General Instructions :
carefiully and follow then :
Read the following instructions
This guestion paper contains 35 questions. AlU questions are compulsory
(i)
Ouostion naper is divided nto five sections - Sections A, B, C, D and E
(iü)
SootionA - questions number I to 16 are multiple choice type questions. Eoch
(çi)
question carries I mark.
(iv)
Sooion B-guestions number 17 to ZI are very short answer type questions.
marks.
Each question carries 2
(u) Section C-questions number 22 to 28 are short answer type questions. Each
question carries 3 marks.
Gog) Section D - questions number 29 and 30 are case-based questions. ach
question carries 4 marks. Each questlon has subparts with internal choice in
one of the subparts.
(pi) Section E - questions number 31 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks.
(p:) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
Sections B, D and E of the question paper. A candidate has to write answer for
only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(ix) Kindly note that there is a separate question paper for Visually Impaired
candidates.
(x) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.
SECTION A
Questions no. Ito I6 are Multiple Choice Type Questions, carrying 1mark
each. Ch00se the best option. 16x1=16
1. The process of splicing in eukaryotes represents the dominance of the:
(A) DNAworld
(B) RNA world
(C) Protein world
(D) Lipid world
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Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred
to as:
c2.
Inducible regulation (B) Repressible regulation
(A)
(C) Negative regulation (D) Positive regulation
refers to :
3. SNPs in Human Genome Project
(A) Polymorphism in repetitive sequences.
Single-base DNA differences.
(B)
(C) Single changes in nucleotide of mRNA,
(D) Loss or gain of a gene function.
If a natural population with 50 individuals is in Hardy-Weinberg
eguilibrium for a gene with twoalleles A and a, with the gene frequency
of allele Aof 0-6, the genotype frequency of Aa willbe:
(A) 0-16 (B) 0-36
(C) 0:24 (D) O"48
5. Given below are a few statements with respect to spermatogenesis in a
human male.
Sperms are released from the seminiferous tubules by the process
of spermiation.
(ii) Spermiogenesis involves the maturation of spermatids into sperms.
(iii) Spermatogonia produce spermatids by the process of
spermiogenesis.
(iv) Meiosis II in secondary spermatocytes results in the formation of
four equal haploid spermatids.
(v) Primary spermatocyte completes the first meiotic division forming
two equal, diploid cells called secondary spermatocytes.
Choose the option with all true statements from the given options :
(A) (i),(ii) and (iv) (B) (ii), (iii)and (v)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (v) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
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6, Study the pedigree chart ofa family sharing the inheritance of sickle cell
anemia.
The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is :
(A) Dominant X-linked (B) Autosomal dominant
(C) Recessive X-linked (D) Autosomal recessive
7. Select the statements that are true for the seed of angiosperm from the
given options :
(i) Non-albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm.
(ii) Residual, persistent nucellus in wheat is known as perisperm.
(iii) Integumentsof ovules harden as tough protective seed coat.
(iv) Metabolic activity of the embryo slows down in dormancy.
Choose the correct option:
(A) (i)and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
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Which of the following do not follow the law of independent assortm ont 9
8.
(A) Geneson non-homologous chromosomes and absence of linkage
chromosomes
(B) Two or more genes on homologous
(C) Linked genes located on the same chromosomes
Two or more distant genes present on the same chromosomo
(D)
9. Acharacteristic property that distipguishes a malignant tumor from a
benign tumor is:
(A) Metamorphosis
(B) Metastasis
(C) Metabolism
(D) Metagenesis
YO. The cloning site present in the tetracycline resistance gene of E. coli
cloning vector pBR322 is :
(A) EcoR I (B) Pvu II
(C) Sal I (D) Pst I
1k Bottled fruit juices are clearer as compared to those made at home, as
they are clarified by the use of:
(A) Lipases and pectinases
(B) Pectinases and proteases
(C) Proteases and cellulases
(D) Nucleases and lipases
12,
In his observations of smallblack birds in the Galapagos Islands,Darwin
found that all the finches arose from the original ancestor :
(A) Insect-eating finches
(B) Seed-eating finches
(C) Cactus-eating finches
(D) Fruit-eating finches
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For Questions number 13 to 16, two statements are given - one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to
these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.
A Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R)is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
13. Assertion (A): In dihybrid crosses involving sex-linked genes in
Drosophilageneration of non-parental gene combinations
are observed.
Reason (R): Two genes present on different chromosomes show linkage
and recombination in Drosophila.
Assertion (A): Male contraceptive Nirodh works on the principle of
avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting.
Reason (R): It is made of thin rubber/latex sheath and is used to cover
the penis before coitus.
15. Assertion (A): Isolated single cells can be fused to produce somatic
hybrids.
Reason (R): Cells selected for somatic hybridisation have desirable
characters.
16. Assertion (A): In humans, filariasis is characteried by inflammation in
the lower limbs.
Reason (R): Filarial worm usually lives in the lymphatic vessels of the
lower limbs.
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SECTION B
17. (a) How is the interaction between Ophrys and its specific bee
pollinator one of the best examples of co-evolution ? Explain. 2
OR
(b) Arrange the given important steps of decomposition in their correct
order of occurrence in the byealkdown of complex organic matter
and explain the fourth step in the process. 2
Catabolism Leaching
Fragmentation Mineralisation)
Humification
18. The basic scheme of the essential steps involved in the process of
recombinant DNA technology is summarised below in the form of a flow
diagram. Study the given flow diagram and answer the questions that
follow.
Step 1 Vector DNA(Plasmid) + Alien DNA
(cut using Restriction Enzyme) (cut using Restriction Enzyme)
Step 2 Recombinant DNA molecule
Step 3 Transfer of recombinant DNA molecule in E. coli (Host)
Step4 Replication of the recombinant DNA molecule in E, coli to form
multiple copies of the alien gene
(a) What is the technical term used for Step 4 in the above process ?
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Atettttehth
(b) Walcn of the given two combinations of restriction enzyme shoula
be used in Step1?
Justify your answer.
EcoR Ito cut the plasmid and Hind III to cut the alien DNA.
(ii) EcoR Ito cut both the plasmid and alien DNA. 2
19. (a} () Explain why the milk produced by the mother during the
initial days of lactation is considered to be very essential for
the newborn infant.
(ä) What is the term used for the milk produced during the
initial days of lactation ? 2
OR
(b) Many children in the metro cities are suffering from a very
common exaggerated response of the/immune system to certain
weak antigens in air.
(1) What is the term used for the above mentioned disease ?
(iü) Name the main type of antibody produced by the immune
system in response to thisdisease.
(iii) Which two maiD inflammation-causing chemicals are
Droduced by the mast cells in such an immune response? 2
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20. Study the given molecular structure of double-stranded polynucleotide
chain of DNA and answer the guestions that follow.
H
H
H
T
H
HI-0I -OH 3'
T G
I-0
HO H H
P
3 H
H
H
(P) 5
(a) How many phosphodiester bonds are present in the given
double-stranded polynucleotide chain?
How many base pairs are there in each helical turn of double helix
structure of DNA ? Also write the distance between a base pair in a
helix.
c) In addition to H-bonds, what confers additional stability to the
helical structure of DNA? 2
21. (a) Why are restrictions imposed on MTP in India ? Up to how many
weeks or trimesters, is MTP considered relatively safe for a
female, if necessary to perform, by a medical practitioner ?
OR
tb Expand PID. Name any two common viral infections transmitted
through sexual contact in human females. 2
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SECTION C
22 Flowering plants with hemanhwodito fouers have developed many
reproductive strategies to ensure cross-nollination. Study e 8
outbreeding devices adopted by certain fowering plants and answer tne
questions that follow,.
Pollen Pollen grains
grains Pollen grains Pollen grains of Plant C
of Plant A of Plant B
Stigma
Stigma of Plant A
Stigma of Plant B X
X
Stigma of Plant C
Note:
All plants belong to the same species.
X - No pollen tube growthlinhibition of pollen germination on
stigma.
-Pollen germination on stigma.
above
(a) Name and define the outbreeding device described in the
table.
(b) Explain what would have been the disadvantage to the plant in the
absence of the given strategy. 3
(a)
Alien species are highly invasive and are a threat to indigenous
species. Substantiate this statement with the help of any two
examples.
State any twocriteria for determining biodiversity hotspots.
3
(b)
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24. Answer the following
questions with respect to the sex determining
mechanism observed in honey
bee.
(a) Name the type of
sex determination system observed in honey bee.
(b) Fill in the blanks
(i), (ii) and (iii) in the given question.
Parent Male
Type of cell division involved (i)
during
gamete formation in males
Number of chromosomes in the gametes1) 22
Number of chromosomes in the diploid (iii)
cell of the progeny
What wll be the sex and chromosome number of the progeny
formed from the unfertilised eggs of honey bee ?
25 Explain how the addition of lactose in the medium regulates the
switching on of the lac operon in bacteria.
(a) Name and explain the role of inner and middle walls of the human
female uterus.
b) Write the location and function of fimbriae in human female. 3
27. ká) What do you mean by activated sludge in an STP ?
Explain the biological treatment of the major part of the sludge
transferred from the large aeration tank intothe anaerobic sludge
digesters before its final release into the natural water bodies. 3
28. Explain the beneficial role of the following, produced as a result of the
processes of biotechnology, tomankind : 3
Cow named Rosie
a-1-antitrypsin
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3
SECTIOND
Questions NO. Z9 and 30 are
sub-questions with internal choice incase-based
one
guegtions. Each question n0S
sub-question.
29. Read the following passageand answer the 4
questions that follow.
According to evolutionary theory, every evolutionary change
substitution of a new gene Tor the old one and the new invoves
allele arises from
the old one. Corntinuous accumulation of changes in the DNA coding for
proteins leads tO evolutionary differences, The chemical composition or
DNA is basically the same in all living beings, except for differences in the
sequence of nitrogenous bases, Given below are percentage relative
similarities between human DNA and DNA of other vertebrates :
S.No. Vertebrates Percentage similarities
1. Chimpanzee 100
2. Gibbon 94
3. Rhesus Monkey 88
4. Lemur 47
5. Treeshrew 28
6. Mouse 21
7. Hedgehog 19
Chicken 10
(a) What is the term used for the substitution of a new gene for the old
one and the new allele arising from the old one during evolutionary
process ?
(b) Which one of the following holds true for the data provided in the
above table ?
(A) Greater the evolutionary distance, greater are the differences
in the nitrogenous bases.
(B) Lesser the evolutionary distance, greater are the diferences
in the nitrogenous bases.
(C) Greater the evolutionary distance, lesser are the differences
in the nitrogenous bases.
(D) Lesser the evolutionary distance, lesser are the differencesin
the nitrogenous bases.
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(i) To which
category of evolution (divergent or convergent)
the tollowing does
relationship belong to ? Justify your
Human and Rhesus answer.
Monkey 2
OR
(c) (ii) Differentiate between Convergent and Divergent evolution. 2
30. Read the following passage and
answer the guestions that follow. 4
Prevention is the frontline response to drug use.
address the underlying conditions Effective interventions
lack of connection to family or contributing to drug use sun a8 a
community, instability, insecuriy,
trauma, mental health issues, ete. When addressed, these factors can
effectively prevent the initiation of drug use and the progression
use disorders. Study the few key figures of drug use given to drug
answer the questions that follow. below and
People with drug use disorders, 2022 (in millions)
People who use drugs 2022
292 20% 3%
million people over 10years (over 5 years
2018 2022)
1in 11 1 in 18 13-9 million people
in treatment (among women who inject drugs
in treatment) 1-6 million
1 in 7 living with HIV
(among men 14 million living with
(p) in treatment) HIV &Hepatitis C
(q)
Table No. 1 Table No. 2
(a) What do you infer from the figures in Table No. 1 about the people
with drug use disorders, 2022 (in million) ? State any two of your
observations. 1
(b) How are Hepatitis C and HIV related to drug use disorders by
people, as shown in Table No. 2? State the correlation between the
two. 2
(1) Give the scientific name of (p) shown in Table No, 1.
OR
(ii) Give the scientific name of (q) shown in Table No. 1.
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SECTION E
31. ()
Explain how some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce
proteins that kill certain insects such as lepidopterans but do
not kill the Bacillus.
ii)
iow is the above mechanism exploited for the production of
Bt cotton plant by biotechnologists ? 5
OR
(b) (i) Explainhow the amplification of gene of interest is done
using PCR.
(ii)
State two applications of the desired amplified fragment of
DNA. 5
32. (a) (i) Explain the structure of a mature embryo sac of a typical
flowering plant.
(ii) How is triple fusion achieved in these plants ? 5
OR
(b) Describe the changes in the ovary and the uterus as induced by the
changes in the level of pituitary and ovarian hormones during
menstrual cycle in a human female. 5
33. (a) (i) Describe the Species-Area relationship as observed by
Alexander von Humboldt., for awide variety of taxa in nature.
(iü) Draw the graph showing Species-Area relationship for
S= CA, What is the ignificance of Z in Species-Area
relationship ? 5
OR
(1) Describe the logistic population growth curve with the help of
a suitable graphical representation.
(ii) Write the equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth curve
and explain what "K and 'r suggest in the given equation. 5
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