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GENERAL BIOLOGY 1

Science, Technology And Society (University of Cebu)

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Senior High School-PRETEST

General Biology 1

Name: __________________________________ Grade/Section: __________________ Score: _____

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE
DIRECTIONS: Read each item carefully and write the letter of your answer in CAPITAL FORM on your paper.
1. Who was the first person to see cells under the microscope?
A. Robert Hooke B. Matthias Schleiden C. Anton van Leeuwenhoek D. Theodor Schwann
2. Which of the following is NOT one of the main components of the cell theory?
A. Cells are the basic unit of life C. Cells must contain DNA
B. All living things are made of cells D. Cells can only come from pre-existing cells
3. What do you mean by the word “cyto”?
A. Jelly B. Cell C. Dark D. Small
4. What type of microscope would be most effective for studying a living cell?
A. Magnifying glass C. Scanning electron microscope
B. Transmission electron microscope D. Light microscope
5. A biology student observes a new organism through a microscope. Which of the following observations tells her
that the organism is eukaryotic?
A. The organism has a membrane-bound nucleus.
B. The organism has a cell membrane.
C. The organism is unicellular.
D. The organism has ribosomes.
6. Which of the following statements describes how the prokaryotic cells appear compared to the eukaryotic cells?
A. The prokaryotic cells have a nucleus, while the eukaryotic cells do not.
B. The prokaryotic cells are much smaller than the eukaryotic cells.
C. The prokaryotic cells have cytoplasm, and eukaryotic cells do not.
D. The prokaryotic cells have cell membranes, while the eukaryotic cells do not.
7. Which of the following choices describes functionality of the plasma membrane?
A. Synthesizing proteins in the cell
B. Packaging and sending out proteins and lipids
C. Regulating the transport of molecules into and out of the cell
D. Suspending cellular structures and providing a place for cellular functions to take place
8. Which of the following choices correctly describes the composition of a ribosome?
A. RNA and lipids C. Only RNA
B. RNA and proteins D. RNA, proteins, and lipids
9. Which technology was essential for the development if the cell theory?
A. Telescope B. Magnifying Lens C. Microscope D. Antiseptics
10. Which part of the cell that serves to process, package, and export proteins?
A. Nucleolus B. Golgi bodies C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Mitochondria
11. Which muscle tissue is multinucleate, voluntary, and bears striations?
A. skeletal muscle B. smooth muscle C. multiunit smooth muscle D. cardiac muscle
12. What type of muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled?
A. Smooth B. Skeletal C. Intercalated D. Cardiac
13. Who discovered that all plants were made of cells, which contributed to the development of the cell theory?
A. Robert Hooke B. Matthias Schleiden C. Anton van Leeuwenhoek D. Theodor
Schwann
14. What part of the cell is responsible for breaking down and digesting things?
A. Golgi bodies B. Ribosomes C. Vacuole D. Lysosome
15. Which of the following is a general characteristic of a connective tissue?
A. consists of cells with much intercellular material between them
B. has no blood supply to the tissue
C. covers the outside of organs
D. commonly is found lining body cavities
16. Which one among the following statement about smooth muscle is TRUE?
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A. The smooth muscles are responsible for the movements of the internal organs.
B. The cells in the smooth muscles have actin, but no striations.
C. The muscular cells in the smooth muscles are shorter than the skeletal muscles.
D. All of the above statements are true about the smooth muscle.
17. Who advance the cell theory with his conclusion that cells could only come from other cells?
A. Robert Hooke B. Matthias Schleiden C. Rudolf Virchow D. Theodor Schwann
18. When using the high power objective, you should NOT adjust the?
A. Coarse Adjustment knob B. Diaphragm C. Fine Adjustment Knob D. Stage Clip
19. You want to focus a specimen under the microscope. The best objective to start with is the?
A. LPO B. HPO C. Scanner D. Ocular
20. A cell with 10 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. How many daughter cells are created? Each daughter cell
has how many chromosomes?
A. 2, 10 B. 1, 10 C. 10, 2 D. 10, 1
21. Which phase occurs directly after metaphase?
A. Metaphase B. Anaphase C. Telophase D. Prophase
22. A cell that has 20 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. 2 daughter cells will be created, each having 10 chromosomes
B. 4 daughter cells will be created, each having 10 chromosomes
C. 2 daughter cells will be created, each have 40 chromosomes
D. 2 daughter cells will be created, each have 20 chromosomes
23. If the diploid number of chromosomes in humans is 46, its haploid number is?
A. 23 B. 46 C. 92 D. 138
24. Which of the following best describes the formation of a zygote?
A. A sperm cell nucleus and an egg cell nucleus fuse.
B. Cell division produces a solid mass of cells.
C. Mitosis in a cell is accelerated.
D. A cell divides to form cells with half the initial genetic material.
25. A cell has a mutation that makes it unable to appropriately synthesize proteins. Which organelle's function is
likely to be impaired by this mutation?
A. Mitochondria B. Plasma Membrane C. Chloroplast D. Ribosomes
26. A pigeon zygote contains 80 chromosomes. How many chromosomes did the zygote receive from its mother?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 80
27. A porcupine has a chromosome number of 2n = 34. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. The species is diploid with 78 chromosomes.
B. The species is haploid with 34 homologous pairs.
C. The species is diploid with 34 sets of chromosomes.
D. A gamete from this species is haploid with 17 chromosomes.
28. Which of the following statements accurately compares somatic cells and gametes?
A. Somatic cells are involved in reproduction, and gametes are not.
B. Gametes and somatic cells both contain homologous pairs of chromosomes.
C. Somatic cells have 2n2n2, n chromosomes and gametes have n chromosomes.
D. Gametes are diploid, while somatic cells are haploid. Gametes are diploid, while somatic cells are haploid.
29. A spindle is form during which phase?
A. Interphase B. Prophase C. Metaphase D. G2
30. The process of mitosis ensures that:
A. DNA is replicated without errors C. Each new cell is genetically different from its parent
B. Cell will divide at the appropriate time D. Each new cell receives the proper number of chromosomes
31. What is synapsis?
A. Homologous pairs of chromosomes separate and migrate toward a pole.
B. Homologous chromosomes exchange chromosomal material.
C. Homologous chromosomes become closely associated.
D. The daughter cells contain half of the genetic material of the parent cell.
32. Mitosis results in two ____ cells, while meiosis results in ____ haploid cells.
A. haploid/two B. haploid/four C. diploid/two D. diploid/four
33. During which stage of meiosis does crossing over occur?
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A. Prophase I B. Anaphase I C. Prophase II D. Telophase II

34. During which phase does the DNA make a copy of itself?
A. Telophase B. Interphase C. Prophase D. Prophase
35. When a person cries, certain proteins are expelled by the process of exocytosis. Which cell organelle helps
in this?
A. Ribosomes B. Vacuole C. Nucleus D. Mitochondria
36. When a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, which of the following will occur?
A. The cell will swell and burst. C. nothing
B. The central vacuole gains water. D. The cell will shrink or shrivel up
37. Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell division would produce an early embryo with how many
cells? A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D.32
38. If there are 40 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80
39. How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was
in G1 of the cell cycle? The daughter cells have ________.
A. half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B. half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C. the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D. the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.
40. A cell containing 48 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei each
containing how many chromosomes?
A. 12 B. 16 C. 24 D. 48
41. If there are 30 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell
following cytokinesis? A. 10 B. 15 C. 30 D. 60
42. The STEM students of UCLM were tasked to squash an onion root tip in their Biology Laboratory class. They
observed that the chromosomes of many of the cells are plainly visible. In some cells, replicated chromosomes are
aligned along the center of the cell. These particular cells are in which stage of mitosis?
A. Telophase B. Prophase C. Anaphase D. Metaphase
43. Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?
A. To increase their potential energy
B. To allow the sister chromatids to remain attached
C. To allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope
D. To allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking
44. A mutation result in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint.
Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation? The cell would ________.
A. undergo abnormal mitosis, but successfully enter the next G 1 phase.
B. undergo abnormal mitosis, but successfully enter the next G 2 phase.
C. undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G 1 phase.
D. undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G 2 phase.
45. Which of the following best describes the function of rough endoplasmic reticulum in eukaryotic cells?
A. processing and packaging of proteins C. synthesis of proteins
B. synthesis of new membrane lipids D. processing and packaging of lipids
46. Which type of cell is a bacterial cell?
A. Animal Cell B. Plant Cell C. Prokaryotic Cell D. Eukaryotic cell
47. You are told that the cells on a microscope slide are plant, animal, or bacterial. You look at them through a
microscope and see cell walls and membrane-bound organelles. You conclude that the cells __________.
A. are plant cells. B. are animal cells. C. are bacterial cells. D. could be plant, animal, or bacterial.
48. Which of the following is considered as the “powerhouse of the cell”?
A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Cytoplasm D. Golgi Bodies
49. Which structure prevents the plant cell from bursting when placed in a hypotonic solution?
A. central vacuole B. Golgi apparatus C. cell wall D. plasma membrane
50. DNA is contained in which part of the cell?
A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Lysosomes D. Nucleus
A dream doesn’t become reality through magic; it takes sweat, determination and hard work. – Colin Powell
GODBLESS! 
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