Software Engineering Tests

Here I am going to discuss the most commonly asked multiple-

choice questions related to Software Engineering.

The primary purpose of writing this is to target competitive

exams. Here, we will cover all the frequently asked Software
Engineering questions

1) What is the first step in the software development lifecycle?

a. System Design
b. Coding
c. System Testing
d. Preliminary Investigation and Analysis

2) What does the study of an existing system refer to?

a. Details of DFD
b. Feasibility Study
c. System Analysis
d. System Planning

3) Which of the following is involved in the system planning and

designing phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

a. Sizing
b. Parallel run
c. Specification freeze
d. All of the above

4) What does RAD stand for?

a. Rapid Application Document

b. Rapid Application Development
c. Relative Application Development
d. None of the above
5) Which of the following prototypes does not associated with
Prototyping Model?

a. Domain Prototype
b. Vertical Prototype
c. Horizontal Prototype
d. Diagonal Prototype

6) The major drawback of RAD model is __________.

a. It requires highly skilled developers/designers.

b. It necessitates customer feedbacks.
c. It increases the component reusability.
d. Both (a) & (c)

7) Which of the following does not relate to Evolutionary Process

Model?

a. Incremental Model
b. Concurrent Development Model
c. WINWIN Spiral Model
d. All of the above

8) What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?

a. Higher amount of risk analysis

b. Doesn't work well for smaller projects
c. Additional functionalities are added later on
d. Strong approval and documentation control

9) Model selection is based on __________.

a. Requirements
b. Development team & users
c. Project type & associated risk
d. All of the above
10) Which of the following option is correct?

a. The prototyping model facilitates the reusability of

components.
b. RAD Model facilitates reusability of components
c. Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of
components
d. None

11) Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining

requirements at the earliest in the lifecycle?

a. RAD & Waterfall

b. Prototyping & Waterfall
c. Spiral & Prototyping
d. Spiral & RAD

12) When the user participation isn't involved, which of the following
models will not result in the desired output?

a. Prototyping & Waterfall

b. Prototyping & RAD
c. Prototyping & Spiral
d. RAD & Spiral

13) Which of the following model will be preferred by a company

that is planning to deploy an advanced version of the existing
software in the market?

a. Spiral
b. Iterative Enhancement
c. RAD
d. Both (b) and (c)

14) Arrange the following activities for making a software product

by utilizing 4GT.
I. Design strategy

II. Transformation into product

III. Implementation

IV. Requirement gathering

a. 4, 1, 3, 2
b. 4, 3, 2, 1
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 4, 2, 3

15) Which of the following is an example of Black Box and Functional

Processing?

a. First Generation Language

b. Second Generation Language
c. Third Generation Language
d. Fourth Generation Language

16) __________ is identified as fourth generation language.

a. Unix shell
b. C++
c. COBOL
d. FORTRAN

17) The productivity of a software engineer can be reduced by using

a 4GT.

a. True
b. False

18) Which of the following is the main advantage of deploying a 4GT

model for producing small-scale products, programs, and
applications?
 a. The productivity of software engineers is improved.
b. The time required for developing software is reduced.
c. CASE tools and code generators help the 4GT model by
providing a credible solution to their problems.
d. None of the above.

19) Which of the following model has a major downfall to a software

development life cycle in terms of the coding phase?

a. 4GT Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. RAD Model
d. Spiral Model

20) Which of the following falls under the category of software

products?

a. Firmware, CAD
b. Embedded, CAM
c. Customized, Generic
d. CAD, Embedded

21) Software maintenance costs are expensive in contrast to

software development.

a. True
b. False

22) Which of the following activities of the generic process

framework delivers a feedback report?

a. Deployment
b. Planning
 c. Modeling
d. Construction

23) Which of the following refers to internal software equality?

a. Scalability
b. Reusability
c. Reliability
d. Usability

24) RUP is abbreviated as __________, invented by a division of

__________.

a. Rational Unified Process, IBM

b. Rational Unified Program, IBM
c. Rational Unified Process, Infosys
d. Rational Unified Program, Infosys

25) The RUP can be defined based on three main perspectives, i.e.,
static, dynamic & practice. What is the purpose of static
perspective?

a. It recommends some good practices that be included while

carrying out the process.
b. It displays all the enacted process activities.
c. It portrays the phases that the model has entered over a
specific time.
d. All of the above.

26) Which one of the following activities is not recommended for

software processes in software engineering?

a. Software Evolution
 b. Software Verification
c. Software Testing & Validation
d. Software designing

27) Arrange the following activities to form a general software

engineering process model.

I. Manufacture

II. Maintain

III. Test

IV. Install

V. Design

VI. Specification

a. 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
b. 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5
c. 6, 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
d. 1, 6, 5, 2, 3, 4

28) The agile software development model is built based on

__________.

a. Linear Development
b. Incremental Development
c. Iterative Development
d. Both Incremental and Iterative Development

29) On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of

the software development process?

a. Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.

b. Based on the output, which is derived after negotiating in
the software development process.
 c. Based on the interleaved specification, design, testing, and
implementation activities.
d. All of the above

30) Which of the following activities is not applicable to agile

software development?

a. Producing only the essential work products.

b. Utilizing the strategy of incremental product delivery.
c. Abolishing the project planning and testing.
d. All of the above

31) Which of the following framework activities are carried out in

Adaptive Software Development (ASD)?

a. Assumption, Association, Learning

b. The investigation, Strategy, Coding
c. Requirements gathering, Adaptive cycle planning, Iterative
development
d. All of the above

32) The __________ model helps in representing the system's dynamic

behavior.

a. Object Model
b. Context Model
c. Behavioral Model
d. Data Model

33) Model-driven engineering is nothing but a theoretical concept. It

can never be transmuted into a working/executable code.

a. True
b. False
34) The __________ and __________ are the two major dimensions
encompassed in the Spiral model.

a. Diagonal, Perpendicular
b. Perpendicular, Radial
c. Angular, diagonal
d. Radial, Angular

35) Which of the following technique is involved in certifying the

sustained development of legacy systems?

a. Reengineering
b. Forward engineering
c. Reverse engineering
d. Reverse engineering and Reengineering

36) An erroneous system state that results in an unexpected system

behavior is acknowledged as?

a. System failure
b. Human error or mistake
c. System error
d. System fault

37) What is the name of the approach that follows step-by-step

instructions for solving a problem?

a. An Algorithm
b. A Plan
c. A List
d. Sequential Structure

38) Which of the following word correctly summarized the

importance of software design?
 a. Quality
b. Complexity
c. Efficiency
d. Accuracy

39) Which of the following methodology results in SA/SD features?

a. Gane and Sarson methodology

b. DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
c. Constantine and Yourdon methodology
d. All of the above

40) __________ is not considered as an activity of Structured Analysis

(SA).

a. Transformation of a textual problem description into a

graphic model
b. Functional decomposition
c. All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a
module structure
d. d) All of the mentioned

41) What does a directed arc or line signify?

a. Data Flow
b. Data Process
c. Data Stores
d. None of the above

42) What does a data store symbol in the Data Flow Diagram signify?

a. Logical File
 b. Physical File
c. Data Structure
d. All of the above

43) __________ is not a direct measure of SE process.

a. Effort
b. Cost
c. Efficiency
d. All of the above

44) What is the main task of project indicators?

a. To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible

risks.
b. To evaluate the ongoing project's status.
c. To track potential risks.
d. None of the above

45) What is the main intent of project metrics?

a. For strategic purposes

b. To minimize the development schedule.
c. To evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis
d. To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the
ongoing project's quality on a daily basis

46) Name the graphical practice that depicts the meaningful

changes that occurred in metrics data.

a. Function point analysis

b. Control Chart
c. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
 d. None of the above

47) Which parameters are essentially used while computing the

software development cost?

a. Hardware and Software Costs

b. Effort Costs
c. Travel and Training Costs
d. All of the above

48) Which of the following is an incorrect activity for the

configuration management of a software system?

a. Change management
b. System management
c. Internship management
d. Version management

49) The project planner examines the statement of scope and

extracts all-important software functions, which is known as

a. Planning process
b. Decomposition
c. Association
d. All of the mentioned

50) Which of the following Is not considered as an option for

achieving reliable cost and effort estimation?

a. The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort,

calendar time, and dollars
b. Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate
project cost and effort estimates.
c. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been
completed
 d. Use one or more empirical models for software cost and
effort estimation

51) Which of the following does not complement the decomposition

techniques but offers a potential estimation approach for their
impersonal growth?

a. Empirical estimation models

b. Decomposition techniques
c. Automated estimation tools
d. Both empirical estimation models and automated estimation
tools

52) Which of the following is not included in the total effort cost?

a. Costs of lunch time food

b. Costs of support staff
c. Costs of networking and communications
d. Costs of air conditioning and lighting in the office space

53) What is developed by utilizing the historical cost function?

a. Parkinson's Law
b. Expert judgment
c. Algorithmic cost modeling
d. Estimation by analogy

54) Which of the following model has a misconception that systems

are built by utilizing reusable components, scripts, and database
programs?

a. The reuse model

b. An early designed model
c. An application-composition model
d. A post architecture model
55) Which of the following is used to predict the effort as a function
of LOC or FP?

a. COCOMO
b. FP-based estimation
c. Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation
d. Process-based estimation

56) Once the requirements are stabilized, the basic architecture of

the software can be established. Which of the following version of
the COCOMO model conforms to the given statement?

a. Application composition model

b. Post-architecture-stage model
c. Early design stage model
d. All of the above

57) Which of the following threatens the quality and timeliness of

the produced software?

a. Business risks
b. Potential risks
c. Technical risks
d. Known risks

58) Which of the following refers to the systematic attempt, which is

implemented to ascertain the threats to any project plan?

a. Performance risk
b. Risk identification
c. Risk projection
d. Support risk

59) Which of the following standards is used by the aviation

industry?

a. CTRADO-172B
 b. RTCADO-178B
c. RTRADO-178B
d. CTCADO-178B

60) Third-Party Certification for software standards is based on

__________.

a. Ul 1996, Second Edition

b. Ul 1998, Second Edition
c. Ul 1992, Second Edition
d. UT 1998, Second Edition