: Connects to Enamavu River, Canoli Canal, Chettuva River, and flows into
the Arabian Sea.
 Soil Fertility: Enriched by alluvium soil deposited by Kechery and Karuvannoor rivers during
monsoons.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
66. Solution: c)
Justification:
The correct matches for each farming technique and description are as follows:
A (Vertical Farming) - 3: Vertical farming involves growing plants in stacked layers, typically indoors, with
artificial lighting and controlled environmental factors, making it ideal for urban spaces.
B (Aquaponics) - 1: Aquaponics combines fish farming with hydroponic plant cultivation; fish waste
supplies nutrients to plants, and the plants help clean the water for the fish, creating a symbiotic system.
C (Precision Agriculture) - 2: Precision agriculture uses technology like IoT, GPS, and data analysis to
optimize the use of inputs such as water, fertilizers, and pesticides, ensuring efficient resource use and
maximizing yield.
D (Hydroponics) - 4: Hydroponics is a soil-free cultivation method where plants grow in a nutrient-rich
water solution, enabling growth in controlled environments with high yield efficiency.

67. Solution: d)
Justification:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The stupika (dome) is octagonal, not square-shaped.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The temple has two large gopuras adorned with intricate sculptures.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The inscriptions detail historical events, rituals, gifts, and construction overseen by
Raja Raja Chola I.

About Brihadeeswarar Temple (Rajarajeswaram)

 Location: Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, part of the
UNESCO “Great Living Chola Temples.”
 Era: Built in 1009 CE by Raja Raja Chola I, it is
the largest and tallest Indian temple.
Design:
 Features a massive 70-meter pyramidal
vimana with an octagonal dome-shaped stupika.
 Two large gopuras adorned with intricate
sculptures.
 Sanctum houses a two-storey lingam of Lord Shiva.
 Cultural Significance: Repository of Tamil inscriptions detailing rituals, gifts, and the temple’s
construction overseen by Raja Raja Chola himself.
 Artistry: Painted murals, sculptural narratives, and stucco figures (added later during the Maratha
period).
Other Chola Temples:
 Gangaikonda Cholapuram (by Rajendra I).
 Airavatesvara Temple (by Rajaraja Chola II).

68. Solution: b)
Justification:
Option (b) is correct as the Out Turn Ratio (OTR) measures the percentage of rice yield obtained from
paddy after milling, a crucial factor for millers’ profitability. A higher OTR translates to greater rice
yield per unit of paddy, which directly impacts the financial outcome for millers.

Options (a) and (c) are incorrect because OTR does not measure moisture content or purity; these factors,
while important, do not define the OTR.

Option (d) is also incorrect, as OTR is a percentage measurement of rice yield per 100 kg of paddy, not a
weight ratio. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) requires an OTR of 67%, meaning that for every 100 kg
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
of paddy, millers are expected to yield 67 kg of rice. Falling below this standard can result in penalties for
millers, especially with certain hybrid varieties that may yield only 60-62%.

69. Solution: a)
Only Statement 1 is correct.
Justification:
About International Cooperative Alliance:
 Origin: Established in 1895 during the 1st Cooperative Congress in London, England.
 History: One of the oldest NGOs, representing over 1 billion cooperative members globally across
105 countries.
 Aim: To unite cooperatives worldwide, promote sustainable development, and support member
organizations.
 Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
 Summits: Regular global and regional summits foster collaboration and address cooperative
challenges.

70. Solution: d)
Justification:
Statement 1 is false as Patel strongly opposed the Nawab’s decision to accede to Pakistan, given Junagadh’s
geographical position within India. Patel responded decisively, leading to its reintegration with India rather
than conceding to Pakistan.
Statement 2 is incorrect because Patel initiated a public referendum in Junagadh, which indeed resulted in a
majority vote for joining India, not remaining independent.
Statement 3 is incorrect as Patel’s approach included the threat of force due to the Nawab’s resistance,
showcasing his readiness to use decisive measures when diplomacy failed. This example reflects Patel’s
pragmatism and commitment to maintaining India’s territorial integrity, which played a crucial role in
consolidating the newly independent nation.

71. Solution: d)
Justification:
Munshi actively participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930, 1932) and was jailed for his
involvement.
Kanhaiyalal Maneklal Munshi (Ghanshyam Vyas)
 Birth: Born on 30th December 1887, in Gujarat.
 Freedom Fighter:
 Active in Indian Home Rule Movement as Secretary in 1915.
 Participated in Civil Disobedience Movement (1930, 1932) and Individual Satyagraha (1940);
jailed twice.
 Political Roles:
 Elected to Bombay Legislative Assembly (1927, 1937); resigned during Bardoli Satyagraha.
 Served as Home Minister of Bombay Presidency, managing communal riots.
 Educational Contributions:
 Founded Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan in 1938, a renowned educational trust.
 Literary Achievements:
 Authored over 50 books in Gujarati and English, including Krishnavatara and Saga of Indian
Sculpture.
 Philosophical Influences:
o Influenced by Shri Aurobindo, aligning with revolutionary ideas initially.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
72. Solution: d)
Justification:
Peripheral urbanisation refers to the expansion of cities into adjacent rural regions, creating peri-
urban zones that integrate both urban and rural elements.
This form of urbanisation often results from a need for more land for housing, industry, and infrastructure
due to population growth in central areas.
Peri-urban areas are characterised by mixed land use, where agriculture and industry coexist.
Urban infrastructure like roads, utilities, and public facilities extends into these areas, contradicting
statement 3.
Peripheral urbanisation can lead to economic growth for nearby rural populations, as they gain access to
urban markets and employment opportunities.

73. Solution: c)
Justification:
While NMNF focuses on natural farming and includes real-time geo-tagged monitoring via an online portal,
it aims to establish 10,000 Bio-input Resource Centres (BRCs). This distinction highlights the program’s
emphasis on facilitating inputs for natural farming but within a realistic framework of implementation.
About National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF):
 Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
 Central Sponsored Scheme.
 Aim: To promote natural, chemical-free farming practices for sustainability, climate resilience,
soil health rejuvenation, and nutritious food production.
Key Features:
 Implementation in 15,000 clusters across Gram Panchayats, covering 5 lakh Ha and reaching 1
crore farmers.
 Establishment of 10,000 Bio-input Resource Centres (BRCs) and 2000 NF Model Demonstration
Farms at KVKs, Agricultural Universities, and farmers’ fields.
 Training of 75 lakh farmers and deployment of 30,000 Krishi Sakhis/CRPs for mobilisation and
handholding support.
 Certification system and common branding for marketing NF produce.
 Real-time geo-tagged monitoring via an online portal.
Q Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2077094

74. Solution: d)
Justification:
Statement 1 is incorrect because gamma rays are blocked by Earth’s atmosphere; they can only be
detected indirectly using instruments like Imaging Atmospheric Cherenkov Telescopes (IACTs).
Statement 2 is incorrect because gamma rays themselves are not visible; Cherenkov radiation, caused by
gamma rays interacting with atmospheric molecules, produces faint blue light, but gamma rays themselves
remain invisible.
Statement 3 is incorrect because gamma rays are produced by various phenomena, including pulsars,
black holes, and gamma-ray bursts, not just during nuclear reactions within stars.
About Gamma Rays:
 Definition: Gamma rays are the shortest wavelength and highest energy form of electromagnetic
radiation.
 Sources: Produced by pulsars, supernovae, black holes, gamma-ray bursts, and potential dark matter
particle interactions.
 Properties: Energy > 100,000 eV, hazardous to living cells, and blocked by Earth’s atmosphere.
 Detection: Indirectly observed on Earth using Imaging Atmospheric Cherenkov Telescopes (IACTs)
like MACE.
 Cherenkov Radiation: Faint blue light emitted when gamma rays interact with atmospheric
molecules, creating electron-positron showers.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33

75. Solution: b)
Justification:
Statement 1 is correct, as the 30-by-30 target aims to conserve 30% of both land and marine areas by
2030, reflecting a balanced focus on terrestrial and marine biodiversity.
Statement 3 is also correct, as COP-16 stressed the importance of integrating biodiversity targets like the 30-
by-30 goal into national policies and aligning them with climate change actions.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the target is not exclusively focused on marine areas; it covers both land
and marine ecosystems.
Statement 4 is incorrect as the target is intended to be globally inclusive, with all countries, both developed
and developing, contributing to its achievement.

76. Solution: a)
Justification:
 Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act maintains the status quo as of August 15, 1947, not
January 26, 1950.
 Statement 2 is correct as Section 3 prohibits conversion of religious sites to other denominations.
 Statement 3 is correct because the Ayodhya dispute was specifically excluded since it was sub-
judice.

About Places of Worship Act, 1991:

 Objective: Prohibits the conversion of a place of worship and ensures its religious character as
on August 15, 1947.
Key Provisions:
 Section 3: Bars conversion of a place of worship, either wholly or partly, to a different denomination
or segment.
 Maintains the religious status quo of all places of worship as of Independence Day, 1947.
 Prohibits legal suits or claims to alter the status of any place of worship.
Exemptions:
 Ayodhya dispute: Excluded as the case was sub-judice at the time.
 Ancient monuments: Covered under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and
Remains Act, 1958.
 Disputes resolved by mutual consent or settled before the law’s enforcement.
Significance: Aims to maintain communal harmony by preventing religious conflicts over historical
claims.

77. Solution: a)
Justification:
Statement 2 is correct, as polio is highly infectious and attacks the nervous system, which can result in
paralysis or even death.
Statement 1 is incorrect; polio primarily affects children under five years of age.
Statement 3 is also incorrect, as many polio infections are asymptomatic, and only a small percentage of
cases lead to visible symptoms or paralysis.
Statement 4 is incorrect because polio can affect the respiratory muscles, potentially causing respiratory
complications in severe cases.
About Polio Virus:
 Definition: Polio is a highly infectious viral disease primarily affecting children under five, causing
paralysis and sometimes death by attacking the nervous system.
Types of Polio Virus:
 Wild Poliovirus Types:
o WPV1: Currently the most common strain.
o WPV2: Eradicated globally.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
o WPV3: Declared eradicated in 2019.
 Vaccine-derived Poliovirus (VDPV): Occurs when the weakened virus in the oral polio vaccine
(OPV) reverts to a more virulent form, potentially causing outbreaks in under-immunized areas.
Vaccines:
 Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV): Contains weakened virus, given at birth, with additional doses at 6, 10,
and 14 weeks, and a booster at 16-24 months.
 Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV): Administered with DPT in the Universal Immunization
Programme (UIP) as a booster for added immunity.
Vaccine-derived Poliovirus (VDPV):
 Circulating VDPV (cVDPV): Develops in under-immunized populations when the vaccine strain
spreads and mutates.
 Immune-deficiency VDPV (iVDPV): Can occur in immune-deficient individuals who carry and
excrete the virus for extended periods.
 Ambiguous VDPV (aVDPV): Cases that do not fit into cVDPV or iVDPV categories.

 Transmission: Primarily through the fecal-oral route, the virus multiplies in the intestine, allowing it
to invade the nervous system.
 Global Eradication Efforts: Multiple rounds of OPV immunization are recommended to stop
cVDPV transmission, with high-quality immunization campaigns being critical.
 India’s Status: Declared polio-free by WHO in 2014, with the last wild polio case reported in 2011.

78. Solution: c)
Justification:
About Satellites Used to Track Stubble Burning:
 NASA Satellites:
o Aqua (2002) and Suomi-NPP (2011) with MODIS and VIIRS instruments detect fires via
visible and infrared imaging during overpasses at 1:30 p.m. and 1:30 a.m. local time.
o Ozone Mapping and Profiler Suite measures aerosol levels to assess smoke impact on air
quality.
 South Korea’s GEO-KOMPSAT 2A:
o Provides continuous geostationary observations to capture fires missed by Aqua and Suomi-
NPP.
 European Space Agency’s Sentinel II:
o Offers burnt area data every five days.
 Indian Satellites:
o INSAT-3DR: Tracks fire activity but with coarse resolution, limiting accuracy.
o RESOURCESAT Series: LISS-3, LISS-4, and AWiFS sensors detect fires with varying
spatial resolutions.

79. Solution: b)
Justification:
Nal Sarovar, a prominent saline lake located in Gujarat, is renowned for its ecological significance and
migratory bird population.

Statement 1 is correct, as the lake’s saline characteristics and geographical location in Gujarat are well-
established. It serves as a critical habitat for a variety of migratory birds during the winter season, earning its
designation as a Ramsar site, a global recognition for wetlands of international importance, making
Statement 2 correct.
However, Statement 3 is incorrect because Nal Sarovar is situated in western India (Gujarat) rather than in
Northeast India, which is geographically distinct and known for lakes like Loktak in Manipur. Additionally,
Statement 4 is incorrect since Nal Sarovar is primarily a saline water body and not a freshwater lake. Its
saline properties are essential for its unique ecosystem, which supports specialized flora and fauna.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
80. Solution: c)
Justification:
The State Innovation Mission (SIM) under AIM 2.0 aims to strengthen state-level innovation ecosystems in
alignment with NITI Aayog’s State Support Mission. However, bilateral and multilateral collaborations
fall under AIM’s international collaboration initiatives, not SIM.

About Atal Innovation Mission 2.0:

 Ministry/ Department: NITI Aayog.
 Budget: ₹2,750 crore till March 2028.
 Aim: To strengthen India’s innovation and entrepreneurship ecosystem by improving input,
throughput, and output quality in innovation.
Key Features:
 Language Inclusive Program of Innovation (LIPI): Establish 30 Vernacular Innovation Centers in
22 scheduled languages.
 Frontier Program: Develop customized innovation templates for J&K, Ladakh, NE states, and
aspirational districts with 2,500 new ATLs.
 Human Capital Development Program: Train 5,500 professionals to build and sustain innovation
ecosystems.
 Deeptech Reactor: Pilot research sandboxes for deep tech startups requiring long-term investment.
 State Innovation Mission (SIM): Strengthen innovation ecosystems in states/UTs, integrated with
NITI Aayog’s State Support Mission.
 International Innovation Collaborations: Host Global Tinkering Olympiad, engage in 10
bilateral/multilateral collaborations, support WIPO for the Global South, and anchor Startup20
Engagement Group.
 Industrial Accelerator Program: Create 10 PPP-mode accelerators for scaling startups in critical
sectors.
 Atal Sectoral Innovation Launchpads (ASIL): Build 10 sector-specific platforms for startup
integration and procurement across key ministries.

81. Solution: c)
Justification:
Dal Lake, often called the “Jewel in the crown of Kashmir,” is famous for its floating gardens, vibrant
floating market, and scenic Mughal gardens along the shoreline. It also has iconic houseboats and historical
islands.
Option a) is incorrect, as Dal Lake is not a dry lake.
Option b) is incorrect as Dal Lake lacks sand dunes and features ample water flow.
Option d) is incorrect since Dal Lake contains notable islands like Char Chinari and Sone Lank.

82. Solution: c)
Justification:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Space junk primarily consists of man-made objects like defunct satellites and
rocket parts, not natural materials.
Statement 2 is correct: Space debris releases pollutants like aluminum, nitrogen oxides, and black carbon.
Statement 3 is correct: Soot particles absorb solar energy, warming the atmosphere and disrupting climate
patterns.
Statement 4 is correct: Pollutants like copper promote cloud formation and alter atmospheric chemistry.
About Space Junk and Its Impact:
 Definition: Space junk includes defunct satellites, rocket stages, and other debris left in orbit or
disintegrated during re-entry.
 Pollutants Released: Burning satellites release aluminum, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide,
and black carbon, which accumulate in the stratosphere.
 Ozone Layer Threat: Aluminum oxide acts as a catalyst for ozone depletion, counteracting the success
of the Montreal Protocol that reduced CFCs.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
 Stratospheric Changes: Pollutants like copper and other metals can alter atmospheric chemistry and
promote cloud formation.
 Climate Impacts: Soot particles absorb solar energy, potentially warming the atmosphere and
disrupting natural climate patterns.
 Long-Term Ripple Effects: Alterations in the upper atmosphere may indirectly harm ecosystems,
weather patterns, and human health on Earth.

83. Solution: a)
Justification:
Statement 2 is correct, as the Kasturirangan Committee proposed a balanced approach, aiming to
reconcile conservation with developmental needs by designating 37% of the Western Ghats as an ESA
and allowing limited development.
Statement 1 is incorrect because it was the Gadgil Committee that proposed designating the entire Western
Ghats as an ESA, while the Kasturirangan Committee proposed a 37% designation.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the Sanjay Kumar Committee was formed to review objections to ESA
demarcations, not to implement the Gadgil Committee’s recommendations.
Statement 4 is also incorrect since the Gadgil Committee’s report was not fully adopted due to its stringent
conservation proposals.

84. Solution: d)
Justification:
Uttar Pradesh contributed 16.21% to India's total milk production in 2023-24, making it the top milk-
producing state. It was followed by Rajasthan (14.51%), Madhya Pradesh (8.91%), and Gujarat (7.65%).
About Dairy Sector Performance:
Category Performance Details

Milk Production (2023-

239.3 million tonnes, a 3.78% increase over 2022-23 estimates.
24)

Compound Annual
5.62% (milk), 6.8% (eggs), 4.85% (meat) over the last 10 years.
Growth Rate

Per Capita Milk 459 grams/day (India) vs. 323 grams/day (global average) in 2022-
Availability 23.

Uttar Pradesh (16.21%), Rajasthan (14.51%), Madhya Pradesh

State Rankings (Milk)
(8.91%), Gujarat (7.65%).

Egg Production (2023- 142.77 billion, with Andhra Pradesh leading at 17.85%, followed
24) by Tamil Nadu (15.64%).

Meat Production 10.25 million tonnes; poultry accounts for 48.96%, followed by
(2023-24) buffalo and goat meat.

Global Position 1st in milk production (24% global share); 2nd in egg production.

85. Solution: b) Justification:

Article 15(4) and Article 16(4) of the Indian Constitution empower the State to make special
provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, including Scheduled
Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). These provisions serve as a basis for affirmative action and
reservations, enabling governments to create policies that promote equity and social justice.
Articles 14, 21, and 19(1)(a) address other fundamental rights such as equality, personal liberty, and
freedom of speech, but they do not specifically provide for backward classes.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33

86. Solution: a)
Justification:
The Song River is a seasonal river that originates in the Lesser Himalayas near Mussoorie, Uttarakhand,
making Statement 1 incorrect.
Unlike perennial rivers that flow throughout the year, the Song River relies heavily on monsoonal rainfall,
which classifies it as a seasonal river rather than a perennial one, making Statement 2 incorrect.
The river flows through Uttarakhand and acts as a seasonal feeder to the Ganga River system, contributing
water primarily during the monsoon season. This makes Statement 3 correct.

87. Solution: c)
Justification:
The CBD has three main objectives: the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components,
and the equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.

Statement 1 is incorrect as the CBD’s goals are broad, addressing not only endangered species but also
ecosystem conservation and genetic diversity.
Statement 2 is incorrect because sustainable use of biodiversity resources is one of the primary goals of the
CBD.
Statement 3 is incorrect as benefit-sharing from genetic resources is a crucial component of the CBD.
Statement 4 is also incorrect because the CBD encourages the integration of biodiversity conservation and
sustainable use into national policy frameworks.

88. Solution: a)
Justification:
Statement 1 is correct: The Riyadh Design Law Treaty (DLT) was adopted by the World Intellectual
Property Organization (WIPO) member states. It aims to harmonize procedural requirements for
industrial design registrations globally.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The treaty simplifies the registration process by allowing multiple designs to be
filed in a single application, rather than requiring separate registrations for each jurisdiction.
Statement 3 is correct: The DLT promotes the use of electronic systems for efficient submission and
processing of applications and supports the exchange of priority documents to ease the procedural burden.
Statement 4 is correct: India signed the treaty to enhance its global competitiveness in design protection,
aligning with its policy emphasis on fostering innovation and strengthening intellectual property
frameworks.
After nearly two decades of deliberations, the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) member
states have adopted the Riyadh Design Law Treaty (DLT).
 A landmark agreement aimed at harmonizing procedural frameworks for industrial design protection.
About Riyadh Design Law Treaty (DLT):
 Organization: Adopted by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) member states.
 Aim: To standardize and streamline procedural requirements for industrial design registration
globally.
 Key Features:
1. Simplified registration processes across jurisdictions.
2. Relaxed time limits and reinstatement of lost rights.
3. Simplified procedures for recording assignments and licenses.
4. Option to file multiple designs in a single application.
5. Encouragement for electronic systems and exchange of priority documents.
 India’s Participation: India signed the treaty to enhance its global competitiveness in design
protection and strengthen its policy emphasis on design-driven innovation.
 Other Treaties on Industrial Design: The Hague Agreement on Industrial Designs, facilitating
international registration of industrial designs.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
89. Solution: b)
Justification:
The key limitation of mmWave transceiver technology is its limited range, and its signals can be easily
blocked by physical objects such as buildings, trees, and even rain.
Option (a) is incorrect as mmWave technology actually has low interference with other systems due to its
high frequency range.
Option (c) is incorrect because mmWave technology is designed for high-speed data transmission over short
distances.
Option (d) is incorrect because mmWave technology can be used with compact antennas, making it
compatible with IoT devices.

90. Solution: a)
Justification:
Statement 1 is correct: PAN 2.0 introduces a centralized data vault to strengthen data security, ensuring
robust protection of sensitive information related to Permanent Account Numbers (PAN). This feature
enhances cybersecurity measures compared to the current system.
Statement 2 is incorrect: PAN 2.0 aims to streamline grievance redressal through a unified portal,
providing a centralized and efficient mechanism for addressing issues related to PAN services. This marks a
significant improvement over the current decentralized approach.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Existing PAN cards will remain valid, and individuals will have the option to
upgrade to PAN 2.0 for free. The new system is designed to enhance services and security while maintaining
continuity for current PAN holders.
About PAN:
 Origin: Introduced in 1972; revamped in 1995 for improved tax compliance.
 Department: Issued and managed by the Income Tax Department under the Central Board of Direct
Taxes (CBDT).
 Aim: To link individuals and entities with their tax-related transactions, ensure transparency, and
streamline tax compliance.
Comparison of PAN and PAN 2.0:
Aspect PAN PAN 2.0

1972 (revamped in
Introduction Year 2024 (Planned Upgrade)
1995)

Hosted on multiple
Issuance System Unified portal for all PAN/TAN services
platforms

Partially online with

Application Process Fully online, paperless process
paper-based options

Introduced in 2017, Enhanced dynamic QR code with real-time

QR Code
basic validation data

Free updates for details like name, DOB,

Updates/Corrections Fee-based updates
address

No centralized data Mandatory PAN Data Vault for enhanced

Data Security
vault cybersecurity

PAN used for tax- Unified business identifier for multiple

Business Identifier
related activities systems
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
Limited, through Streamlined grievance system via unified
Grievance Redressal
individual portals portal

Existing PAN Remains valid but upgrade available for

Remains valid
Validity free

91. Solution: d)
Justification:
The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety focuses on regulating the transboundary movement of living modified
organisms (LMOs) to protect biodiversity, not climate change adaptation, making statement 1 incorrect.
The Nagoya Protocol addresses access to genetic resources and fair benefit-sharing rather than marine
biodiversity conservation exclusively, making statement 2 incorrect.
Finally, both the Cartagena and Nagoya Protocols are supplementary agreements under the CBD, and
membership in the CBD is generally required to participate in these protocols, making statement 3 incorrect.
These protocols are vital components of the CBD, focusing on biosafety and benefit-sharing, respectively,
enhancing the convention's scope in biodiversity management.

92. Solution: d)
Justification:
Peatlands emit approximately 1,941 Mt CO₂e annually due to degradation, but this constitutes less than 10%
of global CO₂ emissions.
However, Statement-II is correct as the Global Peatland Hotspot Atlas attributes peatland degradation and
resulting emissions primarily to human activities such as agriculture, drainage, and fires.
About The Global Peatland Hotspot Atlas, 2024:
 Published by: UNEP under the Global Peatlands Initiative.
Aim:
 Provide data and insights into the global state of peatlands.
 Highlight threats and opportunities for conservation and sustainable management.
 Bridge the gap between science and policy for informed decision-making.
Key Insights:
 Updated hotspot maps intersecting data on biodiversity, climate change, and land use.
 Identifies 488 million hectares of peatlands globally, with 12% highly degraded.
 Peatlands emit 1,941 Mt CO₂e per year due to human activity.
About Peatland:
 What is Peatland?
 Peatlands are unique wetland ecosystems characterized by waterlogged conditions that slow the
decomposition of plant material, leading to the formation of peat soils.
 These ecosystems consist of both the organic-rich soil (peat) and the wetland vegetation thriving on
the surface.
Distribution of Peatlands:
 Found in nearly all countries, peatlands cover at least 3% of the Earth’s land surface.
o The Congo Basin hosts the largest known tropical peatland, discovered in 2017.
Significance of Peatlands:
 Carbon Storage: Peatlands store more carbon than all the world’s forests combined, acting as a
natural buffer against climate change.
 Climate Regulation: They provide a cooling effect by sequestering atmospheric carbon.
 Water Management: Regulate and purify water supplies, supporting human consumption and
ecosystems.
 Biodiversity: Provide habitats for rare and endangered species of flora and fauna.
 Cultural Importance: Preserve archaeological and cultural heritage due to their waterlogged
conditions.
 Livelihoods: Support local communities through ecosystem services and resources.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
93. Solution: a)
Justification:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Primary microplastics are intentionally manufactured for specific applications,
such as in cosmetics (microbeads), industrial processes, or synthetic textiles. They are not formed by the
degradation of larger plastics. Secondary microplastics, on the other hand, result from the breakdown of
larger plastics due to environmental factors like sunlight, mechanical forces, and ocean waves.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Secondary microplastics are not intentionally manufactured but are formed as a
byproduct of plastic degradation in the environment.
Statement 3 is correct: Microplastics are used in drug delivery systems due to their ability to absorb and
release chemicals in a controlled manner, making them valuable in medical and pharmaceutical applications.
This property is leveraged for targeted drug delivery, enhancing therapeutic outcomes.
What are Microplastics and Their Classifications
 Definition: Plastics less than 5 mm in diameter, formed through fragmentation or intentionally
manufactured for specific uses.
 Classifications:
1. Primary Microplastics: Manufactured for commercial use, such as microbeads in cosmetics,
plastic pellets, and synthetic fibers.
2. Secondary Microplastics: Formed from the breakdown of larger plastics, such as water
bottles, due to solar radiation, ocean waves, and mechanical forces.
Applications of Microplastics
1. Medical and Pharmaceutical: Used in drug delivery systems due to their ability to absorb and
release chemicals effectively.
2. Industrial: Utilized in air-blasting technology and in producing synthetic textiles.
3. Personal Care Products: Found in exfoliating agents like facial scrubs, toothpaste, and other
cosmetics.

94. Solution: b)
Justification:
Statement 1 is correct: The Periyar River originates in the Sivagiri Hills of the Western Ghats. It flows
through various regions of Kerala, including Periyar National Park, and finally empties into the Arabian
Sea.
Statement 2 is correct: The Periyar powers the Idukki Dam, which is among the largest hydroelectric
projects in Kerala. This dam, along with the Cheruthoni and Kulamavu dams, forms a reservoir system that
provides significant hydroelectricity to the state.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Periyar River does not flow into the Bay of Bengal. Instead, it empties into
the Arabian Sea, making this statement factually inaccurate.
About Periyar River:
 Origin: Sivagiri Hills, Western Ghats.
 Flow: Passes through the Periyar National Park, flows into Vembanad Lake, and empties into
the Arabian Sea.
 Tributaries: Muthirapuzha, Mullayar, Cheruthoni, Perinjankutti.
 Significance:
1. Provides drinking water for major towns and Kochi city (via Aluva).
2. Powers Kerala’s Idukki Dam, generating significant electricity.
3. Supports 25% of Kerala’s industries along its banks.
 Unique Feature: One of Kerala’s few perennial rivers, sustaining agriculture, industry, and
biodiversity.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
95. Solution: b)
Justification:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Lothal is the southernmost Indus Valley Civilization site.
Statement 2 is correct: Lothal was renowned for its bead-making industry and maritime trade links.
Statement 3 is correct: Its dockyard linked it to ancient trade routes, emphasizing its maritime importance.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Lothal is only on the tentative list for UNESCO World Heritage status.
About Lothal:
 Historical Significance: Southernmost Indus Valley Civilization site, built around 2200 BCE,
known for its advanced trade and bead-making industry.
 Unique Features: Home to the world’s earliest known dockyard, linking it to ancient trade routes.
 Discovery: Excavated between 1955-1960 by SR Rao; marine microfossils confirmed its dockyard
purpose.
 Heritage Status: Nominated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2014; remains on the tentative
list.
 Modern Development: The National Maritime Heritage Complex (Rs. 3,500 crore project) recreates
Harappan architecture and showcases India’s maritime legacy.

96. Solution: b)
Justification:
Statement 1 is correct: ISKCON was founded in 1966 in New York City by C. Bhaktivedanta Swami
Prabhupada.
Statement 2 is incorrect: ISKCON follows Gaudiya Vaishnavism, not Advaita Vedanta.
Statement 3 is correct: ISKCON is actively involved in social initiatives like free food distribution,
education, eco-villages, and healthcare.
About ISKCON:
 Full form: International Society for Krishna Consciousness.
 Founder:C. Bhaktivedanta Swami Prabhupada.
 Founded In: New York City, USA.
 Year:
 Aim: To promote Krishna Consciousness and devotional service to Krishna as the Supreme
Godhead.
Features:
 Largest branch of Gaudiya Vaishnavism, rooted in 16th-century India.
 Emphasizes chanting the Hare Krishna Mahamantra.
 Engages in public bhakti practices like Sankirtan, yoga seminars, and festivals.
 Runs social initiatives, including free food distribution, schools, eco-villages, and hospitals.

97. Solution: d)
Justification:
About Baltic Sea:
 Location: Part of the North Atlantic Ocean, situated in
Northern Europe, separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from
continental Europe.
 Surrounding Countries: Denmark, Germany, Poland,
Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia, Russia, Finland, and Sweden.
 Connections: Links to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish
Straits, facilitating global trade and connectivity.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33
 Depth and Area: Average depth is 55 meters; deepest point is 459 meters.
 Gulfs: Contains the Gulf of Bothnia (north), Gulf of Finland (east), and Gulf of Riga (south).
 Rivers: Over 250 rivers drain into it, with the Neva River being the largest contributor.
 Islands: Hosts over 20 islands and archipelagos, with Gotland (off Sweden’s coast) as the largest.

98. Solution: a)
Justification:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Asiatic Lions are listed as "Endangered" on the IUCN Red List, not "Vulnerable."
Statement 2 is correct: They are protected under Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of the Wildlife
Protection Act, ensuring the highest conservation status.
Statement 3 is correct: Historically, Asiatic Lions ranged from southwest Asia to northern India.
About Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica):
 Distribution:
o Historically ranged from southwest Asia to northern India.
o Currently found only in Gir National Park and surrounding areas in Gujarat, India.
 Protection Status:
o IUCN Red List: Endangered
o CITES: Appendix I
o Wildlife Protection Act (India): Schedule I
 Physical Characteristics:
o Slightly smaller than African lions; males weigh 160–190 kg, females 110–120 kg.
o Distinct fold of skin along the belly, less developed mane, and visible ears in males.
o Fur varies from tawny to sandy-grey with a silvery sheen in some lights.
o Larger tail tuft and less inflated auditory bullae compared to African lions.
 Habitat and Behavior:
o Adapted to dry deciduous forests and savannas.
o Preys on deer, antelope, and livestock; scavenges on carrion.
o Coexists with humans in Gujarat through cultural tolerance and conservation measures.

99. Solution: b)
Justification:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Sanchi Stupa was commissioned by Emperor Ashoka during the 3rd century
BCE and expanded later by the Shungas and Satavahanas.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Inscriptions are found in Brahmi and Kharosthi, not Gupta scripts.
Statement 3 is correct: The paradakshinapatha is a pathway for devotees to perform circumambulation as a
form of devotion.
About Sanchi Stupa:
 Historical Significance: Commissioned by Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE and later
expanded by Shunga and Satavahana rulers.
 Architectural Features:
o Large hemispherical dome (Anda) symbolizing the universe.
o Chatras (umbrella structures) on top, signifying royalty and divine protection.
o Harmika (balcony) atop the dome representing the abode of the gods.
o Medhi stores relics and serves as the base of the stupa.
o Toranas: Four elaborately carved gates depicting Buddha’s life events and Jataka tales,
pointing to four cardinal directions.
o Vedica: Railings enclosing the stupa for sacred protection.
o Paradakshinapatha: Pathways for circumambulation by devotees.
 Symbolism: Early Buddhist aniconism; Buddha represented through symbols like footprints, wheels,
or empty thrones rather than direct depictions.
 Inscriptions: Includes Ashokan Lion Capital and inscriptions in Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts.
 UNESCO Status: Declared a World Heritage Site in 1989.
 International Relations & Schemes Full-Length (prelims) Test-33

100. Solution: B

Samjiyon is a city located in Ryanggang Province, in the northernmost part of North Korea. This region
has recently been in the news due to its significant development and upcoming reopening to international
tourism.