Anatomy

1.All of the following statements concerning the

femur are correct EXCEPT
(A) It is the longest bone in the body.
(B) It is the heaviest bone in the body.
(C) Its length is approximately a quarter of
the person’s height.
(D) The distal end of the femur undergoes
ossification just before birth.
(E) Its average adult length is 36 inches.

2. The adductor tubercle is located on which of

the following bones?
(A) femur
(B) tibia
(C) fibula
(D) ischium
(E) ilium

3. The margin of the acetabulum is deficient inferiorly at which of the following structures?
(A) ischial tuberosity
(B) obturator foramen
(C) linea aspera
(D) acetabular notch
(E) ischial spine

4. A deficiency in the smooth articular surface of

the acetabulum is known as which of the following
) pecten pubis
(B) pubic crest
(C) lunate surface
(D) ala
(E) ramus

5. A fracture of which of the following bones is

among the most troublesome and problematic
of all fractures?
(A) tibia
(B) fibula
(C) patella
(D) femoral neck
(E) medial malleolus

6. The anterolateral abdominal wall is bounded

by all of the following structures EXCEPT
(A) cartilages of the 7th through 10th ribs
(B) linea alba
(C) xiphoid process
(D) inguinal ligament
(E) pelvic bone

7. The aponeuroses of all three flat muscles of the

anterolateral abdominal wall interlace in which
of the following structures?
(A) inguinal ligament
(B) transversalis fascia
(C) linea alba
(D) anterior superior iliac spine
(E) rectus abdominis

8. All of the following structures are located

within the rectus sheath EXCEPT
(A) pyramidalis
(B) rectus abdominis
(C) inferior epigastric arteries and veins
(D) deep inguinal ring
(E) ventral primary rami of T7–T12 nerves

9. Inferiorly, the inferior margin of the external

oblique aponeurosis thickens and folds back on
itself to form which of the following structures?
(A) rectus sheath
(B) inguinal ligament
(C) arcuate line
(D) deep inguinal ring
(E) fundiform ligament

10. The reflected inguinal ligament receives fibers

from the contralateral aponeurosis of which of
the following structures?
(A) external abdominal oblique
(B) internal abdominal oblique
(C) transverse abdominal oblique
(D) rectus abdominis
(E) pyramidalis

11. Between the internal oblique and transverse

abdominal muscles is a neurovascular plane
that contains all of the following EXCEPT
(A) iliohypogastric nerve
(B) deep circumflex iliac artery
(C) inferior epigastric artery
(D) subcostal nerve
(E) ilioinguinal nerve

12. The rectus abdominis muscle is anchored transversely by attachment to the anterior layer of
the rectus sheath by which of the following
structures?
(A) pubic tubercle
(B) xiphoid process
(C) linea alba
(D) tendinous intersections
(E) umbilicus
13. Which of the following structures defines the
point at which the posterior lamina of the internal oblique and the aponeurosis of the transverse
abdominal become part of the anterior
rectus sheath?
(A) arcuate line
(B) inguinal ligament
(C) tendinous intersections
(D) deep inguinal ring
(E) medial crus

14. The two medial umbilical folds represent remnants of which of the following structures?
(A) urachus
(B) umbilical arteries
(C) umbilical veins
(D) ductus venosus
(E) ductus arteriosus

15. Which of the following fossae are potential sites

for direct inguinal hernias?
(A) supravesical
(B) medial inguinal
(C) lateral inguinal
(D) ischiorectal
(E) iliac

16. The inguinal canal contains which of the following nerves?

(A) iliohypogastric
(B) ilioinguinal
(C) genital branch of the genitofemoral
(D) obturator
(E) lateral femoral cutaneous

17. Which of the following structures give rise to

the deep inguinal ring?
(A) gubernaculum
(B) conjoined tendon
(C) lacunar ligament
(D) external abdominal oblique aponeurosis
(E) transversalis fascia

18. All of the following statements concerning the

ureters are correct EXCEPT
(A) They are retroperitoneal.
(B) They cross the pelvic brim anterior to the
bifurcation of the common iliac arteries.
(C) They are fibrous tubes connecting the
kidneys to the urinary bladder.
(D) Their superior halves lie in the abdomen
and the inferior halves lie in the pelvis.
(E) Their oblique passage through the bladder wall forms a one-way “flap valve.”

19. The uvula of the bladder is located in which of

the following locations?

(A) retropubic space

(B) trigone of the bladder
(C) apex of the bladder
(D) fundus of the bladder
(E) pubovesical ligament

20. Parasympathetic fibers to the bladder are derived from which of the following nerves?
(A) pelvic splanchnic
(B) greater splanchnic
(C) T11-L2
(D) superior hypogastric plexus
(E) sacral plexus

21. Which of the following parts of the male urethra is the widest and most dilatable?
(A) preprostatic
(B) prostatic
(C) membranous
(D) spongy
(E) external urethral meatus

22. Which of the following structures opens into

the prostatic sinus?
(A) prostatic utricle
(B) ejaculatory ducts
(C) prostatic ductules
(D) seminal vesicles
(E) bulbourethral glands

23. The paraurethral glands open into which of

the following structures?
(A) near the external urethral orifice
(B) in the neck of the bladder
(C) in the prostatic utricle
(D) in the seminal colliculus
(E) in the ejaculatory ducts

24. All of the following statements concerning the

ductus deferens are correct EXCEPT
(A) It begins in the head of the epididymis.
(B) It ascends in the spermatic cord.
(C) It passes through the inguinal canal.
(D) It joins the duct of the seminal vesicle to
form the ejaculatory duct.
(E) It descends medial to the ureter and
seminal vesicle.
25. All of the following statements concerning the
seminal vesicles are correct EXCEPT
(A) The peritoneum of the rectovesical
pouch separates the superior ends of the
seminal vesicles from the rectum.
(B) They do not store sperm.
(C) They are elongated structures that lie
between the fundus of the bladder and
the rectum.
(D) The inferior ends of the seminal vesicles
are separated from the rectum by the
rectovesical septum.
(E) Bulbourethral glands empty into the
seminal vesicles.

26. All of the following statements concerning the

femoral canal are correct EXCEPT
(A) It contains the femoral nerve.
(B) It is the medial compartment of the
femoral sheath.
(C) It allows the femoral vein to expand
when venous return from the lower limb
is increased.
(D) It extends distally to the level of the
proximal edge of the saphenous
opening.
(E) It contains loose connective tissue, fat, a
few lymphatic vessels, and sometimes a
deep inguinal lymph node (Cloquet’s
node).

27. All of the following statements concerning the

femoral ring are correct EXCEPT
(A) The lacunar ligament forms its medial
boundary.
(B) The anterior boundary is formed by the
inguinal ligament.
(C) The femoral artery forms its lateral
boundary.
(D) Its proximal end is closed by extraperitoneal fatty tissue that forms the femoral
septum.
(E) It lies anterior to the pectineus muscle.

28. Which of the following statements concerning

the femoral artery is correct?
(A) It enters the femoral canal.
(B) It enters the adductor canal.
(C) It passes dorsal to the inguinal ligament.
(D) It gives rise to the inferior epigastric
artery.
(E) It passes through the obturator canal.

29. Which of the following statements concerning

the deep artery of the thigh is correct?
(A) It is the largest branch of the femoral
artery.
(B) It passes through the adductor canal.
(C) It gives rise to the deep circumflex iliac
branch.
(D) It exits the adductor canal through the
adductor hiatus.
(E) It passes through the obturator foramen.

30. Which of the following arteries supplies most

of the blood to the head and neck of the femur?
(A) medial circumflex femoral
(B) obturator
(C) lateral circumflex femoral
(D) external pudendal
(E) deep circumflex iliac

31. All of the following statements concerning the

adductor canal are correct EXCEPT
(A) It is approximately 15 cm long.
(B) It extends from the apex of the femoral
triangle to the adductor hiatus.
(C) It contains the saphenous nerve.
(D) Is is bounded posteriorly by the sartorius
muscle.
(E) It contains the femoral artery and vein.

32. Which of the following statements concerning

the lesser sciatic foramen is correct?
(A) It is the passageway for structures entering or leaving the pelvis.
(B) It is the passageway for structures entering or leaving the perineum.
(C) All lower limb arteries and nerves leave
the pelvis through this foramen.
(D) The femoral nerve passes through the
lesser sciatic foramen.
(E) The obturator nerve enters the adductor compartment via the lesser sciatic
foramen.

33. All of the following structures pass through

the greater sciatic foramen EXCEPT
(A) piriformis muscle
(B) sciatic nerve
(C) superior gluteal vessels
(D) inferior gluteal vessels
(E) pudendal nerve

34. All of the following statements concerning the

gluteus maximus are correct EXCEPT

(A) It is used very little during casual

walking.
(B) It assists in making the knee stable.
(C) It is used very little in climbing upstairs.
(D) It is used in running.
(E) It is used when rising from the sitting
position.

35. The ischial bursa separates the inferior part of

which of the following muscles from the ischial
tuberosity?
(A) gluteus maximus
(B) gluteus minimus
(C) gluteus medius
(D) piriformis
(E) obturator internus

36. All of the following statements concerning

the gluteus medius and minimus are correct
EXCEPT
(A) They all have the same nerve supply.
(B) They have the same actions.
(C) They are supplied by the same blood
vessels.
(D) They abduct the thigh and rotate it
laterally.
(E) They are largely responsible for preventing sagging of the unsupported side of
the pelvis during walking.

37. The positive Trendelenburg sign is associated

with injuries to which of the following?
(A) quadriceps femoris
(B) adductor muscles
(C) abductors of the thigh
(D) hamstring muscles
(E) piriformis muscle

38. Which of the following muscles is part of the

triceps coxae?
(A) obturator externus
(B) gemelli muscles
(C) piriformis
(D) gluteus medius
(E) quadratus femoris

39. All of the following muscles are lateral rotators of the thigh EXCEPT
(A) quadratus femoris
(B) obturator internus
(C) obturator externus
(D) gluteus medius
(E) inferior gemellus

40. All of the following statements concerning the

inferior clunial nerves are correct EXCEPT
(A) They are gluteal branches of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
(B) These nerves curl around the inferior
border of the gluteus maximus.
(C) They are derivatives of the sacral plexus
S1–S3.
(D) They supply the inferior half of the
buttock.
(E) They are dorsal primary rami.

41. All of the following nerves are ventral primary

rami EXCEPT
(A) posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
(B) inferior gluteal
(C) pudendal
(D) sciatic
(E) superior cluneal

42. All of the following statements concerning the

sciatic nerve are correct EXCEPT
(A) It is the largest nerve in the body.
(B) It is really two nerves.
(C) It supplies all leg and foot muscles.
(D) It receives its blood supply from the
superior gluteal nerve.
(E) It passes inferolaterally under cover of
the gluteus maximus, midway between
the greater trochanter and the ischial
tuberosity

43. Which of the following structures crosses over

the inferior or horizontal (third) portion of the
duodenum?
(A) pancreas
(B) hepatic artery
(C) portal vein
(D) superior mesenteric artery

44. The duodenojejunal junction is supported by

the attachment of which of the following
structures?
(A) suspensory muscle of the duodenum
(ligament of Treitz)
(B) falciform ligament
(C) hepatoduodenal ligament
(D) greater omentum
(E) transverse mesocolon

45. The superior anterior and posterior pancreaticoduodenal arteries arise from which of the
following arteries?
(A) right colic
(B) ileocolic
(C) gastroduodenal
(D) hepatic
(E) splenic

46. The root of the mesentery crosses all of the following structures EXCEPT
(A) ascending and horizontal parts of the
duodenum
(B) abdominal aorta
(C) inferior vena cava
(D) right ureter
(E) splenic artery

47. The superior mesenteric and splenic veins

unite to form the portal vein posterior to which
of the following structures?
(A) right kidney
(B) neck of the pancreas
(C) pylorus of stomach
(D) 2nd portion of the duodenum
(E) spleen

48. The sympathetic fibers in the nerves to the

jejunum and ileum originate in which of the
following spinal cord segments?
(A) C5–T1
(B) T1–T5
(C) T5–T9
(D) T9–T12
(E) L1–L2

49. Circular folds (plicae circulares) are characteristic of which of the following structures?
(A) transverse colon
(B) stomach
(C) jejunum
(D) cecum
(E) sigmoid colon

50. The floor of the popliteal fossa includes which

of the following structures?
(A) oblique popliteal ligament
(B) patella
(C) lateral meniscus
(D) anterior cruciate ligament
(E) posterior cruciate ligament

51. The lateral sural nerve is a branch of which of

the following nerves?
(A) femoral
(B) common fibular
(C) tibial
(D) obturator
(E) posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh

52. Which of the following muscles dorsiflexes the

ankle?
(A) extensor digitorum longus
(B) fibularis longus
(C) soleus

53. Muscles that evert the foot include which of the

following muscles?
(A) gastrocnemius
(B) soleus
(C) tibialis posterior
(D) fibularis brevis
(E) flexor digitorum longus

54. All of the following statements correctly apply

to the inferior extensor retinaculum EXCEPT
(A) It passes from the fibula to the tibia proximal to the malleoli.
(B) It is a Y-shaped band of deep fascia.
(C) It attaches laterally to the anterosuperior
surface of the calcaneus.
(D) It forms a strong loop around the tendons of the fibularis tertius.
(E) It forms a strong loop around the tendons of the extensor digitorum longus.

55. Which of the following muscles is the strongest

dorsiflexor and invertor of the foot?
(A) extensor digitorum longus
(B) tibialis anterior
(C) fibularis tertius
(D) extensor hallucis longus
(E) flexor hallucis longus

56. All of the following muscles are located in the

deep muscle group of the posterior compartment EXCEPT
(A) flexor digitorum longus
(B) popliteus
(C) plantaris
(D) flexor hallucis longus
(E) tibialis posterior

57. Which of the following muscles is a flexor of

the knee joint?
(A) popliteus
(B) tibialis anterior
(C) fibularis longus
(D) extensor digitorum longus
(E) extensor hallucis longus

58. Which of the following muscles is the powerful “push-off” muscle?

(A) gastrocnemius
(B) soleus
(C) tibialis anterior
(D) flexor hallucis longus
(E) plantaris

59. Which of the following muscles contract to

assist the posterior cruciate ligament in preventing anterior displacement of the femur on
the tibia?
(A) plantaris
(B) popliteus
(C) soleus
(D) gastrocnemius
(E) tibialis posterior

60. Which of following muscles is included in the

triceps surae?
(A) gastrocnemius
(B) tibialis anterior
(C) tibialis posterior
(D) popliteus
(E) fibularis brevis

61. The lateral compartment of the foot contains

which of the following muscles?
(A) abductor digiti minimi brevis
(B) flexor hallucis brevis
(C) quadratus plantae
(D) flexor hallucis longus
(E) abductor hallucis

62. The central compartment of the foot contains

all of the following muscles EXCEPT
(A) flexor digitorum brevis
(B) flexor digitorum longus
(C) quadratus plantae
(D) abductor hallucis
(E) lumbricals

63. Which of the following ligaments encloses the

portal triad?
(A) hepatoduodenal
(B) hepatogastric
(C) gastrocolic
(D) hepatorenal
(E) gastrosplenic

64. The portion of the hepatic artery extending

between the celiac trunk and the gastroduodenal artery is known as the
(A) proper hepatic
(B) common hepatic
(C) right hepatic
(D) left hepatic
(E) middle hepatic

65. The hepatic veins drain into which of the following structures?
(A) liver
(B) inferior vena cava
(C) spleen
(D) portal vein
(E) superior vena cava

66. The spiral valve is located in which of the following structures?

(A) head of pancreas
(B) pylorus
(C) neck of gallbladder
(D) cecum
(E) rectum

67. The cystic artery commonly arises from the

right hepatic artery in the angle between the
common hepatic duct and which of the following structures?
(A) cystic duct
(B) celiac trunk
(C) portal vein
(D) proper hepatic artery
(E) gastroduodenal artery

68. Which of the following veins, when dilated,

produces caput medusae?
(A) proper hepatic
(B) splenic
(C) cystic
(D) paraumbilical
(E) rectal

69. Inferiorly, the posterior surfaces of the kidney

are related to all of the following structures
EXCEPT
(A) subcostal nerve
(B) iliohypogastric nerve
(C) ilioinguinal nerve
(D) 2nd portion of the duodenum
(E) quadratus lumborum

70. The renal papillae empty into which of the following structures?
(A) renal vein
(B) ureter
(C) minor calyces
(D) renal pyramid
(E) renal column

71. All of the following statements concerning the

renal hilum are correct EXCEPT
(A) the renal vein is anterior to the renal
artery
(B) the renal artery is anterior to the renal
pelvis
(C) it is the entrance to the renal sinus
(D) it is located on the concave medial margin of the kidney
(E) it contains the renal pyramids

72. The suprarenal glands are located between the

superomedial aspects of the kidneys and which
of the following structures?
(A) neck of the pancreas
(B) diaphragm
(C) quadrate lobe of the liver
(D) mesentery
(E) 1st part of the duodenum

73. Which of the following structures is related to

the spleen, stomach, pancreas, and the left crus
of the diaphragm?
(A) left suprarenal gland
(B) left kidney
(C) left gonadal vein
(D) transverse mesocolon
(E) abdominal aorta

74. All of the following statements concerning the

suprarenal cortex are correct EXCEPT
(A) derives from mesoderm
(B) secretes corticosteroids
(C) secretes androgens
(D) associated with the sympathetic nervous
system
(E) causes the kidney to retain sodium

75. The superior suprarenal arteries are branches

of which of the following arteries?
(A) abdominal aorta
(B) renal
(C) inferior phrenic
(D) celiac trunk
(E) superior mesenteric

76. Which of the following muscles is considered

to be the chief muscle of inspiration?
(A) internal intercostal
(B) external intercostal
(C) diaphragm
(D) scalene
(E) sternocleidomastoid
77. All of the following statements concerning the
central tendon of the diaphragm are correct
EXCEPT
(A) It has no bony attachments.
(B) It is incompletely divided into three
leaves.
(C) It is perforated by the aorta.
(D) It lies near the center of the diaphragm.
(E) It is perforated by the inferior vena cava.

78. The crura of the diaphragm are musculotendinous bundles that arise from which of the
following structures?
(A) posterior longitudinal ligament
(B) sternum
(C) bodies of lumbar vertebrae L1, L2, and L3
(D) renal fascia
(E) psoas major muscle

79. The nerves of the kidneys and suprarenal

glands are derived from which of the following
plexuses?
(A) celiac
(B) lumbar
(C) inferior mesenteric
(D) sacral
(E) inferior hypogastric

80. Pain on lateral rotation of the tibia on the femur

indicates damage to which of the following
structures?
(A) anterior cruciate ligament
(B) posterior cruciate ligament
(C) lateral meniscus
(D) medial meniscus
(E) posterior meniscofemoral ligament

81. All of the following ligaments reinforce the

fibrous capsule on the medial side of the ankle
EXCEPT
(A) tibiocalcaneal
(B) posterior tibiotalar
(C) anterior tibiotalar
(D) tibionavicular
(E) calcaneofibular

82. Which of the following groups of muscles produce dorsiflexion of the ankle?
(A) anterior compartment of the leg
(B) posterior compartment of the leg
(C) medial compartment of the foot
(D) lateral compartment of the leg
(E) lateral compartment of the foot

83. All of the following statements concerning the

plantar calcaneonavicular ligament are correct
EXCEPT
(A) It extends from the sustentaculum tali to
the navicular.
(B) It is also known as the spring ligament.
(C) It lies deep to the plantar aponeurosis.
(D) It plays an important role in maintaining
the longitudinal arch of the foot.
(E) It forms a tunnel for the tendon of the
fibularis longus.

84. All of the following statements concerning the

medial longitudinal arch of the foot are correct
EXCEPT
(A) It is higher and more important than the
lateral longitudinal arch.
(B) It is composed of the calcaneus, talus,
navicular, cuneiforms, and three
metatarsals.
(C) The calcaneus is the keystone of this arch.
(D) The tibialis anterior helps strengthen this
arch.
(E) The fibularis longus tendon also supports
this arch.

85. Which of the following conditions is associated with lateral deviation of the great toe?
(A) hallux valgus
(B) hammer toe
(C) claw toe
(D) pes planus
(E) club foot

86. All of the following statements concerning the

transverse tarsal joint are correct EXCEPT
(A) It occurs where the talus rests on and
articulates with the calcaneus.
(B) It is formed by the combined talonavicular part of the talocalcaneonavicular and
calcaneocuboid joints.
(C) Transection across this joint is a standard
method for surgical amputation of the
foot.
(D) It is two separate joints aligned transversely.
(E) Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the
foot are the main movements involving
this joint.

87. Which of the of the following areas is involved

in tibial nerve entrapment?
(A) medial malleolus to the calcaneus
(B) lateral malleolus to the navicular bone
(C) medial malleolus to the calcaneal tendon
(D) lateral malleolus to the fibularis brevis
(E) long plantar ligament to the tendon of
the fibularis longus

88. Which of the following major joints is the most

frequently injured?
(A) shoulder
(B) elbow
(C) hip
(D) knee
(E) ankle

89. Which of the following statements correctly

applies in Pott’s fracture-dislocation?
(A) The foot is forcibly dorsiflexed.
(B) The foot is forcibly plantar flexed.
(C) The foot is forcibly inverted.
(D) The foot is forcibly everted.
(E) The calcaneus is usually fractured.

90. The grip of the malleoli on the trochlea is

strongest during which of the following movements of the ankle?
(A) plantarflexion
(B) dorsiflexion
(C) eversion
(D) inversion
(E) lateral rotation

91. Which of the following statements correctly

applies to genu valgum?
(A) The tibia is diverted medially.
(B) The tibia is diverted laterally.
(C) The medial side of the knee takes all the
pressure.
(D) This deformity causes wear and tear of
the medial meniscus.
(E) This deformity does not influence
weight distribution.

92. Which of the following knee support structures is considered to be the most important in
the stabilization of the joint?
(A) lateral and medial menisci
(B) anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
(C) medial and lateral collateral ligaments
(D) fibrous capsule
(E) quadriceps femoris

93. Which of the following fractures is the most

troublesome and problematic?
(A) medial malleolus of tibia
(B) lateral malleolus of fibula
(C) sustentaculum of calcaneus
(D) femoral neck
(E) adductor tubercle

94. Which of the following muscles is the strongest

flexor of the hip joint?
(A) semitendinosus
(B) iliopsoas
(C) gluteus medius
(D) gracilis
(E) pectineus

95. All of the following muscles are lateral rotators of the hip joint EXCEPT
(A) obturator externus
(B) superior gemellus
(C) piriformis
(D) gluteus minimus
(E) quadratus femoris

96. Which of the following arteries is usually evaluated during a physical examination of the
peripheral vascular system?
(A) lateral plantar
(B) dorsalis pedis
(C) popliteal
(D) fibular
(E) posterior tibial

97. The tendon of the biceps femoris and the neck

of the fibula may be used as a guide for locating which of the following nerves?

(A) saphenous
(B) sural
(C) common fibular
(D) medial plantar
(E) tibial

98. In which of the following phase gland becomes long and arteries spirals in endometrium:
A. Luteal
B. Menstrual
C. Secretary
D. Ischemic

99. How many oocyte forms from the oogonia after the process of oogenesis:
A.two
B.one
C. Four
D. Five

100. Sperm ejaculated by a normal male:

A. 10 million
B. 20 million
C. 30 million
D. 350 million