Solved Exam Papers

WBPSC
Mechanical Engineering
(REVISED & LATEST)

Er. Pradip Mondal

soumyadeepmondal042815@gmail.com
 Content

1. WBPSC Solved Paper (Mechanical) –

2018 …….Page: 2 to 28

2. WBPSC Solved Paper (Mechanical) –

2017 …….Page: 29 to 47

3. WBPSC Solved Paper (Mechanical) –

2016 .….Page: 48 to 73

4. WBPSC Solved Paper (Mechanical) –

2015 …....Page: 74 to 95

5. WBPSC Solved Paper (Mechanical) –

2014 …….Page: 96 to 114

6. WBPSC Solved Paper (Mechanical) –

2012 …….Page: 115 to 127

7. WBPSC Solved Paper (Mechanical) –

2011 ..…….Page: 128 to 151

8. WBPSC Solved Paper (Mechanical) –

2009 ……….Page: 152 to 176

9. Model solved questions (Mechanical) for

PSC, SSC & RRB
…….Page: 177 to 248
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 WBPSC Solved Mechanical Paper-2018
(Junior Engineer)

1. Metal patterns are used for

a) small castings
b) large castings
c) complicated castings
d) large scale production of castings

2. Aluminium is the best material for making

patterns because it is
a) light in weight
b) easy to work
c) corrosion resistant
d) all of the above

3. When a mould is made in three parts, the top

part is known as a
a) drag
b) cheek
c) cope
d) none of the above

4. Chills are used in casting moulds to

a) achieve directional solidification
b) reduce blow holes
c) reduce the freezing time
d) increase the smoothness of the casting surface.

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 5. Swab is used for
a) smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the
mould
b) cleaning the moulding sand
c) moistening the sand around the edge before
removing pattern
d) reinforcement of sand in the top part of the
moulding box

6. A jolt machine is used to

a) ram the sand harder at the pattern face with
decreasing hardness towards the back of the mould
b) ram the sand harder at the back of the mould and
softer on the pattern face
c) produce uniform sand hardness throughout the
mould
d) produce uniform sand hardness throughout the
mould

7. In die casting, machining allowance is

a) small
b) large
c) very large
d) not provided

8. The casting method adopted for ornaments and toys

of non-ferrous alloys, is
a) permanent mould casting
b) slush casting
c) die casting

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 d) centrifugal casting

9. In a hot chamber die casting machine

a) melting pot is separate from the machine
b) melting pot is integral part of the machine
c) melting pot may have any location
d) high temperature and pressure is used

10. In a cold chamber die casting machine

a) melting pot is separate from the machine
b) melting pot is integral part of the machine
c) melting pot may have any location
d) low temperature and pressure is used

11. Ultrasonic machining tool is made of

a) Tungsten Carbide
b) Brass or copper
c) Diamond
d) Stainless Steel

12. In electro-chemical machining the gap between

tool and work piece is kept as
a) 0.1 mm
b) 0.25 mm
c) 0.4 mm
d) 0.75 mm

13. Which of the following process is used for

preparing parts having large curved surfaces and thin
sections?

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 a) hot machining
b) ultrasonic machining
c) ECM process
d) chemical milling

14. Jigs are used

a) for holding and guiding the tool in drilling, reaming
or tapping operations
b) for holding the work in milling, grinding, planning
or turning operations.
c) to check the accuracy of the work piece
d) none of the above

15. A diamond locating tool is used in jigs and

fixtures because
a) diamond is very hard and wear resistant
b) it occupies very little space
c) it helps in assembly with tolerance on centre
distance
d) it has long life

16. Gear burnishing is a process for

a) surface finishing
b) under cut gears
c) producing cycloidal gears
d) removing residual stresses from teeth roots

17. Thermit welding is often used

a) replacing broken gear tooth
b) repairing broken shears

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 c) joining rails, truck frames and locomotive frames
d) all of the above

18. When a bar of length l and diameter d is rigidly

fixed at the upper end and hanging freely, then the
total elongation produced in the bar due to its own
weight is
a) wl/2E
b) wl2/2E
c) wl3/2E
d) wl4/2E
where w=weight per unit volume of the bar

19. The ratio of the lateral strain to the linear strain is

called
a) Modulus of elasticity
b) Modulus of rigidity
c) Bulk modulus
d) Poisson’s ratio

20. The Poisson’s ratio for cast iron varies from

a) 0.23 to 0.27
b) 0.25 to 0.33
c) 0.31 to 0.34
d) 0.32 to 0.42

21. The strain energy stored in a body, when the load

is gradually applied, is
a) σ E/V
b) σ V/E

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 c) σ 2E/2V
d) σ 2V/2E

22. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of

length L and carrying a gradually varying load from
zero at free end and w per unit length towards the
fixed end is……….at the fixed end.
a) wL/2
b) wL
c) wL2/2
d) wL2/6

23. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 70%,

then the ratio of diameter to pitch is
a) 0.20
b) 0.30
c) 0.5
d) 0.70

24. The neutral axis of the cross-section of a beam is

that axis at which the bending stress is
a) zero
b) minimum
c) maximum
d) infinity

25. According to IBR, the thickness of the boiler shell

should not be less than
a) 4 mm
b) 5 mm

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 c) 6 mm
d) 7 mm

26. The optimum effective temperature for human

comfort
a) higher in winter than in summer
b) lower in winter than in summer
c) same in winter and summer
d) not dependent on season

27. According to Indian standards, the total number of

tolerance grades are
a) 8
b) 12
c) 18
d) 20

28. A material is said to be allotropic, if it has

a) fixed structure at all temperatures.
b) atoms distributed in random pattern
c) different crystal structures at different temperatures
d) atoms distributed in crystalline pattern

29. The quantity of heat radiation is dependent on

a) area of the body only
b) shape of the body only
c) temperature of the body only
d) all of the above

30. Stefan-Boltzman law is expressed as

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 a) Q = σ AT 4
b) Q = σ A2T 4
c) Q = σ AT 2
d) Q = AT 4

31. The thermal conductivity is expressed as

a) W/mK
b) W/m2K
c) W/hmK
d) W/h2 m2K

32. The difference between the tooth space and the

tooth thickness as measured on the pitch circle is
called
a) working depth
b) clearance
c) face width
d) backlash

33. The helix angle for double helical gears may be

made up to
a) 45 0
b) 60 0
c) 75 0
d) 90 0

34. If the centre distance of a mating gear having

involute teeth is varied within limits, the velocity ratio
a) increases
b) decreases

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 c) remain unchanged
d) none of the above

35. The sleeve and muff coupling is designed as a

a) thin cylinder
b) thick cylinder
c) solid shaft
d) hollow shaft

36. In a steam engine, the valve rod is connected by

an eccentric rod by means of
a) cotter piece
b) knuckle joint
c) universal joint
d) flange coupling

37. The eye bolts are used for

a) transmission of power
b) locking devices
c) lifting and transporting heavy machines
d) absorbing shocks and vibrations

38. Railway carriage couplings have

a) square thread
a) acme thread
c) knuckle thread
d) buttress thread

39. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron

specimen would occur along

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 a) the axis of load
b) an oblique plane
c) at right angles to the axis of specimen
d) would not occur

40. The compressive strength of brittle materials

is........ its tensile strength.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) double

41. The tensile test is carried on ....... materials.

a) ductile
b) brittle
c) malleable
d) plastic

42. The Rankine’s formula holds good for

a) short column
b) long column
c) both short and long column
d) weak column

43. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling

load for a column of length l with one end fixed and
the other end hinged, is
a) π2EI/l2
b) π2EI/4l2
c) 2π2EI/l2

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 d) 4π2EI/l2

44. A thin cylinder shell of diameter d, length l and

thickness t is subject to an internal pressure p. The
hoop stress in the shell is
a) pd/t
b) pd/2t
c) pd/4t
d) pd6t

45. The tensile strength of the welded joint for double

filltet is
a) 0.5 sl σ t
b) sl σ t
c) √2 sl σ t
d) 2 sl σ t
where s= leg or size of the weld
l= length of the weld and
σ t= allowable tensile stress for weld metal

46. In order to avoid tearing off the plate at an edge,

the distance from the centre of the rivet hole to the
nearest edge of the plate (i.e.) margin should be
a) d
b)1.5 d
c) 2d
d) 2.5 d
where d= diameter of the rivet hole in mm

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 47. According to Unwin’s formula, the relation
between diameter of rivet hole d and thickness of the
plate t is given by
a) d = t
b) d = 1.6√t
c) d = 2t
d) d = 6√t

48. Two closely-coiled helical springs ‘A’ and ‘B’ of

the same material, same number of turns and made
from same wire are subjected to an axial load W. The
mean diameter of spring ‘A’ is double the mean
diameter of spring ‘B’. The ratio of deflections in
spring ‘B’ o spring ‘A’ will be
a) 1/8
b) 1/4
c) 2
d) 4

49. When a shaft of diameter D is subjected to a

twisting moment T and a bending moment M, then the
maximum normal stress is given by
a)

b)

c)

d)

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 50. The polar modulus for a solid shaft of diameter D
is
a)
b)
c)
d)

51. Condition for a reversible cyclic process is

a) =0
<0
c) 0
d) none of the above

52. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to otto

cycle efficiency when
a) cut-of is increased
b) cut-of is decreased
c) cut-of is zero
d) cut-of is constant

53. The compression ratio of petrol engine is

a) 3 to 6
b) 5 to 8
c) 15 to 20
d) 20 to 30

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 54. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is
given by
a) 1 -
b) 1 +
c) 1 -
d) 1 +
where r = compression ratio
= ratio of specific heats

55. The amount of heat generated per kg of fuel is

known as
a) Calorific value
b) Heat energy
c) Lower calorific value
d) Higher calorific value

56. A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and

marine boilers is
a) lever safety valve
b) dead weight safety valve
c) high steam and low water safety valve
d) spring loaded safety valve

57. A device used to heat feed water by utilizing the

heat in the exhaust flue gases before leaving through
the chimney, is known as
a) Economiser
b) Fusible plug
c) Super-heater
d) Stop valve
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 58. Blast furnace is used to produce
a) Pig iron
b) Cast iron
c) Wrought iron
d) Steel

59. Match correct answer from Group B for the heat

treatment process given in Group A.
Group A Group B
(Heat treatment process) (Effect on the properties)
a) Annealing A) Refines grain structure
b) Nitriding B) Improves the hardness of
the whole mass
c) Martempering C) Increases surface hardness
d) Normalising D) Improves ductility

a) DCBA
b)BCDA
c) ADCB
d) ACBD

60. Duralumin contains

a) 3.5% to 4.5% copper, 0.4% to 0.7% magnesium,
0.4% to 0.7% manganese and rest aluminium
b) 3.5% to 4.5% copper, 1.2% to 1.7% manganese,
1.8% to 2.3% nickel, 0.6 % each of silicon,
magnesium and iron and rest aluminium
c) 4% to 4.5% magnesium, 3% to 4% copper and rest
aluminium

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 d) 5% to 6% tin, 2% to 3% copper and rest aluminium

61. Normalising of steel is done to

a) refine the grain structure
b) remove strain caused by cold working
c) remove dislocations caused in the internal structure
due to hot working
d) all of the above

62. If the body falls freely under gravity, then the

gravitational acceleration is taken as
a) + 8.9 m/s2
b) - 8.9 m/s2
c) +9.8 m/s2
d) - 9.8 m/s2

63. In American Association (ASA) system, if the

tool nomenclature is 8-6-5-5-10-15-2mm, then the
side rake will be
a) 5 0
b) 6 0
c) 8 0
d) 10 0

64. The negative rake is usually provided on

a) high carbon steel tool
b) high speed steel tool
c) cemented carbide tools
d) all of the above

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 65. With the same tool life, the maximum material per
minute is removed by
a) increasing the cutting speed
b) decreasing the cutting speed
c) increasing the depth of cut
d) increasing the feed rate

66. High speed steel cutting tool operate at cutting

speeds ........ than carbon steel tools
a) 2 to 3 times lower
b) 2 to 3 times higher
c) 5 to 8 times higher
d) 8 to 20 times higher

67. For machining a mild steel work piece by a high

speed steel tool, the average cutting speed is
a) 5 m/min
b) 10 m/min
c) 15 m/min
d) 30 m/min

68. For machining a cast iron work piece by a high

speed steel tool, the average cutting speed is
a) 10 m/min
b) 15 m/min
c) 22 m/min
d) 30 m/min

69. The machining of titanium is difficult due to

a) high thermal conductivity of titanium

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 b) chemical reaction between tool and work
c) low tool-chip contact area
d) none of the above

70. The recrystallization temperature of steel is

a) 400 0 C
b) 600 0 C
c) 800 0 C
d) none of the above

71. Which of the following methods can be used for

manufacturing 2 metre long seamless metallic tubes?
a) Drawing
b) Extrusion
c) Rolling
d) Extrusion and Rolling

72. In a four high rolling mill, there are four rolls out
of which
a) one is working roll and three are backing up rolls
b) two are working rolls and two are backing up rolls
c) three are working rolls and one is backing up rolls
d) all of the four are working rolls

73. Rotary swaging

a) is exclusively used for making bolts and rivets
b) is used for reducing the diameters of round bars and
tubes by rotating dies which open and close rapidly on
the work

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 c) is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by
setting up compressive stresses in its surface
d) consists of pressing the metal inside a chamber to
force it out by high pressure through an orifice which
is shaped to provide the desired form of the finished
part

74. In order to get uniform thickness of the plate by

rolling process, one provides
a) camber on the rolls
b) offset on the rolls
c) hardening of the rolls
d) antifriction bearings

75. A mortise gauge is a

a) striking tool
b) planning tool
c) boring tool
d) marking tool

76. Kinematic viscosity is equal to

a)
b) Dynamic viscosity X Density
c)
d)

77. Head loss due to a sudden enlargement in a pipe is

a) (v12 - v22) / 2g
b) (v1 - v2)2 / 2g
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 c) (v1 - v2)2 / g
d) (v12 - v22) / g

78. The point in the immersed body through which

the resultant pressure of the liquid be taken to act is
known as
a) metacentre
b) centre of pressure
c) centre of buoyancy
d) centre of gravity

79. Rain drops are spherical because of

a) viscosity
b) air resistance
c) surface tension
d) atmospheric pressure

80. In steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any

fluid particle is
a) constant
b) variable
c) zero
d) never zero

81. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, it should

be installed in
a) vertical line
b) horizontal line
c) inclined line with upward flow
d) in any direction and in any location

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 82. The electron beam welding can be carried out
in ...........
a) open air
b) a shielded gas environment
c) vacuum
d) a pressurised inert gas chamber

83. Capillarity is due to

a) cohesion
b) adhesion
c) adhesion and cohesion
d) molecular structure

84. A piezometer cannot be used for pressure

measurement in pipes when
a) pressure difference is low
b) velocity is high
c) fluid in the pipe is gas
d) fluid is highly viscous

85. Units of Kinematic viscosity are

a) M2 / sec
b) Kg / sec / m2
c) Newton-sec / m2
d) Newton-sec2/m

86. The function of piston rings in an internal

combustion engine is

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 a) to prevent lubricating oil from entering the
combustion space
b) to prevent leakage of combustion chamber products
c) to transfer heat from piston to cylinder walls
d) all of the above

87. The top ring nearest to the piston crown is known

as
a) oil ring
b) scrapper ring
c) compression ring
d) groove ring

88. Morse test is conducted on

a) single cylinder engines
b) multi-cylinder engines
c) vee engines
d) horizontal engines

89. In a diesel engine the duration between the time of

injection and time of ignition is called
a) petrol of ignition
b) explosion period
c) pre-ignition period
d) delay period

90. Which of the following is the extensive property

of a thermo-dynamic system?
a) pressure
b) volume

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 c) temperature
d) density

91. Which of the following is correct?

a) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric
pressure
b) Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric
pressure
c) Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge
pressure
d) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure - Atmospheric
pressure

92. The value of pressure represented by 1 mm of Hg

is equal to
a) 1.333 N/ m2
b) 13.33 N/ m2
c) 133.3 N/ m2
d) 1333 N/ m2

93. First law of thermodynamics deals with

a) conservation of heat
b) conservation of momentum
c) conservation of mass
d) conservation of energy

94. Kelvin-Plank’s statement deals with

a) conservation of work
b) conservation of heat
c) conservation of heat into work

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 d) conservation of work into heat

95. According to Kelvin-Plank’s statement of second

law of thermodynamics
a) it is impossible to construct an engine working on a
cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat
energy into work
b) it is possible to construct an engine working on a
cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat
energy into work
c) it is impossible to construct an device which
operates in a cyclic process and produces no effect
other than transfer heat from a cold body to a hot body
d) none of the above

96. A path 1-2-3 is given. A system absorbs 100 kJ as

heat and does 60kJ of work. The heat absorbed during
the cycle 1-4-3 is

a) - 140 kJ
b) - 80 kJ
c) – 40 kJ
d) + 60 kJ

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 97. A vessel of 4 m3 contains oil which weighs 30 kN.
The specific weight of the oil is
a) 4.5 kN/ m3
b) 6 kN/ m3
c) 7.5 kN/ m3
d) 10 kN/ m3

98. The unit of surface tension is

a) N/m
b) N/m2
c) N/m3
d) N-m

99. Work done during adiabatic expansion is given by

a)
b)
c)
d) all of the above
where p, v, t = pressure volume and temp of gas
R = gas constant
γ = ratio of specific heats

100. The expansion ratio R is the ratio of

a) v1 / v2
b) v2 / v1
c) ( v1+ v2) / v1
d) ( v1+ v2) / v2
where v1 = volume at the beginning of expansion,
v2 = volume at the end of expansion
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 WBPSC Answer Sheet – 2018

1.d 2.d 3.c 4.a 5.d 6.a 7.d 8.b

9.a 10.a 11.b 12.d 13.d 14.a 15.c

16.a 17.d 18.b 19.d 20.b 21.d 22.d

23.b 24.a 25.d 26.b 27.c 28.c 29.c

30.a 31.a 32.d 33.a 34.c 35.d 36.b

37.c 38.d 39.b 40.c 41.a 42.c 43.b

44.b 45.c 46.b 47.d 48.a 49.c 50.b

51.a 52.c 53.b 54.c 55.a 56.d 57.a

58.a 59.a 60.a 61.d 62.c 63.b 64.c

65.c 66.b 67.d 68.c 69.b 70.c 71.d

72.b 73.b 74.a 75.d 76.a 77.b 78.b

79.c 80.c 81.d 82.c 83.c 84.c 85.a

86.d 87.c 88.b 89.d 90.b 91.a 92.c

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 93.d 94.c 95.a 96.d 97.c 98.a 99.d

100.b

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 WBPSC Solved Mechanical Paper-2017
(Lecturer in Govt Polytechnic)

1. During idling a petrol engine requires

a) rich mixture
b) lean mixture
c) chemically correct mixture
d) variable mixture

2. If on a compression ignition engine the noise

level is to be reduced, the design feature which
will not be affected are
a) combustion system
b) exhaust muffing
c) intake muffing
d) fuel injection equipment

3. Hot spot are

a) defect in SI engine
b) the hottest spots in engine
c) the spots where heavier fraction of fuel are
vaporized
d) hottest point within engine cylinder

4. The differential mechanism of an automobile

is having
a) one degree of freedom
b) two degree of freedom
c) three degree of freedom
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 d) zero degree of freedom

5. When the load on CI engine decreases, its

efficiency increases. This is due to
a) heat and mass governing
b) higher mixture temperature
c) quantity governing
d) quality governing

6. The unit of kinematic viscosity is

a) kg sec/ m2
b) kg/ m2-sec
c) m/ kg sec
d) m2/sec

7. If the velocity, pressure, density etc change at

a point with respect to time, the flow is called
a) uniform
b) compressible
c) unsteady
d) incompressible

8. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the

a) Newton’s law of viscosity
b) Boundary layer theory
c) Pascal’s law
d) Continuity equation

9. The flow of water in a pipe of diameter 3000

mm can be measured by

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 a) venturing
b) rotameter
c) nozzle
d) pitot tube

10. Francis turbine is

a) an impulse turbine
b) a radial flow impulse turbine
c) an axial flow turbine
d) a reaction radial turbine

11. The basic law of heat conduction is called

a) Newton’s law of cooling
b) Fourier’s law
c) Kirchoff’s law
d) Stefan’s law

12. A body, which absorbs all the radiations

falling on it, is called
a) opaque body
b) white body
c) black body
d) transparent body

13. For a reversible adiabatic process, the change

in entropy is
a) zero
b) unity
c) minimum
d) maximum

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 14. In a diesel engine the duration between the
time of injection and the time of ignition is called
a) period of ignition
b) exclusion period
c) pre-ignition period
d) delay period

15. Volumetric efficiency of a well designed

engine may be in the range
a) 75% to 90%
b) 50% to 75%
c) 40% to 50%
d) below 40%

16. Octane number of petrol generally available

is in the range
a) 10 to 25
b) 25 to 60
c) 20 to 75
d) 80 to 100

17. Oil consumption excessive

a) piston ring warm
b) cylinder sleeve bore out of round
c) leaks at gasket
d) valve timing defective

18. The stress-strain relation of the Newtonian

fluid is

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 a) linear
b) parabolic
c) hyperbolic
d) involutic

19. In a Carnot cycle, heat is supplied at 227 0 C

and heat is rejected at 27 0 C, the efficiency of the
cycle will be
a) 80%
b) 66.67%
c) 70%
d) 40%

20. The most efficient cross-section for a channel

is
a) square
b) rectangular
c) triangular
d) half hexagon in the form of trapezoid

21. A Kaplan turbine is

a) a high head mixed flow
b) an impulse turbine, inward flow
c) a reaction turbine, outward flow
d) low head axial flow turbine

22. If a centrifugal pump takes too much power,

the cause may be
a) low speed
b) air in water

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 c) air leakage
d) heavy liquid

23. Froud number is useful in calculations for

a) flow through pipes
b) hydraulic pump
c) surface tension force
d) compressible flow problem

24. If we want to stop the car in the shortest

distance on an icy road, we should
a) push hard the brakes to lock the wheels
b) push just hard enough to prevent slipping
c) pump the brakes
d) not apply the brakes

25. Under which circumstances, a body will have

zero velocity and be still accelerating?
a) a steamer while taking a turn
b) tyres of a stationary automobile
c) the bob of a simple pendulum when at its mean
position
d) a ball at its highest point of its rise when
thrown up

26. A boy sitting in a railroad car throws a ball

straight up into the air. The ball will fall back into
his hands when the railroad car is
a) moving at constant velocity
b) accelerating

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 c) decelerating
d) accelerating forward while going around a
curve of radius equal to the maximum height
attained by the ball

27. The inability of a body to change its state of

rest or uniform motion along a straight line is
called its
a) momentum
b) velocity
c) acceleration
d) inertia

28. The second moment of a circular arc about

the diameter is given by (D is the diameter)
a) πD4 / 4
b) πD4 / 16
c) πD4 / 32
d) πD4 / 64

29. The angular speed of the seconds hand of a

watch is
a) π/30 radian/sec
b) π/30 radian/min
c) π/60 radian/min
d) π/60 radian/sec

30. In a cantilever maximum deflection occurs

where
a) bending moment is zero

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 b) bending moment is maximum
c) shearing force is zero
d) slope is zero

31. The escape velocity on the surface of the

earth is
a) 1 km/s
b) 2.2 km/s
c) 11.2 km/s
d) 112 km/s

32. For a perfectly elastic body, the value of co-

efficient of restitution is
a) zero
b) 0.372
c) 0.5
d) 1.0

33. The circumferential stress in a thin shell is

a) maximum on inner surface
b) maximum in the middle of thickness
c) maximum in outer surface
d) remains uniform throughout the thickness

34. In a rectangular beam, the width, depth and

length are doubled, the bending stress
a) shall remain unchanged
b) shall be doubled
c) shall become ¼ th
d) shall be halved

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 35. A bar when subjected to an axial pull P
a) decrease in length and width and increase in
thickness
b) decrease in length and increase in width and
thickness
c) increase in length and decrease in width and
thickness
d) increase in length, width and thickness

36. The number of process in a Rankine cycle is

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

37. A machine that continuously creates its own

energy is known as
a) reversible machine
b) 100% efficient machine
c) perpetual motion machine of first kind
d) perpetual motion machine of second kind

38. The internal energy of a substance depends

on
a) volume
b) pressure
c) temperature
d) entropy

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 39. By machining excess material from the work-
piece is removed in the form of
a) strips
b) sheets
c) chips
d) grains

40. Without sacrificing MRR, surface roughness

in turning can be reduced by reducing
a) tool feed rate
b) depth of cut
c) tool rake angle
d) main cutting edge angle

41. Machine tools

a) produce energy
b) utilize energy
c) do not deal with energy
d) both produce and use energy

42. Dielectrics are substances which are

a) semi-conductor
b) conductor
c) insulator
d) semi-insulator

43. In machine tools, errors and inaccuracies are

a) independent
b) same
c) interdependents

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 d) totally different

44. If steel is quenched in oil, the structure

obtained is
a) pearlite
b) sorbite
c) troosite
d) martensite

45. Formation of fog is due to

a) low pressure
b) high pressure
c) humidity
d) temperature fall of atmosphere

46. Servo motors are used for feed drive of

a) hydraulic coping lathe
b) broaching machine
c) CNC milling machine
d) capstan lathe

47. To provide 187 spindle speed in a lathe, its

speed gear box would have in it
a) 10 gear
b) 12 gear
c) 14 gear
d) 16 gear

48. Flat surfaces are not produced in

a) lathe machine

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 b) drilling machine
c) shaping machine
d) milling machine

49. Alpha iron exists

a) between 900 0 C and 1404 0 C
b) between 1404 0 C and 1535 0 C
c) below 768 0 C
d) between 768 0 C and 900 0 C

50. The unit cell of face-centred cubic structure

contains number of atoms as
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

51. Hypo-eutectics steel containing carbon

a) less than 0.97%
b) equal to 0.8%
c) from 0.8 to 2.0%
d) zero per cent

52. The copper-zinc alloys are known as

a) bronze
b) brass
c) lead
d) zinc

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 53. If a body has identical properties all over it is
known as
a) homogeneous
b) isentropic
c) ductile
d) elastic

54. Some engineering materials are made of more

than one phase, with different mechanical
properties, such materials are known as
a) discontinuous
b) brittle
c) plastic
d) heterogeneous

55. Nitriding is a process for

a) annealing
b) spheroidizing
c) case hardening
d) normalizing

56. The main alloy for corrosion resistance in

stainless steel is
a) carbon
b) chromium
c) cobalt
d) vanadium

57. Recrystallisation temperature is one

a) at which crystals again begin to appear

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 b) at which new spherical crystals first begin to
form from the old deformed ones when a strained
metal is heated
c) at which crystals start growing in size
d) at which polycrystalline change occurs

58. If two gears having 24 and 96 teeth mesh

each other, they must have been cut
a) with same cutter
b) on same setting in a machine
c) with cutter of same module
d) with one cutter

59. A shaft is subjected to a torque T and bending

moment M. The equivalent twisting moment
would be
a) √(M2 + T2)
b) √(M2 + 4T2)
c) √(T2 + 4M2)
d) M/2 + √(M2+T2)

60. Resistance of fatigue of a material is measured

by
a) modulus of rigidity
b) elastic limit
c) endurance limit
d) Young modulus

61. The size of a part to which all limits of

variations are determined is called

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 a) actual size
b) basic size
c) tolerance
d) zone of tolerance

62. The pulley in a belt drive acts as

a) cylindrical pair
b) sliding pair
c) rolling pair
d) turning pair

63. Dead weight safety valve is not used on

locomotives because
a) it is bulky
b) it is costly
c) it gives bed apparatus
d) it is susceptible to vibratory forces

64. Size of rivet is specified by

a) shape
b) diameter of head
c) shank diameter
d) weight

65. Treating weld as a line, the section modulus in

welding of a weld d cm high would be
a) zero
b) d/6
c) d 2 /6
d) d 3 /36

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 66. Neglecting bending, for parallel load on a
fillet weld of equal legs the plane of maximum
shear occurs at
a) 15 0
b) 30 0
c) 45 0
d) 60 0

67. Tack welding

a) is a process of TIG welding
b) type of weld
c) is used for non-ferrous materials
d) is a preparation for welding

68. Which of the key transmits power through

frictional resistance only?
a) saddle key
b) kennedy key
c) woodruff key
d) tangent key

69. The bushed pin flexible type coupling is used

to join two shafts which
a) are not in exact alignment
b) are not coplanar
c) change position during operation
d) are inclined

70. M 10 screws have pitch of

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 a) 0.5 mm
b) 1.25 mm
c) 2.25 mm
d) 5.0 mm

71. A mass of 1 Kg is attached to the end of a

spring with stiffness 0.7 N/mm. The critical
damping co-efficient of the system is
a) 1.40 Ns/m
b) 18.522 Ns/m
c) 52.92 Ns/m
d) 529.20Ns/m

72. A node means a section where the amplitude

of vibration is
a) maximum
b) half of maximum
c) zero
d) one-fourth of maximum

73. When a shaft is rotating at a speed which is

less than critical speed, the phase difference
between displacement and centrifugal force is
a) 180 0
b) 90 0
c) 45 0
d) 0 0

74. In the isothermal process

a) temperature remains constant

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 b) volume remains constant
c) pressure remains constant
d) enthalpy change is maximum

75. Which of the following is not a path

function?
a) work
b) heat
c) kinetic energy
d) thermal conductivity

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 WBPSC Answer Sheet – 2017

1.a 2.d 3.a 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.c

8.d 9.d 10.d 11.b 12.c 13.a 14.d

15.a 16.d 17.a 18.a 19.d 20.d 21.d

22.d 23.b 24.b 25.d 26.a 27.d 28.d

29.a 30.a 31.c 32.d 33.d 34.c 35.c

36.d 37.c 38.c 39.c 40.d 41.b 42.c

43.c 44.c 45.d 46.c 47.d 48.b 49.c

50.c 51.c 52.b 53.a 54.d 55.c 56.b

57.b 58.c 59.a 60.c 61.b 62.c 63.d

64.c 65.c 66.c 67.d 68.a 69.a 70.b

71.c 72.c 73.d 74.a 75.d

[ Note: Only mechanical engineering questions are

provided with answers]

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 WBPSC Solved Mechanical Paper-2016
(Junior Engineer)

1. Multi-stage centrifugal Pumps are used to

d) give high discharge
e) produce high heads
f) pump viscous fluid
g) all of the above.

2. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing

per second is not constant is called
a) streamline flow
b) turbulent flow
c) steady flow
d) unsteady flow

3. Which ratio gives the Reynolds number?

a) inertia force to viscous force
b) inertia force to gravity force
c) inertia force to pressure force
d) inertia force to elastic force

4. A fixture is defined as a device which

a. holds and locates a work piece and guides and
controls one or more cutting tools
b. holds and locates a work piece during an
inspection or for a manufacturing operation
c. is used to check the accuracy of work piece
d. all of the above

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 5. The theoretical velocity of jet at vena contracta
is
a. 2gH
b. H(2g)1/2
c. 2gH1/2
d. (2gH)1/2

6. A differential manometer is used to measure

a. atmospheric pressure
b. pressure in pipes and channels
c. pressure in venturimeter
d. difference of pressures between two points in a
pipe

7. The Bernoulli’s Equation is based on the

assumption that
a. there is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing
b. the velocity of flow is uniform across any cross
section of the pipe
c. no force except gravity force acts on the fluid
d. all of the above

8. If the NPSH requirement for the pump is not

satisfied, then
a. efficiency will be low
b. no flow takes place
c. cavitations will be formed
d. excessive power will be consumed

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 9. In Electron beam machining, as the electrons
strikes the work piece
a. their kinetic energy is converted into heat
b. they get scattered
c. mechanical erosion in work piece takes place
d. electro-chemical etching takes place

10. In limits and fits system, basic shaft system is

one whose
a. minimum clearance is zero
b. maximum clearance is zero
c. lower deviation is zero
d. upper deviation is zero

11. Segmental chips are formed during machining

a. mild steel
b. cast iron
c. high speed steel
d. high carbon steel

12. The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of

diameter ‘d’ is
a. d/6
b. d/4
c. d/2
d. d

13. A vertical wall is subjected to pressure due to

one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total
pressure on the wall per unit length is

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 a. wH
b. wH/2
c. wH2/2
d. wH2/3
w = specific weight of liquid, H = height of liquid

14. Parts used in shaper compare with those run on

planners are usually
a. same
b. larger
c. smaller
d. none of the above

15. The American National Standards Institute

(ANSI) has established the classed of fits are
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10

16. Delivery head of a centrifugal Pump is

a. directly proportional to diameter of its impeller
b. inversely proportional to diameter of it
impeller
c. proportional to (diameter)2 of its impeller
d. inversely proportional to (diameter)2 of its
impeller

17. Which type of pump is different from others in

the same group?

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 a. screw pump
b. gear pump
c. plunger pump
d. cam and piston pump

18. Which is the costliest process for making

round holes?
a. drilling
b. boring
c. reaming
d. none of the above

19. Venturimeter is used to

a. measure the velocity of a flowing fluid
b. measure the pressure of a flowing fluid
c. measure the discharge of a flowing fluid
d. measure the pressure difference of liquid
flowing between two points in a pipeline

20. The discharge of a centrifugal pump is given

by
a. Q = π D V f
b. Q = π b V f
c. Q = π D bV f
d. Q = D b V f
D,b = diameter and width of impeller
V f = velocity of flow at inlet

21. The discharge over a rectangular notch is

a. inversely proportional to H3/2
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 b. directly proportional to H3/2
c. inversely proportional to H5/2
d. directly proportional to H5/2

22. The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is

required to determine
a. Reynold’s number
b. Froude’s number
c. Mach number
d. Euler number

23. In a shaper, the metal is removed during

a. forward stroke
b. return stroke
c. both forward and return stroke
d. neither forward and return stroke

24. A point in a compressible flow where the

velocity of fluid is zero is called
a. critical point
b. vena contracta
c. stagnation point
d. none of the above

25. The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a

way that the tangent at any point gives the
direction of motion at that point is known as
a. path line
b. stream line
c. streak line

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 d. potential line

26. When a circular bar tapering uniformly from

diameter d1 at one end to diameter d2 at the other
end, is subjected to an increase in temperature (t),
then the thermal stress induced is
a. α t E d1/d2
b. α t d1/d2E
c. α t d2/d1E
d. α t d1/ d2E

27. The maximum frictional force, which comes

into play, when a body just begins to slide over the
surface of the other body, is known as
a. static friction
b. dynamic friction
c. limiting friction
d. co-efficient of friction

28. The velocity of the belt for maximum power is

a. T/3
b. Tg/3
c. (T/3m)0.5
d. none of the above

29. A square beam and a circular beam have the

same length, same allowable stress and the same
bending moment. The ratio of weights of the
square beam to the circular beam is
a. 1/2

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 b. 1
c. 1/1.12
d. 1/√2

30. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is

50%, then the ratio of rivet hole diameter to the
pitch of the rivet is
a. 0.20
b. 0.30
c. 0.60
d. 0.50

31. When the spring of a watch is wound, it will

posses
a. kinetic energy
b. heat energy
c. electrical energy
d. strain energy

32. Two solid shafts A and B are made of same

material. The shaft A is of 50mm diameter and the
shaft B of 100 mm diameter. The ratio of strength
of shaft B to that of shaft A is
a. One-half
b. double
c. four times
d. eight times

33. The point of contraflexture is a point where

a. shear force changes sign

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 b. bending moment changes sign
c. shear force is maximum
d. bending moment is maximum

34. Moment of inertia of a circular section about

an axis perpendicular to the section is
a. π d3/16
b. π d3/32
c. π d4/32
d. π d4/64

35. The ratio of bulk modulus to Young’s modulus

for Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 will be
a. 1/3
b. 2/3
c. 1
d. 3/2

36. The Rankine’s formula holds good for

a. short columns
b. long columns
c. both short and long columns
d. medium columns

37. A close-coiled helical spring of stiffness K is

cut into ‘n’ equal parts. The stiffness in each part
of the spring will be
a. Kn1/2
b. nK1/2
c. nK
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 d. nK2

38. The shear force and bending moment are zero

at free end of a cantilever beam, if it carries a
a. point load at free end
b. point load at the middle of its length
c. uniformly distributed load over the whole
length
d. none of the above

39. The product of Young’s modulus(E) and

moment of inertia (I) is known as
a. modulus of rigidity
b. bulk modulus
c. flexural rigidity
d. torsional rigidity

40. Two bars of different materials and same size

are subjected to the same tensile force. If the bars
have unit elongation in the ratio 2:5, then the ratio
of modulus of elasticity of the two materials is
a. 2 : 5
b. 5 : 2
c. 4 : 3
d. 3 : 4

41. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is

a. (1 – sin ) / (1 + sin )
b. (1 + sin ) / (1 - sin )
c. (1 – tan ) / (1 + tan )

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 d. (1 + tan ) / (1 - tan )

42. The slenderness ratio is the ratio

a. area of column to least radius of gyration
b. length of column to least radius of gyration
c. least radius of gyration to area of column
d. least radius of gyration to length of column

43. The point through which the whole weight of

the body acts, irrespective of its position, is known
as
a. moment of inertia
b. centre of gravity
c. centre of mass
d. both b & c

44. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of

length ‘l’ carrying a total load W uniformly
distributed over the whole length is
a. Wl3/48EI
b. Wl3/96EI
c. Wl3/192EI
d. Wl3/384EI

45. The relation between equivalent length (L) and

actual length (l) of a column for both ends fixed is
a. L = l/2
b. L = l/3
c. L = l
d. L = 2l

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 46. A shaft of diameter D is subjected to a twisting
moment T and a bending moment M. If the
maximum bending stress is equal to maximum
shear stress developed, then M is equal to
a. T/2
b. T
c. 2T
d. 4T

47. The bending moment in the middle of a simply

supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length is
a. zero
b. wl2/2
c. wl2/4
d. wl2/8

48. When the axes of the first and last wheels are
co-axial, then the train is known as
a. simple train of wheels
b. compound train of wheels
c. reverted gear train
d. epicyclic gear train

49. A beam extending beyond the supports is

called
a. simply supported beam
b. fixed beam
c. overhanging beam

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 d. cantilever beam

50. The centre of gravity of a T-section 100mm X

150mm X 50mm from its bottom is
a. 50 mm
b. 75 mm
c. 87.5 mm
d. 25 mm

51. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling

action gives the same motion as the actual gear is
called
a. addendum circle
b. dedendum circle
c. pitch circle
d. clearance circle

52. In order to get uniform thickness of the plate

by rolling process, one provides
a. camber on the rolls
b. offset on the rolls
c. hardening of the rolls
d. antifriction bearings

53. The vertical passage for bringing molten metal

to mould cavity is called
a. gate
b. runner
c. sprue
d. riser

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 54. Creep in belt is due to
a. material of the belt
b. material of the pulley
c. uneven extensions and contractions due to
varying tension
d. all of the above.

55. A moving mandrel is used in

a. wire drawing
b. tube drawing
c. metal cutting
d. forging

56. For achieving specific surface finish in single

point turning, the important factor to be controlled
is
a. depth of cut
b. cutting speed
c. feed
d. tool rake angle

57. Eutectic reaction for Fe-C system occurs at

a) 6000 C
b) 7230 C
c) 11470 C
d) 14930 C

58. The process of joining metal sheets by means

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 of a fusible alloy or metal applied in the molten
state is called
a) brazing
b) soldering
c) welding
d) diffusion

59. The tool used for lifting the pattern from the
mould is called
a) slick
b) trowel
c) lifter
d) none of the above

60. A screw will be self locking if

a) friction angle is less than helix angle
b) friction angle is greater than helix angle
c) friction angle is equal than helix angle
d) efficiency of screw is 100 %

61. Martensite is super saturated solution of carbon

in
a) alpha iron
b) beta iron
c) gamma iron
d) delta iron

62. The coefficient of friction depends upon

a) area of contact only
b) nature of surface

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 c) both a & b
d) none of the above

63. The train value of a gear train is

a) equal to velocity ratio of a gear train
b) reciprocal of velocity ratio of a gear train
c) always greater than unity
d) always less than unity

64. The taper provided on the pattern for its easy

and clean withdrawal from the mould is called
a) camber
b) draft
c) caster
d) taper

65. Acetylene gas is produced from

a) calcium
b) calcium carbide
c) calcium carbonate
d) calcium chloride

66. Enlarging an existing circular hole with a

rotating single point tool is called
a) boring
b) drilling
c) reaming
d) internal turning

67. In forging operation, fullering is done to

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 a) draw out material
b) bend the material
c) upset the material
d) extrude the material

68. Metal extrusion process is generally used for

producing
a) uniform solid section
b) uniform hollow section
c) uniform hollow and solid sections
d) varying solid and hollow sections

69. The power transmitted by means of a belt

depends upon
a) velocity of the belt
b) initial tension
c) arc of contact between the belt and smaller
pulley
d) all of the above

70. The angle of twist of a shaft is

a) directly proportional to (shaft diameter)2
b) inversely proportional to (shaft diameter)2
c) directly proportional to (shaft diameter)4
d) inversely proportional to (shaft diameter)4

71. The main constituents of soldering alloy are

a) tin and lead
b) zinc and copper
c) tin, lead and magnesium

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 d) zinc, copper and lead

72. Which one of the following is an advantage of

forging?
a) Good surface finish
b) Low tooling cost
c) Close tolerance
d) Improved physical property

73. The gear train usually employed in a clock is a

a) simple gear train
b) reverted gear train
c) sun and planet gear
d) differential gear

74. The rake angle in a drill

a) increases from centre to periphery
b) decreases from centre to periphery
c) remains constant
d) is irrelevant to the drilling operation

75. One Joule is equal to

a) 0.1 N-m
b) 1 N-m
c) 10 N-m
d) 100 N-m

76. It is the axial distance moved by the threaded

part -
a) pitch

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 b) lead
c) lead angle
d) helix

77. The compression ratio for petrol engines is

a) 3 to 6
b) 5 to 8
c) 15 to 20
d) 20 to 30

78. Which of the following operations is/are

performed on a lathe machine?
a) spot-facing
b) parting
c) reaming
d) all of the above

79. On drilling machine, which process is known

as reaming?
a) Enlarging of existing hole
b) Hole made by removal of metal along the hole
circumference
c) Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a
drilled hole
d) All of the above

80. The air-fuel ratio of a petrol engine is

controlled by
a) fuel injector
b) fuel pump

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 c) carburettor
d) none of the above

81. Which process squeezes metals into peaks and

troughs with plastic deformation?
a) Grooving
b) Knurling
c) Reaming
d) None of the above

82. In a vapour absorption system the function of

rectifier is
a) to separate ammonia and water
b) to cool the vapour leaving the analyzer
c) to dissolve ammonia in water
d) to add energy from external source

83. COP of a refrigerator on a reversed Carnot

cycle is 5. The ratio of higher absolute temperature
to the lower temperature (i.e T2/T1) is
a) 1.25
b) 1.3
c) 1.4
d) 1.2

84. In a reciprocating air compressor, the work

input is minimum when compression is
a) isentropic
b) polytropic
c) isothermal

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 d) isobaric

85. Chemical name of R 22 is

a) mono-chloro-di-fluoro methane CHClF2
b) di-chloro-di-fluoro methane CCl2F2
c) di-chloro-mono-fluoro methane CHCl2F
d) none of the above

86. The measurement of a thermodynamic

property known as temperature is base on
a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b) First law of thermodynamics
c) Second law of thermodynamics
d) None of the above

87. Carburising flame is normally used to weld

a) stainless steel
b) wrought iron
c) silver
d) copper and aluminium alloys

88. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe

machine, if the cutting tool moves –
a) parallel to the axis of rotation of work piece
b) perpendicular to the axis of rotation of work
piece
c) at an angle of 450
d) None of the above

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 89. A mixture of gas expands from 0.03 m3 to 0.06
m3 at a constant pressure of 1 MPa and absorbs 84
KJ of heat during the process. The change in
internal energy of the mixture is
a) 30 KJ
b) 54 KJ
c) 84 KJ
d) none of the above

90. Knocking takes place in CI engines

a) at the start of combustion
b) at the end of combustion
c) during combustion
d) none of the above

91. In an isothermal process

a) temperature increases gradually
b) change in internal energy is zero
c) enthalpy change is maximum
d) volume remains constant

92. The function of regenerator in a gas turbine

plant is
a) to heat the compressed air leaving the
compressor
b) to heat the gas before inlet to gas turbine
c) to exchange the heat from hot gases from
combustion chamber to exhaust gases of the
turbine

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 d) to heat the compressed air in between the
stages

93. Which of the following is correct?

a) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure +
Atmospheric pressure
b) Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure
+Atmospheric pressure
c) Atmospheric pressure = Gauge pressure +
Absolute pressure
e) None of the above

94. Which of the following is a mechanism for

mechanized movements of the carriage along
longitudinal axis?
a) Cross slide
b) Compound rest
c) Apron
d) Saddle

95. For a non-flow constant pressure process the

heat exchange is equal to
a) zero
b) the work done
c) the change in internal energy
d) the change in enthalpy

96. Lean air mixture is required during

a) idling
b) starting

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 c) accelerating
d) cruising

97. During air conditioning, whenever two or more

streams of moist are mixed, they follow
a) adiabatic process
b) isothermal process
c) polytropic process
d) isobaric process

98. Which metals has good weld ability compared

to the rest?
a) Mild steel
b) Stainless steel
c) Cast steel
d) Carbon steel

99. Which one of following is a governing method

used on diesel engines?
a) Quality governing
b) Quantity governing
c) Injection governing
d) Hit and miss governing

100. The process of bevelling sharp ends of a work

piece is called
a) knurling
b) grooving
c) facing
d) chamfering

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 WBPSC Answer Sheet – 2016

1.b 2.d 3.a 4. b 5. d 6.d

7.a 8.c 9.a 10.d 11.b 12.b

13.c 14.c 15.c 16.c 17.c 18.b

19.c 20.c 21.b 22.c 23.a 24.c

25.b 26.a 27.c 28.c 29.c 30.d

31.d 32.d 33.b 34.c 35.b 36.c

37.c 38.c 39.c 40.b 41.a 42.b

43.b 44.d 45.a 46.a 47.d 48.c

49.c 50.c 51.c 52.a 53.c 54.c

55.b 56.c 57.c 58.a 59.d 60.b

61.a 62.b 63.b 64.b 65.b 66.a

67.a 68.c 69.d 70.d 71.a 72.d

73.b 74.a 75.b 76.a 77.b 78.b

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 79.c 80.c 81.b 82.b 83.d 84.c

85.a 86.a 87.d 88.b 89.b 90.a

91.b 92.a 93.a 94.c 95.d 96.d

97.a 98.a 99.a 100.d

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 WBPSC Solved Mechanical Paper-2015
(Inspector of Factories)

1. When two concurrent and coplanar forces of P

and Q get an angle of 1800 , their resultant will be
a
a) couple
b) moment equal to PQ
c) zero
d) (P-Q)

2. The potential energy an elevator loses in coming

down from the top of the building to a stop at the
ground floor is
a) lost to the driving motions
b) converted into heat
c) lost in friction of the moving surface
d) used up in lifting up the counter poise weight

3. The force which produces an acceleration of 1

m/s2 in a mass of 2 Kg is called
a) one erg
b) one newton
c) one joule
d) one watt

4. The frictional torque, transmitted in case of flat

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 pivot bearing for uniform pressure, is equal to
a) WR
b) 2/3 WR
c) 1/3 WR
d) 1/2 WR
Where – W=total axial load carried by pivot
= co-efficient of friction
R= radius of bearing surface

5. According to the principle of transmissibility of

forces, when a force acts upon a body, its effects is
a) minimum when it acts at CG of the body
b) maximum when it acts at CG of the body
c) different at different point of the body
d) same at every point in its line of action

6. Shear stress in a beam occurs due to

a) bending moment only
b) pure shear force only
c) torsional force only
d) transverse shear and torsional moment

7. A material obeys Hook’s law up to

a) plastic limit
b) elastic limit
c) yield point
d) limit of proportionality

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 8. A body is moving with the velocity of 10 m/sec.
The time required to stop the body within a
distance of 5m is equal to
a) 3 sec
b) 5 sec
c) 1 sec
d) 0.5 sec

9. If three non-paralleled force hold a rigid body in

equilibrium, they must
a) be equal in magnitude
b) concurrent
c) be non-concurrent
d) be collinear

10. The principle of conservation of energy cannot

be applied in case of
a) a simple pendulum
b) a particle moving in gravitational field
c) frictionless movement of a particle over a
surface
d) frictional movement of a particle over a surface

11. A material subjected to reversal of stresses

does not fail at a stress known as
a) fatigue stress
b) proof stress
c) safe stress
d) endurance stress

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 12. The resistance offered by internal stresses to
bending is known as
a) shear stress
b) compressive stress
c) modulus of elasticity
d) moment of resistance

13. The torque producing a unit twist in a shaft of

unit length is
a) normal torque
b) nominal torque
c) minimum torque
d) torsional rigidity

14. Every cross-section of a shaft, which is

subjected to twisting moment, is under
a) compressive stress
b) shear stress
c) tensile stress
d) bending stress

15. The material, of which rivets are made, should

be
a) hard
b) malleable
c) ductile
d) tough

16. A coil having stiffness k is cut into two halves.

Then the stiffness of the cut coils will be

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 a) same
b) half
c) double
d) one-fourth
17. The equivalent length is equal to actual length
divided by √2 for a column with
a) one end fixed and other end free
b) both ends fixed
c) one end fixed and other end hinged
d) both ends hinged

18. In a cantilever, maximum deflection occurs

where
a) bending moment is zero
b) bending moment is maximum
c) share force is zero
d) slope is zero

19. Module is expressed in

a) mm
b) mm / mm
c) mm / no. of teeth
d) dimensionless

20. The internal energy of a substance depends on

a) temperature
b) pressure
c) volume
d) entropy

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 21. Brayton cycle process are
a) two isothermal and two constant volume
b) two isentropic and two constant pressure
c) two isentropic and two isothermal
d) two isentropic and two constant volume

22. In a closed system, the change in enthalpy will

be equal to the heat transferred when a reversible
process takes places at constant
a) volume
b) pressure
c) temperature
d) internal energy

23. Which of the following is a non-petroleum

fuel?
a) diesel oil
b) petrol
c) naphtha
d) alcohol

24. The number of processes in a Rankine cycle is

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

25. A gas turbine works on

a) Rankine cycle
b) Carnot cycle

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 c) Otto cycle
d) Brayton cycle

26. For an ideal gas, the value of Joule-Kelvin

co-efficient is
a) zero
b) 0.5
c) unity
d) negative

27. On which plot the isotherms will not be a

straight line
a) P and T
b) S and T
c) V and P
d) PV and V

28. Which of the following is not a diatomic gas?

a) N2
b) NO
c) CO
d) He

29. A screw jack spindle is provided with

a) vee thread
b) BSW thread
c) buttress thread
d) square thread

30. The pitch of threads on a lock-nut is

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 a) fine
b) very fine
c) coarse
d) same as that of nut

31. The loading on a pinion gear is usually

a) compression
b) tension
c) shear
d) cyclic loading

32. In flange coupling, the weakest element should

be
a) flange
b) key
c) bolts
d) shaft

33. The diameter of rivets for 20 mm thick plates

would be
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 30 mm
d) 40 mm

34. For butt welding of two plates each of which is

25 mm thick, the best process would be
a) TIG welding
b) MIG welding
c) electro slag welding

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 d) sub-merged arc welding

35. Resistance of fatigue of a material is measured

by
a) Young’s modulus
b) endurance limit
c) elastic limit
d) modulus of rigidity

36. The compression formula is valid up to the

slenderness ratio of
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

37.A shaft is subjected to a torque T and bending

moment M. The equivalent twisting moment
would be
a) √(M2 + T2)
b) √(M2 + 4T2)
c) √(T2 + 4M2)
d) M/2 + √(M2+T2)

38. Which process will improve the fatigue life of

a part?
a) Electroplating
b) Chemical coating
c) Electro coating
d) Shot peening

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 39. The gears used to connect two non-intersecting
and non-coplanar shafts, are known as
a) bevel gears
b) spiral gears
c) helical gears
d) spur gears

40. Which one of the following is a solid

lubricant?
a) Mineral oil
b) Grease
c) Graphite
d) Synthetic oil

41. The included angle for the V-belt varies from

a) 100 to 200
b) 200 to 300
c) 300 to 400
d) 400 to 500

42. In an automobile, function of gear box is to

a) increase speed
b) decrease speed
c) provide variable speed
d) produce torque

43. The ability of a material to sustain loads

without failure is known as
a) mechanical strength

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 b) stiffness
c) toughness
d) ductility

44. Toughness of a material means

a) strength
b) fatigue resistance
c) stress relieving
d) machinability

45. The body-centred cubic space lattice is formed

in
a) alpha iron
b) beta iron
c) gamma iron
d) delta iron

46. Carbon content in steel is

a) above 2 %
b) upto 2 %
c) below 0.8 %
d) above 6 %

47. The upper critical temperature for a steel is

a) constant
b) depends upon the rate of heating
c) varies according to the carbon content in steel
d) varies according to the cooling rate

48. Under microscope, ferrite appears as

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 a) white
b) dark
c) light
d) finger print

49. The unit cell of body- centred cubic structure

contains number of atoms as
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

50. Troosite is obtained when steel is

a) quenched in oil
b) cooled in steel air
c) slowly cooled in furnace
d) quenched in water

51. The main alloy for corrosion resistance in

stainless steel is
a) manganese
b) chromium
c) cobalt
d) vanadium

52. Cast irons are generally specified by

a) carbon percentage
b) iron percentage
c) hardness
d) tensile strength

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 53. In induction hardening
a) the voltage is high
b) the current is high
c) the frequency is high
d) the power factor is high

54. Machining properties of steel are improved by

adding
a) chromium
b) nickel
c) cobalt
d) lead

55. Spring steel should have high resistance to

a) shocks
b) fatigue
c) corrosion
d) deformation

56. Which one of the following materials has

highest specific gravity?
a) Brass
b) Copper
c) High Carbon Steel
d) Lead

57. High purity copper is obtained by

a) casting
b) rolling

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 c) electric refining
d) induction heating

58. The compression ratio for a diesel engine

varies from
a) 25 to 40
b) 10 to 15
c) 6 to 10
d) 15 to 25

59. Flash point for diesel fuel oil should be

a) minimum 490 C
b) maximum 490 C
c) maximum 1000 C
d) maximum 1500 C

60. The thermal efficiency of a CI engine may be

of the order of
a) 20 %
b) 35 %
c) 50 %
d) 70 %

61. The purpose of supercharging an engine an

engine is
a) to increase power output of engine
b) to reduce specific fuel consumption
c) to reduce noise of engine
d) to improve cooling of cylinder

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 62. Air standard efficiency of an IC engine
depends on
a) compression ratio
b) speed of operation
c) fuel used
d) torque

63. Morse test is conducted on

a) single cylinder engine
b) slow speed engine
c) high speed engine
d) multi-cylinder engine

64. Which component of a gas turbine consumes

maximum power?
a) Starter
b) Regenerator
c) Compressor
d) Combustion chamber

65. Samples of exhaust gases from following

engine is collected
a) petrol engine
b) diesel engine
c) gas engine
d) jet propulsion unit

66. For the same power and same speed, the

flywheel of a 2-stroke engine compared to that of a
4-stroke engine will be

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 a) bigger
b) small
c) same size
d) different shape

67. A gas turbine works on

a) rankine cycle
b) carnot cycle
c) joule cycle
d) ericson cycle

68. The flow of water in a pipe of diameter 3000

mm can be measured by
a) venturimeter
b) rotameter
c) orifice plate
d) pitot tube

69. The general energy equation is applicable to

a) steady flow
b) unsteady flow
c) non-uniform flow
d) turbulent flow

70. Steady flow is motion in which

a) velocity is independent of time
b) velocity is zero
c) velocity varies with head
d) rate of change of velocity is unity

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 71. The unit of surface tension is
a) same as unit of force
b) energy / unit area
c) force / unit area
d) dimensionless

72. The flow in open channel is laminar if the

Reynold’s number is
a) 2000
b) less than 2000
c) less than 500
d) 3000

73. The square root of the ration of inertia force to

pressure force is known as
a) Renold number
b) Froude number
c) Mach Number
d) Euler number

74. In centrifugal pump installation while starting,

the position of delivery valve is
a) fully open
b) fully closed
c) half open
d) less than half open

75. Type of impeller used in mud pumps is

a) shrouded
b) one side shrouded

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 c) open
d) double suction

76. Inclination angle of a turning tool is measured

in its
a) cutting plane
b) orthogonal plane
c) reference plane
d) normal plane

77. The helix angle of an HSS twist drill is related

with that drill’s
a) rake angle
b) clearance angle
c) cutting angle
d) inclination angle

78. The surface finish in plain milling does not

depend upon
a) diameter of the cutter
b) depth of cut
c) workable feed rate
d) cutting velocity

79. The tool angle which causes oblique cutting is

a) rake angle
b) clearance angle
c) inclination angle
d) principal cutting edge angle

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 80. The magnitude of the cutting forces fluctuate
at regular frequencies in
a) taper turning
b) drilling
c) milling
d) boring

81. Measurement of cutting forces by tool force

dynamometer cannot be base on
a) elastic deflection
b) elastic strain
c) change in temperature
d) rise of pressure

82. For the same tool-work material combination

in a lathe work, the highest cutting velocity can be
taken while
a) straight turning
b) thread cutting
c) reaming
d) knurling

83. Quick return ratio affects machining time

requirement while
a) turning
b) shaping
c) drilling
d) milling

84. The idle time involved in machining each

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 piece can be reduced by
a) increasing cutting velocity
b) mechanisation of automation
c) proper selection of work material
d) increasing feed and depth of cut

85. Flat surfaces are not produced in

a) lathe
b) drilling
c) shaping machine
d) milling machine

86. Servo motors are used for feed drive of

a) hydraulic copying lathe
b) broaching machine
c) CNC milling machine
d) capstan lathe

87. The machine tool which produces spur gear

teeth by generation process is
a) milling machine
b) broaching machine
c) hobbing machine
d) parallel shaping machine

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 WBPSC Answer Sheet – 2015

1.d 2.d 3.b 4.b 5.d 6.d

7.d 8.c 9.b 10.d 11.d 12.d

13.d 14.b 15.c 16.c 17.c 18.a

19.c 20.a 21.b 22.b 23.d 24.d

25.d 26.a 27.c 28.d 29.d 30.d

31.d 32.b 33.d 34.c 35.b 36.d

37.a 38.d 39.b 40.c 41.c 42.c

43.c 44.a 45.a 46.b 47.c 48.c

49.b 50.a 51.b 52.a 53.c 54.d

55.a 56.d 57.c 58.d 59.a 60.b

61.a 62.a 63.d 64.c 65.b 66.b

67.c 68.d 69.a 70.a 71.b 72.b

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 73.d 74.b 75.c 76.b 77.a 78.a

79.d 80.c 81.c 82.a 83.b 84.b

85.b 86.c 87.c

[ Note: Only mechanical engineering questions

are provided with answers]

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 WBPSC Solved Mechanical Paper-2014
(Assistant Proffessor)

1. The modulus of elasticity is dimensionally

equivalent to
a) strain
b) stress
c) surface tension
d) poisson’s ratio

2. A carnot engine operates with source at 1270 C

and sinks at 270 C. If the source supplies 40 KJ of
heat energy, the work done by the engine is
a) 1 KJ
b) 4 KJ
c) 5 KJ
d) 10 KJ

3. Closed system is one in which

a) mass do not cross boundary of the system
though energy may do so
b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundary of
the system
d) both mass and energy cross boundary of the
system

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 4. In automobiles, the power is transmitted from
gear to differential through
a) bevel gear
b) oldham’s coupling
c) hooke’s joint
d) knuckle joint

5. Which of the following is a criterion in the

design of hydrodynamic journal bearing?
a) Sommerfiield number
b) Rating life
c) Specific dynamic capacity
d) rotation factor

6. Axial flow compressor has the following

advantage over centrifugal compressor
a) larger air handling ability per unit frontal area
b) higher pressure ratio per stage
c) aerofoil blades are used
d) higher average velocities

7. In order to have interference fit, it is essential

that lower limit of the shaft should be
a) greater than the upper limit of the hole
b) lesser than the upper limit of the hole
c) greater than the lower limit of the hole
d) lesser than the lower limit of the hole

8. Longitudinal strain is possible in the case of

a) gases

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 b) liquids
c) only solids
d) only gases & liquids

9. The value of n=1 in the polytropic process

indicates it to be
a) reversible process
b) isothermal process
c) adiabatic process
d) irreversible process

10. Cavitation will begin when

a) the pressure at any location reaches an absolute
pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure of
the liquid
b) pressure becomes more than critical pressure
c) flow is increased
d) pressure is increased

11. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order

of
a) 0.1 Ton
b) 5 ton
c) 10 ton
d) 40 ton

12. Rectilinear motion of piston is converted into

rotary by
a) cross head
b) slider crank

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 c) connecting rod
d) four bar chain mechanism

13. for pipes, laminar flow occurs when Reynold’s

number is
a) less than 2000
b) 2000 to 4000
c) more than 4000
d) less than 4000

14. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle

diesel engine, the inlet valve
a) opens at 200 before top dead centre and closed at
350 after bottom dead centre
b) opens at top dead centre and closes at bottom
dead centre
c) open at 100 after top dead centre and closes 200
before bottom dead centre
d) may open or close anywhere

15. Wrought iron is

a) hard
b) high in strength
c) highly resistant to corrosion
d) heat treated to change its properties

16. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the

maximum stress that a member can withstand for
an infinite number of load applications without
failure when subjected to

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 a) dynamic loading
b) static loading
c) combined static and dynamic loading
d) completely reversed loading

17. the constituent of Monel metal are

a) nickel, copper
b) nickel, molybdenum
c) zinc, tin, lead
d) nickel, lead and tin

18. Which is false statement about annealing?

Annealing is done to
a) relieve stress
b) harden steel slightly
c) improve machining characteristics
d) soften material

19. Which of the following is not the unit of

energy?
a) Kg m
b) Kcal
c) Watt
d) Watt hour

20. According to kinetic theory of gases, the

absolute temperature is attained when
a) volume of the gas is zero
b) pressure of the gas is zero
c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero

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 d) specific heat of gas is zero

21. Theoretical value of poisson’s ratio lies between

a) - 1 to 0.5
b) 1 to – 2
c) 5 to 1
d) none of the above

22. A sphere, a cube, a thin circular plate and a

hexagonal prism, all made of the same material and
having the same mass are initially heated to a
temperature of 3000K. Which of these will cool
fastest?
a) sphere
b) cube
c) a thin circular plate
d) hexagonal prism

23. The process of heat transfer in which heat is

transferred with actual migration of medium particles
is known as
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) reflection

24. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes

a) two isothermal and two isentropics
b) two isentripics and two constant volumes

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 c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one
constant pressure
d) two isentropics and two constant pressures

25. The materials which exhibit the same elastic

properties in all directions are called
a) homogeneous
b) inelastic
c) isotropic
d) orthotropic

26. The stress-strain relation of the Newtonian fluid is

a) linear
b) parabolic
c) hyperbolic
d) inverse type

27. Corioli’s component of acceleration exists

whenever a point moves along a path that has
a) linear displacement
b) rotational motion
c) tangential acceleration
d) centripetal acceleration

28. CPM is the

a) time orientd technique
b) event oriented technique
c) activity oriented technique
d) target oriented technique

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 29. For application involving high stresses in one
direction only the following type of thread would be
best suited
a) ISO metric thread
b) acme thread
c) square thread
d) buttress thread

30. The property due to which sheets can be prepared

from a material is called
a) elasticity
b) brittleness
c) malleability
d) ductility

31. volumetric efficiency is

a) the ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
b) the ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount
of piston displacement
c) reciprocal of compression ratio
d) index of compressor performance

32. Gas turbine cycle consists of

a) two isothermals and two isotropics
b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
c) two isentropic, one constant volume and one
constant pressure
d) two isentropics and two constant pressures

33. Which of the following materials is most elastic

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 a) rubber
b) plastic
c) brass
d) steel

34. Gnatt charts are used for

a) forecasting sales
b) production schedule
c) scheduling and routing
d) linear programming

35. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure

a) discharge
b) velocity of gas
c) pressure intensity of gas
d) pressure intensity of liquid

36. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained

within the elastic limits, is known as
a) strain energy
b) resilience
c) toughness
d) modulus of resilience

37. Manometer is used to measure

a) pressure in pipe, channels etc
b) velocity
c) very low pressure
d) difference of pressure between two points

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 38. Kaplan turbine is
a) a high head mixed flow turbine
b) a low head axial flow turbine
c) an outward flow reaction turbine
d) an impulse inward flow turbine

39. The force constant of a wire is K and that of

another wire of same material is 2K. When both the
wires are stretched by the same force, then the work
done is
a) W2 = W1
b) W2=0.5W1
c) W2=2W1
d)W2=2(W1)2

40. A metallic rod breaks when the strain produced is

0.2%. What should be the cross section to support a
load of 104 N, if the Young’s modulus of the material
of the rod is 7x 109 M/m2?
a) 7.15 x 10- 4 m2
b) 3.15 x 10- 5 m2
c) 2 x 103 m2
d) 12 x 10- 4 m2

41. Energy in a stretched wire per unit volume is

a) Half of (load x strain)
b) Half of (stress x strain)
c) stress x strain
d) load x strain

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 42. The efficiency of a Carnot heat engine is 0.5 when
the temperature of the source is T1 and that of sink is
T2. The efficiency of another Carnot heat engine is also
0.5. The temperature of source and sink of the second
engine are respectively
a) T1 + 5, T2 – 5
b) T1 + 10, T2 – 10
c) 2T1 , 2T2
d) 2T1, T2 / 2

43. Pulverised fuel is used for

a) better burning
b) more calorific value
c) less radiation loss
d) medium sized units

44. If a system after undergoing a series of processes

returns to the initial state then
a) process is thermodynamically in equilibrium
b) process is executed in closed system cycle
c) its entropy will change due to irreversibility
d) sum of heat and work transfer will be zero

45. Absorptive power of perfectly black body is

a) zero
b) infinity
c) one
d) constant

46. Unit of Stefan’s constant is given by

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 a) W / m K2
b) W / m2 K2
c) W2 / m2 K4
d) W / m K

47. A 75 cc engine has following parameters as 75 cc

a) fuel tank capacity
b) lub oil capacity
c) swept volume
d) cyliunder volume

48. The change in enthalpy of a system is the heat

supplied at
a) constant pressure
b) constant temperature
c) constant volume
d) constant entropy

49. The process of breaking up of a liquid into fine

droplets by spraying is called
a) vaporisation
b) carburetion
c) ionisation
d) atomisation

50. The basis of measuring thermodynamic property

of temperature is given by
a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b) first law of thermodynamics
c) second law of thermodynamics

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 d) third law of thermodynamics

51. All the terms in Bernoulli’s equation have

dimension of
a) energy
b) work
c) mass
d) length

52. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm

in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is nearly
equal to
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 250

53. For the same compression ratio

a) otto cycle is more efficient than diesel cycle
b) diesel cycle is more efficient than otto cycle
c) both otto and diesel cycle are equally efficient
d) compression ratio has nothing to do with efficiency

54. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler

a) locomotive boiler
b) babcock and wilox boiler
c) stirling boiler
d) all of the above

55. Bomb Calorimeter is used to determine

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 a) higher calorific value at constant volume
b) lower calorific value at constant volume
c) higher calorific value at constant pressure
d) lower calorific value at constant pressure

56. Separation of flow occurs when

a) the pressure intensity reaches a minimum
b) the cross-section of a channel is reduced
c) the boundary layer comes to rest
d) all of the above

57. The impact strength of a material is an index of its

a) toughness
b) tensile strength
c) capability of being cold worked
d) hardness

58. Calculate the value of force F if the system is in

equilibrium

a) 1.4 N
b) 1.82 N
c) 0.7 N
d) 3 N

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 59. Combustion in compression ignition engine
is
a) homogeneous
b) heterogeneous
c) both a & b
d) laminar

60. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol

engine is of the order of
a) 6 : 1
b) 20 : 1
c) 12 : 1
d) 15 : 1

61. Radiation emitted by a surface is directly

proportional to
a) third power of its temperature
b) equal to its temperature
c) twice power of its temperature
d) fourth power of its temperature

62. Diesel fuel compared to petrol is

a) less difficult to ignite
b) just about the same difficult to ignite
c) more difficult to ignite
d) highly ignitable

63. A key connecting a flange coupling to a shaft is

likely to fail in
a) shear

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 b) tension
c) torsion
d) bending

64. Lancashire boiler is a

a) stationary fire tube boiler
b) stationary water tube boiler
c) water tube boiler with natural / forced circulation
d) mobile fire tube boiler

65. A simple pendulum of length 5 m, with a bob of

mass 1 Kg is in simple harmonic motion. As it passes
through its mean position, the bob has a speed of 5
M/s. The net force on the bob at the mean position is
a) zero
b) 2.5 N
c) 5 N
d) 25 N

66. A number of forces acting at a point will be in

equilibrium if
a) their total sum is zero
b) two resolved parts in two directions at right angles
are equal
c) sum of resolved parts in any two perpendicular
directions are both zero
d) all of them are inclined equally

67. A particle moves along a straight line such that

distance traversed in t second is given by x = t2(t-4).

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 The acceleration of the particle will be given by the
equation
a) 3t2 – t
b) 3t2 + 2t
c) 6t - 8
d) 6t2 - 8t

68. The pitot tube is used to measure

a) velocity at stagnation point
b) stagnation pressure
c) static pressure
d) dynamic pressure

69. Tensile strength of a material is obtained by

dividing the maximum load during the test by the
a) area at the time of fracture
b) original cross-sectional area
c) average of a & b
d) minimum area after fracture

70. A block weighing 981 N is resting on a horizontal

surface. The co-efficient of friction between the block
and horizontal surface is  = 0.2. A vertical cable
attached to the block provides partial support as shown
in figure. A man can pull horizontally with a force of
100 N. What will be the tension, T (in N) in the cable
if the man is just able to move the block to the right?

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 a) 176.2
b) 196.0
c) 481.0
d) 981.0

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 WBPSC Answer Sheet – 2014

1.b 2.c 3.a 4.c 5.a 6.a

7.a 8.c 9.b 10.a 11.a 12.b

13.a 14.a 15.c 16.d 17.a 18.b

19.c 20.c 21.a 22.c 23.b 24.c

25.c 26.a 27.b 28.c 29.d 30.c

31.b 32.d 33.d 34.b 35.b 36.a

37.a 38.b 39.b 40.a 41.b 42.c

43.a 44.d 45.c 46.c 47.c 48.a

49.d 50.a 51.d 52.b 53.a 54.a

55.a 56.c 57.a 58.b 59.b 60.d

61.d 62.c 63.a 64.a 65.c 66.c

67.c 68.b 69.b 70.c

[ Note: Only mechanical engineering questions are

provided with answers]

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 WBPSC Mechanical Solved Paper -2012
(Lecturer in Govt Polytechnic)

1. The amount of friction, present in a machine,

may be expressed in terms of load. Additional load
is to be lifted if friction is not present. The value of
this additional load is equal to
a) W + P X V.R
b) P/(V.R) + W
c) P X V.R – W
d) V.R/P + W

2. When two concurrent and coplanar forces of P

and Q get an angle of 1800, their resultant will be a
a) couple
b) moment equal to PQ
c) zero
d) (P-Q)

3. Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table.

A horizontal force is applied to one block, as
shown in figure. If m1=2 Kg , m2 = 1 kg and F=3
Newton, the force of contact between the two
blocks will be

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 a) 1N
b) 2N
c) 3N
d) 6N

4. For the continuous beam ABC loaded and

supported as shown in figure, the reaction on D
shall be

a) W/2
b) 3W/2
c) W
d) zero

5. The law which states that the absolute pressure

of a perfect gas varies directly with the absolute
temperature when volume is kept constant is
known as
a) Charle’s law
b) Boyle’s law
c) Gay-Lussac’s law
d) Avogadro’s law

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 6. The number of processes in a Rankine cycle is
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

7. In a carnot engine, when the working substance

gives heat to the sink
a) the temperature of the sink increases
b) the temperature of the sink remains the same
c) the temperature of the source decreases
d) change depends on the operating conditions

8 . The process in which no heat enters or leaves

the system is called
a) isothermal
b) isobaric
c) isentropic
d) isochoric

9. In thermal power plant, thermodynamic cycle

used is
a) Brayton
b) Joule
c) Carnot
d) Rankine

10. The unit cell of body-cantered cubic structure

contains number of atom as
a) 1

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 b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

11. The bond between atoms which results from

the sharing of pars of valence electrons by two or
more atoms, is known as
a) ionic bond
b) metallic bond
c) covalent bond
d) none of the above

12. The process of introducing carbon into low

carbon steels in order to produce a hard surface is
known as
a) carbonitriding
b) nitriding
c) carburizing
d) cyaniding

13. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is defined as

the torque required to produce
a) maximum twist in the shaft
b) maximum shear stress in the shaft
c) minimum twist in the shaft
d) a twist of one radian per unit length of the shaft

14. The ratio of modulus of rigidity to modulus of

elasticity for a poisson’s ratio of 0.25 would be
a) 0.5

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 b) 0.4
c) 0.3
d) 1.0

15. The deflection of a close-coiled helical spring,

subjected to an axial load W is equal to

16. The deflection at mid-point of a simply

supported beam carrying a udl of w/m run is
a) wl3 / 48EI
b) wl4 / 48EI
c) 5wl4 / 384EI
d) wl2 / 384EI

17. In a rectangular beam, the width, depth and

length are doubled, the bending stress
a) shall reman unchanged
b) shall be doubled
c) shall become ¼ th
d) shall be halved

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 18. The velocity of a fluid particle at the centre of
the pipe section is
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) average
d) r.m.s.

19. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the

following –
a) Newton’s law of motion
b) boundary layer theory
c) Newton’s law of viscosity
d) continuity equation

20. Fluid statics deals with the following forces-

a) viscous and pressure forces
b) viscous and gravity forces
c) gravity and pressure forces
d) surface tension and gravity forces

21. The co-efficient of friction for laminar flow

through a circular pipe is given by
a) 0.0791 / (Re) 1/4 b) f = 16 /Re
c) f = 61/ Re d) none

22. If the density of a fluid changes from point to

point in a flow region, it is called
a) steady flow
b) unsteady flow

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 c) non-uniform flow
d) compressible flow

23. The rate of flow through venturimeter varies as

a) H
b) √H
c) H3/2
d) H5/2

24. The ratio of maximum stress in a machine

component (at a notch or a fillet) to the nominal
stress at the same section, is known as
a) endurance limit
b) stress concentration factor
c) surface finish factor
d) factor of safety

25. If the diameter of sold shaft is increased two

times, the torque transmitted will be
a) two times
b) four times
c) eight times
d) sixteen times

26. The pitch of 24 mm diameter metric fine

threads would be
a) 3 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 1.5 mm
d) 1 mm

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 27. The cotter joint is having maximum draw of
a) 10 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 3 mm

28. The screw jack spindle is provided with

a) vee threads
b) BSW threads
c) buttress threads
d) square threads

29. The diameter of rivets for 20 mm thick plates

would be
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 30 mm
d) 40 mm

30. Treating weld as a line, the section modulus in

welding of a weld d cm high would be
a) zero
b) d/6
c) d2/6
d) d3/36

31. Maximum gear ratio can be expected in case of

a) spur gear
b) helical gear

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 c) straight bevel gear
d) worm and worm wheel

32. A V-belt having B section is generally used

when the power to be transmitted is in the range
a) 3-25 HP
b) 25-35 HP
c) 35-50 HP
d) 50-75 HP

33. Worm gearing is used to obtain considerable

speed reduction between shafts whose axes are
a) parallel
b) perpendicular and intersect
c) perpendicular and do not intersect
d) inclined

34. Longitudinal vibration are said to occur when

the particles of a body moves
a) perpendicular to its axis
b) parallel to its axis
c) in a circle about its axis
d) none of the above

35. The peak amplitude n case of forced damped

vibrating system, except zero damping occurs
a) before resonance
b) after resonance
c) at resonance
d) at zero frequency

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 36. The time taken by fluid after injection to reach
upto auto-ignition temperature s known as
a) ignition delay
b) injection delay
c) pre-ignition
d) knocking

37. During suction stroke, a petrol engine draws a

mixture of
a) petrol and diesel
b) diesel and air
c) air and petrol
d) air only

38. Knocking in SI engine can be prevented if the

end gas has
a) high density
b) high temperature
c) long ignition delay
d) high pressure

39. The phenomenon responsible for violent sound

pulsations within the cylinder of an IC engine is
known as
a) detonation
b) pre-ignition
c) auto-ignition
d) turbulence

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 40. If the air after partial expansion in the turbine
is reheated, the efficiency of the gas turbine cycle
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains constant
d) first increases then decreases

41. Out of the following diesel engine, the

minimum air consumption per BHP will be in
a) 4 stroke, mech injection
b) 4 stroke, air injection
c) 2 stroke, mech injection, pump scavenging
d) 2 stroke air injection

42. Air consumption of a 4 stroke diesel engine per

rate BHP/Hr will be
a) 1 kg
b) 5-7 kg
c) 10-14 kg
d) 15 Kg

43. A pair of tumbler gear is used in

a) centre lathe
b) milling machine
c) shaper
d) grinding machine

44. In a lathe gear box, if first four consecutive

speeds are 19, 30, 47, 74 rpm, the next speed will
be

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 a) 93 rpm
b) 104 rpm
c) 101 rpm
d) 111 rpm

45. While using high speed steel tools on lathe, the

speed of chuck will be lowest while machining
a) cast iron
b) copper
c) brass
d) aluminium

46. The process of rotating the job correct to the

fraction on minutes between two successive cuts is
known as
a) milling
b) indexing
c) broaching
d) sawing

47. If in milling operation, depth and width of cut

is constant and feed rate is doubled, then power
consumption will increase by
a) 100 %
b) 90 %
c) 50 %
d) 30 %

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 WBPSC Answer Sheet – 2012

1.c 2.d 3.a 4.d 5.c 6.d 7.b 8.c

9.d 10.b 11.c 12.c 13.d 14.b 15.c

16.c 17.c 18.a 19.d 20.c 21.b 22.d

23.b 24.b 25.c 26.b 27.d 28.d 29.d

30.c 31.d 32.a 33.c 34.b 35.c 36.a

37.c 38.c 39.a 40.b 41.a 42.b 43.a

44.d 45.a 46.b 47.c

[ Note: Only mechanical engineering questions are

provided with answers]

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 WBPSC Solved Mechanical Paper-2011
(Assistant Engnieer)

1. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc

about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about
an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing
through a point on its rim will be
a) 2I
b) 4I
c) 5I
d) 6I

2. A tube of length L is filled completely with an

incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at
both ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal
plane about one of its ends with uniform angular
velocity w. The force exerted by the liquid at the
other end is
a) Mw2L
b) ½ Mw2L
c) 2 Mw2L
d) 4 Mw2L

3. A body of mass m slides down on an incline and

reaches the bottom with a velocity v. If the same
mass was in the form of a ring which rolls down
this incline, the velocity of the ring at the bottom
would have been
a) v

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 b) √2 v
c) v / √2
d) √(2/5) .v

4. The variation in the speed of the planets in their

orbits about sun can be explained on the basis of
the conservation of
a) linear momentum
b) angular momentum
c) total energy
d) rotational kinetic energy

5. A satellite is revolving around the earth in a

circular orbit four times the radius of the parking
orbit. The time period of the satellite is
a) 2 days
b) 4 days
c) 8 days
d) 24 days

6. D’ Alembert’s principle is used for

a) determining stresses in the truss
b) designing safe structure
c) stability of floating bodies
d) reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent
static problem

7. If u = ax and v = -ay give the velocity

distribution for 2-dimensional flow, the equation
of stream line passing through (3, 1) would be

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 a) xy = 3
b) xy = 1
c) x + 3y = 0
d) 3x + y = 0

8. The maximum height of projectile on a

horizontal plane for an angle of projection α is
a) u2cos2 α / 2g
b) u2sin2 α / 2g
c) u2sin2 α / g
d) u2cos2 α / g

9. When spring of watch is wound, it will possess

a) electrical energy
b) heat energy
c) kinetic energy
d) strain energy

10. In laminar flow through a circular pipe, the

discharge varies
a) linearly with fluid density
b) inversely with pressure drop
c) directly as square of pipe radius
d) inversely with fluid viscosity

11. Tension in cable supporting a weight is more

when lift is moving
a) upwards with acceleration
b) downwards with acceleration
c) upwards with constant velocity

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 d) downwards with constant velocity

12. A body of weight W is required to move up on

rough inclined plane whose angle of inclination
with horizontal is α. The minimum effort applied
to the plane is given by
a) P = W tan α
b) P = W ( sin α - μ cos α )
c) P = W ( sin α + μ cos α )
d) P = W ( cos α + μ sin α )

13. An equivalent pipe corresponding to series

arrangement of different pipes has the same
a) length and discharge
b) frictional head loss and discharge
c) friction factor and diameter
d) flow velocity and diameter

14. The deformation of a bar under its own weight

as compared to that when subjected to direct axial
load equal to its own weight will be
a) the same
b) double
c) half
d) one-fourth

15. An ideal fluid

a) has no viscosity
b) satisfies the equation pv = RT
c) obeys Newton’s law

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 d) is both incompressible and non-viscous

16. A combination of kinematics pairs, joined in

such a way that the relative motion between the
links is completely constrained, it is called
a) structure
b) mechanism
c) kinematic chain
d) inversion

17. The work done by 2 cu.m of air at 5 N/ sq. m

while expanding freely to 10 cu.m shall be
a) 10 J
b) 40 J
c) 50 J
d) zero

18. Weber number will be an important

consideration in the study of
a) flow of water through a pipeline
b) surface wave generated in liquids
c) steel balls dropping through oil
d) formation of spherical rain drops

19. The product of diametral pitch and circular

pitch is equal to
a) 1
b) π / 2
c) π /
d) 2 π

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 20. The ratio of linear stress to linear strain is
called
a) poissons’s ratio
b) bulk modulus
c) Young’s modulus
d) modulus of rigidity

21. The ratio of ultimate stress to the design stress

is known as
a) elastic limit
b) factor of safety
c) modulus of rigidity
d) strain

22. In a single point turning operation with

cemented carbide and steel combination having
Taylor exponent of 0.25, if the cutting speed is
halved, then the tool life becomes
a) half
b) two times
c) eight times
d) sixteen times

23. A horizontal pipe of cross sectional area 5 sq.

cm is connected to a venturimeter of throat area 3
sq. cm. The manometer reading is equivalent to 5
cm of water. The discharge in cu. cm / sec is
nearly
a) 150
b) 200

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 c) 370
d) 450

24. A hartnell governor is a

a) pendulum type governor
b) spring loaded governor
c) dead weight governor
d) inertia governor

25. A system is said to be in a state of

thermodynamic equilibrium it is in
a) thermal equilibrium
b) mechanical equilibrium
c) chemical equilibrium
d) all of the above

26. A Carnot engine receiving heat at 400 K has an

efficiency of 25 %. The COP of a Carnot
refrigerator, working between the same
temperature limits is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

27. The pipes which are buried in the earth should

be joined with
a) union joined
b) coupler joint
c) nipple joint

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 d) spigot and socket joint

28. The objective of caulking in a riveted joint is

to make the joint
a) leak proof
b) free from corrosion
c) stronger in tension
d) free from stress

29. Manning formula is used to determine

a) pressure in open channels
b) discharge through open channels
c) velocity in open channels
d) head loss due to friction in open channels

30. A governor is said to be hunting, if the speed

of the engine
a) remains constant at the mean speed
b) is above the mean speed
c) is below the mean speed
d) fluctuates continuously above and below the
mean speed

31. A cyclic heat engine operates between a source

temperature of 8000 C and a sink temperature of
300 C. The least rate of heat rejection is
approximately (per KW output)
a) 0.1 KW
b) 0.2 KW
c) 0.4 KW

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 d) 0.6 KW

32. A rotameter is used to measure

a) viscosity
b) density of fluid
c) flow rates of fluid
d) rotational energy of fluid

33. A block of weight 1000 N rests on a rough

horizontal surface (μ = 0.4) and a string tied to this
block passes over a frictional pulley (see fig) and
the block B is carried at the free end of the string.
If the block A is just to begin to slide on the
surface, the weight of block B should be about
a) 400 N
b) 575 N
c) 650 N
d) 800 N

34. If G is the centre of gravity, B is the centre of

buoyancy and M is the metacentre of a floating
body, then the body to be in stable equilibrium
a) MG = 0

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 b) BG = 0
c) M is below G
d) M is above G

35. A spring of stiffness 1000 N/m is stretched

initially by 100 mm from undeformed position.
The work required to stretch it by another 100 mm
is
a) 5 J
b) 7 j
c) 10 J
d) 15 J

36. A cantilever beam of 5 m span has been

subjected to a concentrated load and a couple as in
figure. The bending moment at the fixed end will
be

a) zero
b) 10 Tm
b) 20 Tm
c) 50 Tm

37. In a locomotive, the ratio of the connecting rod

length to the crank radius is kept very large in
order to
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 a) minimise the effect of primary forces
b) minimise the effect of secondary forces
c) have perfect balancing
d) start the locomotive quickly

38. In the equation for vibrating system with

viscous damping, if the roots are real, then the
system will be
a) over damped
b) under damped
c) critically damped
d) not damped at all

39. The factor which affects the critical speed of a

shaft is
a) diameter of the shaft
b) span of the shaft
c) eccentricity
d) all of the above

40. The increase in hardness due to cold working

is called
a) relaxation
b) age hardening
c) hysteresis
d) strain hardening

41. Which of the following bends will cause

maximum head loss in a pipe flow?
a) 300 bend

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 b) 600 bend
c) 900 bend
d) U-bend

42. The maximum energy that can be stored in a

body due to external loading up to elastic limit is
called
a) resilience
b) strain energy
c) proof resilience
d) modulus of resilience

43. The ratio of forces exerted by a water jet when

it is made to strike a stationary flat plate normal to
it and a flat plate moving in the direction of jet at
one-third the velocity of jet would be
a) 3:1
b) 3:2
c) 9:4
d) 2:1

44. If q be the torsional stiffness of the shaft and I

be the mass moment of inertia of the disc attached
at the end of the shaft, then the natural frequency
of free torsional vibration of the shaft will be
a) 2π √(q/I)
b) 1/2π . √(q/I)
c) 2π √(qI)
d) 1/2π. √(qI)

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 45. The property of a materal by which it can be
rolled into sheets is called
a) elasticity
b) plasticity
c) ductility
d) malleability

46. In which of the following cases, consideration

of creep is important?
a) flywheel of engine
b) cast iron pipes
c) cycle chain
d) gas turbine blades

47. Hot working of metals is carried out

a) below the recrystallisation temperature
b) above the recrystallisation temperature
c) at the recrystallisation temperature
d) none of the above

48. In blanking operation, the clearance is

provided on the
a) punch
b) die
c) half on punch and half on die
d) 60 % on die and 40 % on punch

49. A lathe bed is generally made of

a) cast iron
b) cast steel

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 c) mild steel
d) wrought iron

50. Broaching is the operation

a) of enlarging a hole to bring it to accurate size
b) of metal removal by means of an elongated tool
having a number of successive teeth
c) that removes metal while feeding the work
against a rotating cutter
d) by which a cylinder is turned by feeding a
hollow cutter over its length

51. Aluminium alloy is employed for the

transportation application, primarily because of
a) low density
b) high density
c) high strength to weight ratio
d) high toughness

52. In static loading, stress concentration is more

serious in
a) ductile material
b) brittle material
c) ductile as well as brittle material
d) elastic material

53. If σx, σy (both tensile) and τxy are the stress

component at a point, then the radius of Mohr’s
circle is

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 a)

b)

c)

d)

54. A beam which is fixed at one end and free at

the other end is called
a) cantilever beam
b) simply supported beam
c) fixed beam
d) overhanging beam

55. Which of the following process removes

maximum amount of material out of a work piece?
a) honing
b) lapping
c) grinding
d) super finishing

56. A complicated contour is to be made exactly in

a carbide piece. Which process will be used?
a) ECM
b) EDM
c) LBM
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 d) USM

57. Quick return mechanism is operated in

a) shaping machine
b) broaching machine
c) lathe machine
d) drilling machine

58. Two shafts A and B are made of same material.

The diameter of shaft B is twice that of shaft A.
The ratio of power which can be transmitted by the
shaft A to that of shaft B is
a) 1 : 2
b) 1 : 4
c) 4 : 1
d) 1 : 8

59. The buckling load for a column hinged at both

ends is 10 kN. If the ends are fixed, the buckling
load changes to
a) 40 kN
b) 2.5 kN
c) 5 kN
d) 20 kN

60. Under the same condition of turning, the

cutting power consumption can be reduced by
increasing the cutting tool’s
a) nose radius
b) rake angle

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 c) clearance angle
d) principal cutting edge angle

61. The condition for irreversibility of a cycle is

a)

b)

c)

d)

62. The relation between the vapour pressure and

the enthalpy of vaporisation is given by
a) Maxwell’s equation
b) Clausius Clapeyron equation
c) energy equation
d) Van der Walls’s equation

63. Which one of the following is the hardest

cutting material next only to diamond?
a) cemented carbide
b) ceramics
c) silicon
d) cubic boron nitride

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 64. A refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot
cycles has a COP of 4. If it works as a heat pump
and consumes 1 kW, the heating will be
a) 1 kW
b) 4 kW
c) 5 kW
d) 6 kW

65. Slenderness ratio of a column is defined as the

ratio of its length to its
a) least radius of gyration
b) maximum radius of gyration
c) least lateral dimension
d) maximum lateral dimension

66. Primary objective of full annealing is to

a) increase toughness and yield point
b) reduce ductility and resilience
c) remove foreign impurities and improve surface
finish
d) increase ductility and machinability

67. In an air standard Otto cycle, r is the

compression ratio, γ is the ratio of specific heats,
cp and cv, the air standard efficiency is given by
a) η = 1 –
b) η = 1 –
c) η = 1 –

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 d) η = 1 –

68. A centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency

when its blades are
a) bend backward
b) straight
c) bend forward
d) wave-shaped

69. Petrol commercially in India for Indian

Passenger cars has octane number n the range of
a) 40 to 50
b) 60 to 70
c) 80 to 85
d) 95 to 100

70. Knurling operation is done in

a) lathe
b) drilling machine
c) milling machine
d) slotting machine

71. The maximum distortion energy theory of

failure is suitable to predict the failure of which
one of the following types of materials?
a) plastics
b) brittle materials
c) composite materials
d) ductile materials

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 72. Change in the internal energy in a reversible
process occurring in a closed system is equal to the
heat transferred if the process occurs at constant
a) pressure
b) volume
c) temperature
d) enthalpy

73. tool life in case of a grinding wheel is the time

a) between two successive regrinds of the wheel
b) taken for the wheel to be balanced
c) between two successive wheel dressings
d) taken for a wear 1 mm on its diameter

74. Capstan lathe do not possess

a) headstock
b) tailstock
c) saddle
d) feed gear box

75. Servo motors are used for feed drives of

a) hydraulic copying lathe
b) broaching machine
c) CNC milling machine
d) capstan lathe

76. Flat surfaces are not produced in

a) lathe
b) drilling machine
c) shaping machine

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 d) milling machine

77. The shear force diagram for a simply

supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load consists of
a) one right angled triangle
b) one equilateral triangle
c) two right angled triangle
d) two equilateral triangle

78. The chuck used for setting up of a heavy and

irregular shaped work should be
a) magnetic chuck
b) four jaw independent chuck
c) three jaw universal chuck
d) drill chuck

79. The rate of feed motion of the work pieces in

shaping machine is controlled or changed by
a) rack and pinion
b) cam and cam-follower
c) ratchet and pawl system
d) chain and sprocket

80. Which of the following properties are intensive

properties?
1.knietic energy
2. specific enthalpy
3. pressure
4. entropy

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 a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4

81. The point of contraflexture is a point where

a) bending moment is maximum
b) shear force is maximum
c) bending moment changes sign
d) shear force changes sign

82. An operation of reducing diameter of a work

piece over a narrow surface, is known as
a) counter-boring
b) grooving
c) knurling
d) facing

83. The resultant of two equal forces has the same

magnitude as either of the forces, then the angle
between the two forces is
a) 300
b) 600
c) 900
d) 1200

84. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is

75 %, then the ratio of rivet hole diameter to the
pitch is equal to
a) 0.2

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 b) 0.25
c) 0.50
d) 0.60

85. The correct sequence of elements of 18 – 4 – 1

HSS tool is
a) W, Cr, V
b) Cu, Zn, Sn
c) Mo, Cr, V
d) Cr, Ni, C

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 WBPSC Answer Sheet – 2012

1.a 2.b 3.c 4.b 5.c 6.d 7.a 8.b

9.d 10.d 11.a 12.c 13.b 14.c 15.d

16.c 17.d 18.d 19.c 20.c 21.b 22.d

23.c 24.b 25.d 26.c 27.d 28.a 29.c

30.d 31.c 32.c 33.b 34.d 35.a 36.a

37.b 38.a 39.d 40.d 41.c 42.c 43.c

44.b 45.d 46.d 47.b 48.a 49.a 50.b

51.c 52.b 53.a 54.a 55.c 56.b 57.a

58.d 59.a 60.b 61.a 62.a 63.a 64.c

65.a 66.d 67.b 68.a 69.c 70.a 71.d

72.b 73.a 74.b 75.c 76.b 77.c 78.b

79.c 80.b 81.c 82.b 83.d 84.b 85.a

[ Note: Only mechanical engineering questions are

provided with answers]

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 WBPSC Solved Mechanical Paper-2009
(Sub-Assistant Engnieer)

1. The bending moment of a beam is maximum

where the shear force
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) equal
d) zero

2. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to

a) give high discharge
b) produce high heads
c) pump viscous liquids
d) all of the above

3. Drills are usually made of

a) carbon steel
b) high carbon steel
c) high speed steel
d) carbides

4. Pitot-tube is used for measurement of

a) pressure
b) flow
c) velocity at a point
d) discharge

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 5. Hooke’s law holds good upto
a) yield point
b) elastic limit
c) plastic limit
d) fracture point

6. Bernoulli’s theorem deals with the law of

conservation of
a) mass
b) momentum
c) energy
d) pressure

7. In which operation on a work piece on lathe

the spindle speed will be least?
a) parting off
b) finishing
c) taper turning
d) thread cutting

8. The discharge of a centrifugal pump is given

by
a) Q = π D V f
b) Q = π b V f
c) Q = π D bV f
d) Q = D b V f
D,b = diameter and width of impeller
V f = velocity of flow at inlet

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 9. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at
the end is increased, the failure will occur
a) at the point of load
b) at the middle of the beam
c) at the fixed end
d) at the free end

10. a feeler gauge is used to check

a) radius
b) screw pitch
c) surface roughness
d) thickness of clearance

11. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the

pump
a) at the centre
b) at the bottom
c) at the top
d) from sides

12. Taps, dies and drills contain carbon

a) below 0.5 %
b) below 1%
c) above 1%
d) above 2.2%

13. For floating body, the buoyant force passes

through the
a) centre of gravity of the body

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 b) centre of gravity of the submerged part of the
body
c) meta-centre of the body
d) centroid of the liquid displaced by the body

14. Lathe bed is made of

a) mild steel
b) cast steel
c) pig iron
d) close grain cast iron

15. Delivery head of centrifugal pump is

a) directly proportional to N
b) inversely proportional to N
c) directly proportional to N2
d) inversely proportional to N2

16. In ideal diesel cycle the working substance is

a) air
b) diesel
c) mixture of air and diesel
d) any combustible gas

17. Stainless steel is resistant to corrosion due to

a) chromium and nickel
b) sulphur and phosphorus
c) vanadium and aluminium
d) tungsten

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 18. Worm gearing is used to obtain considerable
speed reduction between shafts whose axis are
a) parallel
b) perpendicular and intersect
c) perpendicular and do not intersect
d) inclined

19. V- block is used to check

a) roundness of a cylindrical work
b) surface roughness
c) taper on job
d) dimension of oval job

20. A screw jack uses

a) v-thread
b) square thread
c) knuckle thread
d) any of the above

21. The machining properties of steel are improved

by adding
a) silicon and aluminium
b) sulphur and lead
c) chromium and nickel
d) tungsten

22. An ideal fluid is defined as the fluid which is

a) compressible
b) incompressible
c) inviscid and incompressible

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 d) of negligible surface tension

23. The force of friction which exists when the

body is in motion is called
a) static friction
b) limiting friction
c) dynamic friction
e) none of the above

24. Aluminium is the best of all the metals for

making pattern because it is
a) easy to work
b) light in weight
c) resistant to corrosion
d) all of the above

25. The material used for piston rings is

a) alloy steel
b) cast iron
c) carbon steel
d) copper

26. The hardness of steel depends upon

a) its carbon content
b) its shape and distribution of carbide
c) its content of alloying elements
d) all of the above

27. Co-efficient of friction is the ratio of

a) force of friction to reaction between two bodies

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 b) force of friction to normal reaction between two
bodies
c) force of limiting friction to reaction between
two bodies
d) force of limiting friction to normal reaction
between two bodies

28. In which type of welding, molten metal is

poured for joining the metals?
a) arc welding
b) thermit welding
c) MIG
d) TIG

29. Refrigerant pressure is increased to condenser

pressure by
a) evaporator
b) condenser
c) expansion valve
d) compressor

30. If T1 and T2 are the tensions on the tight and

slack side of a belt and θ is the angle of contact,
then ratio of tensions is given by
a) T1/T2 = μ θ
b) T1/T2 = eμθ
c) T1/T2 = e1/μθ
d) T1/T2 = μeθ

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 31. The process involving the heating of steel
above upper critical temperature and then cooling
it in the furnace is known as
a) annealing
b) normalising
c) tempering
d) hardening

32. The size of a part to which all limits of

variations are determined, is called
a) actual size
b) basic size
c) tolerance
d) zone of tolerance

33. Malleability of a material is

a) ability to undergo large permanent deformations
in compression
b) ability to recover its original form
c) ability to undergo large permanent deformations
in tension
d) all of the above

34. In summer air conditioning, the process used is

known as
a) heating and humidification
b) dehumidification
c) cooling and dehumidification
d) humidification

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 35. Which one of the following threads is not used
for transmission of power?
a) square thread
b) buttress thread
c) BSW thread
d) acme thread

36. High pressure refrigerant drops to low pressure

through
a) evaporator
b) condenser
c) expansion valve
d) compressor

37. The path of contact in involute gear is a

a) circle
b) straight line
c) curved line
d) none of the above

38. The process of introducing carbon and nitrogen

into a solid ferrous alloy is known as
a) carbonitriding
b) nitriding
c) carburising
d) induction hardening

39. The pitch of 24 mm diameter metric fine

thread would be
a) 3 mm

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 b) 2 mm
c) 1.5 mm
d) 1 mm

40. The hobbing process for cutting gears as

compared to that of shaping is
a) slower but more accurate
b) slower and less accurate
c) faster and less accurate
d) faster and more accurate

41. BHP of an engine can be measured by

a) tachometer
b) accelerometer
c) LVDT
d) dynamometer

42. The crippling load according to Euler theory of

long column when both ends of the column are
fixed is equal to
a) 4π2 EI/ l2
b) π2 EI/ l2
c) π2 EI/ 4l2
d) 2π2 EI/ l2

43. NC machine tool is operated by

a) output input modules
b) a series of coded instructions
c) feed back system
d) none of the above

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 44. The CG of a quadrant of a circle is at a
distance of
a) 3r / 4π
b) 4r / 3π
c) 3r / 8
d) 8r / 3

45. The basic difference between the upper limit

and lower limit of a dimension is known as
a) basic size
b) normal size
c) tolerance
d) actual size

46. O-ring at the piston of an IC engine is provided

a) to provide insulation
b) to reduce pressure
c) to stop leakage
d) to cool the engine

47. Moment of inertia of a circular section about

its diameter d is
a) πd3/ 16
b) πd3/ 32
c) πd4/ 32
d) πd4/ 64

48. Power requirement of a refrigerator is

a) directly proportional to COP

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 b) inversely proportional to COP
c) directly proportional to square root of COP
d) inversely proportional to square root of COP

49. Catalytic converter is used to

a) reduce hazardous emission from engine
b) increase soot emission from engine
c) reduce work done of the engine
d) increase complete burning of fuel

50. The force which produces an acceleration of 1

m/ s2 on a mass of 1 Kg is called
a) one Erg
b) one Newton
c) one Joule
d) one Watt

51. A cantilever of length l carries a point load W

at the free end. The downward deflection at the
free end is equal to
a) Wl3 / 8EI
b) Wl3 / 3EI
c) 5Wl3 / 384EI
d) Wl3 / 48EI

52. Theoretical air fuel ratio for a petrol engine is

approximately
a) 25 : 1
b) 20 : 1
c) 10 : 1

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 d) 15 : 1

53. Gear which work under heavier service

conditions are made of
a) alloy steel
b) carburised steel
c) carbon steel
d) mild steel

54. As compared to SI engine, CI engine enjoys

the following advantage
a) low economic fuel
b) low initial cost
c) low weight for a given power output
d) less noise

55. A coil is having stiffness K. It is cut into two

halves, then the stiffness of the cut coil will be
a) same
b) half
c) double
d) one-third

56. The mechanical efficiency of an IC engine is

equal to
a) IHP / BHP
b) BHP / IHP
c) BHP / FHP
d) FHP / BHP

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 57. If the following operations are to be performed
on a job, which one would be performed first?
a) drilling
b) boring
c) counter sinking
d) tapping

58. Turbo-charging in SI engines

a) increases the possibility of knock
b) decreases the possibility of knock
c) does not affect knock
d) ceases to knock

59. A close coiled helical spring is compressed.

Its wire is subjected to
a) compression
b) tension
c) shear
d) torque

60. Fuel injector is used for

a) SI engine
b) CI engine
c) Steam engine
d) gas turbine

61. A steady rest is used for

a) long job
b) irregular job
c) large diameter job

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 d) taper turning job

62. In Idling run of SI engine, the fuel-air ratio

supplied by carburettor is
a) rich
b) moderate
c) lean
d) very lean

63. Euler’s empirical formula is used for

a) long column
b) short column
c) both long and short column
d) none of the above

64. With the increase of pressure ratio, the

volumetric efficiency of an air compressor
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) first increases then decreases

65. Heat addition to a system at constant volume

will increase its
a) enthalpy
b) internal energy
c) work done
d) specific volume

66. The unit of moment of inertia of area is

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 a) Kg. m2
b) Kg. m3
c) m4
d) none of the above

67. The work saved by fitting an air vessel to a

single acting reciprocating pump is
a) 39.2 %
b) 84.8 %
c) 48.8 %
d) 92.3 %

68. The soft grade grinding wheel are denoted by

a) A to K
b) L to O
c) P to Z
d) A to Z

69. In throttling process, pressure always

a) increases
b) remains constant
c) decreases
d) drops to atmospheric

70. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of

diameter 40 mm, if the shear stress is not to exceed
400 Kg/ cm2, would be
a) 32π Kg.m
b) 16 π Kg.m
c) 0.8 π Kg.m
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 d) 0.4 π Kg.m

71. The energy associated with molecular motion

is called
a) KE of gases
b) internal energy
c) entropy
d) enthalpy

72. Which one of the following processes is the

reverse of electroplating process?
a) EDM
b) ECM
c) ECG
d) LBM

73. A solid shaft of diameter 10 cm transmits 140

hp at 140rpm. The torque on the shaft will be
a) 4500 / π Kg.m
b) 2200 / π Kg.m
c) 3600 / π2 Kg.m
d) 1125 / π Kg.m

74. The compression ratio for a diesel engine as

compared to petrol engine is
a) higher
b) lower
c) same
d) non of the above

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 75. Manometer is used to measure
a) pressure
b) velocity
c) density
d) temperature

76. An orifice is known as large orifice when the

head of liquid from the centre of orifice is
a) more than 10 times the depth of orifice and less
than 15 times
b) less than 10 times the depth of orifice
c) less than 15 times the depth of orifice
d) less than 5 times the depth of orifice

77. Two plates are joined by rivets. The tearing of

plate at edge may be avoided if the margin is made
at least equal to
a) 0.2 d
b) 0.5 d
c) 1.0 d
d) 1.5 d

78. The velocity distribution in laminar flow

through a circular pipe follows
a) parabolic law
b) linear law
c) logarithmic law
d) hyperbolic law

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 79. Critical pressure of water is
a) 22.09 MPa
b) 1 MPa
c) 220MPa
d) 100 MPa

80. The deflection of a simply supported beam at

mid point due to central load W is given by
a) WL3 / 84EI
b) WL3 / 48EI
c) WL3 / 192EI
d) WL2 / 48EI

81. Specific speed of centrifugal pump is

a) N √Q / H
b) N √H / Q
c) NH3/4 / √Q
d) N √Q / H3/4

82. The maximum stroke length up to which a

shaper works satisfactorily is
a) 50 mm
b) 500 mm
c) 750 mm
d) 1200 mm

83. Value of universal gas constant is

a) 8.314 J/ mol K
b) 4.2 J/mol K
c) 427 J/mol K

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 d) 8314 J/mol K

84. A cantilever of length L carries a uniformly

distributed load w Kg / unit length. The shear
force at the free end will be
a) wL
b) wL2 / 2
c) wL / 2
d) zero

85. Air vessel in a reciprocating pump are fixed

to
a) reduce acceleration head
b) reduce suction head
c) increase delivery head
d) smoothen delivery head

86. The setting time in case of planer as compared

to that of shaper is of the order of
a) 2-times
b) 5-times
c) ½-times
d) ¼-times

87. For water tight joint such as in boilers, the

rivets are driven
a) in cold condition only
b) in hot condition only
c) either in hot or cold condition
d) none of the above

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 88. The following is not a thermodynamic
property
a) work
b) density
c) entropy
d) specific heat at constant volume

89. The cutting tool in milling machine is held in

position by
a) arbour
b) spindle
c) column
d) knee

90. The coefficient of discharge (Cd) in terms of

co-efficient of velocity (Cv) and coefficient of
contraction (Cc) is
a) Cd = Cv / Cc
b) Cd = Cv X Cc
c) Cd = Cc / Cv
d) Cd = Cv - Cc

91. The thermal stress is given by

a) ET
b) ET / 
c) E / T
d) 1 / ET

92. Poisson’s ratio is

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 a) ratio of stress and strain
b) ratio of modulus of elasticity and strain
c) ratio of lateral strain and longitudinal strain
d) ratio of longitudinal strain and lateral strain

93. The slip of a reciprocating pump may be

a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) all of the above

94. Which is not a part of shaper?

a) ram
b) tool head
c) table
d) cross slide

95. Automobile gears are generally manufactured

by
a) hobbing
b) rolling
c) extrusion
d) none of the above

96. A jig is a device that

a) hold the work piece and guide the tool
b) locate the work piece
c) hold the tool
d) none of the above

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 97. A taper provided on the pattern for its easy
withdrawal from the mould is known as
a) machining allowance
b) draft allowance
c) shrinkage allowance
d) distortion allowance

98. Second law of thermodynamics defines

a) heat
b) work
c) entropy
d) internal energy

99. In a centre lathe gear box for changing

spindle speeds the provision for speeds is
made of
a) arithmetic progression
b) geometric progression
c) square progression
d) cubical progression

100. The international Standards Metric Thread

has an included angle of
0
a) 35
b) 600
c) 47.50
d) 290

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 WBPSC Answer Sheet – 2009

1.d 2.b 3.c 4.c 5.b 6.c

7.d 8.c 9.c 10.d 11.a 12.c

13.d 14.d 15.c 16.c 17.a 18.c

19.a 20.b 21.b 22.c 23.c 24.d

25.b 26.b 27.d 28.b 29.d 30.b

31.a 32.b 33.a 34.c 35.c 36.c

37.b 38.a 39.b 40.d 41.d 42.a

43.b 44.b 45.c 46.c 47.d 48.b

49.a 50.b 51.b 52.d 53.a 54.a

55.c 56.b 57.a 58.a 59.b 60.b

61.a 62.a 63.a 64.b 65.b 66.c

67.b 68.a 69.c 70.b 71.a 72.b

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 73.b 74.a 75.a 76.d 77.d 78.a

79.a 80.b 81.d 82.c 83.d 84.d

85.a 86.b 87.b 88.a 89.a 90.b

91.a 92.c 93.d 94.d 95.a 96.a

97.b 98.c 99.b 100.b

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 Model Solved Mechanical Engineering Questions
for PSC, SSC & RRB

1. The co-efficient of restitution of a perfectly elastic

body is
a) 0
b) 1.44
c) 1.0
d) infinity

2. If the linear momentum of a body is doubled, the

kinetic energy of the same body becomes
a) halved
b) doubled
c) three times
d) four times

3. The mechanism which engages the engine shaft

with gear box in a automobile is known as
a) clutch
b) brake
c) coupling
d) bearing

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 4. Specific speed of a pump is the speed at which a
pump runs when
a) head developed is unity and discharge is one cubic
meter
b) head developed is unity and shaft horse power is
also unity
c) discharge is one cubic meter and shaft horse power
is also unity
d) none of the above

5. A cantilever beam carries a uniformly distributed

load over its whole length. The shear force diagram
will be
a) a rectangle
b) two equal and opposite rectangle
c) two equal and opposite triangle
d) a triangle

6. Velocity ratio of a belt drive decreases when the

slip is
a) increased
b) decreased
c) zero
d) none of the above

7. A core is used in the mould

a) to obtain desired cavities
b) to reduce metal erosion in gate and runner
c) to retard foreign matter in the melt
d) all of the above

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 8. In throttling process of vapour
a) temperature remains constant
b) pressure remains constant
c) enthalpy remains constant
d) none of these

9. Which operation cannot be done by milling

machine
a) facing
b) slot cutting
c) parting
d) turning

10. If V and T are cutting speed and tool life

respectively, then
a) VT = constant
b) VTn = constant
c) TVn = constant
d) none of these

11. Stoke is the unit of

a) mass density
b) dynamic viscosity
c) kinematic viscosity
d) surface tension

12. Froude number is useful in calculation for

a) flow through pipes
b) hydraulic waves & jumps

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 c) surface tension force
d) compressible flow problem

13. The escape velocity on the surface of earth is

a) 1 Km/s
b) 2.2 Km/s
c) 11.2 km/s
d) 112 Km/s

14. which of the following key transmits power

through frictional resistance only?
a) saddle key
b) kennedy key
c) woodruff key
d) tangent key

15. Lathe centres are provided with the following

standard taper
a) Morse
b) Brown & Sharp
c) Metric
d) None of these

16. Which law of motion of Newton gives the measure

of force?
a) Newton’s first law
b) Newton’s second law
c) Newton’s third law
d) none of these

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 17. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft
under torsion is
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) unpredictable

18. For any given power and permissible shear stress,

the rotational speed of shaft and its diameter are
correlated by the expression
a) ND3 = constant
b) ND2 = constant
c) ND = constant
d) √ (ND) = constant

19. The angle turned by a wheel while it starts from

rest and accelerates at constant rate of 3 rad/s2 for an
interval of 20 sec is
a) 900 rad
b) 600 rad
c) 1200 rad
d) 300 rad

20. Stress due to change in temperature developed in a

bar depends upon
a) co-efficient of thermal expansion
b) thermal comductivity
c) density
d) poisson’s ratio

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 21. Strength of the beam depends on
a) bending moment
b) density
c) section modulus
d) CG of the section

22. The friction between objects that are stationary is

called
a) static friction
b) rolling friction
c) kinetic friction
d) dynamic friction

23. Fatigue of a component is due to

a) cyclic load
b) static load
c) constant heating
d) collision

24. Morse test is conducted on

a) vertical engines
b) horizontal engines
c) single cylinder engines
d) multi cylinder engines

25. In SI engine, the possibility of knocking can be

reduced by
a) increasing compression ratio
b) decreasing compression
c) increasing the coolant temperature

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 d) advancing spark timing

26. The process of supplying the intake air to the

engine cylinder at a density more than the density of
the surrounding atmosphere is known as
a) scavenging
b) detonation
c) supercharging
d) polymerisation

27. Higher compression ratio in diesel engine results

in
a) lower pressure
b) higher pressure
c) same pressure
d) lower temperature

28. Which of the following does not relate to steam

engine
a) crank shaft
b) cross head
c) steam chest
d) steam separator

29. Self ignition temperature of diesel as compared to

petrol
a) is higher
b) is lower
c) is same
d) varies considerably

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 30. The binding material used in cemented carbide
tools is
a) nickel
b) cobalt
c) chromium
d) carbon

31. The water hammer pressure in a pipe can be

reduced by
a) using pipe of greater diameter
b) using a more elastic pipe
c) using pipe of greater wall thickness
d) increasing the velocity of pressure wave

32. When a fluid is in motion, the pressure at a point is

same in all direction. Then the fluid is
a) Realfluid
b) Newtonian fluid
c) Ideal fluid
d) Non-Newtonian fluid

33. The density of water is maximum at

a) 00 C
b) 4 K
c) 40 C
d) 1000 C

34. The ability of a tool material to resist shock or

impact forces is known as

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 a) wear resistance
b) toughness
c) red hardness
d) machinability

35. tool material which has high heat and wear

resistance is
a) ceramics
b) cemented carbide
c) carbon steel
d) medium alloy steel

36. To improve surface finish of castings, the

following additive is used in the moulding
a) resins
b) oils
c) wood flour
d) sea coal

37. Plastic toys are usually produced by using

a) shell moulding
b) green sand moulding
c) plaster moulding
d) injection moulding

38. Generally used fuel gas in gas welding is

a) N2
b) CO2
c) C2H2
d) He

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 39. Spot welding, projection welding and seam
welding belong to the category of
a) electric resistance welding
b) forge welding
c) thermit welding
d) arc welding

40. Which one of the following is an example of solid

state welding
a) gas welding
b) arc welding
c) thermit welding
d) forge welding

41. Froude number relates to

a) inertia force and gravity force
b) inertia force and pressure force
c) inertia force and surface tension force
d) inertia force and elastic force

42. In a pitot tube the velocity of flow at a point is

reduced to zero. That point is called
a) stagnation point
b) critical point
c) metacentre
d) equilibrium point

43. The velocity distribution in a pipe flow is

parabolic if the flow is

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 a) uniform, turbulent
b) uniform, laminar
c) non- uniform, steady
d) rotational, compressible

44. Mercury does not wet the glass surface. This

property of mercury is due to
a) adhesion
b) cohesion
c) surface tension
d) viscosity

45. Loss of head due to friction in a uniform diameter

pipe with viscous flow is
a) Re
b) 1/ Re
c) 4 / Re
d) 16/ Re

46. Maximum theoretical efficiency of pelton wheel is

obtained when the ratio of bucket speed to jet speed is
a) 0.26
b) 0.98
c) 0.46
d) 0.58

47. The velocity at a point on the crest of a model dam

was measured to be 1 m/s. The corresponding
prototype velocity for a linear scale ratio of 25, in m/s
is

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 a) 25
b) 2.5
c) 5
d) 0.04

48. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in

mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What fraction of its
volume is under mercury?
a) 0.5
b) 0.4
c) 0.515
d) 0.415

49. The friction head lost due to flow of a viscous

fluid through a circular pipe of length L and diameter
d with a velocity v and pipe Fanning friction factor f is
a) 4f L .V2 / d . 2g
b) 4f L .V2 / πd2 . 2g
c) V2 / 2g
d) 4f L .V2 / πd . 2g

50. The ratio of pressures between two points A and B

located respectively at depth 0.5 m and 2 m below a
constant level of water in a tank is
a) 1 : 1
b) 1 : 2
c) 1 : 4
d) 1 : 16

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 51. A hydraulic turbine runs at 240 rpm under a head
of 9 m. What will be the speed (in rpm) of the turbine
if the operating head is 16 m?
a) 320
b) 426
c) 264
d) 230

52. The discharge of a liquid of kinematic viscosity

4x10-2 m2/s through a 80 mm diameter pipe is 3200π
x10-4 m3/s. The flow is
a) laminar
b) turbulent
c) transition
d) critical

53. The boiling and freezing points for water are

marked on a temperature scale P as 1300 P and - 200 P
respectively. What will be the reading on this scale
corresponding to 600 C on Celsius scale?
a) 600 P
b) 700 P
c) 900 P
d) 1100 P

54. In a reaction turbine, the heat heat drop in fixed

blade is 8 KJ/Kg and total heat drop per stage is 20
KJ/Kg. The degree of reaction is
a) 40%
b) 60%

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 c) 66.7%
d) 80%

55. A closed balloon containing 10 Kg of helium

receives 5 Kg/Kg of heat. During this process, the
volume of the balloon slowly increases by 0.2 m3 at
constant pressure of of 100 kPa. The change in
internal energy in KJ is
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 70

56. For a 4-stroke diesel engine, the compression ratio

is 21 : 1 and cut-off ratio is 2 : 1. What is its expansion
ratio?
a) 7 : 1
b) 10.5 : 1
c) 12 : 1
d) 19 : 1

57. A ball is dropped vertically downwards, it hits the

floor with a velocity of 9 m/s and bounces to a
distance of 1.2 m. Coefficient of restitution between
the floor and the ball is
a) 0.54
b) zero
c) 1
d) 0.27

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 58. If equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend
to elongate it, then the stress produced is
a) tensile stress
b) bending stress
c) compressives stress
d) shear stress

59. What type of contact occurs during meshing of

helical gears?
a) point
b) line
c) area
d) volume

60. Which one of the following drives is used for

transmitting power without slip?
a) belt drive
b) rope drive
c) cone pulleys
d) chain drives

61. The contact between cam and follower is to form a

a) lower pair
b) higher pair
c) sliding pair
d) rolling pair

62. Which of the following is antifriction bearing?

a) needle bearing
b) pedestal bearing

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 c) collar bearing
d) hydrostatic bearing

63. Helical gears have their teeth

a) inclined to wheel rim
b) straight over the wheel rim
c) curved over wheel rim
d) cut on the surfaces of the frusta of cones

64. When the speed of governor increases, then

a) height of governor and radius of rotation increase
b) height of governor and radius of rotation decrease
c) height of governor decreases but radius of rotation
increases
d) height of governor increases and but radius of
rotation decreases

65. A body of weight 30 N rests on a horizontal floor.

A gradually increasing horizontal force is applied to
the body which just starts moving when the forceis 9
N. The coefficient of friction between the body and
the floor will be
a) 10/3
b) 3/10
c) 1/3
d) 1/9

66. A body of weight W is placed on a rough inclined

plane. The inclination of the plane with the horizontal
is less than the angle of friction. The body will

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 a) be in equilibrium
b) move downward
c) move downward
d) none of the above

67. An adiabatic process in a thermodynamic system

is one in which there is
a) a limited heat transfer to or from the system through
the boundary
b) no heat transfer to or from the system through the
boundary
c) no energy transfer to or from the system through the
boundary
d) no internal energy change in the system

68. A device used to increase the temperature of

saturated steam without raising its pressure is called
a) fusible plug
b) blow off cock
c) economiser
d) superheater

69. Maximum diagram efficiency for Parson’s

reaction turbine is given by
a) 2 cos2 α / (1 + cos α )
b) cos2 α / (1 +2cos α )
c) cos2 α / (1 + cos2 α )
d) 2 cos2 α / (1 + 2cos2 α )

70. In an isothermal process, the internal energy

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 a) always increases
b) always decreases
c) increases or decreases
d) remains constant

71. Which of the following is a boiler mounting?

a) safety valve
b) economiser
c) superheater
d) feed pump

72. which part of a petrol engine would need

modifications if the engine is to be made to run on
LPG?
a) piston
b) crank shaft
c) valves
d) carburettor

73. For 4-cylinder engine, the firing order for evenness

of torque is
a) 1 –2 – 3 – 4
b) 1 –3 – 2 – 4
c) 1 –4 – 3 – 2
d) 1 –3 – 4 – 2

74. The length of the divergent portion of venturimeter

in comparison to convergent portion is
a) same
b) more

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 c) less
d) depending upon the type of flow

75. The delay period in a petrol engine is of the order

of
a) 0.001 sec
b) 0.002 sec
c) 0.01 sec
d) 0.05 sec

76. Octane number of iso-octane is

a) 50
b) 70
c) 0
d) 100

77. The silencer of an IC engine

a) reduces noise
b) decreases brake specific fuel consumption
c) increases brake specific fuel consumption
d) has no effect on efficiency

78. A slider sliding at 10 cm/s on a link which is

rotating at 60 rpm, is subjected to Coriolis acceleration
of magnitude, in cm2/s
a) 20π
b) 10π
c) 40π
d) 80π

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 79. A differential gear in an automobile is a
a) simple gear train
b) epicyclic gear train
c) compound gear train
d) speed reducer

80. The crank shaft turning in a journal bearing forms

a
a) turning pair
b) sliding pair
c) rolling pair
d) helical pair

81. Name the mechanism in which the Coriolis

component of acceleration is to be considered
a) Quick return motion mechanism
b) Four-bar mechanism
c) Slider crank mechanism
d) beam engine

82. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion

between two shafts whose axis are
a) perpendicular
b) parallel
c) Non-intersecting
d) Non-coplanar

83. The coefficient of discharge of an orifice varies

with
a) Weber number

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 b) Mach number
c) Reynold’s number
d) froude number

84. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is given

by
a) N√Q / H2/3
b) N√Q / H3/4
c) N√Q / H
d) N√Q / H5/4

85. Using Blasius equation, the friction factor for

turbulence flow through pipes varies as
a) Re- 1
b) Re- 0.5
c) Re- 0.33
d) Re- 0.25

86. Pressure intensity inside the water droplets is

a) p = 8σ / d
b) p = 2σ / d
c) p = 4σ / d
d) p = σ / d
where σ – surface tension
d – diameter of bubble

87. Low specific speed of a turbine implies that it is

a) Propeller turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Impulse turbine

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 d) Kaplan turbine

88. Navier –Stokes equations are associated with

a) buoyancy
b) supersonic flow
c) vortex flow
d) viscous flow

89. A hydrometer is used to determine

a) relative humidity
b) surface tension of liquids
c) specific gravity of liquids
d) viscosity of liquids

90. In flow through a pipe, the transition from laminar

to turbulent flow does not depend on
a) velocity of the fluid
b) density of the fluid
c) length of the pipe
d) diameter of the pipe

91. Proximate analysis of fuel is determination of

a) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
b) fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
c) higher calorific value
d) lower calorific value

92. For laminar flow in a pipe, average velocity is

equal to
a) 2 Umax

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 b) Umax
c) 0.5 Umax
d) 0.25 Umax

93. The power transmitted by a belt is maximum when

the maximum tension in the belt compared to
centrifugal tension is
a) 3 – 5 times
b) 2 times
c) 3 times
d) 4 times

94. Effort lost in friction in a simple machine is

a) P – 2P0
b) 2P – P0
c) P0 - P/2
d) P – P0

95. Non-uniform ramming of moulding sand may lead

to the following casting defect
a) scabs
b) swells
c) blow holes
d) bends

96. A Bell Coleman cycle is

a) reversed Stirling cycle
b) reversed Carnot cycle
c) reversed Joule cycle
d) reversed Atkinson cycle

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 97. For a centrifugal blower, power consumption is
proportional to
a) cubic power of rpm
b) rpm
c) square of rpm
d) square root of rpm

98. When steam flows over moving blades of an

impulse turbine
a) both pressure and velocity decreases
b) pressure drops and velocity increases
c) pressure remains constant and velocity decreases
d) both pressure and velocity remains constant

99. Electrode used in TIG is

a) copper
b) tungsten
c) aluminium
d) cast iron

100. How many links does a pantograph mechanism

contain?
a) ten
b) two
c) four
d) nine

101. For hydro dynamically smooth boundaries, the

friction factor for turbulent flow is

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 a) dependent on relative roughness only
b) constant
c) dependent only on Reynolds number
d) function of Reynolds number and relative
roughness

102. An important factor to be taken into account

while designing a core print is
a) pouring temperature
b) pattern material
c) type of mould
d) moulding sand characteristics

103.The flow of water in wash basin through a central

opening is an example of
a) Rankine vortex
b) Free vortex
c) Forced vortex
d) Rotational vortex

104. Which one of the following safety device is used

to protect the boiler when water level falls below a
minimum level?
a) safety valve
b) water level indicator
c) fusible plug
d) blow off cock

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 105. The length of a pipe is 1000 m and its diameter is
20 cm. If the diameter of an equivalent pipe is 40 cm,
then its length is
a) 4000 m
b) 32000 m
c) 20000 m
d) 8000 m

106. A casting defect which results in general

enlargement of a casting is known as
a) swell
b) shift
c) sand wash
d) blow hole

107. The total number of instantaneous centres for a

mechanism consisting of ‘ n’ links are
a) n(n – 1) / 2
b) n / 2
c) n
d) (n – 1) / 2

108. The product of circular pitch and diametral pitch

is equal to
a) π
b) module
c) unity
d) 1 / π

109. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of

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 a) shear stress to shear strain
b) longitudinal strain to lateral strain
c) lateral strain to longitudinal strain
d) axial stress to axial strain

110. The dimensions of surface tension are

a) [ M1 L0 T2 ]
b) [ M1 L0 T- 2 ]
c) [ M1 L1 T- 2 ]
d) [ M1 L- 1 T- 2 ]

111. For an ideal gas the compressibility factor is

a) some finite value greater than unity
b) zero
c) unity
d) infinity

112. A body of mass 5 Kg is pushed up to 2 m on a

smooth 300 incline by a force of 60 N acting parallel
to the plane. The work done on the body is
a) zero
b) 70.95 J
c) 141.9 J
d) 35.47 J

113. Reheat factor for a multi-stage steam turbine is

the ratio of
a) inlet temperature to the exit temperature
b) cumulative enthalpy drop to the total isentropic
enthalpy

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 c) total isentropic enthalpy drop to the total entropy
increase
d) total isentropic enthalpy drop to the exit
temperature

114. The purpose of flywheel in an IC engine is

a) to regulate the fuel supply
b) to keep the output power constant at the crank shaft
c) to increase the power capacity of the engine
d) to reduce the vibration in an engine

115. The ratio of equivalent length of the column to

minimum radius of gyration is called
a) buckling factor
b) factor of safety
c) poisson’s ratio
d) co-efficient of restitution

116. The hot wire anemometer is used to measure

a) liquid velocities
b) pressure in gases
c) discharge of gases and liquids
d) gas velocities

117. In a 1 : 100 scale model of a harbour, time which

corresponds to the prototype tidal period of 12 hours
will be in hour
a) 12
b) 1
c) 10

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 d) 1.2

118. Two tensile forces, each of magnitude F are

acting at a point perpendicular to each other. Then
their resultant force will be
a) √2 F
b) zero
c) √F
d) √(2F)

119. The expression for capillary rise is given by

a) h = 2σsinθ / ρgd
b) h = 4σcosθ / ρgd
c) h = 2σcosθ / ρgd
d) h = 4σsinθ / ρgd

120. Notch is a device used for measuring

a) velocity through small channels
b) rate of flow through pipes
c) rate of flow through a small channels
d) velocity through pipes

121. Which cross-section of a cantilever beam which

is loaded with UDL can give economical design
a) square
b) circular
c) I-section
d) rectangular

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 122. The device which permits the connection and
disconnection of shaft is
a) bearing
b) connector
c) clutch
d) pulley

123. Heating wet steam at constant temperature is the

same as heating at constant
a) entropy
b) pressure
c) volume
d) enthalpy

124. The term bleeding in a steam turbine refer to

a) removal of wet steam in the low pressure stages of
turbine
b) leakage of steam
c) steam extracted for preheating feed water
d) steam doing no useful work

125. Which of the following is an extensive property?

a) temperature
b) pressure
c) density
d) enthalpy

126. Using lubricant on engine parts is an example of

reducing
a) motion

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 b) force
c) acceleration
d) friction

127. One poise is equivalent to

a) 1 kg / m-hr
b) 1 gm / cm-s
c) 98 dyne / sec
d) 68 kgf-sec / m2

128. The process of removing unwanted material from

the casting is called
a) blowing
b) cleansing
c) finishing
d) fettling

129. If in a diesel engine petrol is used then the engine

will
a) run at low speed
b) explode
c) run at high speed
d) run with high knocking

130. For a closed system, the difference between heat

added to the system and work done by the system, is
equal to change in
a) entropy
b) temperature
c) internal energy

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 d) enthalpy

131. The indicator on an engine is used to determine

a) IHP and mep
b) BHP
c) speed
d) temperature

132. The process in which no heat enters or leaves the

system is called as
a) isentropic
b) isobaric
c) isochoric
d) isothermal

133. Rotameter is a device used to measure

a) rotation
b) absolute pressure
c) velocity of fluid
d) flow rate

134. The only angle on which the strength of the tool

depend is
a) lip angle
b) clearance angle
c) rake angle
d) cutting angle

135. The size of the gear is usually specified by

a) pitch circle diameter

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 b) pressure angle
c) circular pitch
d) diameter pitch

136. The circumferential stress in a thin shell due to

internal fluid pressure is given by
a) πPd2 / 4
b) Pd / t
c) 4P / πd2
d) Pd / 2t

137. A long circular cylinder has a diameter D and

length L. The slenderness ratio of the column is
a) √ (L / D)
b) L / D
c) 2L / D
d) 4L / D

138. Rivets are generally specified by

a) diameter of head
b) thickness of plates to be riveted
c) length of rivet
d) nominal diameter

139. A beam is fixed at one end and free at the other

end. A load acts in the centre. The maximum bending
moment will occur at
a) between centre and fixed end
b) under the load
c) fixed end

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 d) free end

140. Which of the following material is added to base

sand to impart bonding strength
a) sea coal
b) silica
c) bentonite
d) wood flour

141. The commercially available petrol in india has an

octane rating of
a) 85 – 90
b) 20 – 30
c) 40 – 50
d) 60 – 75

142. Herring bone gears are

a) double helical gears
b) spur gears with small teeth
c) large worm gears
d) spiral gears

143. Which of the following fuel having maximum

resistance to detonation?
a) n-heptane
b) benzene
c) toluene
d) iso-octane

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 144. In arc welding temperature generated is of the
order of
a) 10000 C
b) 80000 C
c) 35000 C
d) 55000 C

145. A fan rotates at a constant speed of 60 rpm. The

total angular displacement it makes in 10 sec is
a) zero
b) 10π rad
c) 40π rad
d) 20π rad

146. Barometer is used to measure

a) rain level
b) pressure in pipes and channels
c) atmospheric pressures
d) very low pressure

147. Bending moment at the supports in case of

simply supported beam is
a) > 1
b) zero
c) 1
d) < 1

148. A simply supported beam of 1 m length is

subjected to a distributed load of 0.4 N / m. The
maximum bending moment occurring in the beam is

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 a) 1.0 N-m
b) 0.1 N-m
c) 0.05 N-m
d) 0.025 N-m

149. The maximum speed and minimum speed in rpm

at a Watt governor are 72 and 68 respectively. The
range of speed of the governor is
a) 4
b) 2
c) 8
d) 6

150. The rate of change of moment of momentum

represents the
a) power developed by the fluid
b) force exerted by fluid
c) torque applied by the fluid
d) work done by the fluid

151. Fan belt in automobiles is

a) E-section V belt
b) A three layer flat belt
c) A five layer flat belt
d) B-section V belt

152. The compression ratio for diesel engine lie in the

range
a) 30 to 40
b) 5 to 8

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 c) 15 to 20
d) 3 to 6

153. The degree of reaction of a Kaplan turbine is

a) equal to 1
b) equal to 380
c) greater than zero but less than ½
d) greater than ½ but less than 1

154. A fluid with kinematic viscosity 0.4 x 10- 4 m2 /s

flows through a 80 mm diameter pipe. The maximum
velocity for laminar flow will be
a) ≤ 2 m/s
b) ≤ 10 m/s
c) ≤ 1 m/s
d) ≤ 1.5 m/s

155. Which is not a part of magneto-ignition system?

a) condenser
b) battery
c) induction coil
d) circuit breaks

156. If the x-component of a force is negative and the

y-component is positive, the direction of that force
must lie in the
a) fourth quadrant
b) first quadrant
c) second quadrant
d) third quadrant

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 157. In a gear drive, module is equal to
a) 1 / diametral pitch
b) 1 / circular pitch
c) circular pitch / π
d) diametral pitch / π

158. The quantity which is equal to rate of change of

momentum is known as
a) impulse
b) displacement
c) acceleration
d) force

159. Multi-stage centrifugal pumps are used to obtain

high
a) pumping of viscous fluid
b) discharge
c) head
d) efficiency

160. The diameter of core of a circular section is given

as
a) d / √2
b) d / 2
c) d / 3
d) d / 4

161. The path traced by a single particle of smoke

issuing from a burning wooden stick is a

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 a) flow line
b) stream line
c) streak line
d) path line

162. What amongst the following is not related to a CI

engine?
a) flywheel
b) fuel pump
c) fuel injector
d) carburettor

163. The relation between the number of links (L) and

number of pairs (P) is
a) L = 2P – 3
b) L = 2P – 2
c) L = 2P – 4
d) L = 3 - 2P

164. A current meter is a device for measuring

a) viscosity
b) velocity
c) current
d) pressure

165. Density of water is maximum at

a) 277 K
b) 00 C
c) 00 K
d) 1000 C

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 166. An isothermal process is one in which
a) the pressure of the gas in the system is proportional
to the volume of the system
b) the internal energy of the system under
consideration decreases during the change
c) the heat transfer of the system under consideration
is zero
d) the temperature of the system under consideration
remains constant during the change

167. In IC engine, removing the burnt gases from

combustion chamber of engine cylinder, is known as
a) polymerisation
b) scavenging
c) supercharging
d) detonation

168. Two equal forces equal to P inclined at θ will

have their resultant with the angle with one of the
forces as
a) 2P cos θ/2 and θ/2
b) P cos θ/2 and 2θ
c) P cos θ and θ
d) P cos θ/2 and θ/2

169. The centre of gravity of a quadrant of a circle of

radius R lies along its central radius at an approximate
distance of
a) 0.3 R

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 b) 0.44 R
c) 0.6 R
d) 0.5 R

170. A body of weight 120N rests on a rough

horizontal plane. The coefficient of friction between
the body and the plane is 0.3. The frictional force to be
overcome for impending motion will be
a) 30 N
b) 300 N
c) 400 N
d) 36 N

171. The buckling load for a column pinned at both

ends is 10 kN. If the ends are fixed, the buckling load
changes to
a) 40 kN
b) 2.5 kN
c) 5 kN
d) 20 kN

172. A block of mass M is moving down an inclined

plane having coefficient of friction equal to 1/3 tan θ
where θ is the angle of inclination of the plane with
the horizontal. The centre of mass of the block will
have uniform acceleration equal to
a) 2/3 gcos θ
b) 2/3 gsin θ
c) gsin θ
d) gcos θ

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 173. A pendulum has a length l. Its bob is pulled aside
from its equilibrium position through an angle α and
then released. The speed of the bob when it passes
through the equilibrium position is given by
a) √ (2gl)
b) √ (2gl cosα)
c) √ [2gl(1 – cosα)]
d) √ [2gl(1 – sinα)]

174. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc

of mass M and radius R about any of its diameter is ¼
M R2. What is the moment of inertia of the disc about
an axis passing through its centre and normal to the
disc?
a) MR2
b) ½ MR2
c) 3/2 MR2
d) 2 MR2

175. A tube of length L is filled completely with an

incompressible liquid of mass m and closed at both the
ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane
about one of its ends with angular velocity ω. The
force exerted by the liquid at the other end is
a) M ω2 L
b) M ω2 L / 4
c) M ω2 L / 2
d) M ω2 L / 16

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 176. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a
height of 6R above the surface of the earth, R being
radius of earth. What will be the time period of
another satellite at a height of 2.5 R from the surface
of the earth?
a) 6 / √2 hr
b) 6 √3 hr
c) 6 / √3 hr
d) 6 √2 hr

177. Two small and heavy spheres, each of mass M,

are placed at a distance r from each other on a
horizontal surface. The gravitational field intensity at
the mid-point of the line joining the centres of spheres
is
a) zero
b) infinitely large
c) infinitesimally small
d) GM2 / r2

178. When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with

a third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium with
each other. This statement is
a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b) First law of thermodynamics
c) Second law of thermodynamics
d) Not a law of thermodynamics

179. Second law of thermodynamics defines

a) enthalpy

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 b) heat
c) entropy
d) work

180. According to Kelvin Plank’s statement, a

perpetual motion machine
a) of first kind is impossible
b) of first kind is possible
c) of second kind is impossible
d) of second kind is possible

181. The sum of pressure volume product and internal

energy is known as
a) entropy
b) enthalpy
c) internal energy
d) energy

182. The net work done in a polytropic process is

given by

a)

b)

c)

d)

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 183. The condition for reversibility of a cycle is
a)

b)

c)

d)

184. For an ideal gas, the change in enthalpy, dh is

given by
a) CvdT
b) CpdT
c)

d)

185. If other factors are constant, with increase in the

temperature of sink, the efficiency of Carnot engine
a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) may increase or decrease

186. Cast Iron is

a) ductile
b) brittle
c) tough
d) malleable
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 187. The polytropic index n is given by

a)

b)

c)

d)

188. Cupola is used to manufacture

a) Pig iron
b) Cast iron
c) Mild steel
d) Aluminium

189. 18 – 4 – 1 HSS is having 18 %

a) vanadium
b) chromium
c) tungsten
d) carbon

190. α – iron space lattice is

a) BCC
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 b) HCP
c) FCC
d) either BCC or FCC

191. The moment diagram for a cantilever beam

subjected to bending moment at end of beam will be
a) rectangle
b) parabola
c) triangle
d) trapezium

192. In a cantilever beam fixed at one end and free at

other end, if the same load is distributed throughout
instead of being concentrated at the end, then
deflection at free end will reduce to
a) ½ times
b) 2/3 times
c) 3/8 times
d) 5/8 times

193. Stress – strain relation of Newtonian fluid is

a) linear
b) parabolic
c) hyperbolic
d) cubic

194. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh

2.2 kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is
a) 1
b) 5

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 c) 7
d) 6

195. The loss of head due to sudden enlargement is

attributed to
a) viscosity of fluid
b) roughness of pipe
c) generation of heat
d) production and dissipation of turbulent energy

196. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its

metacentre should be
a) below the centre of gravity
b) below the centre of buoyancy
c) above the centre of buoyancy
d) above the centre of gravity

197. A ship whose full length is 100 m is to travel at

10 m/s. For dynamic similarity, at what velocity
should a 1 : 25 model be towed through water?
a) 10 m/s
b) 25 m/s
c) 2 m/s
d) 50 m/s

198. If ‘f’ is the Fanning friction factor, loss of head

due to friction in the pipe is KfLU2 / gD, where K is
equal to
a) 4
b) 1
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 c) 2
d) 1/4

199. Pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the

free surface of a body of water will be equal to
a) 98.1 Pa
b) 9810 Pa
c) 981 Pa
d) 98100 Pa

200. An imaginary line drawn through a flow field

such that the tangent at any point gives the velocity
vector at an instant, is known as
a) path line
b) streak line
c) stream line
d) stream tube

201. When a shaft is subjected to combined twisting

moment (T) and bending moment (M), the equivalent
bending moment is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d) [ M+ ]

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 202. Critical damping is a function of
a) mass and stiffness
b) mass and damping coefficient
c) stiffness and natural frequency
d) natural frequency and damping coefficient

203. For a overdamped system, damping factor will be

a) τ > 1
b) τ < 1
c) τ = 1
d) τ ≤ 1

204. The equation of motion for a damped viscous

vibration is 3 ẍ + 9 ẋ + 27x = 0. The damping factor
will be
a) 0.25
b) 0.50
c) 0.75
d) 1.00

205. A mass of 1 kg is attached to the end of a spring

with stiffness 0.7 N/mm. The critical damping
coefficient of this system will be
a) 1.40 Ns/m
b) 18.522 Ns/m
c) 52.92 Ns/m
d) 529.2 Ns/m
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 206. Knocking in a spark ignition engine is
a) promoted by a short flame travel length
b) normally at the beginning of the combustion
process
c) desirable for improving thermal efficiency
d) promoted by reduced turbulence of the fuel-air
mixture during combustion

207. A four stroke diesel engine does not have

a) cooling system
b) ignition coil
c) cam shaft
d) piston ring

208. Ignition coil in an auto-mobile acts as a

a) rectifier
b) switch
c) step-up transformer
d) dc to ac converter

209. In lathe, spindle speed will be minimum in

a) plain turning
b) taper turning
c) thread cutting
d) finishing

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 210. Operation of bevelling the extreme end of a work
piece is known as
a) chamfering
b) facing
c) grooving
d) knurling

211. The operation of producing large holes by

removing metal along the circumference of a hole is
known as
a) spot facing
b) counter sinking
c) lapping
d) trepanning

212. The process enlarging the already drilled hole is

known as
a) boring
b) drilling
c) reaming
d) swaging

213. The cutting force is maximum when the tooth

begins its cut and reduces to minimum when the tooth
leaves the work in
a) up milling
b) down milling
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 c) end milling
d) face milling

214. Broaching process, in which the work moves past

the stationary tool is known, as
a) push broaching
b) pull broaching
c) surface broaching
d) continuous broaching

215. The metal is removed by using abrasive slurry

between the tool and the work in the process known as
a) USM
b) ECM
c) EDM
d) PAM

216. A combination of individual machine tools

arranged sequentially and properly integrated and
interlocked is known as
a) production line
b) NC machine
c) machining centre
d) transfer machine

217. Acme threads are generally used in

a) railway carriage coupling
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 b) spindles of bench vices
c) screw cutting lathes
d) feed mechanism of machine tools

218. The angle of Vee belt is

a) 300
b) 350
c) 400
d) 450

219. A slider crank chain is a four bar linkage

consisting of
a) one sliding pair and two turning pairs
b) one sliding pair and three turning pairs
c) two sliding pairs and two rotating pairs
d) two sliding pairs and two turning pairs

220. If two shafts of the same length, one of which is

hollow, transmit equal torques and have equal
maximum stress, then they should have equal
a) polar moment of inertia
b) polar modulus of section
c) diameter
d) angle of twist

221. A circular shaft can transmit a torque of 13 kN-

m. If the torque is reduced to 12 kN-m, then the
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 maximum value of bending moment that can be
applied to the shaft is
a) 1 kN-m
b) 3 kN-m
c) 5 kN-m
d) 7 kN-m

222. A point on a link connecting double slider crank

traces a / an
a) straight line path
b) circular path
c) parabolic path
d) elliptical path

223. In a kinematic chain, the minimum number of

kinematic pairs required is
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four

224. The power transmitted by a circular shaft rotating

at N rpm under section of torque T (in HP) is
a) 2πNT / 750
b) 2πNT / 60
c) 2πNT / 450
d) 2πNT / 4500
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 225. Metal patterns are used for
a) small castings
b) large castings
c) precise and intricate castings
d) large scale production of castings

226. Joule-Kelvin co-efficient is denoted by

a)

b)

c)

d)

227. Triple point of a pure substance on P-V diagram

is represented by a
a) triangle
b) curve
c) line
d) point

228. The cam shaft of a 4-stroke IC engine running at

1500 rpm will run at
a) 750 rpm
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 b) 1000 rpm
c) 1500 rpm
d) 3000 rpm

229. For maximum power generation, the air-fuel ratio

for a petrol engine of vehicles is of the order of
a) 8 : 1
b) 10 : 1
c) 12 : 1
d) 15 : 1

230. Hydraulic grade line is

a) the velocity head below the energy grade line
b) always above the energy grade line
c) always moving up
d) always moving down

231. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery

valve should be
a) partly open
b) fully closed
c) either open or closed
d) fully open

232. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine

corresponds to the condition of

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 a) runner revolving freely without load and with the
gates wide open
b) speed obtained when load is suddenly disconnected
c) speed attained with failure of governor
d) critical speed

233. The velocity of the satellite in an orbit close to

earth surface depends on
a) product of radius and gravitational constant
b) product of radius and acceleration due to gravity
c) radius of orbit only
d) acceleration due to gravity only

234. The volumetric strain in case of cylindrical shell

of diameter d and thickness t, subjected to internal
pressure p, is equal to
a) µ)

b) µ)

c) µ)

d) µ)

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 where E = coefficient of elasticity
µ = Poisson’s ratio

235. The magnitude of Corioli’s component of

acceleration of a slider moving at velocity ‘ v’ on a
link rotating at angular speed ‘ ω’ is
a) 2v / ω
b) v ω / 2
c) v ω
d) 2 v ω

236. The number of degrees of freedom in a

continuous system would be
a) zero
b) one
c) two
d) dependent upon the geometry of the system

237. A shaft carrying two rotors at ends will have

following number of nodes
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0

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 238. In vibration isolation systems, transmissibility is
unity for all values of damping factor if ω/ ωn is equal
to
a) 1
b) √2
c) less than √2
d) greater than √2

239. Monel metal contains

a) 63 – 67 % nickel and 30 % copper
b) 88% copper, 10% tin and rest zinc
c) alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
d) none of the above

240. Duralumin contains

a) 94% Al and 6% Sn
b) 92.5% Al, 40% Cu, 2% Ni and 1.5% Mg
c) 10% Al and 90% Cu
d) 94% Al, 4% Cu and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe

241. Cementite in the form of lamellar pearlite appears

as follows under the microscope
a) dark
b) light
c) white
d) finger print

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 242. Stellite is a non-ferrous cast alloy composed of
a) molybdenum, vanadium and cobalt
b) tungsten, molybdenum and cobalt
c) tungsten, chromium and vanadium
d) cobalt, chromium and tungsten

243. The purpose of chaplets is

a) to support the cores
b) to provide efficient venting
c) just like chills to ensure directional solidification
d) compress moulding sand

244. in piercing operation, clearance is provided on

a) punch
b) die
c) either punch or die
d) half on punch and half on die

245. Negative rakes are used for

a) heavy loads
b) harder materials
c) carbide tools
d) all of the above

246. The process of improving the cutting action of

the grinding wheel is called
a) facing
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 b) truing
c) dressing
d) all of the above

247. Draft allowance in a pattern depends upon

a) type of pattern
b) type of metal to be mould
c) length of vertical side of pattern
d) none of the above

248. Select which one is not a machine tool

a) grinding machine
b) lathe machine
c) milling machine
d) welding machine

249. High speed oil engines operate on

a) Otto cycle
b) Dual cycle
c) Diesel cycle
d) Brayton cycle

250. The section modulus of a rectangular beam of

width b and depth d is
a) bd3 / 12
b) bd2 / 6
c) bd2 / 4
d) bd2 / 3

251. CPM stands for

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 a) Critical Path Method
b) Critical Process Method
c) Combined Path Method
d) Combined Process Method

252. PERT stands for

a) Program Estimation and Reporting Technique
b) Process Estimation and Review Technique
c) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
d) Planning Estimation and Resulting Technique

253. Product layout is used for

a) mass production
b) batch production
c) job production
d) none of the above

254. Surface grinding is done to produce

a) tapered surface
b) internal cylindrical hole
c) flat surface
d) all of the above

255. Any number of equal divisions can be obtained

on milling machine by
a) simple indexing
b) differential indexing
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 c) compound indexing
d) none of the above

256. In a plain milling machine, the table can be

moved
a) longitudinally
b) crosswise
c) vertically
d) all of the above

257. The process extensively used for making bolts &

nuts is
a) Extrusion
b) Hot Piercing
c) Cold Heading
d) Cold Peening

258. The surface to be machined is marked on the

pattern by
a) red colour
b) yellow colour
c) blue colour
d) black colour

259.The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer

when its bulb is surrounded by a wet cotton exposed to
air, is called
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 a) dry bulb temperature
b) wet bulb temperature
c) dew point temperature
d) absolute temperature

260. The maximum efficiency of a lifting machine is

given by
a) 1/m
b) 1/v
c) 1/mv
d) none of the above

(where m = coefficient of friction

v = velocity ratio )

261. According to IBR, the thickness of boiler shell

should not be less than
a) 3 mm
b) 5 mm
c) 6 mm
d) 7 mm

262. The lead of a screw thread can be calculated by

the formula
a) 2 x pitch
b) pitch x no. of start
c) depth x no. of start
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 d) pitch x depth of thread

263. Mould which are completely dried by heating is

called
a) green sand mould
b) machine mould
c) loam sand mould
d) dry sand mould

264. The process for making of cup-shaped parts from

flat sheet blanks is known as
a) rolling
b) extrusion
c) drawing
d) forging

265. The power transmitted through a pipe is

maximum when loss of head due to friction (H) is
given by
a) H/3
b) H/4
c) H/2
d) 2H/3

266. Which one of the following is not a part of lathe?

a) head stock
b) tail stock
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 c) carriage
d) clapper box

267. Which of the following is required for specifying

a grinding wheel?
a) grain size
b) type of bond
c) grain structure
d) all of the above

268. Which one of the following is essential for

accurate thread cutting on a lathe?
a) lathe bed
b) lead screw
c) feed rod
d) follower rest

269. A beam fixed at both ends with a central load in

the middle will have zero bending moment at
a) one place
b) two places
c) three places
d) four places

270. Maintenance of submersible pump is

a) easy
b) easy but expensive
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 c) tedious
d) tedious and expensive

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 Model Question - Answer Sheet

1.c 2.d 3.a 4.a 5.d 6.a

7.a 8.c 9.d 10.b 11.c 12.b

13.c 14.a 15.a 16.b 17.c 18.a

19.b 20.a 21.c 22.a 23.a 24.d

25.b 26.c 27.b 28.d 29.a 30.b

31.b 32.c 33.c 34.b 35.b 36.d

37.d 38.c 39.a 40.d 41.a 42.a

43.b 44.c 45.d 46.c 47.c 48.c

49.a 50.c 51.a 52.a 53.b 54.b

55.c 56.b 57.a 58.a 59.a 60.d

61.b 62.a 63.a 64.c 65.b 66.a

67.b 68.d 69.a 70.d 71.a 72.d

73.d 74.b 75.b 76.d 77.a 78.c

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 79.b 80.a 81.a 82.a 83.c 84.b

85.d 86.c 87.c 88.d 89.c 90.c

91.b 92.c 93.c 94.d 95.b 96.c

97.a 98.c 99.b 100.c 101.c 102.d

103.b 104.c 105.b 106.a 107.a 108.a

109.c 110.b 111.c 112.b 113.b 114.b

115.a 116.d 117.d 118.a 119.b 120.c

121.c 122.c 123.b 124.c 125.d 126.d

127.b 128.d 129.d 130.c 131.a 132.a

133.d 134.c 135.a 136.d 137.d 138.d

139.c 140.c 141.a 142.a 143.d 144.c

145.d 146.c 147.b 148.c 149.a 150.a

151.d 152.c 153.d 154.c 155.b 156.c

157.a 158.d 159.c 160.d 161.d 162.d

163.c 164.b 165.a 166.d 167.b 168.a

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 169.b 170.d 171.a 172.b 173.c 174.b

175.c 176.d 177.d 178.a 179.c 180.c

181.b 182.a 183.a 184.b 185.c 186.b

187.a 188.b 189.c 190.a 191.a 192.c

193.a 194.d 195.d 196.d 197.c 198.c

199.b 200.c 201.d 202.a 203.a 204.b

205.c 206.d 207.b 208.c 209.c 210.a

211.d 212.a 213.b 214.d 215.a 216.d

217.c 218.c 219.b 220.b 221.c 222.d

223.d 224.d 225.d 226.a 227.c 228.a

229.c 230.a 231.d 232.a 233.b 234.d

235.d 236.b 237.a 238.b 239.a 240.d

241.a 242.d 243.a 244.b 245.d 246.c

247.c 248.d 249.b 250.b 251.a 252.c

253.a 254.c 255.a 256.d 257.c 258.a

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 259.b 260.c 261.d 262.b 263.d 264.c

265.a 266.d 267.d 268.b 269.b 270.d

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